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DUX4 and DUX4 downstream target genes are expressed in fetal FSHD muscles. Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD) is one of the most prevalent adult muscular dystrophies. The common clinical signs usually appear during the second decade of life but when the first molecular dysregulations occur is still unknown. Our aim was to determine whether molecular dysregulations can be identified during FSHD fetal muscle development. We compared muscle biopsies derived from FSHD1 fetuses and the cells derived from some of these biopsies with biopsies and cells derived from control fetuses. We mainly focus on DUX4 isoform expression because the expression of DUX4 has been confirmed in both FSHD cells and biopsies by several laboratories. We measured DUX4 isoform expression by using qRT-PCR in fetal FSHD1 myotubes treated or not with an shRNA directed against DUX4 mRNA. We also analyzed DUX4 downstream target gene expression in myotubes and fetal or adult FSHD1 and control quadriceps biopsies. We show that both DUX4-FL isoforms are already expressed in FSHD1 myotubes. Interestingly, DUX4-FL expression level is much lower in trapezius than in quadriceps myotubes, which is confirmed by the level of expression of DUX4 downstream genes. We observed that TRIM43 and MBD3L2 are already overexpressed in FSHD1 fetal quadriceps biopsies, at similar levels to those observed in adult FSHD1 quadriceps biopsies. These results indicate that molecular markers of the disease are already expressed during fetal life, thus opening a new field of investigation for mechanisms leading to FSHD.
Which disease is associated with the ectopic expression of the protein encoded by the gene DUX4?
550f0e4c6a8cde6b72000003_023
{ "answer_start": [ 115 ], "text": [ "FSHD" ] }
Nonsense mutations of the ZFHX1B gene in two Japanese girls with Mowat-Wilson syndrome. Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a multiple congenital anomaly-mental retardation complex caused by mutations in the Zinc Finger Homeobox 1 B gene (ZFHX1B). MWS has been reported in association with Hirschsprung disease (HSCR). MWS is sometimes difficult to diagnose clinically, especially when HSCR is absent. Thus, it is necessary to detect gene abnormalities at the molecular level. Here we report two Japanese girls with MWS, who showed a distinct facial phenotype, severe intellectual disability and epileptic seizures. Major congenital anomalies of the patients were very different. Patient 1 suffered from severe congenital heart disease, but did not show apparent HSCR. Patient 2 suffered from typical HSCR and underwent surgical treatment, but did not have congenital heart disease. According to the gene analysis using white blood cells, they had nonsense mutations in ZFHX1B, R695X and Q433X, respectively. In conclusion, molecular genetic analysis of ZFHX1B is important for a definite diagnosis of MWS which has a wide phenotypic spectrum of congenital anomalies.
Which gene is responsible for the development of the Mowat-Wilson syndrome?
5519113b622b19434500000f_012
{ "answer_start": [ 234 ], "text": [ "ZFHX1B" ] }
Pannexin2 oligomers localize in the membranes of endosomal vesicles in mammalian cells while Pannexin1 channels traffic to the plasma membrane. Pannexin2 (Panx2) is the largest of three members of the pannexin proteins. Pannexins are topologically related to connexins and innexins, but serve different functional roles than forming gap junctions. We previously showed that pannexins form oligomeric channels but unlike connexins and innexins, they form only single membrane channels. High levels of Panx2 mRNA and protein in the Central Nervous System (CNS) have been documented. Whereas Pannexin1 (Panx1) is fairly ubiquitous and Pannexin3 (Panx3) is found in skin and connective tissue, both are fully glycosylated, traffic to the plasma membrane and have functions correlated with extracellular ATP release. Here, we describe trafficking and subcellular localizations of exogenous Panx2 and Panx1 protein expression in MDCK, HeLa, and HEK 293T cells as well as endogenous Panx1 and Panx2 patterns in the CNS. Panx2 was found in intracellular localizations, was partially N-glycosylated, and localizations were non-overlapping with Panx1. Confocal images of hippocampal sections immunolabeled for the astrocytic protein GFAP, Panx1 and Panx2 demonstrated that the two isoforms, Panx1 and Panx2, localized at different subcellular compartments in both astrocytes and neurons. Using recombinant fusions of Panx2 with appended genetic tags developed for correlated light and electron microscopy and then expressed in different cell lines, we determined that Panx2 is localized in the membrane of intracellular vesicles and not in the endoplasmic reticulum as initially indicated by calnexin colocalization experiments. Dual immunofluorescence imaging with protein markers for specific vesicle compartments showed that Panx2 vesicles are early endosomal in origin. In electron tomographic volumes, cross-sections of these vesicles displayed fine structural details and close proximity to actin filaments. Thus, pannexins expressed at different subcellular compartments likely exert distinct functional roles, particularly in the nervous system.
Where is the protein Pannexin1 located?
56af9f130a360a5e45000015_001
{ "answer_start": [ 127 ], "text": [ "plasma membrane" ] }
Riociguat (adempas): a novel agent for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension and chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension. Riociguat (Adempas): a novel agent for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension and chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension.
What is generic name of drug Adempas?
54e1bdacae9738404b000009_001
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "Riociguat" ] }
Pre-specified subgroup analyses of a placebo-controlled phase III trial (TEMSO) of oral teriflunomide in relapsing multiple sclerosis. BACKGROUND: The Teriflunomide Multiple Sclerosis Oral (TEMSO) trial, a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled phase III study, demonstrated that teriflunomide significantly reduced annualized relapse rate (ARR), disease progression and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) activity, with a favorable safety profile in relapsing multiple sclerosis (RMS) patients. OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study was to report the effects of teriflunomide on ARR and disability progression in pre-specified subgroups. METHODS: RMS patients (n=1088) were randomized to placebo or teriflunomide, 7 mg or 14 mg, once daily, for 108 weeks. Subgroup analyses were performed for ARR and disability progression by baseline demographics (gender, race, age), disease characteristics (Expanded Disability Status Scale (EDSS) strata, relapse history, multiple sclerosis (MS) subtype), MRI parameters (gadolinium-enhancing lesions, total lesion volume) and prior use of MS drugs. A generalized estimating equation method and Cox regression model were used to assess consistency of the treatment effect across subgroups, utilizing a treatment-by-subgroup interaction test for each factor separately. RESULTS: Reductions in ARR and disability progression were consistent across subgroups in favor of teriflunomide, with no treatment-by-subgroup interaction test reaching statistical significance. CONCLUSION: The positive effects of teriflunomide were demonstrated consistently across subgroups in TEMSO.
Which drug was tested in the TEMSO Trial for multiple sclerosis?
589a246078275d0c4a00002a_033
{ "answer_start": [ 286 ], "text": [ "teriflunomide" ] }
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: electrocardiographic manifestations and other important considerations for the emergency physician. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is one of the most common inherited primary cardiac disorders and the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes. With advances in technology, it is now recognized that HCM affects individuals of all ages. Many patients with HCM will have a benign course with few symptoms. Some patients, however, possess risk factors that greatly increase the likelihood of sudden death if their disease remains undiagnosed. Therefore, it is imperative that emergency physicians be familiar with the symptoms and typical electrocardiogram manifestations of HCM. Three illustrative cases are presented with a review of the disease.
Which is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
530cf4e0c8a0b4a00c000006_008
{ "answer_start": [ 129 ], "text": [ "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy" ] }
c-Jun N-Terminal Kinase in Inflammation and Rheumatic Diseases. The c-Jun N-terminal kinases (JNKs) are members of the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) family and are activated by environmental stress. JNK is also activated by proinflammatory cytokines, such as TNF and IL-1, and Toll-like receptor ligands. This pathway, therefore, can act as a critical convergence point in immune system signaling for both adaptive and innate responses. Like other MAPKs, the JNKs are activated via the sequential activation of protein kinases that includes two dual-specificity MAP kinase kinases (MKK4 and MKK7) and multiple MAP kinase kinase kinases. MAPKs, including JNKs, can be deactivated by a specialized group of phosphatases, called MAP kinase phosphatases. JNK phosphorylates and regulates the activity of transcription factors other than c-Jun, including ATF2, Elk-1, p53 and c-Myc and non-transcription factors, such as members of the Bcl-2 family. The pathway plays a critical role in cell proliferation, apoptosis, angiogenesis and migration. In this review, an overview of the functions that are related to rheumatic diseases is presented. In addition, some diseases in which JNK participates will be highlighted.
Which MAP kinase phosphorylates the transcription factor c-jun?
5518e7da622b194345000004_018
{ "answer_start": [ 761 ], "text": [ "JNK" ] }
Targeting the gene in Friedreich ataxia. Pathological expansions of GAA repeats in the first intron of the frataxin gene cause most cases of Friedreich ataxia, a progressively debilitating neurodegenerative disease. The disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner and the GAA repeats are suspected to form unusual non B-DNA conformations that decrease transcription and subsequently reduce levels of the encoded protein, frataxin. Recent work has shown that GAA repeats induce heterochromatin formation and silencing of the frataxin gene locus. Frataxin plays a crucial role in iron metabolism and detoxification and interacts with electron transport chain proteins. Clinical trials are currently underway to examine the efficacy of antioxidants in the treatment of Friedreich ataxia, but therapeutics designed to increase frataxin message levels are still in the developmental stages. This review will focus on the progress of potential treatment strategies for Friedreich ataxia that target the GAA expanded gene and seek to increase the level of frataxin message and protein.
Which protein is found to be mutated in Friedreich's ataxia?
571f5c150fd6f91b68000009_013
{ "answer_start": [ 1059 ], "text": [ "frataxin" ] }
Impaired ribosome biogenesis in Diamond-Blackfan anemia. The gene encoding the ribosomal protein S19 (RPS19) is frequently mutated in Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA), a congenital erythroblastopenia. The consequence of these mutations on the onset of the disease remains obscure. Here, we show that RPS19 plays an essential role in biogenesis of the 40S small ribosomal subunit in human cells. Knockdown of RPS19 expression by siRNAs impairs 18S rRNA synthesis and formation of 40S subunits and induces apoptosis in HeLa cells. Pre-rRNA processing is altered, which leads to an arrest in the maturation of precursors to the 18S rRNA. Under these conditions, pre-40S particles are not exported to the cytoplasm and accumulate in the nucleoplasm of the cells in perinuclear dots. Consistently, we find that ribosome biogenesis and nucleolar organization is altered in skin fibroblasts from DBA patients bearing mutations in the RPS19 gene. In addition, maturation of the 18S rRNA is also perturbed in cells from a patient bearing no RPS19-related mutation. These results support the hypothesis that DBA is directly related to a defect in ribosome biogenesis and indicate that yet to be discovered DBA-related genes may be involved in the synthesis of the ribosomal subunits.
In which syndrome is the RPS19 gene most frequently mutated?
5a896c26fcd1d6a10c000007_023
{ "answer_start": [ 159 ], "text": [ "DBA" ] }
Rilotumumab plus epirubicin, cisplatin, and capecitabine as first-line therapy in advanced MET-positive gastric or gastro-oesophageal junction cancer (RILOMET-1): a randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled, phase 3 trial. BACKGROUND: Rilotumumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that selectively targets the ligand of the MET receptor, hepatocyte growth factor (HGF). We aimed to assess the efficacy, safety, and pharmacokinetics of rilotumumab combined with epirubicin, cisplatin, and capecitabine, and to assess potential biomarkers, in patients with advanced MET-positive gastric or gastro-oesophageal junction adenocarcinoma. METHODS: This multicentre, randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled, phase 3 study was done at 152 centres in 27 countries. We recruited adults (aged > 18 years) with unresectable locally advanced or metastatic gastric or gastro-oesophageal junction adenocarcinoma, an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1, MET-positive tumours ( > 25% of tumour cells with membrane staining of > 1+ staining intensity), and evaluable disease, who had not received previous systemic therapy. Eligible patients were randomly assigned (1:1) via a computerised voice response system to receive rilotumumab 15 mg/kg intravenously or placebo in combination with open-label chemotherapy (epirubicin 50 mg/m intravenously; cisplatin 60 mg/m intravenously; capecitabine 625 mg/m orally twice daily) in 21-day cycles for up to ten cycles. After completion of chemotherapy, patients continued to receive rilotumumab or placebo monotherapy until disease progression, intolerability, withdrawal of consent, or study termination. Randomisation was stratified by disease extent and ECOG performance status. Both patients and physicians were masked to study treatment assignment. The primary endpoint was overall survival, analysed by intention to treat. We report the final analysis. This study is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT01697072. FINDINGS: Between Nov 7, 2012, and Nov 21, 2014, 609 patients were randomly assigned to rilotumumab plus epirubicin, cisplatin, and capecitabine (rilotumumab group; n=304) or placebo plus epirubicin, cisplatin, and capecitabine (placebo group; n=305). Study treatment was stopped early after an independent data monitoring committee found a higher number of deaths in the rilotumumab group than in the placebo group; all patients in the rilotumumab group subsequently discontinued all study treatment. Median follow-up was 7·7 months (IQR 3·6-12·0) for patients in the rilotumumab group and 9·4 months (5·3-13·1) for patients in the placebo group. Median overall survival was 8·8 months (95% CI 7·7-10·2) in the rilotumumab group compared with 10·7 months (9·6-12·4) in the placebo group (stratified hazard ratio 1·34, 95% CI 1·10-1·63; p=0·003). The most common grade 3 or worse adverse events in the rilotumumab and placebo groups were neutropenia (86 [29%] of 298 patients vs 97 [32%] of 299 patients), anaemia (37 [12%] vs 43 [14%]), and fatigue (30 [10%] vs 35 [12%]). The frequency of serious adverse events was similar in the rilotumumab and placebo groups (142 [48%] vs 149 [50%]). More deaths due to adverse events occurred in the rilotumumab group than the placebo group (42 [14%] vs 31 [10%]). In the rilotumumab group, 33 (11%) of 298 patients had fatal adverse events due to disease progression, and nine (3%) had fatal events not due to disease progression. In the placebo group, 23 (8%) of 299 patients had fatal adverse events due to disease progression, and eight (3%) had fatal events not due to disease progression. INTERPRETATION: Ligand-blocking inhibition of the MET pathway with rilotumumab is not effective in improving clinical outcomes in patients with MET-positive gastric or gastro-oesophageal adenocarcinoma. FUNDING: Amgen.
What is inhibited by a drug rilotumumab?
5a7617b183b0d9ea66000022_004
{ "answer_start": [ 344 ], "text": [ "hepatocyte growth factor" ] }
The CLN3 gene is a novel molecular target for cancer drug discovery. Juvenile Batten disease is a neurodegenerative disease caused by accelerated apoptotic death of photoreceptors and neurons attributable to defects in the CLN3 gene. CLN3 is antiapoptotic when overexpressed in NT2 neuronal precursor cells. CLN3 negatively modulates endogenous ceramide levels in NT2 cells and acts upstream of ceramide generation. Because defects in regulation of apoptosis are involved in the development of cancer, we evaluated the expression of CLN3 on both mRNA and protein levels in a variety of cancer cell lines and solid colon cancer tissue. We also observed the effect of the blocking of CLN3 protein expression on cancer cell growth, survival, ceramide production, and apoptosis by using an adenovirus-bearing antisense CLN3 construct. We show that CLN3 mRNA and protein are overexpressed in glioblastoma (U-373G and T98g), neuroblastoma (IMR-32 and SK-N-MC), prostate (Du145, PC-3, and LNCaP), ovarian (SK-OV-3, SW626, and PA-1), breast (BT-20, BT-549, and BT-474), and colon (SW1116, SW480, and HCT 116) cancer cell lines but not in pancreatic (CAPAN and As-PC-1) or lung (A-549 and NCI-H520) cancer cell lines. CLN3 is also up-regulated in mouse melanoma and breast carcinoma cancer cell lines. We found CLN3 expression is 22-330% higher than in corresponding normal colon control tissue in 8 of 10 solid colon tumors. An adenovirus-expressing antisense CLN3 (Ad-AS-CLN3) blocks CLN3 protein expression in DU-145, BT-20, SW1116, and T98g cancer cell lines as seen by Western blot. Blocking of CLN3 expression using Ad-AS-CLN3 inhibits growth and viability of cancer cells. It also causes elevation in endogenous ceramide production through de novo ceramide synthesis and results in increased apoptosis as shown by propidium iodide and JC-1 staining. This suggests that Ad-AS-CLN3 may be an option for therapy in some cancers. More importantly these results suggest that CLN3 is a novel molecular target for cancer drug discovery.
From which tissue was the NCI-H520 cell-line derived?
52f89fc62059c6d71c000050_007
{ "answer_start": [ 1164 ], "text": [ "lung" ] }
Finkelstein's test: a biomechanical analysis. PURPOSE: Finkelstein's test is the classic diagnostic test for de Quervain's disease. Finkelstein hypothesized that the entry of the muscle bellies of the extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) and abductor pollicis longus (APL) tendons into the first extensor compartment was responsible for the findings observed in his now eponymous test. We agree with Finkelstein's hypothesis and further hypothesize that this position would induce measurable bulk (muscle mass within the retinaculum) and tethering (stretching of synovial tissue) effects within the compartment. To test this latter hypothesis we measured the excursion and gliding resistance of the EPB and APL tendons within the first compartment. METHODS: Fifteen fresh-frozen cadavers were used. Gliding resistance and excursion were measured in 4 different wrist positions, including the wrist position of Finkelstein's test (30 degrees ulnar deviation). The bulk and tethering effect was calculated based on the mean gliding resistance over the tendon proximal/distal excursion cycle and the gliding resistance at the terminal distal excursion. RESULTS: The EPB tendon excursion was significantly more distal in 30 degrees ulnar deviation than in 60 degrees extension. Additionally the bulk and tethering resistance was significantly greater in 30 degrees ulnar deviation compared with 60 degrees extension. For the APL tendon there was no significant difference in either the tendon excursion or the bulk and tethering resistance between 30 degrees ulnar deviation and 60 degrees extension. CONCLUSIONS: We showed that in the position of Finkelstein's test the EPB tendon is significantly more distal and has significantly greater bulk and tethering effect compared with the other EPB positions. This is not the case for the APL tendon in the position of Finkelstein's test. These results suggest that an abnormal Finkelstein's test reflects differences of the EPB more than it does the APL.
Which disease is diagnosed using the Finkelstein's test?
5a6900ebb750ff445500001d_004
{ "answer_start": [ 109 ], "text": [ "de Quervain's disease" ] }
Clinical scores for the identification of stroke and transient ischaemic attack in the emergency department: a cross-sectional study. OBJECTIVE: To compare the sensitivity and specificity of bedside diagnostic stroke scales in patients with suspected stroke. DESIGN: A cross-sectional observational study of patients with suspected acute stroke in an emergency department in a UK hospital. DIAGNOSTIC SCALES: The results of an assessment with the Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room (ROSIER) scale, the Face Arm Speech Test (FAST) scale and the diagnosis of definite or probable stroke by an emergency department. Reference standard A consensus diagnosis of stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA) made after discussion by an expert panel (members included stroke physicians, neurologists and neuroradiologists), who had access to the clinical findings, imaging and subsequent clinical course, but were blinded to the results of the assessments by emergency-department staff. RESULTS: In 356 patients with complete data, the expert panel assigned a diagnosis of acute stroke or TIA in 246 and a diagnosis of mimic in 110. The ROSIER had a sensitivity of 83% (95% CI 78 to 87) and specificity of 44% (95% CI 34 to 53), and the FAST had a sensitivity of 81% (95% CI 76 to 86) and a specificity of 39% (95% CI 30 to 48). There was no detectable difference between the scales in sensitivity (p = 0.39) or specificity (p = 0.30). CONCLUSIONS: The simpler FAST scale could replace the more complex ROSIER for the initial assessment of patients with suspected acute stroke in the emergency department.
ROSIER scale is used for which disorder?
551fd9c06b348bb82c000012_009
{ "answer_start": [ 462 ], "text": [ "Stroke" ] }
The Role of Nursing Professionals in the Management of Patients With High-Risk Neuroblastoma Receiving Dinutuximab Therapy. Neuroblastoma, an embryonic cancer of the sympathetic nervous system, is the most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood. Dinutuximab (formerly called ch14.18), a monoclonal antibody targeting the disialoganglioside GD2, has been shown to significantly improve survival rates in patients with high-risk neuroblastoma. However, the safe and effective use of dinutuximab therapy in these high-risk patients requires medical expertise in patient selection, treatment administration, and the monitoring and management of adverse events. Findings of the randomized phase III study (ANBL0032) led to the approval of dinutuximab for the treatment of children with high-risk neuroblastoma. Multi-institutional nursing approaches to implementing standard protocols ensure the effective management of high-risk neuroblastoma patients receiving dinutuximab immunotherapy. Understanding and implementing recommendations for the management of the clinically important and most common adverse events are essential to ensuring patient continuation of therapy and improving patient outcomes.
Dinutuximab is used for treatment of which disease?
589a247078275d0c4a000035_016
{ "answer_start": [ 433 ], "text": [ "neuroblastoma" ] }
Long-term safety and efficacy of teriflunomide: Nine-year follow-up of the randomized TEMSO study. OBJECTIVE: To report safety and efficacy outcomes from up to 9 years of treatment with teriflunomide in an extension (NCT00803049) of the pivotal phase 3 Teriflunomide Multiple Sclerosis Oral (TEMSO) trial (NCT00134563). METHODS: A total of 742 patients entered the extension. Teriflunomide-treated patients continued the original dose; those previously receiving placebo were randomized 1:1 to teriflunomide 14 mg or 7 mg. RESULTS: By June 2013, median (maximum) teriflunomide exposure exceeded 190 (325) weeks per patient; 468 patients (63%) remained on treatment. Teriflunomide was well-tolerated with continued exposure. The most common adverse events (AEs) matched those in the core study. In extension year 1, first AEs of transient liver enzyme increases or reversible hair thinning were generally attributable to patients switching from placebo to teriflunomide. Approximately 11% of patients discontinued treatment owing to AEs. Twenty percent of patients experienced serious AEs. There were 3 deaths unrelated to teriflunomide. Soon after the extension started, annualized relapse rates and gadolinium-enhancing T1 lesion counts fell in patients switching from placebo to teriflunomide, remaining low thereafter. Disability remained stable in all treatment groups (median Expanded Disability Status Scale score < 2.5; probability of 12-week disability progression < 0.48). CONCLUSIONS: In the TEMSO extension, safety observations were consistent with the core trial, with no new or unexpected AEs in patients receiving teriflunomide for up to 9 years. Disease activity decreased in patients switching from placebo and remained low in patients continuing on teriflunomide. CLASSIFICATION OF EVIDENCE: This study provides Class III evidence that long-term treatment with teriflunomide is well-tolerated and efficacy of teriflunomide is maintained long-term.
Which drug was tested in the TEMSO Trial for multiple sclerosis?
589a246078275d0c4a00002a_001
{ "answer_start": [ 33 ], "text": [ "teriflunomide" ] }
Assessing serotonin receptor mRNA editing frequency by a novel ultra high-throughput sequencing method. RNA editing is a post-transcriptional modification of pre-mRNA that results in increased diversity in transcriptomes and proteomes. It occurs in a wide variety of eukaryotic organisms and in some viruses. One of the most common forms of pre-mRNA editing is A-to-I editing, in which adenosine is deaminated to inosine, which is read as guanosine during translation. This phenomenon has been observed in numerous transcripts, including the mammalian 5-HT(2C) receptor, which can be edited at five distinct sites. Methods used to date to quantify 5-HT(2C) receptor editing are labor-intensive, expensive and provide limited information regarding the relative abundance of 5-HT(2C) receptor editing variants. Here, we present a novel, ultra high-throughput method to quantify 5-HT(2C) receptor editing, compare it to a more conventional method, and use it to assess the effect of a range of genetic and pharmacologic manipulations on 5-HT(2C) editing. We conclude that this new method is powerful and economical, and we provide evidence that alterations in 5-HT(2C) editing appear to be a result of regional changes in brain activity, rather than a mechanism to normalize 5-HT(2C) signaling.
Which is the most common editing modification in eukaryotic mRNA?
56ffdc1ccf1c32585100000b_001
{ "answer_start": [ 361 ], "text": [ "A-to-I" ] }
McLeod syndrome resulting from a novel XK mutation. McLeod Syndrome (MLS) is a rare X-linked disorder characterized by haemopoietic abnormalities and late-onset neurological and muscular defects. The McLeod blood group phenotype is typically associated with erythrocyte acanthocytosis, absence of the Kx antigen and reduced expression of Kell system antigens. MLS is caused by hemizygosity for mutations in the XK gene. We describe a patient with MLS who first showed symptoms in 1989 (aged 51 years). As the disease progressed, the patient developed a slight dementia, aggressive behaviour and choreatic movements. A cardiomyopathy was also diagnosed. An electroneuromyography showed neuropathic and myopathic changes. Liver enzymes were elevated and a blood smear showed acanthocytes. MLS was confirmed by serological analysis of the Kell antigens. Analysis of red blood cells by flow cytometry revealed the patient and his grandson to have reduced Kell antigen expression. The patient's daughters had two populations of red cells, consistent with them being heterozygous for an XK0 allele. The molecular basis of MLS in this family is a novel mutation consisting of a 7453-bp deletion that includes exon 2 of the XK gene. This confirms that the patient's 7-year-old grandson, who is currently asymptomatic, also has the XK0 allele and is therefore likely to develop MLS.
Mutation of which gene is associated with McLeod syndrome?
531464a6e3eabad021000014_034
{ "answer_start": [ 1216 ], "text": [ "XK" ] }
Pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics and safety of empagliflozin, a sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor, in subjects with renal impairment. AIMS: Empagliflozin is a selective sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor that inhibits renal glucose reabsorption and is being investigated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). METHODS: In this open-label study, the effect of renal impairment on the pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics and safety of a 50 mg dose of empagliflozin was investigated in 40 subjects, grouped according to estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). RESULTS: Maximum empagliflozin plasma concentrations were similar in subjects with normal renal function and renal impairment. Area under the empagliflozin concentration-time curve (AUC0 -∞ ) values increased by approximately 18, 20, 66 and 48% in subjects with mild, moderate, severe renal impairment and renal failure/end stage renal disease (ESRD), respectively, in comparison to healthy subjects. This was attributed to decreased renal clearance (CLR ). Urinary glucose excretion (UGE) decreased with increasing renal impairment and correlated with decreased eGFR and CLR . Empagliflozin was well tolerated, with no increase in adverse events associated with renal impairment. CONCLUSIONS: Renal insufficiency resulted in decreased CLR of empagliflozin, moderately increased systemic exposure and decreased UGE. A single 50 mg dose of empagliflozin was well tolerated in subjects with normal renal function and any degree of renal impairment. The pharmacokinetic results of this study indicate that no dose adjustment of empagliflozin is required in patients with renal impairment.
Which protein does empagliflozin inhibit?
571e12097de986d80d000017_006
{ "answer_start": [ 98 ], "text": [ "SGLT2" ] }
Monoclonal antibodies - A new era in the treatment of multiple myeloma. Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are currently the most investigated therapeutic compounds in oncology, but there is no monoclonal antibody approved in the treatment of multiple myeloma (MM). Nevertheless several really promising molecules are under investigation in phase III clinical trials. Dominantly daratumumab (anti-CD38) and elotuzumab (anti-CS1) showed extraordinary effectiveness in phase I/II trials. The toxicity was acceptable which is important for their addition to standard anti-myeloma agents like proteasome inhibitors or immunomodulatory drugs. Monoclonal antibodies such as denosumab (anti-RANKL) or BHQ880 (anti-DKK-1) are investigated also in the management of myeloma bone disease. This review is focused on the most promising mAbs, their mechanisms of action and the rationale of use. Practically all available results have been described. If the ongoing trials confirm the efficacy and safety of mAbs, they would become an important part of MM treatment that would be translated in the further improvement of therapeutic outcomes.
What is the target of daratumumab?
5880aef4c872c95565000001_001
{ "answer_start": [ 391 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }
Neural correlates of distraction in borderline personality disorder before and after dialectical behavior therapy. Neural underpinnings of emotion dysregulation in borderline personality disorder (BPD) are characterized by limbic hyperactivity and disturbed prefrontal activity. It is unknown whether neural correlates of emotion regulation change after a psychotherapy which has the goal to improve emotion dysregulation in BPD, such as dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT). We investigated distraction as a main emotion regulation strategy before and after DBT in female patients with BPD. Thirty-one BPD patients were instructed to either passively view or memorize letters before being confronted with negative or neutral pictures in a distraction task during functional magnetic resonance imaging. This paradigm was applied before and after a 12-week residential DBT-based treatment program. We compared the DBT group to 15 BPD control patients, who continued their usual, non-DBT-based treatment or did not have any treatment, and 22 healthy participants. Behaviorally, BPD groups and healthy participants did not differ significantly with respect to alterations over time. On the neural level, BPD patients who received DBT-based treatment showed an activity decrease in the right inferior parietal lobe/supramarginal gyrus during distraction from negative rather than neutral stimuli when compared to both control groups. This decrease was correlated with improvement in self-reported borderline symptom severity. DBT responders exhibited decreased right perigenual anterior cingulate activity when viewing negative (rather than neutral) pictures. In conclusion, our findings reveal changes in neural activity associated with distraction during emotion processing after DBT in patients with BPD. These changes point to lower emotional susceptibility during distraction after BPD symptom improvement.
Which personality disorder is treated using dialectical behavior therapy?
5a68f005b750ff4455000016_001
{ "answer_start": [ 36 ], "text": [ "borderline personality disorder" ] }
[Daratumumab--breakthrough drug in multiple myeloma therapy]. Multiple myeloma (MM) remains incurable despite important recent advances in treatment. Over the last 2 years, an anti-CD38 monoclonal antibody daratumumab (DARA) has emerged as a breakthrough targeted therapy for patients with MM. Early-stage clinical trials have found DARA to be safe and to have encouraging clinical activity as a single agent and in combination with lenalidomide in heavily pretreated, relapsed patients in whom other novel agents (such as bortezomib, thalidomide and lenalidomide) as well as stem cell transplant has already failed. This review discusses the preclinical and clinical development of DARA, its pathophysiological basis, and its prospects for future use in MM.
Which molecule is targeted by Daratumumab?
56c04412ef6e39474100001b_027
{ "answer_start": [ 181 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }
p53-Based cyclotherapy: exploiting the 'guardian of the genome' to protect normal cells from cytotoxic therapy. Side effects of chemotherapy are a major impediment in the treatment of cancer. Cyclotherapy is an emerging therapeutic strategy for protecting normal cells from the side effects of chemotherapy. Low, non-genotoxic doses of known p53 activators can be used to induce p53-dependent cell cycle arrest in normal cells bearing wild-type p53. This cytostatic effect of p53 can protect normal cells from the toxicity of S- or M-phase poisons. Here, we have reviewed existing cyclotherapy regimens using two well-known p53 activators, nutlin-3 and actinomycin D. We have highlighted an exemplar clinical perspective for cyclotherapy in breast cancer. The recent development of novel stapled peptides as activators of p53 without the corresponding cytotoxicity holds great promise for cyclotherapy to enhance the therapeutic window of existing chemotherapy drugs.
Which tumor suppressor is referred to as "the guardian of the genome"?
55421ee7ccca0ce74b000002_003
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "p53" ] }
Rindopepimut, a 14-mer injectable peptide vaccine against EGFRvIII for the potential treatment of glioblastoma multiforme. Celldex Therapeutics is developing rindopepimut (CDX-110), a 14-mer injectable peptide vaccine for the potential treatment of glioblastoma multiforme (GBM). Rindopepimut specifically targets a novel junctional epitope of the EGFR deletion mutant EGFRvIII, which is a constitutively active receptor that is expressed in approximately 60 to 70% of patients with GBM. EGFRvIII expression is correlated with worse prognosis and reduced overall survival. Importantly, EGFRvIII is not expressed in normal brain tissue, making it an excellent therapeutic target. Preclinical studies demonstrated lasting tumor regression and increased survival times, as well as efficient generation of EGFRvIII-specific humoral and cellular immune responses, in animals expressing EGFRvIII and vaccinated with rindopepimut. Phase I and II clinical trials in patients with GBM demonstrated significantly increased median time to progression and overall survival time in those vaccinated with rindopepimut compared with matched historical controls. Only limited side effects have been observed in patients. Given these results, rindopepimut is an extremely promising therapy for patients with GBM. Phase I and II clinical trials in patients with GBM were ongoing at the time of publication. In the future, it may be beneficial to combine rindopepimut with other treatment modalities to further prolong survival.
Rindopepimut is an analog of which growth factor?
54d8fd334b1fd0d33c000005_003
{ "answer_start": [ 58 ], "text": [ "EGFRvIII" ] }
The transcription factor TFIIS zinc ribbon dipeptide Asp-Glu is critical for stimulation of elongation and RNA cleavage by RNA polymerase II. The eukaryotic transcription factor TFIIS enhances elongation and nascent transcript cleavage activities of RNA polymerase II in a stalled elongation complex. By site-directed mutagenesis, we have demonstrated that invariant residues Asp-261 and Glu-262 of the nucleic acid-binding TFIIS Zn ribbon are critical for stimulation of both elongation and RNA cleavage activities of RNA polymerase II. Substitution of either of these residues inactivates both TFIIS functions, suggesting a related role in both activities. These acidic residues may participate in phosphoryl transfer reactions by a two-metal-ion mechanism in a manner analogous to Klenow fragment. The RNA polymerase II itself may contain a Zn ribbon, in as much as the polymerase's 15-kDa subunit contains a sequence that aligns well with the TFIIS Zn ribbon sequence, including a similarly placed pair of acidic residues.
Which RNA polymerase II subunit carries RNA cleavage activity?
5a4df811966455904c00000e_010
{ "answer_start": [ 424 ], "text": [ "TFIIS" ] }
New synthetic antithrombotic agents for venous thromboembolism: pentasaccharides, direct thrombin inhibitors, direct Xa inhibitors. Heparin and low molecular weight heparins have limitations in their efficacy and safety for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). New synthetic antithrombotic drugs, designed with the intention of improving the therapeutic window for prophylaxis and treatment, are in various stages of development. Synthetic pentasaccharides include fondaparinux and its long-acting analogue idraparinux. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor that has undergone clinical trials for VTE prophylaxis and treatment. Direct factor Xa inhibitors include rivaroxiban, which has shown promising results for VTE prophylaxis and is being studied for VTE treatment, as well as apixaban and betrixaban, which are at earlier stages of clinical validation. These newer agents may represent viable options for prophylaxis and therapy as further clinical studies are performed.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_071
{ "answer_start": [ 829 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Towards effective immunotherapy of myeloma: enhanced elimination of myeloma cells by combination of lenalidomide with the human CD38 monoclonal antibody daratumumab. BACKGROUND: In our efforts to develop novel effective treatment regimens for multiple myeloma we evaluated the potential benefits of combining the immunomodulatory drug lenalidomide with daratumumab. Daratumumab is a novel human CD38 monoclonal antibody which kills CD38+ multiple myeloma cells via antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, complement-dependent cytotoxicity and apoptosis. DESIGN AND METHODS: To explore the effect of lenalidomide combined with daratumumab, we first carried out standard antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity assays in which the CD38+ multiple myeloma cell line UM-9 and primary multiple myeloma cells isolated from patients were used as target cells. We also tested the effect of lenalidomide on daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated-cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity of multiple myeloma cells directly in the bone marrow mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients. Finally, we determined the daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity using peripheral blood mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients receiving lenalidomide treatment. RESULTS: Daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity of purified primary multiple myeloma cells, as well as of the UM-9 cell line, was significantly augmented by lenalidomide pre-treatment of the effector cells derived from peripheral blood mononuclear cells from healthy individuals. More importantly, we demonstrated a clear synergy between lenalidomide and daratumumab-induced antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity directly in the bone marrow mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients, indicating that lenalidomide can also potentiate the daratumumab-dependent lysis of myeloma cells by activating the autologous effector cells within the natural environment of malignant cells. Finally, daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity was significantly up-regulated in peripheral blood mononuclear cells derived from 3 multiple myeloma patients during lenalidomide treatment. CONCLUSIONS: Our results indicate that powerful and complementary effects may be achieved by combining lenalidomide and daratumumab in the clinical management of multiple myeloma.
Which molecule is targeted by Daratumumab?
56c04412ef6e39474100001b_033
{ "answer_start": [ 395 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }
The NF90-NF45 complex functions as a negative regulator in the microRNA processing pathway. The positive regulatory machinery in the microRNA (miRNA) processing pathway is relatively well characterized, but negative regulation of the pathway is largely unknown. Here we show that a complex of nuclear factor 90 (NF90) and NF45 proteins functions as a negative regulator in miRNA biogenesis. Primary miRNA (pri-miRNA) processing into precursor miRNA (pre-miRNA) was inhibited by overexpression of the NF90 and NF45 proteins, and considerable amounts of pri-miRNAs accumulated in cells coexpressing NF90 and NF45. Treatment of cells overexpressing NF90 and NF45 with an RNA polymerase II inhibitor, alpha-amanitin, did not reduce the amounts of pri-miRNAs, suggesting that the accumulation of pri-miRNAs is not due to transcriptional activation. In addition, the NF90 and NF45 complex was not found to interact with the Microprocessor complex, which is a processing factor of pri-miRNAs, but was found to bind endogenous pri-miRNAs. NF90-NF45 exhibited higher binding activity for pri-let-7a than pri-miR-21. Of note, depletion of NF90 caused a reduction of pri-let-7a and an increase of mature let-7a miRNA, which has a potent antiproliferative activity, and caused growth suppression of transformed cells. These findings suggest that the association of the NF90-NF45 complex with pri-miRNAs impairs access of the Microprocessor complex to the pri-miRNAs, resulting in a reduction of mature miRNA production.
Which polymerase transcribes pri-miRNAs?
589d965a78275d0c4a000049_013
{ "answer_start": [ 668 ], "text": [ "RNA polymerase II" ] }
Temporo-spatial analyses define epileptogenic and functional zones in a case of Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome. Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome (DDMS) is a rare epilepsy syndrome that is characterized by cerebral hemiatrophy, homolateral skull hyperplasia, hyperpneumatization of the paranasal sinuses, seizures with or without mental retardation, and contralateral hemiparesis. We describe a case of DDMS in a 40-year-old female who had complex partial seizures with occasional secondary generalization since the age of 4 years. Her seizure frequency was 10-20 seizures/month even though she took four antiepileptic drugs. We applied magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), positron emission tomography (PET), functional MRI, and invasive electroencephalography (EEG) to define her epileptogenic and functional zones. Brain MRI showed prominent atrophy in the left frontal dorsal and lateral regions and mild atrophy of the left superior temporal gyrus and left parietal gyri. Interictal PET revealed decreased glucose metabolism in the atrophic regions. Functional MRI demonstrated that the inferior frontal and inferior parieto-occipital regions of the right hemisphere were activated by language testing. Invasive EEG revealed that the left lateral temporal lobe was the sole source of her seizures. Our results imply that the "metabolic border zone" rather than the atrophic region plays an important role in seizure activity, and that reorganization of functional zones occur after cerebral damage early in life.
What is the characteristic feature of the Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome.
55032e65e9bde69634000034_005
{ "answer_start": [ 201 ], "text": [ "cerebral hemiatrophy" ] }
GBshape: a genome browser database for DNA shape annotations. Many regulatory mechanisms require a high degree of specificity in protein-DNA binding. Nucleotide sequence does not provide an answer to the question of why a protein binds only to a small subset of the many putative binding sites in the genome that share the same core motif. Whereas higher-order effects, such as chromatin accessibility, cooperativity and cofactors, have been described, DNA shape recently gained attention as another feature that fine-tunes the DNA binding specificities of some transcription factor families. Our Genome Browser for DNA shape annotations (GBshape; freely available at http://rohslab.cmb.usc.edu/GBshape/) provides minor groove width, propeller twist, roll, helix twist and hydroxyl radical cleavage predictions for the entire genomes of 94 organisms. Additional genomes can easily be added using the GBshape framework. GBshape can be used to visualize DNA shape annotations qualitatively in a genome browser track format, and to download quantitative values of DNA shape features as a function of genomic position at nucleotide resolution. As biological applications, we illustrate the periodicity of DNA shape features that are present in nucleosome-occupied sequences from human, fly and worm, and we demonstrate structural similarities between transcription start sites in the genomes of four Drosophila species.
Which genome browser database for DNA shape annotations is available?
56c8f4615795f9a73e00001a_013
{ "answer_start": [ 900 ], "text": [ "GBshape" ] }
The therapeutical potential of alpha-synuclein antiaggregatory agents for dementia with Lewy bodies. Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), the second most frequent cause of dementia after Alzheimer disease (AD), is characterized by the widespread distribution of Lewy bodies in virtually every brain area. Clinically, DLB is distinguished from AD by fluctuating cognition, prominent visual hallucinations and parkinsonism, and from Parkinson disease, by the appearance of parkinsonism within one year of cognitive or behavioral decline. The main component of Lewy bodies is alpha-synuclein. Accumulating evidence suggests that its aggregation constitutes one of the first steps preceding Lewy body formation, so that antiaggregation strategies would be very useful to prevent alpha-synuclein fibril formation. Main therapies nevertheless applied up to the present remain symptomatological. In this context, cholinesterase inhibitors such as rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil, are used for the treatment of delusions and other psychotic symptoms. This review focuses on the recent discovery of possible alpha-synuclein anti-aggregation factors, where four main classes can be defined. First, beta-synuclein as well as alpha-synuclein derived peptides in addition to antibodies present a group of proteins and peptides that directly interact with alpha-synuclein and so inhibit its aggregation. Second, small molecules interfere with alpha-synuclein aggregation by their covalent binding, although not all of them are suitable for an appropriate inhibition of alpha-synuclein aggregation. Third, to inhibit the expression of alpha-synuclein and its isoforms at the RNA level, the use of interference RNA represents a future challenge. The fourth strategy is based on the enhancement of inclusion body formation to accelerate the elimination of soluble alpha-synuclein oligomers. Each chapter section includes the discussion of possible strategies for the development of drugs and therapies.
What is the main component of the Lewy bodies?
550c3d45a103b78016000008_002
{ "answer_start": [ 569 ], "text": [ "alpha-synuclein" ] }
Characterisation of inflammatory response, coagulation, and radiological findings in Katayama fever: a report of three cases at the Medical University of Vienna, Austria. BACKGROUND: Katayama fever is an acute clinical condition characterised by high fever, dry cough and general malaise occurring during early Schistosoma spp. infection. It is predominantly reported in travellers from non-endemic regions. Whereas the immunological response to Schistosoma infection is well characterised, alterations in inflammatory markers and coagulation in response to acute infection are poorly understood. METHODS: Here we report the clinical, laboratory and radiological characteristics of three returning travellers with Katayama fever. Inflammatory markers and coagulation status were assessed repeatedly during follow-up to characterise the host response to infection. Radiographic findings were correlated with clinical and laboratory markers. RESULTS: Clinical symptoms were suggestive of a significant inflammatory response in all patients including high fever (>39°C), cough, and general malaise. Classical inflammatory markers including blood sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, and serum amyloid A were only moderately elevated. Marked eosinophilia (33-42% of white blood cells) was observed and persisted despite anti-inflammatory and anthelminthic treatment for up to 32 weeks. Analysis of blood coagulation markers indicated increased coagulability reflected by elevated D-dimer values (0.57-1.17 μg/ml) and high thrombin generating potentials (peak thrombin activity: 311-384 nM). One patient showed particularly high levels of microparticle-associated tissue factor activity at initial presentation (1.64 pg/ml). Multiple pulmonary and hepatic opacities demonstrated by computed tomography (CT) scanning were associated with raised inflammatory markers in one patient. CONCLUSIONS: The characterisation of the inflammatory response, blood coagulation parameters and radiological findings in three patients adds to our current understanding of Katayama fever and serves as a starting point for further systematic investigations of the pathophysiology of this acute helminthic infection.
What causes Katayama Fever?
56bb621fac7ad10019000009_002
{ "answer_start": [ 311 ], "text": [ "Schistosoma spp" ] }
Mutational screening of RET, HRAS, KRAS, NRAS, BRAF, AKT1, and CTNNB1 in medullary thyroid carcinoma. BACKGROUND: Screening medullary thyroid carcinomas (MTCs) for rearranged during transfection (RET) mutations becomes increasingly important for clinical assessment of the disease. The role of mutations in other genes including RAS (i.e. HRAS, KRAS, and NRAS), v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF), v-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1 (AKT1), and CTNNB1 (β-catenin) is unknown or not fully explored yet for this disease. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Formalin-fixed and paraffin-embedded (FFPE) material was the primary source for screening 13 sporadic and inherited MTCs and matched non-tumor specimens. Multiplex PCR was included in the PCR protocol. Sequence analysis encompassed mutational hotspot regions in RET exons 5, 8, 10, 11, and 13 to 16; HRAS exons 1 and 2; KRAS exons 1 and 2; NRAS exons 1 and 2; BRAF exon 15; AKT1 exon 2, and CTNNB1 exon 3. RESULTS: We identified RET mutations in seven of 13 MTCs: five RET-positive cases revealed a mutation in exon 16 (M918T) and two a mutation in exon 10 (C618S and C620S). In four of the RET-positive cases, the mutation was inherited, out of which three were reportedly associated with a multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2) syndrome, i.e. MEN2A (C618S), MEN2A/familial MTC (FMTC) (C620S), and MEN2B (M918T). These cases reflect the known MEN2 genotype-phenotype correlation. Three of the five stage IVc MTCs were inherited RET-positive cases. Mutational screening in HRAS, KRAS, NRAS, BRAF, AKT1, and CTNNB1 disclosed one sporadic RET-negative MTC (stage III) with mutation in HRAS codon 13 (G13R). CONCLUSION: Our study supports the clinical relevance of screening MTC patients for RET mutations. The role of RAS mutations, in particular HRAS mutations, in sporadic RET-negative MTC has not been fully explored yet. Mutations in BRAF, AKT1, and CTNNB1 are likely not to play a role in MTC.
What is the gene frequently mutated in Multiple endocrine neoplasia 2 (MEN2) and Hisrchsprung disease?
5171438a8ed59a060a000007_002
{ "answer_start": [ 1001 ], "text": [ "RET" ] }
Three periods of regulatory innovation during vertebrate evolution. The gain, loss, and modification of gene regulatory elements may underlie a substantial proportion of phenotypic changes on animal lineages. To investigate the gain of regulatory elements throughout vertebrate evolution, we identified genome-wide sets of putative regulatory regions for five vertebrates, including humans. These putative regulatory regions are conserved nonexonic elements (CNEEs), which are evolutionarily conserved yet do not overlap any coding or noncoding mature transcript. We then inferred the branch on which each CNEE came under selective constraint. Our analysis identified three extended periods in the evolution of gene regulatory elements. Early vertebrate evolution was characterized by regulatory gains near transcription factors and developmental genes, but this trend was replaced by innovations near extracellular signaling genes, and then innovations near posttranslational protein modifiers.
How many periods of regulatory innovation led to the evolution of vertebrates?
56d1da3b67f0cb3d66000006_006
{ "answer_start": [ 668 ], "text": [ "three" ] }
The anthrax toxin activator gene atxA is associated with CO2-enhanced non-toxin gene expression in Bacillus anthracis. The Bacillus anthracis toxin genes, cya, lef, and pag, can be viewed as a regulon, in which transcription of all three genes is activated in trans by the same regulatory gene, atxA, in response to the same signal, CO2. In atxA+ strains, toxin gene expression is increased 5- to 20-fold in cells grown in 5% CO2 relative to cells grown in air. CO2-enhanced toxin gene transcription is not observed in atx4-null mutants. Here, we used two independent techniques to obtain evidence for additional CO2-induced atxA-regulated genes. First, total protein preparations from atxA4+ and atxA isolates grown in 5% CO2 and in air were examined by two-dimensional electrophoresis. Comparison of the resulting protein patterns indicated that synthesis of non-toxin proteins is influenced by growth in elevated CO2 and the toxin gene regulator, atxA. Second, we generated random transcriptional lacZ fusions in B. anthracis with transposon Tn917-LTV3. Transposon-insertion libraries were screened for mutants expressing CO2-enhanced atxA-dependent beta-galactosidase activity. DNA sequence analysis of transposon insertion sites in 17 mutants carrying CO2- and atxA-regulated fusions revealed 10 mutants carrying independent insertions on the 185-kb toxin plasmid pXO1 which did not map to the toxin genes. The tcr-lacZ fusion mutants (tcr for toxin coregulated) were Tox+, indicating that these genes may not be involved in anthrax toxin gene activation. Our data indicate a clear association of atxA with CO2-enhanced gene expression in B. anthracis and provide evidence that atxA regulates genes other than the structural genes for the anthrax toxin proteins.
Which metabolite activates AtxA?
5710a592cf1c32585100002a_018
{ "answer_start": [ 1125 ], "text": [ "CO2" ] }
A Study to Determine if Addition of Palatal Petechiae to Centor Criteria Adds More Significance to Clinical Diagnosis of Acute Strep Pharyngitis in Children. Objective. A study to determine if addition of palatal petechiae to Centor criteria adds more value for clinical diagnosis of acute strep pharyngitis in children. Hypothesis. In children, Centor Criteria does not cover all the symptoms and signs of acute strep pharyngitis. We hypothesize that addition of palatal petechiae to Centor Criteria will increase the possibility of clinical diagnosis of group A streptococcal pharyngitis in children. Methods. One hundred patients with a complaint of sore throat were enrolled in the study. All the patients were examined clinically using the Centor Criteria. They were also examined for other signs and symptoms like petechial lesions over the palate, abdominal pain, and skin rash. All the patients were given rapid strep tests, and throat cultures were sent. No antibiotics were given until culture results were obtained. Results. The sample size was 100 patients. All 100 had fever, sore throat, and erythema of tonsils. Twenty of the 100 patients had tonsillar exudates, 85/100 had tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, and 86/100 had no cough. In total, 9 out of the 100 patients had positive throat cultures. We observed that petechiae over the palate, a very significant sign, is not included in the Centor Criteria. Palatal petechiae were present in 8 out of the 100 patients. Six out of these 8 with palatal petechiae had positive throat culture for strep (75%). Only 7 out of 20 with exudates had positive strep culture. Sixteen out of the 100 patients had rapid strep test positive. Those 84/100 who had negative rapid strep also had negative throat culture. Statistics. We used Fisher's exact test, comparing throat culture positive and negative versus presence of exudates and palatal hemorrhages with positive and negative throat cultures and the resultant P value <.0001. Conclusion. Our study concludes that addition of petechiae over the palate to Centor Criteria will increase the possibility of diagnosing acute group A streptococcal pharyngitis in children.
Centor criteria are used for which disease?
5a6f960fb750ff445500005c_008
{ "answer_start": [ 564 ], "text": [ "streptococcal pharyngitis" ] }
Pre-specified subgroup analyses of a placebo-controlled phase III trial (TEMSO) of oral teriflunomide in relapsing multiple sclerosis. BACKGROUND: The Teriflunomide Multiple Sclerosis Oral (TEMSO) trial, a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled phase III study, demonstrated that teriflunomide significantly reduced annualized relapse rate (ARR), disease progression and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) activity, with a favorable safety profile in relapsing multiple sclerosis (RMS) patients. OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study was to report the effects of teriflunomide on ARR and disability progression in pre-specified subgroups. METHODS: RMS patients (n=1088) were randomized to placebo or teriflunomide, 7 mg or 14 mg, once daily, for 108 weeks. Subgroup analyses were performed for ARR and disability progression by baseline demographics (gender, race, age), disease characteristics (Expanded Disability Status Scale (EDSS) strata, relapse history, multiple sclerosis (MS) subtype), MRI parameters (gadolinium-enhancing lesions, total lesion volume) and prior use of MS drugs. A generalized estimating equation method and Cox regression model were used to assess consistency of the treatment effect across subgroups, utilizing a treatment-by-subgroup interaction test for each factor separately. RESULTS: Reductions in ARR and disability progression were consistent across subgroups in favor of teriflunomide, with no treatment-by-subgroup interaction test reaching statistical significance. CONCLUSION: The positive effects of teriflunomide were demonstrated consistently across subgroups in TEMSO.
Which drug was tested in the TEMSO Trial for multiple sclerosis?
589a246078275d0c4a00002a_013
{ "answer_start": [ 151 ], "text": [ "Teriflunomide" ] }
Targeting EGF receptor variant III: tumor-specific peptide vaccination for malignant gliomas. Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is the most common and deadly of the human brain cancers. The EGF receptor is often amplified in GBM and provides a potential therapeutic target. However, targeting the normal receptor is complicated by its nearly ubiquitous and high level of expression in certain tissues. A naturally occurring deletion mutant of the EGF receptor, EGFRvIII, is a constitutively active variant originally identified in a high percentage of brain cancer cases, and more importantly is rarely found in normal tissue. A peptide vaccine, rindopepimut (CDX-110, Celldex Therapeutics), is directed against the novel exon 1-8 junction produced by the EGFRvIII deletion, and it has shown high efficacy in preclinical models. Recent Phase II clinical trials in patients with newly diagnosed GBM have shown EGFRvIII-specific immune responses and significantly increased time to progression and overall survival in those receiving vaccine therapy, as compared with published results for standard of care. Rindopepimut therefore represents a very promising therapy for patients with GBM.
Rindopepimut is an analog of which growth factor?
54d8fd334b1fd0d33c000005_002
{ "answer_start": [ 752 ], "text": [ "EGFRvIII" ] }
Restless leg syndrome manifested by iron deficiency from chronic hemoptysis in cystic fibrosis. Restless leg syndrome (RLS) and periodic limb movement disorder (PLMD) are considered to be a continuum of a neurological sleep disorder associated with abnormal iron metabolism or deficiency. I describe a case of RLS and PLMD in a cystic fibrosis patient with iron deficiency from chronic hemoptysis. This is the first case that reports RLS and PLMD manifesting from iron deficiency caused by chronic hemoptysis in advanced cystic fibrosis lung disease.
Which deficiency is the cause of restless leg syndrome?
530cefaaad0bf1360c000012_020
{ "answer_start": [ 36 ], "text": [ "iron" ] }
Molecular Pathways: Targeting the Cyclin D-CDK4/6 Axis for Cancer Treatment. Cancer cells bypass normal controls over mitotic cell-cycle progression to achieve a deregulated state of proliferation. The retinoblastoma tumor suppressor protein (pRb) governs a key cell-cycle checkpoint that normally prevents G1-phase cells from entering S-phase in the absence of appropriate mitogenic signals. Cancer cells frequently overcome pRb-dependent growth suppression via constitutive phosphorylation and inactivation of pRb function by cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) 4 or CDK6 partnered with D-type cyclins. Three selective CDK4/6 inhibitors, palbociclib (Ibrance; Pfizer), ribociclib (Novartis), and abemaciclib (Lilly), are in various stages of development in a variety of pRb-positive tumor types, including breast cancer, melanoma, liposarcoma, and non-small cell lung cancer. The emerging, positive clinical data obtained to date finally validate the two decades-old hypothesis that the cyclin D-CDK4/6 pathway is a rational target for cancer therapy.
Which enzyme is inhibited by ribociclib?
5880dba9c872c95565000009_007
{ "answer_start": [ 615 ], "text": [ "CDK4/6" ] }
Dysregulation of 4q35- and muscle-specific genes in fetuses with a short D4Z4 array linked to facio-scapulo-humeral dystrophy. Facio-scapulo-humeral dystrophy (FSHD) results from deletions in the subtelomeric macrosatellite D4Z4 array on the 4q35 region. Upregulation of the DUX4 retrogene from the last D4Z4 repeated unit is thought to underlie FSHD pathophysiology. However, no one knows what triggers muscle defect and when alteration arises. To gain further insights into the molecular mechanisms of the disease, we evaluated at the molecular level, the perturbation linked to the FSHD genotype with no a priori on disease onset, severity or penetrance and prior to any infiltration by fibrotic or adipose tissue in biopsies from fetuses carrying a short pathogenic D4Z4 array (n = 6) compared with fetuses with a non-pathogenic D4Z4 array (n = 21). By measuring expression of several muscle-specific markers and 4q35 genes including the DUX4 retrogene by an RT-PCR and western blotting, we observed a global dysregulation of genes involved in myogenesis including MYOD1 in samples with <11 D4Z4. The DUX4-fl pathogenic transcript was detected in FSHD biopsies but also in controls. Importantly, in FSHD fetuses, we mainly detected the non-spliced DUX4-fl isoform. In addition, several other genes clustered at the 4q35 locus are upregulated in FSHD fetuses. Our study is the first to examine fetuses carrying an FSHD-linked genotype and reveals an extensive dysregulation of several muscle-specific and 4q35 genes at early development stage at a distance from any muscle defect. Overall, our work suggests that even if FSHD is an adult-onset muscular dystrophy, the disease might also involve early molecular defects arising during myogenesis or early differentiation.
Which disease is associated with the ectopic expression of the protein encoded by the gene DUX4?
550f0e4c6a8cde6b72000003_008
{ "answer_start": [ 346 ], "text": [ "FSHD" ] }
Gene looping is conferred by activator-dependent interaction of transcription initiation and termination machineries. Gene looping juxtaposes the promoter and terminator regions of RNA polymerase II-transcribed genes in yeast and mammalian cells. Here we report an activator-dependent interaction of transcription initiation and termination factors during gene looping in budding yeast. Chromatin analysis revealed that MET16, INO1, and GAL1p-BUD3 are in a stable looped configuration during activated transcription. Looping was nearly abolished in the absence of transcription activators Met28, Ino2, and Gal4 of MET16, INO1, and GAL1p-BUD3 genes, respectively. The activator-independent increase in transcription was not accompanied by loop formation, thereby suggesting an essential role for activators in gene looping. The activators did not facilitate loop formation directly because they did not exhibit an interaction with the 3' end of the genes. Instead, activators physically interacted with the general transcription factor TFIIB when the genes were activated and in a looped configuration. TFIIB cross-linked to both the promoter and the terminator regions during the transcriptionally activated state of a gene. The presence of TFIIB on the terminator was dependent on the Rna15 component of CF1 3' end processing complex. Coimmunoprecipitation revealed a physical interaction of Rna15 with TFIIB. We propose that the activators facilitate gene looping through their interaction with TFIIB during transcriptional activation of genes.
Which protein mediates gene loop formation in the yeast S. cerevisiae?
58adc1ff9ef3c34033000006_007
{ "answer_start": [ 1102 ], "text": [ "TFIIB" ] }
The Na+/Ca2+ exchanger-mediated Ca2+ influx triggers nitric oxide-induced cytotoxicity in cultured astrocytes. Nitric oxide (NO) is involved in many pathological conditions including neurodegenerative disorders. We have previously found that sodium nitroprusside (SNP), an NO donor, stimulates mitogen-activated protein kinases (MAPKs) such as extracellular signal-regulating kinase (ERK), c-jun N-terminal protein kinase (JNK) and p38 MAPK, leading to caspase-independent apoptosis in cultured astrocytes. In view of the previous observation that NO stimulates the activity of the Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger (NCX), this study examines the involvement of NCX in cytotoxicity. The specific NCX inhibitor SEA0400 blocked SNP-induced phosphorylation of ERK, JNK and p38 MAPK, and decrease in cell viability. SNP-induced phosphorylation of ERK, JNK and p38 MAPK was blocked by removal of external Ca(2+), and SNP treatment caused an increase in (45)Ca(2+) influx. This increase in (45)Ca(2+) influx was blocked by SEA0400, but not the Ca(2+) channel blocker nifedipine. In addition, SNP-induced (45)Ca(2+) influx and cytotoxicity were reduced in NCX1-deficient cells which were transfected with NCX1 siRNA. Inhibitors of intracellular Ca(2+)-dependent proteins such as calpain and calmodulin blocked SNP-induced ERK phosphorylation and decrease in cell viability. Furthermore, the guanylate cyclase inhibitor LY83583 and the cGMP-dependent protein kinase inhibitor KT5823 blocked SNP-induced cytotoxicity. These findings suggest that NCX-mediated Ca(2+) influx triggers SNP-induced apoptosis in astrocytes, which may be mediated by a cGMP-dependent pathway.
The small molecule SEA0400 is an inhibitor of which ion antiporter/exchanger?
5506c3e38e1671127b00000a_022
{ "answer_start": [ 606 ], "text": [ "NCX" ] }
Formulating a new basis for the treatment against botulinum neurotoxin intoxication: 3,4-Diaminopyridine prodrug design and characterization. Botulism is a disease characterized by neuromuscular paralysis and is produced from botulinum neurotoxins (BoNTs) found within the Gram positive bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This bacteria produces the most deadliest toxin known, with lethal doses as low as 1 ng/kg. Due to the relative ease of production and transport, the use of these agents as potential bioterrorist weapons has become of utmost concern. No small molecule therapies against BoNT intoxication have been approved to date. However, 3,4-diaminopyridine (3,4-DAP), a potent reversible inhibitor of voltage-gated potassium channels, is an effective cholinergic agonist used in the treatment of neuromuscular degenerative disorders that require cholinergic enhancement. 3,4-DAP has also been shown to facilitate recovery of neuromuscular action potential post botulinum intoxication by blocking K(+) channels. Unfortunately, 3,4-DAP displays toxicity largely due to blood-brain-barrier (BBB) penetration. As a dual-action prodrug approach to cholinergic enhancement we have designed carbamate and amide conjugates of 3,4-DAP. The carbamate prodrug is intended to be a slowly reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) along the lines of the stigmines thereby allowing increased persistence of released acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft. As a secondary activity, cleavage of the carbamate prodrug by AChE will afford the localized release of 3,4-DAP, which in turn, will enhance the pre-synaptic release of additional acetylcholine. Being a competitive inhibitor with respect to acetylcholine, the activity of the prodrug will be greatest at the synaptic junctions most depleted of acetylcholine. Here we report upon the synthesis and biochemical characterization of three new classes of prodrugs intended to limit previously reported stability and toxicity issues. Of the prodrugs examined, compound 32, demonstrated the most clinically relevant half-life of 2.76 h, while selectively inhibiting AChE over butyrylcholinesterase--a plasma-based high activity esterase. Future in vivo studies could provide validation of prodrug 32 as a potential treatment against BoNT intoxication as well as other neuromuscular disorders.
Which is the most known bacterium responsible for botulism (sausage-poisoning)?
55475dc2f35db75526000001_010
{ "answer_start": [ 297 ], "text": [ "Clostridium botulinum" ] }
Self-methylation of BspRI DNA-methyltransferase. The DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferase (m5C-MTase) M.BspRI is able to accept the methyl group from the methyl donor S-adenosyl-L-methionine (AdoMet) in the absence of DNA. Transfer of the methyl group to the enzyme is a slow reaction relative to DNA methylation. Self-methylation is dependent on the native conformation of the enzyme and is inhibited by S-adenosyl-L-homocysteine, DNA and sulfhydryl reagents. Amino acid sequencing of proteolytic peptides obtained from M.BspRI, which had been methylated with [methyl-3H]AdoMet, and thin layer chromatography of the modified amino acid identified two cysteines, Cys156 and Cys181 that bind the methyl group in form of S-methylcysteine. One of the acceptor residues, Cys156 is the highly conserved cysteine which plays the role of the catalytic nucleophile of m5C-MTases.
What is the methyl donor of DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferases?
51404dd723fec90375000002_002
{ "answer_start": [ 165 ], "text": [ "S-adenosyl-L-methionine" ] }
[STI571 (Glivec)--a new drug for the treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia]. Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is characterised by the occurrence of the Philadelphia (Ph) chromosome (9/22 translocation) and the formation of a fusion protein--the BCR-ABL transcript with constitutive activation of the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase and consequent changes in the intracellular signal transduction, which is responsible for the deregulated myeloid cell proliferation. STI571 (signal transduction inhibition number 571) is a potent and selective inhibitor of the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase. In the chronic phase of the disease, normal peripheral blood values are achieved within the first month of treatment in the large majority of patients and in many patients also a cytogenic response within the following months. The results in the advanced phase are far less favourable, which is explained by the development of resistance owing to reactivation of the BCR-ABL signal transduction. Side effects are primarily nausea, vomiting, various rashes, oedema, most often in the periorbital region, and musculoskeletal symptoms, including muscle cramps. Perspectives for treatment with STI571 are described, as are combinations with alpha-interferon and other cytostatics with a synergistic profile.
What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?
5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_090
{ "answer_start": [ 244 ], "text": [ "BCR-ABL" ] }
Long-term safety and efficacy of teriflunomide: Nine-year follow-up of the randomized TEMSO study. OBJECTIVE: To report safety and efficacy outcomes from up to 9 years of treatment with teriflunomide in an extension (NCT00803049) of the pivotal phase 3 Teriflunomide Multiple Sclerosis Oral (TEMSO) trial (NCT00134563). METHODS: A total of 742 patients entered the extension. Teriflunomide-treated patients continued the original dose; those previously receiving placebo were randomized 1:1 to teriflunomide 14 mg or 7 mg. RESULTS: By June 2013, median (maximum) teriflunomide exposure exceeded 190 (325) weeks per patient; 468 patients (63%) remained on treatment. Teriflunomide was well-tolerated with continued exposure. The most common adverse events (AEs) matched those in the core study. In extension year 1, first AEs of transient liver enzyme increases or reversible hair thinning were generally attributable to patients switching from placebo to teriflunomide. Approximately 11% of patients discontinued treatment owing to AEs. Twenty percent of patients experienced serious AEs. There were 3 deaths unrelated to teriflunomide. Soon after the extension started, annualized relapse rates and gadolinium-enhancing T1 lesion counts fell in patients switching from placebo to teriflunomide, remaining low thereafter. Disability remained stable in all treatment groups (median Expanded Disability Status Scale score < 2.5; probability of 12-week disability progression < 0.48). CONCLUSIONS: In the TEMSO extension, safety observations were consistent with the core trial, with no new or unexpected AEs in patients receiving teriflunomide for up to 9 years. Disease activity decreased in patients switching from placebo and remained low in patients continuing on teriflunomide. CLASSIFICATION OF EVIDENCE: This study provides Class III evidence that long-term treatment with teriflunomide is well-tolerated and efficacy of teriflunomide is maintained long-term.
Which drug was tested in the TEMSO Trial for multiple sclerosis?
589a246078275d0c4a00002a_036
{ "answer_start": [ 253 ], "text": [ "Teriflunomide" ] }
Effect of telomerase inhibition on preclinical models of malignant rhabdoid tumor. Novel treatment approaches are desperately needed for malignant rhabdoid tumor (MRT). Telomerase is an attractive therapeutic target because it is specific to cancer and critical for cancer cell immortality. We evaluated the effect of the telomerase inhibitor imetelstat in preclinical models of MRT. Three MRT cell lines, BT-12, G401, and RT-peri, were treated with the telomerase inhibitor imetelstat. The effects of imetelstat on telomere length, DNA damage response, and cell proliferation were assessed. The efficacy of imetelstat in vivo was evaluated in subcutaneous xenografts derived from each of the cell lines. Treatment with imetelstat resulted in inhibition of telomerase activity, marked telomere shortening, and activation of the DNA damage response pathway, as measured by formation of γ-H2AX nuclear foci, phosphorylation of ATM, and phosphorylation of TP53. Imetelstat-treated G401 cells underwent complete growth arrest after 16 passages. The other two cell lines exhibited growth inhibition. Imetelstat resulted in 40-50% growth inhibition compared to placebo-treated controls in all three xenograft models. The activity of imetelstat as a single agent suggests that further studies of telomerase inhibitors in combination with other agents may be warranted.
Which enzyme is inhibited by Imetelstat?
56c048acef6e39474100001c_017
{ "answer_start": [ 322 ], "text": [ "telomerase" ] }
Evolution of the sex-related locus and genomic features shared in microsporidia and fungi. BACKGROUND: Microsporidia are obligate intracellular, eukaryotic pathogens that infect a wide range of animals from nematodes to humans, and in some cases, protists. The preponderance of evidence as to the origin of the microsporidia reveals a close relationship with the fungi, either within the kingdom or as a sister group to it. Recent phylogenetic studies and gene order analysis suggest that microsporidia share a particularly close evolutionary relationship with the zygomycetes. METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: Here we expanded this analysis and also examined a putative sex-locus for variability between microsporidian populations. Whole genome inspection reveals a unique syntenic gene pair (RPS9-RPL21) present in the vast majority of fungi and the microsporidians but not in other eukaryotic lineages. Two other unique gene fusions (glutamyl-prolyl tRNA synthetase and ubiquitin-ribosomal subunit S30) that are present in metazoans, choanoflagellates, and filasterean opisthokonts are unfused in the fungi and microsporidians. One locus previously found to be conserved in many microsporidian genomes is similar to the sex locus of zygomycetes in gene order and architecture. Both sex-related and sex loci harbor TPT, HMG, and RNA helicase genes forming a syntenic gene cluster. We sequenced and analyzed the sex-related locus in 11 different Encephalitozoon cuniculi isolates and the sibling species E. intestinalis (3 isolates) and E. hellem (1 isolate). There was no evidence for an idiomorphic sex-related locus in this Encephalitozoon species sample. According to sequence-based phylogenetic analyses, the TPT and RNA helicase genes flanking the HMG genes are paralogous rather than orthologous between zygomycetes and microsporidians. CONCLUSION/SIGNIFICANCE: The unique genomic hallmarks between microsporidia and fungi are independent of sequence based phylogenetic comparisons and further contribute to define the borders of the fungal kingdom and support the classification of microsporidia as unusual derived fungi. And the sex/sex-related loci appear to have been subject to frequent gene conversion and translocations in microsporidia and zygomycetes.
In which kingdom do microsporidia belong, according to their current classification scheme?
5547a01cf35db75526000005_018
{ "answer_start": [ 2123 ], "text": [ "fungi" ] }
Mdm2-mediated NEDD8 modification of TAp73 regulates its transactivation function. Mutations in p73 are rare in cancer. Emerging evidence suggests that the relative expression of various p73 isoforms may contribute to tumorigenesis. Alternative promoters and N-terminal splicing result in the transcription and processing of either full-length (TA) or N-terminally truncated (deltaN) p73 isoforms. TAp73 possesses pro-apoptotic functions, while deltaNp73 has anti-apoptotic properties via functional inhibition of TAp73 and p53. Here, we report that TAp73, but not deltaNp73, is covalently modified by NEDD8 under physiologic conditions in an Mdm2-dependent manner. Co-expression of NEDP1, a cysteine protease that specifically cleaves NEDD8 conjugates, was shown to deneddylate TAp73. In addition, blockage of the endogenous NEDD8 pathway increased TAp73-mediated transactivation of p53- and p73-responsive promoter-driven reporter activity, and in conjunction, neddylated TAp73 species were found preferentially in the cytoplasm. These results suggest that Mdm2 attenuates TAp73 transactivation function, at least in part, by promoting NEDD8-dependent TAp73 cytoplasmic localization and provide the first evidence of a covalent post-translational modification exclusively targeting the TA isoforms of p73.
How many TAp73 isoforms have been identified in humans?
5173bdb38ed59a060a000020_018
{ "answer_start": [ 400 ], "text": [ "7" ] }
Activation of calpain and caspase pathways in demyelination and neurodegeneration in animal model of multiple sclerosis. Experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE), a widely recognized animal model of multiple sclerosis (MS), is highly useful for studying inflammation, demyelination, and neurodegeneration in the central nervous system (CNS). EAE exhibits many similarities with MS, which is a chronic inflammatory disease affecting CNS white matter in humans. Various studies have indicated that EAE is a particularly useful animal model for understanding both the mechanisms of immune-mediated CNS pathology and also the progressive clinical course of MS. Demyelination and axonal dysfunction have previously been shown in MS and EAE but current evidences indicate that axonal damage and neuron death also occur, demonstrating that these diseases harbor a neurodegenerative component. Recent studies also have shown that the activation of calpain and caspase pathways contribute to the apoptotic death of oligodendrocytes and neurons, promoting the pathological events leading to neurological deficits. Apoptosis is involved in the disease-regulating as well as in the disease-promoting processes in EAE. This review discusses the major involvement of calpain and caspase pathways in causing demyelination and neurodegeneration in EAE animals.
Which is the most widely used model for the study of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
5139b31dbee46bd34c000004_007
{ "answer_start": [ 121 ], "text": [ "Experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE)" ] }
Towards effective immunotherapy of myeloma: enhanced elimination of myeloma cells by combination of lenalidomide with the human CD38 monoclonal antibody daratumumab. BACKGROUND: In our efforts to develop novel effective treatment regimens for multiple myeloma we evaluated the potential benefits of combining the immunomodulatory drug lenalidomide with daratumumab. Daratumumab is a novel human CD38 monoclonal antibody which kills CD38+ multiple myeloma cells via antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, complement-dependent cytotoxicity and apoptosis. DESIGN AND METHODS: To explore the effect of lenalidomide combined with daratumumab, we first carried out standard antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity assays in which the CD38+ multiple myeloma cell line UM-9 and primary multiple myeloma cells isolated from patients were used as target cells. We also tested the effect of lenalidomide on daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated-cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity of multiple myeloma cells directly in the bone marrow mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients. Finally, we determined the daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity using peripheral blood mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients receiving lenalidomide treatment. RESULTS: Daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity of purified primary multiple myeloma cells, as well as of the UM-9 cell line, was significantly augmented by lenalidomide pre-treatment of the effector cells derived from peripheral blood mononuclear cells from healthy individuals. More importantly, we demonstrated a clear synergy between lenalidomide and daratumumab-induced antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity directly in the bone marrow mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients, indicating that lenalidomide can also potentiate the daratumumab-dependent lysis of myeloma cells by activating the autologous effector cells within the natural environment of malignant cells. Finally, daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity was significantly up-regulated in peripheral blood mononuclear cells derived from 3 multiple myeloma patients during lenalidomide treatment. CONCLUSIONS: Our results indicate that powerful and complementary effects may be achieved by combining lenalidomide and daratumumab in the clinical management of multiple myeloma.
What is the target of daratumumab?
5880aef4c872c95565000001_016
{ "answer_start": [ 128 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }
The evolution of African great ape subtelomeric heterochromatin and the fusion of human chromosome 2. Chimpanzee and gorilla chromosomes differ from human chromosomes by the presence of large blocks of subterminal heterochromatin thought to be composed primarily of arrays of tandem satellite sequence. We explore their sequence composition and organization and show a complex organization composed of specific sets of segmental duplications that have hyperexpanded in concert with the formation of subterminal satellites. These regions are highly copy number polymorphic between and within species, and copy number differences involving hundreds of copies can be accurately estimated by assaying read-depth of next-generation sequencing data sets. Phylogenetic and comparative genomic analyses suggest that the structures have arisen largely independently in the two lineages with the exception of a few seed sequences present in the common ancestor of humans and African apes. We propose a model where an ancestral human-chimpanzee pericentric inversion and the ancestral chromosome 2 fusion both predisposed and protected the chimpanzee and human genomes, respectively, to the formation of subtelomeric heterochromatin. Our findings highlight the complex interplay between duplicated sequences and chromosomal rearrangements that rapidly alter the cytogenetic landscape in a short period of evolutionary time.
Which human chromosome is the product of fusion?
5ace238e0340b9f05800000d_003
{ "answer_start": [ 1074 ], "text": [ "chromosome 2" ] }
Three periods of regulatory innovation during vertebrate evolution. The gain, loss, and modification of gene regulatory elements may underlie a substantial proportion of phenotypic changes on animal lineages. To investigate the gain of regulatory elements throughout vertebrate evolution, we identified genome-wide sets of putative regulatory regions for five vertebrates, including humans. These putative regulatory regions are conserved nonexonic elements (CNEEs), which are evolutionarily conserved yet do not overlap any coding or noncoding mature transcript. We then inferred the branch on which each CNEE came under selective constraint. Our analysis identified three extended periods in the evolution of gene regulatory elements. Early vertebrate evolution was characterized by regulatory gains near transcription factors and developmental genes, but this trend was replaced by innovations near extracellular signaling genes, and then innovations near posttranslational protein modifiers.
How many periods of regulatory innovation led to the evolution of vertebrates?
56d1da3b67f0cb3d66000006_007
{ "answer_start": [ 668 ], "text": [ "three" ] }
Chediak-Higashi syndrome: novel mutation of the CHS1/LYST gene in 3 Omani patients. BACKGROUND: Chediak-Higashi syndrome (CHS) is a rare, autosomal, recessive lysosomal disorder with hematological and immunologic abnormalities; however, stem-cell transplantation from a matched or related donor may be curative. Many mutations of the CHS1/LYST gene have been reported to date. We report a novel nonsense mutation of the CHS1/LYST gene in 3 Omani patients. METHODS AND RESULTS: Three patients from 2 different families presented with clinical and laboratory features of CHS and a history of death of a previous sibling because of a severe illness, suggestive of the accelerated phase of CHS. Giant granules were present in the myeloid cell lines. Before the stem-cell transplant, the first patient underwent gene sequencing of all exons of the lysosome trafficking regulator (CHS1/LYST) gene and revealed a nonsense mutation in exon 5 (c.925C>T, p.R309X). Subsequently, upon presentation, the second and third patients' direct gene sequencing of exon 5 revealed the same mutation. CONCLUSIONS: We report a nonsense mutation in exon 5 (c.925C>T, p.R309X). This supports the allelic heterogeneity of CHS and is in line with most reported mutation types that lead to a truncated protein. Identification of the mutation type will facilitate timely diagnosis, management, and family counseling for those with affected children in Oman.
Which syndrome is associated with mutations in the LYST gene?
56f564f909dd18d46b000009_003
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "Chediak-Higashi syndrome" ] }
The guardians of the genome (p53, TA-p73, and TA-p63) are regulators of tumor suppressor miRNAs network. The tumor suppressor p53 homologues, TA-p73, and p63 have been shown to function as tumor suppressors. However, how they function as tumor suppressors remains elusive. Here, I propose a number of tumor suppressor pathways that illustrate how the TA-p73 and p63 could function as negative regulators of invasion, metastasis, and cancer stem cells (CSCs) proliferation. Furthermore, I provide molecular insights into how TA-p73 and p63 could function as tumor suppressors. Remarkably, the guardians--p53, p73, and p63--of the genome are in control of most of the known tumor suppressor miRNAs, tumor suppressor genes, and metastasis suppressors by suppressing c-myc through miR-145/let-7/miR-34/TRIM32/PTEN/FBXW7. In particular, p53 and TA-p73/p63 appear to upregulate the expression of (1) tumor suppressor miRNAs, such as let-7, miR-34, miR-15/16a, miR-145, miR-29, miR-26, miR-30, and miR-146a; (2) tumor suppressor genes, such as PTEN, RBs, CDKN1a/b/c, and CDKN2a/b/c/d; (3) metastasis suppressors, such as Raf kinase inhibitory protein, CycG2, and DEC2, and thereby they enlarge their tumor suppressor network to inhibit tumorigenesis, invasion, angiogenesis, migration, metastasis, and CSCs proliferation.
Which tumor suppressor is referred to as "the guardian of the genome"?
55421ee7ccca0ce74b000002_035
{ "answer_start": [ 603 ], "text": [ "p53" ] }
Comparison of the Xpert methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) assay, BD GeneOhm MRSA assay, and culture for detection of nasal and cutaneous groin colonization by MRSA. Detection of methicillin (meticillin)-resistant Staphylococcus aureus colonization was assessed using combined nose and groin swabs in two commercial PCR assays (the Xpert MRSA assay and the BD GeneOhm MRSA assay). Compared to routine culture, both had similar sensitivities (87.0% versus 84.8%, respectively) and specificities (93.8% versus 92.7%, respectively). Combined PCR assays provide a rapid and more-complete assessment of colonization at a cost similar to that of single-site analysis.
What is MRSA?
58a32efe60087bc10a000013_029
{ "answer_start": [ 176 ], "text": [ "MRSA" ] }
Dopamine transporter (DAT1) VNTR polymorphism in 12 Indian populations. The dopamine transporter (DAT1) is a membrane spanning protein that binds the neurotransmitter dopamine and performs re-uptake of dopamine from the synapse into a neuron. The gene encoding DAT1 consists of 15 exons spanning 60 kb on chromosome 5p15.32. Several studies have investigated the possible associations between variants in DAT1 gene and psychiatric disorders. The present study aimed to determine the distribution of the variable number of tandem repeat (VNTR) polymorphism in the 3' untranslated region of DAT1 in 12 Indian populations. A total of 471 healthy unrelated individuals in 12 Indian populations from 3 linguistic groups were included in the present study. The analysis was carried out using PCR and electrophoresis. Overall, 4 alleles of the DAT1 40-bp VNTR, ranging from 7 to 11 repeats were detected. Heterozygosity indices were low and varied from 0.114 to 0.406. The results demonstrate the variability of the DAT1 40-bp VNTR polymorphism in Indian populations and revealed a high similarity with East Asian populations.
Which is the chromosome area that the human gene coding for the dopamine transporter (DAT1) is located to?
58a2ced760087bc10a000004_001
{ "answer_start": [ 316 ], "text": [ "5p15.3" ] }
Heme regulates gene expression by triggering Crm1-dependent nuclear export of Bach1. Bach1 is a transcriptional repressor of heme oxygenase-1 and beta-globin genes, both of which are known to be transcriptionally induced by heme. To test the hypothesis that heme regulates the activity of Bach1, we expressed wild type and mutated versions of Bach1 together with or without its heterodimer partner MafK in human 293T and GM02063 cells and examined their subcellular localization. Inhibition of heme synthesis enhanced the nuclear accumulation of Bach1, whereas treating cells with hemin resulted in nuclear exclusion of Bach1. While the cadmium-inducible nuclear export signal (NES) of Bach1 was dispensable for the heme response, a region containing two of the heme-binding motifs was found to be critical for the heme-induced nuclear exclusion. This region functioned as a heme-regulated NES dependent on the exporter Crm1. These results extend the regulatory roles for heme in protein sorting, and suggest that Bach1 transduces metabolic activity into gene expression.
Is the transcriptional regulator BACH1 an activator or a repressor?
52fa6ac72059c6d71c000055_017
{ "answer_start": [ 112 ], "text": [ "repressor" ] }
Treatment of infantile-onset spinal muscular atrophy with nusinersen: a phase 2, open-label, dose-escalation study. BACKGROUND: Nusinersen is a 2'-O-methoxyethyl phosphorothioate-modified antisense drug being developed to treat spinal muscular atrophy. Nusinersen is specifically designed to alter splicing of SMN2 pre-mRNA and thus increase the amount of functional survival motor neuron (SMN) protein that is deficient in patients with spinal muscular atrophy. METHODS: This open-label, phase 2, escalating dose clinical study assessed the safety and tolerability, pharmacokinetics, and clinical efficacy of multiple intrathecal doses of nusinersen (6 mg and 12 mg dose equivalents) in patients with infantile-onset spinal muscular atrophy. Eligible participants were of either gender aged between 3 weeks and 7 months old with onset of spinal muscular atrophy symptoms between 3 weeks and 6 months, who had SMN1 homozygous gene deletion or mutation. Safety assessments included adverse events, physical and neurological examinations, vital signs, clinical laboratory tests, cerebrospinal fluid laboratory tests, and electrocardiographs. Clinical efficacy assessments included event free survival, and change from baseline of two assessments of motor function: the motor milestones portion of the Hammersmith Infant Neurological Exam-Part 2 (HINE-2) and the Children's Hospital of Philadelphia Infant Test of Neuromuscular Disorders (CHOP-INTEND) motor function test, and compound motor action potentials. Autopsy tissue was analysed for target engagement, drug concentrations, and pharmacological activity. HINE-2, CHOP-INTEND, and compound motor action potential were compared between baseline and last visit using the Wilcoxon signed-rank test. Age at death or permanent ventilation was compared with natural history using the log-rank test. The study is registered at ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT01839656. FINDINGS: 20 participants were enrolled between May 3, 2013, and July 9, 2014, and assessed through to an interim analysis done on Jan 26, 2016. All participants experienced adverse events, with 77 serious adverse events reported in 16 participants, all considered by study investigators not related or unlikely related to the study drug. In the 12 mg dose group, incremental achievements of motor milestones (p<0·0001), improvements in CHOP-INTEND motor function scores (p=0·0013), and increased compound muscle action potential amplitude of the ulnar nerve (p=0·0103) and peroneal nerve (p<0·0001), compared with baseline, were observed. Median age at death or permanent ventilation was not reached and the Kaplan-Meier survival curve diverged from a published natural history case series (p=0·0014). Analysis of autopsy tissue from patients exposed to nusinersen showed drug uptake into motor neurons throughout the spinal cord and neurons and other cell types in the brainstem and other brain regions, exposure at therapeutic concentrations, and increased SMN2 mRNA exon 7 inclusion and SMN protein concentrations in the spinal cord. INTERPRETATION: Administration of multiple intrathecal doses of nusinersen showed acceptable safety and tolerability, pharmacology consistent with its intended mechanism of action, and encouraging clinical efficacy. Results informed the design of an ongoing, sham-controlled, phase 3 clinical study of nusinersen in infantile-onset spinal muscular atrophy. FUNDING: Ionis Pharmaceuticals, Inc and Biogen.
Which disease is treated with Nusinersen?
589185cc621ea6ff7e00000b_024
{ "answer_start": [ 29 ], "text": [ "spinal muscular atrophy" ] }
Epidemiology of Clostridium difficile in Germany based on a single center long-term surveillance and German-wide genotyping of recent isolates provided to the advisory laboratory for diagnostic reasons. Epidemiology of Clostridium difficile is characterized by worldwide increase of C. difficile infections (CDI) and the emergence of new epidemic outbreak strains with the capacity for global spreading. Long-term local surveillance at the University of Saarland Medical Center between 2000 and 2013 shows that the incidence rate of laboratory-confirmed CDI was influenced by local epidemiology as well as by testing strategies. Since 2008, molecular typing of C. difficile was regularly performed for symptomatic hospitalized patients by surface-layer protein A sequence typing (slpAST), which is an established highly standardized technique for genotyping of C. difficile. The results were assigned to known ribotypes for better comparison to international data. It could be demonstrated that distribution of genotypes was different between age groups. Older patients were predominantly infected with ribotype 001 and 027, whereas ribotype 027 was not detected in the pediatric population. Molecular typing of German isolates sent to the advisory laboratory between 2011 and 2013 revealed that ribotype 027 is present with high percentages in most German regions except for the very North. In conclusion, optimized testing of all hospitalized patients with diarrhea should be generally implemented to avoid under-diagnosis of C. difficile infection. Ribotype 027 is highly prevalent in Germany, but its infections are restricted to older patients, while absent in children. Molecular typing of suspected hospital outbreaks and of patients with severe or recurrent disease may help to better understand virulence and epidemic spreading of C. difficile.
Which main ribotype of Clostridium difficile is responsible of the recent outbreak?
5a87d73861bb38fb2400000b_008
{ "answer_start": [ 1552 ], "text": [ "Ribotype 027" ] }
Specific antidotes against direct oral anticoagulants: A comprehensive review of clinical trials data. The Vitamin K antagonist warfarin was the only oral anticoagulant available for decades for the treatment of thrombosis and prevention of thromboembolism until Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs); a group of new oral anticoagulants got approved in the last few years. Direct thrombin inhibitor: dabigatran and factor Xa inhibitors: apixaban, rivaroxaban, and edoxaban directly inhibit the coagulation cascade. DOACs have many advantages over warfarin. However, the biggest drawback of DOACs has been the lack of specific antidotes to reverse the anticoagulant effect in emergency situations. Activated charcoal, hemodialysis, and activated Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC) were amongst the nonspecific agents used in a DOAC associated bleeding but with limited success. Idarucizumab, the first novel antidote against direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran was approved by US FDA in October 2015. It comprehensively reversed dabigatran-induced anticoagulation in a phase I study. A phase III trial on Idarucizumab also complete reversal of anticoagulant effect of dabigatran. Andexanet alfa (PRT064445), a specific reversal agent against factor Xa inhibitors, showed a complete reversal of anticoagulant activity of apixaban and rivaroxaban within minutes after administration without adverse effects in two recently completed parallel phase III trials ANNEXA-A and ANNEXA-R respectively. It is currently being studied in ANNEXA-4, a phase IV study. Aripazine (PER-977), the third reversal agent, has shown promising activity against dabigatran, apixaban, rivaroxaban, as well as subcutaneous fondaparinux and LMWH. This review article summarizes pharmacological characteristics of these novel antidotes, coagulation's tests affected, available clinical and preclinical data, and the need for phase III and IV studies.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_073
{ "answer_start": [ 1249 ], "text": [ "Xa" ] }
Stress Responses in Alfalfa (Medicago sativa L.): I. Induction of Phenylpropanoid Biosynthesis and Hydrolytic Enzymes in Elicitor-Treated Cell Suspension Cultures. Alfalfa (Medicago sativa L.) cell suspension cultures accumulated high concentrations of the pterocarpan phytoalexin medicarpin, reaching a maximum within 24 hours after exposure to an elicitor preparation from cell walls of the phytopathogenic fungus Colletotrichum lindemuthianum. This was preceded by increases in the extractable activities of the isoflavonoid biosynthetic enzymes l-phenylalanine ammonia-lyase, cinnamic acid 4-hydroxylase, 4-coumarate coenzyme A-ligase, chalcone synthase, chalcone isomerase, and isoflavone O-methyltransferase. Pectic polysaccharides were weak elicitors of phenylalanine ammonia-lyase activity but did not induce medicarpin accumulation, whereas reduced glutathione was totally inactive as an elicitor in this system. The fungal cell wall extract was a weak elicitor of the lignin biosynthetic enzymes, caffeic acid O-methyltransferase and coniferyl alcohol dehydrogenase, but did not induce appreciable increases in the activities of the hydrolytic enzymes chitinase and 1,3-beta-d-glucanase. The results are discussed in relation to the activation of isoflavonoid biosynthesis in other legumes and the development of the alfalfa cell culture system as a model for studying the enzymology and molecular biology of plant defense expression.
Which is the major phytoalexin in alfalfa (Medicago sativa L.)?
5543829fed966d112c000009_006
{ "answer_start": [ 281 ], "text": [ "medicarpin" ] }
Clinics in diagnostic imaging (175). Corpus callosum glioblastoma multiforme (GBM): butterfly glioma. A 54-year-old man presented with change in behaviour, nocturnal enuresis, abnormal limb movement and headache of one week's duration. The diagnosis of butterfly glioma (glioblastoma multiforme) was made based on imaging characteristics and was further confirmed by biopsy findings. As the corpus callosum is usually resistant to infiltration by tumours, a mass that involves and crosses the corpus callosum is suggestive of an aggressive neoplasm. Other neoplastic and non-neoplastic conditions that may involve the corpus callosum and mimic a butterfly glioma, as well as associated imaging features, are discussed.
What is the most common histological diagnosis of "butterfly glioma"?
5a7234352dc08e987e000007_002
{ "answer_start": [ 271 ], "text": [ "glioblastoma multiforme" ] }
Visualisation of loss of 5-HT2A receptors with age in healthy volunteers using [18F]altanserin and positron emission tomographic imaging. We used [18F]altanserin and positron emission tomography (PET) to image serotonin 5-HT2A receptors in humans. The highest [18F]altanserin uptake is found in the cerebral cortex, with specific-to-nonspecific binding ratios varying from 0.53 to 1.91 in humans between 24 and 48 years of age. In all neocortical regions studied, [18F]altanserin uptake correlates negatively with age. No correlations were found between age and uptake in the cerebellum, the regional cerebral blood flow, or the time course of metabolization of [18F]altanserin. The reduction in cerebral 5-HT2A receptor binding thus directly reflects the loss of specific 5-HT2A receptors with age.
Which receptors can be evaluated with the [18F]altanserin?
55242d512c8b63434a000006_028
{ "answer_start": [ 25 ], "text": [ "5-HT2A" ] }
Physiological Roles of Adipokines, Hepatokines, and Myokines in Ruminants. Since the discovery of leptin secreted from adipocytes, specialized tissues and cells have been found that secrete the several peptides (or cytokines) that are characterized to negatively and positively regulate the metabolic process. Different types of adipokines, hepatokines, and myokines, which act as cytokines, are secreted from adipose, liver, and muscle tissue, respectively, and have been identified and examined for their physiological roles in humans and disease in animal models. Recently, various studies of these cytokines have been conducted in ruminants, including dairy cattle, beef cattle, sheep, and goat. Interestingly, a few cytokines from these tissues in ruminants play an important role in the post-parturition, lactation, and fattening (marbling) periods. Thus, understanding these hormones is important for improving nutritional management in dairy cows and beef cattle. However, to our knowledge, there have been no reviews of the characteristics of these cytokines in beef and dairy products in ruminants. In particular, lipid and glucose metabolism in adipose tissue, liver tissue, and muscle tissue are very important for energy storage, production, and synthesis, which are regulated by these cytokines in ruminant production. In this review, we summarize the physiological roles of adipokines, hepatokines, and myokines in ruminants. This discussion provides a foundation for understanding the role of cytokines in animal production of ruminants.
From which cell type is leptin secreted?
58ee0dd5eda5a57672000013_004
{ "answer_start": [ 119 ], "text": [ "adipocytes" ] }
G-protein-coupled receptor-2-interacting protein-1 is required for endothelial cell directional migration and tumor angiogenesis via cortactin-dependent lamellipodia formation. OBJECTIVE: Recent evidence suggests G-protein-coupled receptor-2-interacting protein-1 (GIT1) overexpression in several human metastatic tumors, including breast, lung, and prostate. Tumor metastasis is associated with an increase in angiogenesis. We have showed previously that GIT1 is required for postnatal angiogenesis during lung development. However, the functional role of GIT1 in pathological angiogenesis during tumor growth is unknown. APPROACH AND RESULTS: In the present study, we show inhibition of angiogenesis in matrigel implants as well as reduced tumor angiogenesis and melanoma tumor growth in GIT1-knockout mice. We demonstrate that this is a result of impaired directional migration of GIT1-depleted endothelial cells toward a vascular endothelial growth factor gradient. Cortactin-mediated lamellipodia formation in the leading edge is critical for directional migration. We observed a significant reduction in cortactin localization and lamellipodia formation in the leading edge of GIT1-depleted endothelial cells. We specifically identified that the Spa homology domain (aa 250-420) of GIT1 is required for GIT1-cortactin complex localization to the leading edge. The mechanisms involved extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 and 2-mediated Cortactin-S405 phosphorylation and activation of Rac1/Cdc42. Finally, using gain of function studies, we show that a constitutively active mutant of cortactin restored directional migration of GIT1-depleted cells. CONCLUSION: Our data demonstrated that a GIT1-cortactin association through GIT1-Spa homology domain is required for cortactin localization to the leading edge and is essential for endothelial cell directional migration and tumor angiogenesis.
Which G protein is essential in the formation and function of lamellipodia?
5319ac36b166e2b806000031_001
{ "answer_start": [ 1495 ], "text": [ "Rac1" ] }
Protection from cardiac arrhythmia through ryanodine receptor-stabilizing protein calstabin2. Ventricular arrhythmias can cause sudden cardiac death (SCD) in patients with normal hearts and in those with underlying disease such as heart failure. In animals with heart failure and in patients with inherited forms of exercise-induced SCD, depletion of the channel-stabilizing protein calstabin2 (FKBP12.6) from the ryanodine receptor-calcium release channel (RyR2) complex causes an intracellular Ca2+ leak that can trigger fatal cardiac arrhythmias. A derivative of 1,4-benzothiazepine (JTV519) increased the affinity of calstabin2 for RyR2, which stabilized the closed state of RyR2 and prevented the Ca2+ leak that triggers arrhythmias. Thus, enhancing the binding of calstabin2 to RyR2 may be a therapeutic strategy for common ventricular arrhythmias.
The drug JTV519 is derivative of which group of chemical compounds?
54f9b74306d9727f76000004_015
{ "answer_start": [ 570 ], "text": [ "benzothiazepine" ] }
Embryonic signature distinguishes pediatric and adult rhabdoid tumors from other SMARCB1-deficient cancers. Extra-cranial rhabdoid tumors (RT) are highly aggressive malignancies of infancy, characterized by undifferentiated histological features and loss of SMARCB1 expression. The diagnosis is all the more challenging that other poorly differentiated cancers lose SMARCB1 expression, such as epithelioid sarcomas (ES), renal medullary carcinomas (RMC) or undifferentiated chordomas (UC). Moreover, late cases occurring in adults are now increasingly reported, raising the question of differential diagnoses and emphasizing nosological issues. To address this issue, we have analyzed the expression profiles of a training set of 32 SMARCB1-deficient tumors (SDT), with ascertained diagnosis of RT (n = 16, all < 5 years of age), ES (n = 8, all > 10 years of age), UC (n = 3) and RMC (n = 5). As compared with other SDT, RT are characterized by an embryonic signature, and up-regulation of key-actors of de novo DNA methylation processes. Using this signature, we then analysed the expression profiling of 37 SDT to infer the appropriate diagnosis. Thirteen adult onset tumors showed strong similarity with pediatric RT, in spite of older age; by exome sequencing, these tumors also showed genomic features indistinguishable from pediatric RT. In contrary, 8 tumors were reclassified within carcinoma, ES or UC categories, while the remaining could not be related to any of those entities. Our results demonstrate that embryonic signature is shared by all RT, whatever the age at diagnosis; they also illustrate that many adult-onset SDT of ambiguous histological diagnosis are clearly different from RT. Finally, our study paves the way for the routine use of expression-based signatures to give accurate diagnosis of SDT.
With which cancers has the loss of SMARCB1 been associated?
5a86f074faa1ab7d2e00003a_009
{ "answer_start": [ 474 ], "text": [ "chordomas" ] }
Red hair--a desirable mutation? Red hair is one of the most striking variants of human hair coloration and has historically been of profound social importance. Red hair in man is due to certain loss of function mutations of one of the peptide products of the pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) gene, the melanocortin-1 receptor (MC1R, MIM 155555). Such functional mutations enable the melanocyte to produce red-yellow pheomelanin in preference to the default, black-brown eumelanin. This paper reviews the path of discovery of the MC1R in control of animal coat colour, the subsequent role of MC1R in human physiology and possibly wider role of MC1R in human skin carcinogenesis and human development through history.
Which gene is responsible for red hair?
5ace19420340b9f05800000a_008
{ "answer_start": [ 638 ], "text": [ "MC1R" ] }
Two novel tyrosinase (TYR) gene mutations with pathogenic impact on oculocutaneous albinism type 1 (OCA1). Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is a heterogeneous group of autosomal recessive disorders resulting from mutations of the tyrosinase (TYR) gene and presents with either complete or partial absence of pigment in the skin, hair and eyes due to a defect in an enzyme involved in the production of melanin. In this study, mutations in the TYR gene of 30 unrelated Iranian OCA1 patients and 100 healthy individuals were examined using PCR-sequencing. Additionally, in order to predict the possible effects of new mutations on the structure and function of tyrosinase, these mutations were analyzed by SIFT, PolyPhen and I-Mutant 2 software. Here, two new pathogenic p.C89S and p.H180R mutations were detected in two OCA1 patients. Moreover, the R402Q and S192Y variants, which are common non-pathogenic polymorphisms, were detected in 17.5% and 35% of the patients, respectively. The outcome of this study has extended the genotypic spectrum of OCA1 patients, which paves the way for more efficient carrier detection and genetic counseling.
Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?
58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_121
{ "answer_start": [ 22 ], "text": [ "TYR" ] }
Understanding the role of the Josephin domain in the PolyUb binding and cleavage properties of ataxin-3. Ataxin-3, the disease protein in the neurodegenerative disorder Spinocerebellar Ataxia Type 3 or Machado Joseph disease, is a cysteine protease implicated in the ubiquitin proteasome pathway. It contains multiple ubiquitin binding sites through which it anchors polyubiquitin chains of different linkages that are then cleaved by the N-terminal catalytic (Josephin) domain. The properties of the ubiquitin interacting motifs (UIMs) in the C-terminus of ataxin-3 are well established. Very little is known, however, about how two recently identified ubiquitin-binding sites in the Josephin domain contribute to ubiquitin chain binding and cleavage. In the current study, we sought to define the specific contribution of the Josephin domain to the catalytic properties of ataxin-3 and assess how the topology and affinity of these binding sites modulate ataxin-3 activity. Using NMR we modeled the structure of diUb/Josephin complexes and showed that linkage preferences are imposed by the topology of the two binding sites. Enzymatic studies further helped us to determine a precise hierarchy between the sites. We establish that the structure of Josephin dictates specificity for K48-linked chains. Site 1, which is close to the active site, is indispensable for cleavage. Our studies open the way to understand better the cellular function of ataxin-3 and its link to pathology.
Which is the protein implicated in Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3?
57138eb21174fb175500000a_008
{ "answer_start": [ 105 ], "text": [ "Ataxin-3" ] }
Maintenance DNA methyltransferase (Met1) and silencing of CpG-methylated foreign DNA in Volvox carteri. DNA methylation plays an important role in the gene-silencing network of higher eukaryotes. We have analyzed the 21.5-kb maintenance methyltransferase (M-MTase) gene, met1, of the multicellular green alga Volvox carteri. The met1 transcript was detected only during the period when DNA replication and cell division are taking place. It encodes a 238 kDa protein containing eight C-terminal activity domains typical of M-MTases, plus upstream DNA-binding domains including the ProDom domain PD003757, which experimental analyses in animal systems have indicated is required for targeting the enzyme to DNA-replication foci. Several insertions of unknown function make Volvox Met1 the largest known member of the Met1/Dnmt1 family. Here we also show that several endogenous transposon families are CpG-methylated in Volvox, which we think causes them to be inactive. This view is supported by the observation that an in vitro CpG-methylated gene introduced into Volvox was maintained in the methylated and silent state over >100 generations. Thus, we believe that Met1 recognizes and perpetuates the in vitro methylation signal, and that the silencing machinery is then able to transduce such a methylation-only signal into a stable heterochromatic (and silent) state.
Which enzyme is involved in the maintenance of DNA (cytosine-5-)-methylation?
51585b28d24251bc0500008d_038
{ "answer_start": [ 271 ], "text": [ "met1" ] }
The beet Y locus encodes an anthocyanin MYB-like protein that activates the betalain red pigment pathway. Nearly all flowering plants produce red/violet anthocyanin pigments. Caryophyllales is the only order containing families that replace anthocyanins with unrelated red and yellow betalain pigments. Close biological correlation of pigmentation patterns suggested that betalains might be regulated by a conserved anthocyanin-regulating transcription factor complex consisting of a MYB, a bHLH and a WD repeat-containing protein (the MBW complex). Here we show that a previously uncharacterized anthocyanin MYB-like protein, Beta vulgaris MYB1 (BvMYB1), regulates the betalain pathway in beets. Silencing BvMYB1 downregulates betalain biosynthetic genes and pigmentation, and overexpressing BvMYB1 upregulates them. However, unlike anthocyanin MYBs, BvMYB1 will not interact with bHLH members of heterologous anthocyanin MBW complexes because of identified nonconserved residues. BvMYB1 resides at the historic beet pigment-patterning locus, Y, required for red-fleshed beets. We show that Y and y express different levels of BvMYB1 transcripts. The co-option of a transcription factor regulating anthocyanin biosynthesis would be an important evolutionary event allowing betalains to largely functionally replace anthocyanins.
Which trancription factor activates the betalain pathway?
56d138fe3975bb303a000015_001
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "The beet Y locus encodes an anthocyanin MYB-like protein that activates the betalain red pigment pathway." ] }
Pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of mepolizumab, an anti-interleukin-5 monoclonal antibody. Mepolizumab is a fully humanized monoclonal antibody (IgG1/κ) targeting human interleukin-5 (IL-5), a key haematopoietin needed for eosinophil development and function. Mepolizumab blocks human IL-5 from binding to the α-chain of the IL-5 receptor complex on the eosinophil cell surface, thereby inhibiting IL-5 signalling. The pharmacokinetics of mepolizumab have been evaluated in clinical studies at doses of 0.05-10 mg/kg and at 250 mg, 750 mg and 1500 mg. Mepolizumab was eliminated slowly, with mean initial and terminal phase half-life values of approximately 2 and 20 days, respectively. Plasma clearance ranged from 0.064 to 0.163 mL/h/kg and steady-state volume of distribution ranged from 49 to 93 mL/kg. Pharmacokinetics were dose proportional and time independent. Estimates based on a two-compartment intravenous infusion model from patients with asthma or healthy subjects following single doses predicted mepolizumab plasma concentrations in multiple-dose studies involving patients with hypereosinophilic syndrome (HES), asthma or eosinophilic oesophagitis. The absolute bioavailability of mepolizumab was 64-75% following subcutaneous injection and 81% following intramuscular injection. Peripheral blood eosinophil levels decreased in healthy subjects and patients with HES, asthma, eosinophilic oesophagitis or atopic dermatitis after intravenous mepolizumab infusion and subcutaneous injection. Reductions in eosinophil counts in oesophagus, sputum, skin, bone marrow, nasal lavage fluid and/or bronchial mucosa after treatment with mepolizumab were observed in placebo-controlled studies in various indications. The relationship between percentage change from baseline in blood eosinophils and mepolizumab plasma concentrations was described by an indirect pharmacological response model. The estimated maximal decrease in eosinophil count was approximately 85% from baseline and the half-maximal inhibitory concentration (IC50) was approximately 0.45 μg/mL.
Which molecule is targeted by a monoclonal antibody Mepolizumab?
54d907c84b1fd0d33c000008_021
{ "answer_start": [ 175 ], "text": [ "interleukin-5" ] }
Biochemical assay for histone H2A.Z replacement by the yeast SWR1 chromatin remodeling complex. The evolutionarily conserved histone variant H2A.Z has an important role in the regulation of gene expression and the establishment of a buffer to the spread of silent heterochromatin. Saccharomyces cerevisiae Swr1, a Swi2/Snf2-related ATPase, is the catalytic core of a multisubunit chromatin remodeling enzyme, called the SWR1 complex, that efficiently replaces conventional histone H2A in nucleosomes with histone H2A.Z. Swr1 is required for the deposition of histone H2A.Z at stereotypical promoter locations in vivo, and Swr1 and H2A.Z commonly regulate a subset of yeast genes. Here, we describe an integrated nucleosome assembly-histone replacement system whereby histone exchange by chromatin remodeling activities may be analyzed in vitro. The system demonstrates ATP- and SWR1-complex-dependent replacement of histone H2A for histone H2A.Z on a preassembled nucleosome array. This system may also be adapted to analyze dynamic interactions between chromatin remodeling and modifying enzymes, histone chaperones, and nucleosome substrates containing canonical, variant, or covalently modified histones.
Which protein mediates the replacement of H2A by H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
58a6db8660087bc10a00002c_014
{ "answer_start": [ 306 ], "text": [ "Swr1" ] }
Clinical features and management issues in Mowat-Wilson syndrome. Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a relatively newly described multiple congenital anomaly/mental retardation syndrome. Haploinsufficiency of a gene termed ZFHX1B (also known as SIP1) on chromosome 2 is responsible for this condition, and clinical genetic testing for MWS recently became available. The majority of reports in the literature originate from Northern Europe and Australia. Here we report our clinical experience with 12 patients diagnosed with MWS within a 2-year period of time in the United States, with particular emphasis on clinical characteristics and management strategies. Individuals with this condition have characteristic facial features, including microcephaly, hypertelorism, medially flared and broad eyebrows, prominent columella, pointed chin, and uplifted earlobes, which typically prompt the clinician to consider the diagnosis. Medical issues in our cohort of patients included seizures (75%) with no predeliction for any particular seizure type; agenesis of the corpus callosum (60% of our patients studied); congenital heart defects (75%), particularly involving the pulmonary arteries and/or valves; hypospadias (55% of males); severely impaired or absent speech (100% of individuals over 1 year of age) with relatively spared receptive language; and Hirschsprung disease (50%) or chronic constipation (25%). The incidence of MWS is unknown, but based on the number of patients identified in a short period of time within the US, it is likely greatly under recognized. MWS should be considered in any individual with severely impaired or absent speech, especially in the presence of seizures and anomalies involving the pulmonary arteries (particularly pulmonary artery sling) or pulmonary valves.
Which gene is responsible for the development of the Mowat-Wilson syndrome?
5519113b622b19434500000f_026
{ "answer_start": [ 219 ], "text": [ "ZFHX1B" ] }
The long non-coding RNA H19 promotes cardiomyocyte apoptosis in dilated cardiomyopathy. In the previous study, we generated a rat model of dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) induced by adriamycin and found that the expression of lncRNA H19 was significantly upregulated in myocardial tissue. The present study was aimed to investigate the potential role of H19 in the pathogenesis of adriamycin-induced DCM. H19 knockdown in the myocardium of DCM rats attenuated cardiomyocyte apoptosis and improved left ventricular structure and function. Adriamycin treatment was associated with elevated H19 and miR-675 expression and increased apoptosis in neonatal cardiomyocytes. Enforced expression of miR-675 was found to induce apoptosis in cardiomyocytes with adriamycin treatment and H19-siRNA transfection. The 3'-untranslated region of PA2G4 was cloned downstream of a luciferase reporter construct and cotransfected into HEK293 cells with miR-675 mimic. The results of luciferase assay showed that PA2G4 was a direct target of miR-675. The expression of PA2G4 was reduced in cardiomyocytes transfected with miR-675 mimic. Moreover, H19 knockdown was found to increase PA2G4 expression and suppress apoptosis in cardiomyocytes exposed to adriamycin. In conclusion, our study suggests that H19/miR-675 axis is involved in the promotion of cardiomyocyte apoptosis by targeting PA2G4, which may provide a new therapeutic strategy for the treatment of adriamycin-induced DCM.
Name an lncRNA associated with dilated cardiomyopathy.
5ac716810340b9f058000003_001
{ "answer_start": [ 223 ], "text": [ "lncRNA H19" ] }
Visualisation of loss of 5-HT2A receptors with age in healthy volunteers using [18F]altanserin and positron emission tomographic imaging. We used [18F]altanserin and positron emission tomography (PET) to image serotonin 5-HT2A receptors in humans. The highest [18F]altanserin uptake is found in the cerebral cortex, with specific-to-nonspecific binding ratios varying from 0.53 to 1.91 in humans between 24 and 48 years of age. In all neocortical regions studied, [18F]altanserin uptake correlates negatively with age. No correlations were found between age and uptake in the cerebellum, the regional cerebral blood flow, or the time course of metabolization of [18F]altanserin. The reduction in cerebral 5-HT2A receptor binding thus directly reflects the loss of specific 5-HT2A receptors with age.
Which receptors can be evaluated with the [18F]altanserin?
55242d512c8b63434a000006_039
{ "answer_start": [ 220 ], "text": [ "5-HT2A" ] }
Targeting Intrinsic and Extrinsic Vulnerabilities for the Treatment of Multiple Myeloma. Multiple myeloma (MM) is a malignant plasma cell disorder, clinically characterized by osteolytic lesions, immunodeficiency, and renal disease. Over the past decade, MM therapy is significantly improved by the introduction of novel therapeutics such as immunomodulatory agents (thalidomide, lenalidomide, and pomalidomide), proteasome inhibitors (bortezomib, carfilzomib, and ixazomib), monoclonal antibodies (daratumumab and elotuzumab), histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors (Panobinostat). The clinical success of these agents has clearly identified vulnerabilities intrinsic to the MM cell, as well as targets that emanate from the tumor microenvironment. Despite these significant improvements, MM remains incurable due to the development of drug resistance. This perspective will discuss more recent strategies which take advantage of multiple targets within the proteome recycling pathway, chromatin remodeling, and disruption of nuclear export. In addition, we will review the development of strategies designed to block opportunistic survival signaling that occurs between the MM cell and the tumor microenvironment including strategies for inhibiting myeloma-induced immune suppression. It has become clear that MM tumors continue to evolve on therapy leading to drug resistance. It will be important to understand the emerging drug resistant mechanisms and additional vulnerabilities that occur due to the development of clinical resistance. J. Cell. Biochem. 118: 15-25, 2017. © 2016 Wiley Periodicals, Inc.
Which enzyme is inhibited by ixazomib?
589630f378275d0c4a000007_001
{ "answer_start": [ 413 ], "text": [ "proteasome" ] }
Is pulmonary arterial hypertension in neurofibromatosis type 1 secondary to a plexogenic arteriopathy? BACKGROUND: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a common disorder of dysregulated tissue growth secondary to mutations in the tumor suppressor gene NF1. Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in patients with NF1 is hypothesized to be secondary to an underlying vasculopathy. METHODS: We describe the entity we term NF1-associated PAH (NF1-PAH) in four new patients and update the data on four previously published reports of patients with PAH and NF1. We performed genetic testing of the bone morphogenic protein receptor 2 (BMPR2) gene, which mutated in 70% of patients with familial PAH and approximately 25% of patients with idiopathic PAH. We report, for the first time, pathologic findings in the autopsy-obtained lung of one patient with NF1-PAH. RESULTS: Patients with NF1-PAH have a generally poor long-term prognosis. In four patients, we observed the mosaic pattern of lung attenuation on a CT scan of the chest, a radiographic finding that can be consistent with an underlying vasculopathy. No mutations or rearrangements in the BMPR2 gene were found. We observed complex plexiform lesions in the one available autopsy specimen. Similar lesions are a hallmark of plexogenic pulmonary arteriopathy and are associated with several severe types of PAH. (Plexiform lesions should not be confused with plexiform neurofibromas, which are distinctive tumors seen in NF1.) CONCLUSIONS: Our findings suggest that NF1 should be considered as being "associated with PAH as outlined in the Revised Clinical Classification of Pulmonary Hypertension. Understanding the mechanism of PAH in NF1 may inform the pathogenesis of PAH, NF1-PAH itself, and other NF1-associated vasculopathies. The pulmonary vasculature should now be included among the arterial beds affected by NF1 vasculopathy.
Which is the gene mutated in type 1 neurofibromatosis?
5343fc1aaeec6fbd07000003_009
{ "answer_start": [ 141 ], "text": [ "NF1" ] }
A receptor for the immunosuppressant FK506 is a cis-trans peptidyl-prolyl isomerase. The structurally novel macrolide FK506 (refs 1,2) has recently been demonstrated to have potent immunosuppressive activity at concentrations several hundredfold lower than cyclosporin A (CsA). Cyclosporin A, a cyclic peptide, has found widespread clinical use in the prevention of graft rejection following bone marrow and organ transplantation. The mechanisms of immunosuppression mediated by FK506 and CsA appear to be remarkably similar, suggesting that these unrelated structures act on a common receptor or on similar molecular targets, perhaps the CsA receptor, cyclophilin, which has recently been shown by Fischer et al. and Takahashi et al. to have cis-trans peptidyl-prolyl isomerase activity. We have prepared an FK506 affinity matrix and purified a binding protein for FK506 from bovine thymus and from human spleen. This FK506-binding protein (FKBP) has a relative molecular mass (Mr) of approximately 14,000(14K), a pI of 8.8-8.9, and does not cross-react with antisera against cyclophilin. The first 40 N-terminal residues of the bovine and 16 residues of the human FKBP were determined; the 16-residue fragments are identical to each other and unrelated to any known sequences. This protein catalyses the cis-trans isomerization of the proline amide in a tetrapeptide substrate and FK506 inhibits the action of this new isomerase. The FKBP and cyclophilin appear to be members of an emerging class of novel proteins that regulate T cell activation and other metabolic processes, perhaps by the recognition (and possibly the isomerization) of proline-containing epitopes in target proteins.
Which is the receptor for the immunosuppressive drug cyclosporin A (CsA)?
56f6c11109dd18d46b00000e_002
{ "answer_start": [ 653 ], "text": [ "cyclophilin" ] }
Telomere position effect regulates DUX4 in human facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy. Telomeres may regulate human disease by at least two independent mechanisms. First, replicative senescence occurs once short telomeres generate DNA-damage signals that produce a barrier to tumor progression. Second, telomere position effects (TPE) could change gene expression at intermediate telomere lengths in cultured human cells. Here we report that telomere length may contribute to the pathogenesis of facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD). FSHD is a late-onset disease genetically residing only 25-60 kilobases from the end of chromosome 4q. We used a floxable telomerase to generate isogenic clones with different telomere lengths from affected patients and their unaffected siblings. DUX4, the primary candidate for FSHD pathogenesis, is upregulated over ten-fold in FSHD myoblasts and myotubes with short telomeres, and its expression is inversely proportional to telomere length. FSHD may be the first known human disease in which TPE contributes to age-related phenotype.
Which disease is associated with the ectopic expression of the protein encoded by the gene DUX4?
550f0e4c6a8cde6b72000003_005
{ "answer_start": [ 823 ], "text": [ "FSHD" ] }
Communicating hydrocephalus following eosinophilic meningitis is pathogenic for chronic Viliuisk encephalomyelitis in Northeastern Siberia. BACKGROUND: Viliuisk encephalomyelitis (VE) is an endemic neurological disease in Northeast Siberia and generally considered to be a chronic encephalomyelitis of unknown origin actually spreading in the Sakha (Yakutian) Republic. METHODOLOGY AND PRINCIPLE FINDINGS: In search for the pathophysiology and causative agent of VE, we performed a cross-sectional study on clinical, serological and neuroimaging data on chronic VE patients during two medical expeditions to three villages within the Viliuiski river basin in the Republic of Sakha in 2000 and to the capital Yakutsk in 2006. The severity of the core clinical picture with predominant sensory ataxia, gait apraxia, lower limb spasticity, cognitive impairment and bladder dysfunction correlated with the degree of MRI findings showing enlargement of inner ventricular spaces as in communicating hydrocephalus. Laboratory studies revealed transient eosinophilia during the preceding acute meningitis-like phase, but no ongoing inflammatory process in the CSF. We found immune reactions against Toxocara canis in the majority of chronic VE patients but rarely in controls (P = 0.025; Fisher's exact test). Histological analysis of subacute to subchronic VE brain samples showed eosinophilic infiltrations with no signs of persistent Toxocara canis infection. CONCLUSIONS AND SIGNIFICANCE: Our data showed that pressure by the communicating hydrocephalus as a mechanical factor is the major pathogenic mechanism in chronic VE, most likely triggered by eosinophilic meningitis. There are no signs for an ongoing inflammatory process in chronic VE. The past eosinophilic reaction in VE might be caused by Toxocara ssp. infection and might therefore represent the first hint for an initial cause leading to the development of chronic VE. Our data provide a framework for future studies and potential therapeutic interventions for this enigmatic epidemic neurological disease potentially spreading in Sakha Republic.
Viliuisk encephalomyelitis is diagnosed in which geographical area?
588f9f83ed9bbee70d000004_001
{ "answer_start": [ 222 ], "text": [ "Northeast Siberia" ] }
Molecular cloning and expression of alfalfa (Medicago sativa L.) vestitone reductase, the penultimate enzyme in medicarpin biosynthesis. Medicarpin, the major phytoalexin in alfalfa, is synthesized by way of the isoflavonoid branch of phenylpropanoid metabolism. One of the final steps of medicarpin biosynthesis, from vestitone to 7,2'-dihydroxy-4'-methoxyisoflavanol, is catalyzed by vestitone reductase. A 1245-bp cDNA clone which encodes vestitone reductase was identified utilizing internal amino acid sequence of purified vestitone reductase. When expressed in Escherichia coli, the cloned enzyme exhibits strict substrate stereospecificity for (3R)-vestitone, as was observed for vestitone reductase purified from alfalfa. The calculated molecular weight of the protein (35,918) is similar to that of purified vestitone reductase from alfalfa (38 kDa by SDS-PAGE). The levels of vestitone reductase transcript (1.35 kb) greatly increase within 2 h of elicitor addition to alfalfa cell suspension cultures, preceding the rapid increases in vestitione reductase enzyme activity and medicarpin biosynthesis. In healthy alfalfa plants, the highest levels of transcripts were detected in roots and root nodules, consistent with the synthesis of medicarpin and its conjugate in these tissues. The cloning of the vestitone reductase gene provides a specific tool for the study and manipulation of pterocarpan biosynthesis in legumes.
Which is the major phytoalexin in alfalfa (Medicago sativa L.)?
5543829fed966d112c000009_002
{ "answer_start": [ 137 ], "text": [ "Medicarpin" ] }
Characterization of 6-hexadecanoylamino-4-methylumbelliferyl-beta-D- galactopyranoside as fluorogenic substrate of galactocerebrosidase for the diagnosis of Krabbe disease. 6-Hexadecanoylamino-4-methylumbelliferyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside (HMGal) has been shown to be a specific fluorogenic substrate of galactocerebrosidase and to facilitate the simple enzymatic diagnosis of Krabbe disease in human patients and in twitcher mice. HMGal hydrolysis at pH 4.5 is optimally stimulated by sodium taurocholate (0.25%) and oleic acid (0.05%) with a Km of 0.150, 0.04 and 0.03 mM, respectively for control mouse kidney, human fibroblasts and leukocytes. In control samples, the specific activity (nmol/mg prot./h) for HMGal is higher than for the natural substrate, galactocerebroside, and is severely deficient in the twitcher mouse and in patients with Krabbe disease. Comparative investigation of galactocerebrosidase activity in fibroblasts, leukocytes and brain with radioactive and fluorogenic substrates reveals a good agreement between the results of the two methods. Galactocerebroside (Gal-Cer) is a competitive inhibitor of HMGal hydrolysis in mouse kidney homogenates while GM1-ganglioside has no inhibitory effect in the same assay system. The sensitivity and specificity of this fluorogenic substrate for galactocerebrosidase provides a simple and rapid method for the diagnosis of Krabbe disease, and for the purification of this enzyme from normal tissues.
Which enzyme is deficient in Krabbe disease?
5147c8a6d24251bc05000027_013
{ "answer_start": [ 304 ], "text": [ "galactocerebrosidase" ] }
Delamanid for multidrug-resistant pulmonary tuberculosis. BACKGROUND: Delamanid (OPC-67683), a nitro-dihydro-imidazooxazole derivative, is a new antituberculosis medication that inhibits mycolic acid synthesis and has shown potent in vitro and in vivo activity against drug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. METHODS: In this randomized, placebo-controlled, multinational clinical trial, we assigned 481 patients (nearly all of whom were negative for the human immunodeficiency virus) with pulmonary multidrug-resistant tuberculosis to receive delamanid, at a dose of 100 mg twice daily (161 patients) or 200 mg twice daily (160 patients), or placebo (160 patients) for 2 months in combination with a background drug regimen developed according to World Health Organization guidelines. Sputum cultures were assessed weekly with the use of both liquid broth and solid medium; sputum-culture conversion was defined as a series of five or more consecutive cultures that were negative for growth of M. tuberculosis. The primary efficacy end point was the proportion of patients with sputum-culture conversion in liquid broth medium at 2 months. RESULTS: Among patients who received a background drug regimen plus 100 mg of delamanid twice daily, 45.4% had sputum-culture conversion in liquid broth at 2 months, as compared with 29.6% of patients who received a background drug regimen plus placebo (P=0.008). Likewise, as compared with the placebo group, the group that received the background drug regimen plus 200 mg of delamanid twice daily had a higher proportion of patients with sputum-culture conversion (41.9%, P=0.04). The findings were similar with assessment of sputum-culture conversion in solid medium. Most adverse events were mild to moderate in severity and were evenly distributed across groups. Although no clinical events due to QT prolongation on electrocardiography were observed, QT prolongation was reported significantly more frequently in the groups that received delamanid. CONCLUSIONS: Delamanid was associated with an increase in sputum-culture conversion at 2 months among patients with multidrug-resistant tuberculosis. This finding suggests that delamanid could enhance treatment options for multidrug-resistant tuberculosis. (Funded by Otsuka Pharmaceutical Development and Commercialization; ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT00685360.).
Which disease can be treated with Delamanid?
56bc7d71ac7ad10019000018_007
{ "answer_start": [ 149 ], "text": [ "tuberculosis" ] }
CLAST: CUDA implemented large-scale alignment search tool. BACKGROUND: Metagenomics is a powerful methodology to study microbial communities, but it is highly dependent on nucleotide sequence similarity searching against sequence databases. Metagenomic analyses with next-generation sequencing technologies produce enormous numbers of reads from microbial communities, and many reads are derived from microbes whose genomes have not yet been sequenced, limiting the usefulness of existing sequence similarity search tools. Therefore, there is a clear need for a sequence similarity search tool that can rapidly detect weak similarity in large datasets. RESULTS: We developed a tool, which we named CLAST (CUDA implemented large-scale alignment search tool), that enables analyses of millions of reads and thousands of reference genome sequences, and runs on NVIDIA Fermi architecture graphics processing units. CLAST has four main advantages over existing alignment tools. First, CLAST was capable of identifying sequence similarities ~80.8 times faster than BLAST and 9.6 times faster than BLAT. Second, CLAST executes global alignment as the default (local alignment is also an option), enabling CLAST to assign reads to taxonomic and functional groups based on evolutionarily distant nucleotide sequences with high accuracy. Third, CLAST does not need a preprocessed sequence database like Burrows-Wheeler Transform-based tools, and this enables CLAST to incorporate large, frequently updated sequence databases. Fourth, CLAST requires <2 GB of main memory, making it possible to run CLAST on a standard desktop computer or server node. CONCLUSIONS: CLAST achieved very high speed (similar to the Burrows-Wheeler Transform-based Bowtie 2 for long reads) and sensitivity (equal to BLAST, BLAT, and FR-HIT) without the need for extensive database preprocessing or a specialized computing platform. Our results demonstrate that CLAST has the potential to be one of the most powerful and realistic approaches to analyze the massive amount of sequence data from next-generation sequencing technologies.
How many times is CLAST faster than BLAST?
58f6295a70f9fc6f0f000019_008
{ "answer_start": [ 1036 ], "text": [ "80.8" ] }
Gevokizumab, an anti-IL-1β mAb for the potential treatment of type 1 and 2 diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis and cardiovascular disease. The inflammatory cytokine IL-1β has an essential role in the innate immune response. High levels of IL-1β have been implicated in the development of many diseases, including type 1 and 2 diabetes (T1D and T2D), rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and cardiovascular disease. XOMA is developing gevokizumab (XOMA-052), an IgG2 humanized mAb against human IL-1β, for the potential treatment of these diseases. Gevokizumab has a high affinity for IL-1β and a long t1/2, which would allow for once-monthly dosing and offer a considerable advantage for patients over agents requiring more frequent dosing. Data from preclinical studies and clinical trials suggest that gevokizumab is a potentially effective and well-tolerated treatment for the indicated diseases. At the time of publication, phase II clinical trials were ongoing in patients with T1D, T2D and RA, with the T2D trials assessing key cardiovascular markers. Following promising data from a recent pilot trial, XOMA was also planning a phase I/II trial of gevokizumab for the potential treatment of uveitis in patients with the vasculitic inflammatory disorder Behçet's disease and the autoinflammatory conditions familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome and Muckle-Wells syndrome.
Which molecule is targeted by the drug Gevokizumab?
550e828c71445a662f000002_016
{ "answer_start": [ 568 ], "text": [ "IL-1β" ] }
Tendon protein synthesis rate in classic Ehlers-Danlos patients can be stimulated with insulin-like growth factor-I. The classic form of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (cEDS) is an inherited connective tissue disorder, where mutations in type V collagen-encoding genes result in abnormal collagen fibrils. Thus the cEDS patients have pathological connective tissue morphology and low stiffness, but the rate of connective tissue protein turnover is unknown. We investigated whether cEDS affected the protein synthesis rate in skin and tendon, and whether this could be stimulated in tendon tissue with insulin-like growth factor-I (IGF-I). Five patients with cEDS and 10 healthy, matched controls (CTRL) were included. One patellar tendon of each participant was injected with 0.1 ml IGF-I (Increlex, Ipsen, 10 mg/ml) and the contralateral tendon with 0.1 ml isotonic saline as control. The injections were performed at both 24 and 6 h prior to tissue sampling. The fractional synthesis rate (FSR) of proteins in skin and tendon was measured with the stable isotope technique using a flood-primed continuous infusion over 6 h. After the infusion one skin biopsy and two tendon biopsies (one from each patellar tendon) were obtained. We found similar baseline FSR values in skin and tendon in the cEDS patients and controls [skin: 0.005 ± 0.002 (cEDS) and 0.007 ± 0.002 (CTRL); tendon: 0.008 ± 0.001 (cEDS) and 0.009 ± 0.002 (CTRL) %/h, mean ± SE]. IGF-I injections significantly increased FSR values in cEDS patients but not in controls (delta values: cEDS 0.007 ± 0.002, CTRL 0.001 ± 0.001%/h). In conclusion, baseline protein synthesis rates in connective tissue appeared normal in cEDS patients, and the patients responded with an increased tendon protein synthesis rate to IGF-I injections.
What tissue is most affected in Ehlers-Danlos syndromes?
58cdb41302b8c60953000042_026
{ "answer_start": [ 339 ], "text": [ "connective tissue" ] }
TFEB links autophagy to lysosomal biogenesis. Autophagy is a cellular catabolic process that relies on the cooperation of autophagosomes and lysosomes. During starvation, the cell expands both compartments to enhance degradation processes. We found that starvation activates a transcriptional program that controls major steps of the autophagic pathway, including autophagosome formation, autophagosome-lysosome fusion, and substrate degradation. The transcription factor EB (TFEB), a master gene for lysosomal biogenesis, coordinated this program by driving expression of autophagy and lysosomal genes. Nuclear localization and activity of TFEB were regulated by serine phosphorylation mediated by the extracellular signal-regulated kinase 2, whose activity was tuned by the levels of extracellular nutrients. Thus, a mitogen-activated protein kinase-dependent mechanism regulates autophagy by controlling the biogenesis and partnership of two distinct cellular organelles.
Which transcription factor is considered as a master regulator of lysosomal genes?
56cdf40d5795f9a73e00003d_012
{ "answer_start": [ 451 ], "text": [ "transcription factor EB (TFEB)" ] }
Oral ixazomib maintenance therapy in multiple myeloma. Continuous therapy has proven to be an effective therapeutic strategy to improve the outcome of both young and elderly multiple myeloma patients. Remarkably, lenalidomide and bortezomib showed to play a crucial role in this setting due to their safety profile allowing long-term exposure. Ixazomib, the first oral proteasome inhibitor to be evaluated in multiple myeloma, exerts substantial anti-myeloma activity as a single agent and particularly in combination with immunomodulatory drugs and it may be an attractive option for maintenance therapy. Here we address the issue of maintenance therapy as part of a therapeutic approach of multiple myeloma patients focusing on the potential role of ixazomib.
Which enzyme is inhibited by ixazomib?
589630f378275d0c4a000007_004
{ "answer_start": [ 369 ], "text": [ "proteasome" ] }
Regional cerebral glucose metabolism after pridopidine (ACR16) treatment in patients with Huntington disease. OBJECTIVES: Huntington disease is a hereditary neurodegenerative disorder resulting in loss of motor, cognitive, and behavioral functions and is characterized by a distinctive pattern of cerebral metabolic abnormalities. Pridopidine (ACR16) belongs to a novel class of central nervous system compounds in development for the treatment of Huntington disease. The objective of the study was to investigate the metabolic changes in patients with Huntington disease before and after pridopidine treatment. METHODS: [(18)F]Fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomographic imaging was used to measure the regional cerebral metabolic rate of glucose at baseline and after 14 days of open-label pridopidine treatment in 8 patients with Huntington disease. Clinical assessments were performed using the Unified Huntington's Disease Rating Scale. RESULTS: Statistical parametric mapping analysis showed increased metabolic activity in several brain regions such as the precuneus and the mediodorsal thalamic nucleus after treatment. In addition, after pridopidine treatment, the correlation between the clinical status and the cerebral metabolic activity was strengthened. CONCLUSIONS: Our findings suggest that pridopidine induces metabolic changes in brain regions implicated as important for mediating compensatory mechanisms in Huntington disease. In addition, the finding of a strong relationship between clinical severity and metabolic activity after treatment also suggests that pridopidine treatment targets a Huntington disease-related metabolic activity pattern.
Pridopidine has been tested for treatment of which disorder?
550ea8f1b305b40c5c000005_005
{ "answer_start": [ 448 ], "text": [ "Huntington disease" ] }
Receptor activator for NF-κB ligand in acute myeloid leukemia: expression, function, and modulation of NK cell immunosurveillance. The TNF family member receptor activator for NF-κB ligand (RANKL) and its receptors RANK and osteoprotegerin are key regulators of bone remodeling but also influence cellular functions of tumor and immune effector cells. In this work, we studied the involvement of RANK-RANKL interaction in NK cell-mediated immunosurveillance of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Substantial levels of RANKL were found to be expressed on leukemia cells in 53 of 78 (68%) investigated patients. Signaling via RANKL into the leukemia cells stimulated their metabolic activity and induced the release of cytokines involved in AML pathophysiology. In addition, the immunomodulatory factors released by AML cells upon RANKL signaling impaired the anti-leukemia reactivity of NK cells and induced RANK expression, and NK cells of AML patients displayed significantly upregulated RANK expression compared with healthy controls. Treatment of AML cells with the clinically available RANKL Ab Denosumab resulted in enhanced NK cell anti-leukemia reactivity. This was due to both blockade of the release of NK-inhibitory factors by AML cells and prevention of RANK signaling into NK cells. The latter was found to directly impair NK anti-leukemia reactivity with a more pronounced effect on IFN-γ production compared with cytotoxicity. Together, our data unravel a previously unknown function of the RANK-RANKL molecule system in AML pathophysiology as well as NK cell function and suggest that neutralization of RANKL with therapeutic Abs may serve to reinforce NK cell reactivity in leukemia patients.
To the ligand of which receptors does Denosumab (Prolia) bind?
52bf1d9e03868f1b06000010_002
{ "answer_start": [ 1085 ], "text": [ "RANKL" ] }
Patient with craniosynostosis and marfanoid phenotype (Shprintzen-Goldberg syndrome) and cloverleaf skull. Marfanoid phenotype with craniosynostosis (Shprintzen-Goldberg syndrome) is a rare disorder previously described in only 5 patients. We report on the sixth known patient with this condition. The findings which distinguish our patient from others reported previously are that she was ascertained prenatally as having a cloverleaf skull; this is the first female patient described with this condition. Postnatally, she presented with arachnodactyly, camptodactyly, and clover-leaf skull. Imaging studies of the brain documented microcephaly with malformed brain, hydrocephaly, and hypoplasia of the corpus callosum. She also had choanal atresia and stenosis, a clinical finding previously reported only once, in this disorder.
Which disease is included as an additional feature in the Goldberg-Shprintzen syndrome?
5519110f622b19434500000c_001
{ "answer_start": [ 132 ], "text": [ "craniosynostosis" ] }
Emerging anticoagulants. Warfarin, heparin and their derivatives have been the traditional anticoagulants used for prophylaxis and treatment of venous thromboembolism. While the modern clinician is familiar with the efficacy and pharmacokinetics of these agents, their adverse effects have provided the impetus for the development of newer anticoagulants with improved safety, ease of administration, more predictable pharmacodynamics and comparable efficacy. Research into haemostasis and the coagulation cascade has made the development of these newer anticoagulants possible. These drugs include the factor Xa inhibitors and IIa (thrombin) inhibitors. Direct and indirect factor Xa inhibitors are being developed with a relative rapid onset of action and stable pharmacokinetic profiles negating the need for close monitoring; this potentially makes them a more attractive option than heparin or warfarin. Examples of direct factor Xa inhibitors include apixaban, rivaroxaban, otamixaban, betrixaban and edoxaban. Examples of indirect factor Xa inhibitors include fondaparinux, idraparinux and idrabiotaparinux. Direct thrombin inhibitors (factor IIa inhibitors) were developed with the limitations of standard heparin and warfarin in mind. Examples include recombinant hirudin (lepirudin), bivalirudin, ximelagatran, argatroban, and dabigatran etexilate. This review will discuss emerging novel anticoagulants and their use for the prophylaxis and management of venous thromboembolism, for stroke prevention in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation and for coronary artery disease.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_043
{ "answer_start": [ 997 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Treatment of refractory ulcerative necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum with infliximab: report of a case. BACKGROUND: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum (NLD) is a rare, granulomatous inflammatory skin disease of unknown origin, sometimes associated with diabetes mellitus. Skin lesions usually develop on the lower extremities and can progress toward ulceration and scarring. Many treatments have been proposed, but few have demonstrated consistent efficacy, and no standard regimens have emerged to date. OBSERVATIONS: An 84-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus presented with a 3-year history of chronic right-lower-extremity erythematous papules and plaques that had developed into confluent ulcers with prominent granulation tissue and an orange-yellow hue. The results of a biopsy of the lesion was consistent with a diagnosis of NLD. The wound did not respond to 4 months of intensive local wound care. After the first intravenous infusion of infliximab (5 mg/kg), there was rapid reduction in wound size, pain, and drainage. There was complete wound healing with excellent cosmesis at 6 weeks (total of 3 infusions). CONCLUSIONS: Infliximab should be considered in the treatment of refractory, ulcerative NLD. Its anti-tumor necrosis factor activity may underlie its efficacy in targeting this granulomatous process, and further investigation should be undertaken to confirm these results.
Which disease the skin condition Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is associated to?
58bfd8e902b8c60953000018_013
{ "answer_start": [ 254 ], "text": [ "diabetes mellitus" ] }
The anthrax toxin activator gene atxA is associated with CO2-enhanced non-toxin gene expression in Bacillus anthracis. The Bacillus anthracis toxin genes, cya, lef, and pag, can be viewed as a regulon, in which transcription of all three genes is activated in trans by the same regulatory gene, atxA, in response to the same signal, CO2. In atxA+ strains, toxin gene expression is increased 5- to 20-fold in cells grown in 5% CO2 relative to cells grown in air. CO2-enhanced toxin gene transcription is not observed in atx4-null mutants. Here, we used two independent techniques to obtain evidence for additional CO2-induced atxA-regulated genes. First, total protein preparations from atxA4+ and atxA isolates grown in 5% CO2 and in air were examined by two-dimensional electrophoresis. Comparison of the resulting protein patterns indicated that synthesis of non-toxin proteins is influenced by growth in elevated CO2 and the toxin gene regulator, atxA. Second, we generated random transcriptional lacZ fusions in B. anthracis with transposon Tn917-LTV3. Transposon-insertion libraries were screened for mutants expressing CO2-enhanced atxA-dependent beta-galactosidase activity. DNA sequence analysis of transposon insertion sites in 17 mutants carrying CO2- and atxA-regulated fusions revealed 10 mutants carrying independent insertions on the 185-kb toxin plasmid pXO1 which did not map to the toxin genes. The tcr-lacZ fusion mutants (tcr for toxin coregulated) were Tox+, indicating that these genes may not be involved in anthrax toxin gene activation. Our data indicate a clear association of atxA with CO2-enhanced gene expression in B. anthracis and provide evidence that atxA regulates genes other than the structural genes for the anthrax toxin proteins.
Which metabolite activates AtxA?
5710a592cf1c32585100002a_022
{ "answer_start": [ 57 ], "text": [ "CO2" ] }
Single- and multiple-dose pharmacokinetics and tolerability of telcagepant, an oral calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor antagonist, in adults. Telcagepant is a novel, orally active, and selective calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor antagonist being developed for acute treatment of migraine with and without aura. Three separate clinical studies were conducted to evaluate the pharmacokinetics and tolerability of telcagepant following single oral doses in healthy young and elderly men and women and multiple oral doses in men. Telcagepant was rapidly absorbed with a time to maximum concentration of approximately 1.5 hours. The terminal half-life was approximately 6 hours. A greater than dose-proportional increase was observed in the area under the plasma concentration versus time curve from zero to infinity. Following twice-daily dosing, with each dose separated by 2 hours, steady state was achieved in approximately 3 to 4 days with an accumulation ratio of approximately 2. There were no clinically meaningful pharmacokinetic differences when compared across age and gender. Telcagepant was generally well tolerated up to single doses of 1200 mg and multiple doses of 400 mg twice daily.
Which receptor is targeted by telcagepant?
55032efde9bde69634000035_020
{ "answer_start": [ 84 ], "text": [ "calcitonin gene-related peptide" ] }
[Atypical paraneoplastic myasthenic syndrome: Lambert-Eaton syndrome or myasthenia?]. We report a case of paraneoplastic myasthenic syndrome with clinical features suggesting Lambert Eaton syndrome but without the electromyographic elements required for diagnosis. Anti-calcium channel antibodies were also lacking. The electromyogram evidenced a block and the Tensilon test was positive. The efficacy of anticholinesterases argued in favor of myasthenia but anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies were negative. The block was more of a mixed nature, involving both presynaptic transmission as in Lambert Eaton syndrome and post-synaptic transmission as in paraneoplastic myasthenia. The primary tumor was identified as a small-cell neuroendocrine lung carcinoma on mediastinal biopsies obtained directly on CT-scan guided puncture of a mediastinal node. Thoracotomy was thus avoided. The Lambert Eaton syndrome is a paraneoplastic manifestation of small-cell lung cancer in 50% of the cases unlike generalized myasthenia which apparently is never associated with small-cell lung cancer. A mixed paraneoplastic neuro-muscle junction disorder with aspects of each can be exceptionally observed.
Which type of lung cancer is the most strongly associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome?
5147c088d24251bc05000026_005
{ "answer_start": [ 1064 ], "text": [ "small-cell lung cancer" ] }
The p73 gene is an anti-tumoral target of the RARbeta/gamma-selective retinoid tazarotene. Tazarotene, a member of the new class of acetylenic retinoids, has been shown to be effective in the treatment of several hyperproliferative skin diseases, including non-melanoma skin cancer. Its effectiveness is thought to rely on the ability to activate retinoic acid receptors beta and gamma and to induce a number of downstream anti-proliferative genes. Here, we show that the p53-related gene p73 is a target of tazarotene. Indeed, tazarotene modulates the expression of the p73 gene in immortalized keratinocyte cell lines by inducing the pro-apoptotic and anti-proliferative TAp73 isoforms and by repressing the anti-apoptotic and pro-proliferative DeltaNp73 isoforms. This occurs at the transcriptional level through a coordinated action on P1p73 and P2p73 promoters that control the expression of TA and DeltaN isoforms, respectively. The selective downregulation of DeltaNp73 expression by small interfering RNA led to an enhancement of tazarotene-induced bax activation and apoptosis, whereas the downregulation of both TA and DeltaN isoforms impairs tazarotene-mediated apoptosis. These results indicate the relevance of p73 gene products in tazarotene-induced growth inhibition and effectiveness in the treatment of skin tumors.
How many TAp73 isoforms have been identified in humans?
5173bdb38ed59a060a000020_075
{ "answer_start": [ 676 ], "text": [ "7" ] }