context
stringlengths
155
6.27k
question
stringlengths
13
168
id
stringlengths
28
28
answers
dict
[Analysis of the small supernumerary marker chromosome in Turner syndrome with 45, X/46, X, + mar karyotype]. OBJECTIVE: To identify the origin and study the morphology of small supernumerary marker chromosome (sSMC) in Turner syndrome with 45, X/46, X, + mar karyotype. METHODS: Using the conventional chromosome G-banding technique, 10 cases of Turner syndrome with 45, X/46, X, + mar chromosome karyotype were obtained, dual-color fluorescence in situ hybridization was applied to study the origin and morphology of the sSMC. RESULTS: In the 10 cases of Turner syndrome with 45, X/46, X, + mar karyotype, the sSMC of 7 cases was derived from X chromosome [sSMC(X)], the sSMC of 2 cases was derived from Y chromosome [sSMC(Y)] and the remaining 1 case was derived from the autosome. There were 4 cases of ring(r) chromosomes and 3 of centric minutes (min) in the 7 sSMC (X) cases. In the 2 sSMC(Y), one case was dicentric (dic) and the other was centric minute (min). The sSMC originated from the autosome was a centric minute (min). CONCLUSION: The origin of sSMC of Turner syndrome with 45, X/46, X, + mar karyotype was almost all from sex chromosomes, and rarely from autosomes. sSMC can exist as isodicentric, ring, or centric minute. The molecular cytogenetic features of the sSMC can provide useful information for genetic counseling, prenatal diagnosis and treatment of the Turner syndrome patients with a 45, X/46, X, + mar karyotype.
What chromosome is affected in Turner's syndrome?
58bca2f302b8c6095300000c_017
{ "answer_start": [ 251 ], "text": [ "X" ] }
Flumazenil use in benzodiazepine overdose in the UK: a retrospective survey of NPIS data. OBJECTIVE: Benzodiazepine (BZD) overdose (OD) continues to cause significant morbidity and mortality in the UK. Flumazenil is an effective antidote but there is a risk of seizures, particularly in those who have co-ingested tricyclic antidepressants. A study was undertaken to examine the frequency of use, safety and efficacy of flumazenil in the management of BZD OD in the UK. METHODS: A 2-year retrospective cohort study was performed of all enquiries to the UK National Poisons Information Service involving BZD OD. RESULTS: Flumazenil was administered to 80 patients in 4504 BZD-related enquiries, 68 of whom did not have ventilatory failure or had recognised contraindications to flumazenil. Factors associated with flumazenil use were increased age, severe poisoning and ventilatory failure. Co-ingestion of tricyclic antidepressants and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease did not influence flumazenil administration. Seizure frequency in patients not treated with flumazenil was 0.3%. The frequency of prior seizure in flumazenil-treated patients was 30 times higher (8.8%). Seven patients who had seizures prior to flumazenil therapy had no recurrence of their seizures. Ventilation or consciousness improved in 70% of flumazenil-treated patients. Flumazenil administration was followed by one instance each of agitation and brief seizure. CONCLUSIONS: Flumazenil is used infrequently in the management of BZD OD in the UK. It was effective and associated with a low incidence of seizure. These results compare favourably with the results of published randomised controlled trials and cohort studies, although previous studies have not reported the use of flumazenil in such a high-risk population. This study should inform the continuing review of national guidance on flumazenil therapy.
Which drug should be used as an antidote in benzodiazepine overdose?
514a0a57d24251bc05000051_002
{ "answer_start": [ 620 ], "text": [ "Flumazenil" ] }
Universal, class-specific and drug-specific reversal agents for the new oral anticoagulants. Although there is controversy about the absolute need for a reversal agent for the new direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs), the absence of such an agent is a barrier to more widespread use of these agents. For the management of major life-threatening bleeding with the DOACs, most authorities recommend the use of four factor prothrombin complex concentrates, although the evidence to support their use in terms of improving outcomes is meager. At the present time, there are three antidotes in development and poised to enter the market. Idarucizumab is a drug-specific antidote targeted to reverse the direct thrombin inhibitor, dabigatran. Andexanet alfa is a class-specific antidote targeted to reverse the oral direct factor Xa inhibitors as well as the indirect inhibitor, enoxaparin. Ciraparantag is a universal antidote targeted to reverse the direct thrombin and factor Xa inhibitors as well as the indirect inhibitor, enoxaparin.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_045
{ "answer_start": [ 739 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Functional asymmetry and electron flow in the bovine respirasome. Respirasomes are macromolecular assemblies of the respiratory chain complexes I, III and IV in the inner mitochondrial membrane. We determined the structure of supercomplex IIIIIV from bovine heart mitochondria by cryo-EM at 9 Å resolution. Most protein-protein contacts between complex I, III and IV in the membrane are mediated by supernumerary subunits. Of the two Rieske iron-sulfur cluster domains in the complex III dimer, one is resolved, indicating that this domain is immobile and unable to transfer electrons. The central position of the active complex III monomer between complex I and IV in the respirasome is optimal for accepting reduced quinone from complex I over a short diffusion distance of 11 nm, and delivering reduced cytochrome c to complex IV. The functional asymmetry of complex III provides strong evidence for directed electron flow from complex I to complex IV through the active complex III monomer in the mammalian supercomplex.
Where is the respirasome located?
58a9d8a1396a458e50000005_001
{ "answer_start": [ 158 ], "text": [ "in the inner mitochondrial membrane" ] }
The let-7 microRNA enhances heme oxygenase-1 by suppressing Bach1 and attenuates oxidant injury in human hepatocytes. The let-7 microRNA (miRNA) plays important roles in human liver development and diseases such as hepatocellular carcinoma, liver fibrosis and hepatitis wherein oxidative stress accelerates the progression of these diseases. To date, the role of the let-7 miRNA family in modulation of heme oxygenase 1 (HMOX1), a key cytoprotective enzyme, remains unknown. Our aims were to determine whether let-7 miRNA directly regulates Bach1, a transcriptional repressor of the HMOX1 gene, and whether indirect up-regulation of HMOX1 by let-7 miRNA attenuates oxidant injury in human hepatocytes. The effects of let-7 miRNA on Bach1 and HMOX1 gene expression in Huh-7 and HepG2 cells were determined by real-time qRT-PCR, Western blot, and luciferase reporter assays. Dual luciferase reporter assays revealed that let-7b, let-7c, or miR-98 significantly decreased Bach1 3'-untranslated region (3'-UTR)-dependent luciferase activity but not mutant Bach1 3'-UTR-dependent luciferase activity, whereas mutant let-7 miRNA containing base complementarity with mutant Bach1 3'-UTR restored its effect on mutant reporter activity. let-7b, let-7c, or miR-98 down-regulated Bach1 protein levels by 50-70%, and subsequently up-regulated HMOX1 gene expression by 3-4 fold, compared with non-specific controls. Furthermore, Huh-7 cells transfected with let-7b, let-7c or miR-98 mimic showed increased resistance against oxidant injury induced by tert-butyl-hydroperoxide (tBuOOH), whereas the protection was abrogated by over-expression of Bach1. In conclusion, let-7 miRNA directly acts on the 3'-UTR of Bach1 and negatively regulates expression of this protein, and thereby up-regulates HMOX1 gene expression. Over-expression of the let-7 miRNA family members may represent a novel approach to protecting human hepatocytes from oxidant injury.
Is the transcriptional regulator BACH1 an activator or a repressor?
52fa6ac72059c6d71c000055_003
{ "answer_start": [ 566 ], "text": [ "repressor" ] }
Safety profile of protein kinase inhibitors in rheumatoid arthritis: systematic review and meta-analysis. OBJECTIVE: To summarise the adverse events (AE) reported in patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) treated with protein kinase inhibitors (PKi), and identify family and molecule-related AEs. METHODS: Systematic review of the PKi used in clinical trials (CTs) in RA. Medline, Embase, Cochrane Library, Web of Knowledge, and international abstracts of congress were reviewed, (up to 31 October 2012). Search was limited to interventional studies of PKi used in CTs in RA, written in English, and reporting frequencies of AE. Diseases with similar comorbidity burden also were included. Frequency of AE, serious AE (SAE), death and discontinuation due to  AEs (DCAE) were recorded. Risk of bias was assessed. Meta-analysis was carried using pooled relative risk (RR) with 95% CI as effect measure. RESULTS: The search produced 4410 hits. Forty-one articles reporting data on 21 PKi of the Janus kinase (JAK), SYK, p38 and cKit families were selected for detailed analysis. In patients treated with p38 inhibitors, RR for dizziness was 2.36 (1.20 to 4.63), and in patients treated with c-Kit inhibitors, RR for oedema was 3.43 (1.58 to 7.42). In patients treated with the JAK inhibitor tofacitinib, RR for hypercholesterolaemia was 1.70 (1.10 to 2.63) that was dose related. In patients treated with the Syk inhibitor fostamatinib, pooled RR for hypertransaminasaemia, hypertension, diarrhoea and neutropenia were 2.93 (1.02 to 8.43), 2.80 (1.58 to 5.99), 5.20 (3.19 to 8.49) and 9.24 (2.22 to 38.42), respectively. Serious infections and malignancies were not significantly more frequent in PKi-treated patients than in comparator groups. CONCLUSIONS: Event rates of serious infections and malignancies with PKi are not different from biologics. In addition, PKi have a unique safety profile related to target and off-target inhibition of kinases, at times dose related.
Which JAK (Janus kinase) inhibitor is approved for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
53357193d6d3ac6a34000047_008
{ "answer_start": [ 1289 ], "text": [ "tofacitinib" ] }
Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy family studies of DUX4 expression: evidence for disease modifiers and a quantitative model of pathogenesis. Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD), the most prevalent myopathy afflicting both children and adults, is predominantly associated with contractions in the 4q35-localized macrosatellite D4Z4 repeat array. Recent studies have proposed that FSHD pathology is caused by the misexpression of the DUX4 (double homeobox 4) gene resulting in production of a pathogenic protein, DUX4-FL, which has been detected in FSHD, but not in unaffected control myogenic cells and muscle tissue. Here, we report the analysis of DUX4 mRNA and protein expression in a much larger collection of myogenic cells and muscle biopsies derived from biceps and deltoid muscles of FSHD affected subjects and their unaffected first-degree relatives. We confirmed that stable DUX4-fl mRNA and protein were expressed in myogenic cells and muscle tissues derived from FSHD affected subjects, including several genetically diagnosed adult FSHD subjects yet to show clinical manifestations of the disease in the assayed muscles. In addition, we report DUX4-fl mRNA and protein expression in muscle biopsies and myogenic cells from genetically unaffected relatives of the FSHD subjects, although at a significantly lower frequency. These results establish that DUX4-fl expression per se is not sufficient for FSHD muscle pathology and indicate that quantitative modifiers of DUX4-fl expression and/or function and family genetic background are determinants of FSHD muscle disease progression.
Which disease is associated with the ectopic expression of the protein encoded by the gene DUX4?
550f0e4c6a8cde6b72000003_011
{ "answer_start": [ 395 ], "text": [ "FSHD" ] }
The combination of irreversible EGFR TKIs and SAHA induces apoptosis and autophagy-mediated cell death to overcome acquired resistance in EGFR T790M-mutated lung cancer. To overcome T790M-mediated acquired resistance of lung cancer cells to epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors (EGFR TKIs), second generation TKIs such as BIBW2992 (afatinib) and third generation TKIs including WZ4002 have been developed. However, clinical data on their efficacy in treating T790M mutant tumors are lacking. Histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors have been reported to arrest cell growth and to lead to differentiation and apoptosis of various cancer cells, both in vitro and in vivo. In the present study, we assessed whether the combination of suberoylanilide hydroxamic acid (SAHA, vorinostat), a potent HDAC inhibitor, and BIBW2992 or WZ4002 could overcome EGFR TKI resistance associated with T790M mutation in lung cancer cells. While treatment with BIBW2992 or WZ4002 alone slightly reduced the viability of PC-9G and H1975 cells, which possess T790M mutation, combining them with SAHA resulted in significantly decreased cell viability through the activation of the apoptotic pathway. This combination also enhanced autophagy occurrence and inhibition of autophagy significantly reduced the apoptosis induced by the combination treatment, showing that autophagy is required for the enhanced apoptosis. Caspase-independent autophagic cell death was also induced by the combination treatment with SAHA and either BIBW2992 or WZ4002. Finally, the combined treatment with SAHA and either BIBW2992 or WZ4002 showed an enhanced anti-tumor effect on xenografts of H1975 cells in vivo. In conclusion, the combination of new generation EGFR TKIs and SAHA may be a new strategy to overcome the acquired resistance to EGFR TKIs in T790M mutant lung cancer.
Which gene harbors the mutation T790M?
56d1f790f22319765a000001_018
{ "answer_start": [ 241 ], "text": [ "epidermal growth factor receptor" ] }
The tyrosinase gene in gorillas and the albinism of 'Snowflake'. The sequence of the tyrosinase (Tyr) gene coding tracts has been obtained for the gorilla (Gorilla gorilla gorilla). The five exons of the gene were sequenced in three gorillas and in a normally pigmented human. The tyrosinase gene has been found to be a very conserved locus with a very low substitution rate. Some nucleotide and amino acid differences were found between the gorilla and human tyrosinase coding sequences. One of the gorillas included in the study is the only known case of albinism in a gorilla ('Snowflake'). Mutations of the TYR gene lead to Oculocutaneous Albinism type 1 (OCA1), the most common type of albinism in humans (OMIM accession number 203100). The TYR gene encodes the tyrosinase enzyme (E.C. 1.14.18.1), whose activity was found to be completely lacking in 'Snowflake', indicating that a mutation in the Tyr gene is the likely cause of his albinism. Nonetheless, no nucleotide changes were detected that could account for the lack of Tyr product or tyrosinase activity in Snowflake, and explanations of these findings are discussed.
Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?
58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_072
{ "answer_start": [ 611 ], "text": [ "TYR" ] }
Safety and tolerability of ixazomib, an oral proteasome inhibitor, in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone in patients with previously untreated multiple myeloma: an open-label phase 1/2 study. BACKGROUND: The combination of bortezomib, lenalidomide, and dexamethasone is a highly effective therapy for newly diagnosed multiple myeloma. Ixazomib is an investigational, oral, proteasome inhibitor with promising anti-myeloma effects and low rates of peripheral neuropathy. In a phase 1/2 trial we aimed to assess the safety, tolerability, and activity of ixazomib in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone in newly diagnosed multiple myeloma. METHODS: We enrolled patients newly diagnosed with multiple myeloma aged 18 years or older with measurable disease, Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group performance status 0-2, and no grade 2 or higher peripheral neuropathy, and treated them with oral ixazomib (days 1, 8, 15) plus lenalidomide 25 mg (days 1-21) and dexamethasone 40 mg (days 1, 8, 15, 22) for up to 12 28-day cycles, followed by maintenance therapy with ixazomib alone. In phase 1, we gave patients escalating doses of ixazomib (1·68-3·95 mg/m(2)) to establish the recommended dose for phase 2. The primary endpoints were maximum tolerated dose for phase 1, and the rate of very good partial response or better for phase 2. Safety analyses were done in all patients who received at least one dose of study drug; efficacy analyses were done in all patients who received at least one dose of study drug at the phase 2 dose, had measurable disease at baseline, and had at least one post-baseline response assessment. This study is registered at ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT01217957. FINDINGS: Between Nov 22, 2010, and Feb 28, 2012, we enrolled 65 patients (15 to phase 1 and 50 to phase 2). Four dose-limiting toxic events were noted in phase 1: one at a dose of ixazomib of 2·97 mg/m(2) and three at 3·95 mg/m(2). The maximum tolerated dose of ixazomib was established as 2·97 mg/m(2) and the recommended phase 2 dose was 2·23 mg/m(2), which was converted to a 4·0 mg fixed dose based on population pharmacokinetic results. Grade 3 or higher adverse events related to any drug were reported in 41 (63%) patients, including skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders (11 patients, 17%), neutropenia (eight patients, 12%), and thrombocytopenia (five patients, 8%); drug-related peripheral neuropathy of grade 3 or higher occurred in four (6%) patients. Five patients discontinued because of adverse events. In 64 response-evaluable patients, 37 (58%, 95% CI 45-70) had a very good partial response or better. INTERPRETATION: The all-oral combination of weekly ixazomib plus lenalidomide and dexamethasone was generally well tolerated and appeared active in newly diagnosed multiple myeloma. These results support the phase 3 trial development of this combination for multiple myeloma. FUNDING: Millennium Pharmaceuticals, a wholly owned subsidiary of Takeda Pharmaceutical International Company.
Which type of myeloma is ixazomib being evaluated for?
56ed0ffe2ac5ed1459000008_011
{ "answer_start": [ 156 ], "text": [ "multiple myeloma" ] }
Maintenance of DNA methylation: Dnmt3b joins the dance. DNA methylation mostly occurs within the context of CpG dinucleotides and is essential for embryonic development and gene repression. It is generally accepted that DNA methyltransferases carry out specific and non-overlapping functions, Dnmt3a and Dnmt3b being responsible for the establishment of methylation around the time of implantation and Dnmt1 ensuring that methylation is faithfully copied to daughter cells via what has come to be known as "maintenance methylation." This longstanding view has been challenged over the years with the observation that Dnmt1 alone is incapable of perfect maintenance methylation. A new model is emerging that takes into account a contribution of the de novo enzymes Dnmt3a and Dnmt3b in the maintenance of the DNA methylation. We recently showed that certain germ line genes are specific targets of Dnmt3b, and that Dnmt3b remains bound to their promoter regions in somatic cells via interaction with the transcriptional repressor E2F6. It is tempting to consider an ongoing role for Dnmt3b in the methylation of germ line genes in somatic cells. We propose here observations in support of the hypothesis that the maintenance of methylation and subsequent silencing of a handful of germ line genes requires Dnmt3b but not Dnmt1. In addition to suggesting a new role for Dnmt3b in the protection of somatic cells against the promiscuous expression of the germ line program, these observations are of particular interest in the field of carcinogenesis, given that the expression of catalytically inactive Dnmt3b isoforms and aberrant expression of germ line genes are commonly observed in cancer cells.
Which enzyme is involved in the maintenance of DNA (cytosine-5-)-methylation?
51585b28d24251bc0500008d_013
{ "answer_start": [ 1320 ], "text": [ "Dnmt1" ] }
Mepolizumab: 240563, anti-IL-5 monoclonal antibody - GlaxoSmithKline, anti-interleukin-5 monoclonal antibody - GlaxoSmithKline, SB 240563. Mepolizumab is an anti-interleukin-5 monoclonal antibody that is in clinical trials with GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) for the treatment of severe asthma, nasal polyposis and hypereosinophilic syndrome and eosinophilic oesophagitis (the latter two indications are classed as eosinophilia in the phase table). Interleukin-5 stimulates the production, activation and maturation of eosinophils. Since mepolizumab inhibits interleukin-5 and has a long terminal half-life, treatment with mepolizumab causes a sustained reduction in the numbers of circulating eosinophils. Thus, mepolizumab may be a useful therapeutic agent for the treatment of conditions characterized by increased levels of eosinophils. Hypereosinophilic syndrome is a rare idiopathic disease with broad clinical signs and symptoms that is diagnosed based on a persistent blood eosinophil count of >1500 cells, various end-organ damages (including skin, heart, lung, nervous system and digestive system), and with exclusion of known secondary causes of hypereosinophilia. Mepolizumab is in clinical trials for the treatment of hypereosinophilic syndrome, eosinophilc oesophagitis, severe asthma (in patients with airway eosinophilia) and nasal polyposis. GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) has completed enrolment in a phase II study of mepolizumab in 20 patients with symptomatic eosinophilic bronchitis with or without asthma in Canada. The randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study is evaluating the effects of intravenous mepolizumab on asthma control, airway eosinophilia and the degree to which concomitant corticosteroid treatment can be reduced (NCT00292877). In previous clinical studies, including trials in the EU and US, mepolizumab has shown a lack of effect on allergen-induced airway responses and inflammation despite a significant reduction in blood and sputum eosinophil levels.A randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, multicentre, phase III study of mepolizumab over 9 months in 85 patients with hypereosinophilic syndrome was completed in 2006. All patients have been offered, and continued in, a phase III, open-label, long-term extension study of mepolizumab. Enrolment in this study was completed in September 2006.A phase III, compassionate use trial of mepalizumab (NCT00244686) in patients with hypereosinophilic syndrome was ongoing in October 2007 in the US. Patients who have significant clinical disease but are unresponsive to traditional treatment and those who have demonstrated clinical benefit from previous anti-IL-5 treatment are eligible to take part in the trial. Mepolizumab received orphan drug status for first-line treatment in patients with hypereosinophilic syndrome in the US and the EU in 2004. Mepolizumab is also in phase I/II clinical development for the treatment of eosinophilic oesophagitis. A phase I/II trial (NCT00358449) began in August 2006 in the US, Australia, the UK and Canada, and will enrol approximately 72 paediatric patients with eosinophilic oesophagitis. The randomized, parallel-group clinical trial will evaluate the safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of intravenous mepolizumab for 12 weeks. In September 2006, GSK completed enrolment in a phase I/II study of mepolizumab for the treatment of eosinophilic oesophagitis in ten adult patients in Switzerland (NCT00274703). The randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study will evaluate the pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, safety and tolerability of IV mepolizumab.A phase I/II trial of mepolizumab in four patients with eosinophilic oesophagitis conducted by Cincinnati Children's hospital found the monoclonal antibody was safe and effective. Brigham and Women's Hospital in association with GSK is conducting a phase I/II trial of mepolizumab in patients with Churg-Strauss Syndrome (CSS) in the US. The trial, which started in September 2007, will evaluate the potential of mepolizumab to reduce the need for corticosteroid therapy in patients with CSS (NCT00527566). CSS, otherwise known as allergic granulomatosis, is defined by patients with asthma, eosinophilia and vasculitis.
Which molecule is targeted by a monoclonal antibody Mepolizumab?
54d907c84b1fd0d33c000008_013
{ "answer_start": [ 75 ], "text": [ "interleukin-5" ] }
Posttraumatic stress disorder in victims of the March 11 attacks in Madrid admitted to a hospital emergency room: 6-month follow-up. PURPOSE: To determine the change in prevalence of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) symptoms in victims of the March 11 attacks and their relatives, 1 and 6 months after the attacks. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: Evaluation of PTSD symptoms using the Davidson Trauma Scale (DTS) and General Health Questionnaire (GHQ) in a sample of 56 patients admitted to an emergency room of a general hospital, and assessment of PTSD symptoms in relatives of the patients. RESULTS: At Month 1, 41.1% of patients (31.3% of males and 54.2% of females) presented with PTSD. At Month 6, this figure was 40.9% (30.4% of males and 52.4% of females). There was a significant improvement in perception of health among females between Month 1 and Month 6. Relatives presented similar DTS scores at baseline and at 6 months. DISCUSSION: We verified that rates of PTSD did not vary substantively between the two evaluations. PTSD symptoms positively correlated with psychological health involvement. This correlation points out that both PTSD symptoms and subjective general health involvement are part of the psychological response to trauma. CONCLUSION: The prevalence of PTSD symptoms was high and remained stable between Month 1 and Month 6, while subjective perception of health improved significantly.
Symptoms of which disorder are evaluated with the Davidson Trauma Scale?
58861d413b87a8a738000002_026
{ "answer_start": [ 355 ], "text": [ "PTSD" ] }
Novel and recurrent non-truncating mutations of the MITF basic domain: genotypic and phenotypic variations in Waardenburg and Tietz syndromes. The microphthalmia-associated transcription factor (MITF) is a basic helix-loop-helix leucine zipper transcription factor, which regulates melanocyte development and the biosynthetic melanin pathway. A notable relationship has been described between non-truncating mutations of its basic domain and Tietz syndrome, which is characterized by albinoid-like hypopigmentation of the skin and hair, rather than the patchy depigmentation seen in Waardenburg syndrome, and severe hearing loss. Twelve patients with new or recurrent non-truncating mutations of the MITF basic domain from six families were enrolled in this study. We observed a wide range of phenotypes and some unexpected features. All the patients had blue irides and pigmentation abnormalities that ranged from diffuse hypopigmentation to Waardenburg-like patches. In addition, they showed congenital complete hearing loss, diffuse hypopigmentation of the skin, freckling and ocular abnormalities, more frequently than patients with MITF mutations outside the basic domain. In conclusion, the non-truncating mutations of the basic domain do not always lead to Tietz syndrome but rather to a large range of phenotypes. Sun-exposed freckles are interestingly observed more frequently in Asian populations. This variability argues for the possible interaction with modifier loci.
Which mutated gene is associated with Waardenburg and Tietz syndromes?
58a57f9460087bc10a00001f_032
{ "answer_start": [ 52 ], "text": [ "MITF" ] }
Novel anticoagulants for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation: current clinical evidence and future developments. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common cardiac rhythm disorder and a major risk factor for ischemic stroke. Antithrombotic therapy using aspirin or vitamin K antagonists (VKA) is currently prescribed for prevention for ischemic stroke in patients with AF. A narrow therapeutic range and the need of regular monitoring of its anticoagulatory effect impair effectiveness and safety of VKA, causing a need for alternative anticoagulant drugs. Recently developed anticoagulants include direct thrombin antagonists such as dabigatran or factor Xa inhibitors such as rivaroxaban, apixaban, betrixaban, and edoxaban. Currently, data from a phase III clinical trial are available for dabigatran only, which show the direct thrombin antagonist to be at least noninferior in efficacy to VKA for the prevention of stroke and systemic embolism in patients with AF. This review focuses on current advances in the development of directly acting oral anticoagulant drugs and their potential to replace the VKA class of drugs in patients with AF.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_067
{ "answer_start": [ 712 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Proteasome inhibitors - molecular basis and current perspectives in multiple myeloma. Inhibition of proteasome, a proteolytic complex responsible for the degradation of ubiquitinated proteins, has emerged as a powerful strategy for treatment of multiple myeloma (MM), a plasma cell malignancy. First-in-class agent, bortezomib, has demonstrated great positive therapeutic efficacy in MM, both in pre-clinical and in clinical studies. However, despite its high efficiency, a large proportion of patients do not achieve sufficient clinical response. Therefore, the development of a second-generation of proteasome inhibitors (PIs) with improved pharmacological properties was needed. Recently, several of these new agents have been introduced into clinics including carfilzomib, marizomib and ixazomib. Further, new orally administered second-generation PI oprozomib is being investigated. This review provides an overview of main mechanisms of action of PIs in MM, focusing on the ongoing development and progress of novel anti-proteasome therapeutics.
How is oprozomib administered?
56ecfd572ac5ed1459000002_004
{ "answer_start": [ 814 ], "text": [ "orally" ] }
Identification of DNMT1 (DNA methyltransferase 1) hypomorphs in somatic knockouts suggests an essential role for DNMT1 in cell survival. Previous studies have shown that DNA methyltransferase (Dnmt) 1 is required for maintenance of bulk DNA methylation and is essential for mouse development. However, somatic disruption of DNMT1 in the human cancer cell line HCT116 was not lethal and caused only minor decreases in methylation. Here, we report the identification of a truncated DNMT1 protein, which was generated by the disruption of DNMT1 in HCT116 cells. The truncated protein, which had parts of the regulatory N-terminal domain deleted but preserved the catalytic C-terminal domain, was present at different levels in all DNMT1 single-knockout and DNMT1/DNMT3b double-knockout cell lines tested and retained hemimethylase activity. DNMT1 RNAi resulted in decreased cell viability in WT and knockout cells and further loss of DNA methylation in DNMT1 knockout cells. Furthermore, we observed a delay in methylation after replication and an increase in hemimethylation of specific CpG sites in cells expressing the truncated protein. Remethylation studies after drug-induced hypomethylation suggest a putative role of DNMT1 in the de novo methylation of a subtelomeric repeat, D4Z4, which is lost in cells lacking full-length DNMT1. Our data suggest that DNMT1 might be essential for maintenance of DNA methylation, proliferation, and survival of cancer cells.
Which enzyme is involved in the maintenance of DNA (cytosine-5-)-methylation?
51585b28d24251bc0500008d_036
{ "answer_start": [ 1359 ], "text": [ "DNMT1" ] }
Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy and DUX4: breaking the silence. Autosomal dominant facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD) has an unusual pathogenic mechanism. FSHD is caused by deletion of a subset of D4Z4 macrosatellite repeat units in the subtelomere of chromosome 4q. Recent studies provide compelling evidence that a retrotransposed gene in the D4Z4 repeat, DUX4, is expressed in the human germline and then epigenetically silenced in somatic tissues. In FSHD, the combination of inefficient chromatin silencing of the D4Z4 repeat and polymorphisms on the FSHD-permissive alleles that stabilize the DUX4 mRNAs emanating from the repeat result in inappropriate DUX4 protein expression in muscle cells. FSHD is thereby the first example of a human disease caused by the inefficient repression of a retrogene in a macrosatellite repeat array.
Which disease is associated with the ectopic expression of the protein encoded by the gene DUX4?
550f0e4c6a8cde6b72000003_038
{ "answer_start": [ 173 ], "text": [ "FSHD" ] }
Prevalence of tuberculosis infection and comparison of multiple-puncture liquid tuberculin test and Mantoux test among drug users. In order to determine the prevalence of latent infection due to Mycobacterium tuberculosis in drug users and to provide centres for drug users with a practical tool for tuberculosis screening, 237 drug users were subjected to the Monotest and, for reference purposes, to the Mantoux test. The overall prevalence of subjects with a tuberculin skin reaction size > or = 5 mm in the Mantoux test was 25.7%; utilizing a cut-off of > or = 10 mm, the prevalence was 11.4%. Irrespective of cut-off, the Monotest showed a sensitivity of > 90% and a specificity of > 80%. At a prevalence of 25.7%, and with cut-offs of > or = 5 or > or = 10 mm, the positive predictive value was 83% or 62.2%, respectively. Irrespective of cut-off, the negative predictive value was > 97%. In conclusion, the Monotest proved satisfactory as a tool for epidemiological screening in a population with a high prevalence for latent tuberculosis, namely drug users.
The Mantoux test detects what latent infection/disease?
5ab147edfcf4565872000013_008
{ "answer_start": [ 300 ], "text": [ "tuberculosis" ] }
Imaging of plantar fascia disorders: findings on plain radiography, ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging. Plantar fascia (PF) disorders commonly cause heel pain and disability in the general population. Imaging is often required to confirm diagnosis. This review article aims to provide simple and systematic guidelines for imaging assessment of PF disease, focussing on key findings detectable on plain radiography, ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Sonographic characteristics of plantar fasciitis include PF thickening, loss of fibrillar structure, perifascial collections, calcifications and hyperaemia on Doppler imaging. Thickening and signal changes in the PF as well as oedema of adjacent soft tissues and bone marrow can be assessed on MRI. Radiographic findings of plantar fasciitis include PF thickening, cortical irregularities and abnormalities in the fat pad located deep below the PF. Plantar fibromatosis appears as well-demarcated, nodular thickenings that are iso-hypoechoic on ultrasound and show low-signal intensity on MRI. PF tears present with partial or complete fibre interruption on both ultrasound and MRI. Imaging description of further PF disorders, including xanthoma, diabetic fascial disease, foreign-body reactions and plantar infections, is detailed in the main text. Ultrasound and MRI should be considered as first- and second-line modalities for assessment of PF disorders, respectively. Indirect findings of PF disease can be ruled out on plain radiography. Teaching Points • PF disorders commonly cause heel pain and disability in the general population.• Imaging is often required to confirm diagnosis or reveal concomitant injuries.• Ultrasound and MRI respectively represent the first- and second-line modalities for diagnosis.• Indirect findings of PF disease can be ruled out on plain radiography.
What is plantar fasciitis
58bc8e7a02b8c60953000007_001
{ "answer_start": [ 156 ], "text": [ "heel pain" ] }
Focal cortical dysplasia - review. Focal cortical dysplasia is a malformation of cortical development, which is the most common cause of medically refractory epilepsy in the pediatric population and the second/third most common etiology of medically intractable seizures in adults.Both genetic and acquired factors are involved in the pathogenesis of cortical dysplasia. Numerous classifications of the complex structural abnormalities of focal cortical dysplasia have been proposed - from Taylor et al. in 1971 to the last modification of Palmini classification made by Blumcke in 2011. In general, three types of cortical dysplasia are recognized.Type I focal cortical dysplasia with mild symptomatic expression and late onset, is more often seen in adults, with changes present in the temporal lobe.Clinical symptoms are more severe in type II of cortical dysplasia usually seen in children. In this type, more extensive changes occur outside the temporal lobe with predilection for the frontal lobes.New type III is one of the above dysplasias with associated another principal lesion as hippocampal sclerosis, tumor, vascular malformation or acquired pathology during early life.Brain MRI imaging shows abnormalities in the majority of type II dysplasias and in only some of type I cortical dysplasias.THE MOST COMMON FINDINGS ON MRI IMAGING INCLUDE: focal cortical thickening or thinning, areas of focal brain atrophy, blurring of the gray-white junction, increased signal on T2- and FLAIR-weighted images in the gray and subcortical white matter often tapering toward the ventricle. On the basis of the MRI findings, it is possible to differentiate between type I and type II cortical dysplasia. A complete resection of the epileptogenic zone is required for seizure-free life. MRI imaging is very helpful to identify those patients who are likely to benefit from surgical treatment in a group of patients with drug-resistant epilepsy.However, in type I cortical dysplasia, MR imaging is often normal, and also in both types the lesion seen on MRI may be smaller than the seizure-generating region seen in the EEG. The abnormalities may also involve vital for life brain parts, where curative surgery will not be an option. Therefore, other diagnostic imaging techniques such as FDG PET, MEG, DTI and intra-cranial EEG are widely used to establish the diagnosis and to decide on management.With advances in both genetics and neuroimaging, we may develop a better understanding of patients with drug-resistant epilepsy, which will help us to provide more successful pharmacological and/or surgical treatment in the future.
Which disorder is rated by Palmini classification?
56c1f020ef6e394741000047_027
{ "answer_start": [ 656 ], "text": [ "focal cortical dysplasia" ] }
Pse-in-One: a web server for generating various modes of pseudo components of DNA, RNA, and protein sequences. With the avalanche of biological sequences generated in the post-genomic age, one of the most challenging problems in computational biology is how to effectively formulate the sequence of a biological sample (such as DNA, RNA or protein) with a discrete model or a vector that can effectively reflect its sequence pattern information or capture its key features concerned. Although several web servers and stand-alone tools were developed to address this problem, all these tools, however, can only handle one type of samples. Furthermore, the number of their built-in properties is limited, and hence it is often difficult for users to formulate the biological sequences according to their desired features or properties. In this article, with a much larger number of built-in properties, we are to propose a much more flexible web server called Pse-in-One (http://bioinformatics.hitsz.edu.cn/Pse-in-One/), which can, through its 28 different modes, generate nearly all the possible feature vectors for DNA, RNA and protein sequences. Particularly, it can also generate those feature vectors with the properties defined by users themselves. These feature vectors can be easily combined with machine-learning algorithms to develop computational predictors and analysis methods for various tasks in bioinformatics and system biology. It is anticipated that the Pse-in-One web server will become a very useful tool in computational proteomics, genomics, as well as biological sequence analysis. Moreover, to maximize users' convenience, its stand-alone version can also be downloaded from http://bioinformatics.hitsz.edu.cn/Pse-in-One/download/, and directly run on Windows, Linux, Unix and Mac OS.
Which server is used for generating modes of pseudo components of DNA, RNA and protein sequences?
589317e849702f2e01000005_006
{ "answer_start": [ 1005 ], "text": [ "Pse-in-One" ] }
Skin layer-specific transcriptional profiles in normal and recessive yellow (Mc1re/Mc1re) mice. The melanocortin 1 receptor (Mc1r) plays a central role in cutaneous biology, but is expressed at very low levels by a small fraction of cells in the skin. In humans, loss-of-function MC1R mutations cause fair skin, freckling, red hair, and increased predisposition to melanoma; in mice, Mc1r loss-of-function is responsible for the recessive yellow mutation, associated with pheomelanic hair and a decreased number of epidermal melanocytes. To better understand how Mc1r signaling affects different cutaneous phenotypes, we examined large-scale patterns of gene expression in different skin components (whole epidermal sheets, basal epidermal cells and whole skins) of neonatal (P2.5) normal and recessive yellow mice, starting with a 26K mouse cDNA microarray. From c. 17 000 genes whose levels could be accurately measured in neonatal skin, we identified 883, 2097 and 552 genes that were uniquely expressed in the suprabasal epidermis, basal epidermis and dermis, respectively; specific biologic roles could be assigned for each class. Comparison of normal and recessive yellow mice revealed 69 differentially expressed genes, of which the majority had not been previously implicated in Mc1r signaling. Surprisingly, many of the Mc1r-dependent genes are expressed in cells other than melanocytes, even though Mc1r expression in the skin is confined almost exclusively to epidermal melanocytes. These results reveal new targets for Mc1r signaling, and point to a previously unappreciated role for a Mc1r-dependent paracrine effect of melanocytes on other components of the skin.
Which gene is responsible for red hair?
5ace19420340b9f05800000a_046
{ "answer_start": [ 280 ], "text": [ "MC1R" ] }
A luciferase reporter assay to investigate the differential selenium-dependent stability of selenoprotein mRNAs. The mechanisms regulating the differential selenium (Se)-dependent stability of selenoprotein mRNAs are partially characterized. To further study the Se-dependent regulation of selenoproteins, we developed a novel chemiluminescent reporter to monitor the steady-state mRNA level of an artificial selenoprotein. Our reporter is a fusion of the Renilla luciferase gene and of the β-globin gene, but contains features required for incorporation of selenocysteine (SEC), namely, a UGA-SEC codon and a 3' untranslated region RNA stem loop called a SEC incorporation sequence (SECIS). At various levels of Se, the activity of reporters containing GPX1 or GPX4 SECIS elements is proportional to the steady-state mRNA level of the reporter construct and reflects the level of the corresponding endogenous mRNA. In a reporter containing a UGA codon and a functional GPX1 SECIS, Se-dependent nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) occurred in the cytoplasm, as opposed to the more typical nuclear location. To validate the reporter system, we used genetic and pharmacologic approaches to inhibit or promote NMD. Modulation of UPF1 by siRNA, overexpression, or by inhibition of SMG1 altered NMD in this system. Our reporter is derived from a Renilla luciferase reporter gene fused to an intron containing B-globin gene and is subject to degradation by NMD when a stop codon is inserted before the second intron.
What is the name of the stem loop present in the 3' end of genes encoding for selenoproteins?
533ea8fcc45e133714000010_006
{ "answer_start": [ 684 ], "text": [ "SECIS" ] }
Idarucizumab Improves Outcome in Murine Brain Hemorrhage Related to Dabigatran. Lack of specific antidotes is a major concern in intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) related to direct anticoagulants including dabigatran (OAC-ICH). We examined the efficacy of idarucizumab, an antibody fragment binding to dabigatran, in a mouse model of OAC-ICH. Dabigatran etexilate (DE) dose-dependently prolonged diluted thrombin time and tail-vein bleeding time, which were reversed by idarucizumab. Pretreatment with DE increased intracerebral hematoma volume and cerebral hemoglobin content. Idarucizumab in equimolar dose prevented excess hematoma expansion for both DE doses. In more extensive ICH, idarucizumab significantly reduced mortality. Thus, idarucizumab prevents excess intracerebral hematoma formation in mice anticoagulated with dabigatran and reduces mortality.
Idarucizumab is an antidote of which drug?
56c079b1ef6e394741000022_004
{ "answer_start": [ 826 ], "text": [ "dabigatran" ] }
Pse-in-One: a web server for generating various modes of pseudo components of DNA, RNA, and protein sequences. With the avalanche of biological sequences generated in the post-genomic age, one of the most challenging problems in computational biology is how to effectively formulate the sequence of a biological sample (such as DNA, RNA or protein) with a discrete model or a vector that can effectively reflect its sequence pattern information or capture its key features concerned. Although several web servers and stand-alone tools were developed to address this problem, all these tools, however, can only handle one type of samples. Furthermore, the number of their built-in properties is limited, and hence it is often difficult for users to formulate the biological sequences according to their desired features or properties. In this article, with a much larger number of built-in properties, we are to propose a much more flexible web server called Pse-in-One (http://bioinformatics.hitsz.edu.cn/Pse-in-One/), which can, through its 28 different modes, generate nearly all the possible feature vectors for DNA, RNA and protein sequences. Particularly, it can also generate those feature vectors with the properties defined by users themselves. These feature vectors can be easily combined with machine-learning algorithms to develop computational predictors and analysis methods for various tasks in bioinformatics and system biology. It is anticipated that the Pse-in-One web server will become a very useful tool in computational proteomics, genomics, as well as biological sequence analysis. Moreover, to maximize users' convenience, its stand-alone version can also be downloaded from http://bioinformatics.hitsz.edu.cn/Pse-in-One/download/, and directly run on Windows, Linux, Unix and Mac OS.
Which server is used for generating modes of pseudo components of DNA, RNA and protein sequences?
589317e849702f2e01000005_003
{ "answer_start": [ 1005 ], "text": [ "Pse-in-One" ] }
Auto-regulatory RNA editing fine-tunes mRNA re-coding and complex behaviour in Drosophila. Auto-regulatory feedback loops are a common molecular strategy used to optimize protein function. In Drosophila, many messenger RNAs involved in neuro-transmission are re-coded at the RNA level by the RNA-editing enzyme, dADAR, leading to the incorporation of amino acids that are not directly encoded by the genome. dADAR also re-codes its own transcript, but the consequences of this auto-regulation in vivo are unclear. Here we show that hard-wiring or abolishing endogenous dADAR auto-regulation dramatically remodels the landscape of re-coding events in a site-specific manner. These molecular phenotypes correlate with altered localization of dADAR within the nuclear compartment. Furthermore, auto-editing exhibits sexually dimorphic patterns of spatial regulation and can be modified by abiotic environmental factors. Finally, we demonstrate that modifying dAdar auto-editing affects adaptive complex behaviours. Our results reveal the in vivo relevance of auto-regulatory control over post-transcriptional mRNA re-coding events in fine-tuning brain function and organismal behaviour.
Which is the major RNA editing enzyme in Drosophila melanogaster?
58e9e7aa3e8b6dc87c00000d_010
{ "answer_start": [ 409 ], "text": [ "ADAR" ] }
Genitourinary anomalies in Mowat-Wilson syndrome with deletion/mutation in the zinc finger homeo box 1B gene (ZFHX1B). Report of three Italian cases with hypospadias and review. Hypospadias, when the urethra opens on the ventral side of the penis, is a common malformation seen in about 3 per 1,000 male births. It is a complex disorder associated with genetic and environmental factors and can be part of genetic syndromes. Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterized by a distinct facial phenotype, Hirschsprung disease, microcephaly and mental retardation. It is caused by mutations in the zinc finger homeo box 1B gene, ZFHX1B (SIP1). To date, 68 deletion/mutation-positive cases have been reported. Genitourinary anomalies are common in MWS. Here we report that hypospadias is common in males with this syndrome. In 39 patients where this information was available, hypospadias was present in 46% of patients (18/39). In the 3 Italian male cases reported here, hypospadias was always present. MWS should be considered by endocrinologists in patients with hypospadias associated with developmental delays/mental retardation, in particular in the presence of a distinct facial phenotype.
Which gene is responsible for the development of the Mowat-Wilson syndrome?
5519113b622b19434500000f_019
{ "answer_start": [ 664 ], "text": [ "ZFHX1B" ] }
Long-term remission in patients with dermatitis herpetiformis on a normal diet. BACKGROUND: A life-long gluten-free diet is the treatment of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis, which is considered to be coeliac disease of the skin. OBJECTIVES: To investigate the effects on long-term remission of dermatitis herpetiformis in patients who underwent a gluten challenge and subsequently reintroduced dietary gluten. PATIENTS AND METHODS: We studied 38 patients (14 male and 24 female) with biopsy-confirmed dermatitis herpetiformis. They had followed a gluten-free diet for a mean of 8 years, achieving clinical remission and intestinal normalization. The patients were asked to reintroduce gluten in their diet and agreed to undergo skin and intestinal biopsies during the follow-up. RESULTS: Of the 38 patients abandoning a gluten-free diet, 31 reported the onset of rash within an average of 2 months. Seven subjects (three males, mean age 15 years at challenge) experienced no clinical or histological relapses (median follow-up 12 years), and lost IgA immunoglobulin from the skin. The two series of patients differed in terms of age at diagnosis (mean age: 26.6 vs. 6 years), the use of dapsone (one of 31 vs. four of seven) and adherence to the gluten-free diet (strict compliance in 26 of 31 vs. none of seven). CONCLUSIONS: Our data suggest that the ingestion of small doses of gluten in childhood and/or the use of an anti-inflammatory drug may modify the immunological response inducing immune tolerance. We report long-term clinical and histological remissions in seven patients with dermatitis herpetiformis after the reintroduction of dietary gluten.
What is the typical rash associated with gluten ?
55180ef46487737b43000006_009
{ "answer_start": [ 152 ], "text": [ "dermatitis herpetiformis" ] }
Effect of Age and Renal Function on Idarucizumab Pharmacokinetics and Idarucizumab-Mediated Reversal of Dabigatran Anticoagulant Activity in a Randomized, Double-Blind, Crossover Phase Ib Study. BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: Idarucizumab is an antibody fragment that specifically reverses dabigatran-mediated anticoagulation. Safety, pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of idarucizumab were investigated in dabigatran-treated, middle-aged, elderly and renally impaired volunteers with characteristics similar to patients receiving anticoagulant therapy. METHODS: In this randomized, double-blind, crossover study, 46 subjects (12 middle-aged, 45-64 years; 16 elderly, 65-80 years; and 18 with mild or moderate renal impairment) received dabigatran etexilate (DE; 220 or 150 mg twice daily) for 4 days. Idarucizumab doses of 1, 2.5 and 5 g or 2 × 2.5 g 1 h apart, or placebo, were administered as a rapid (5 min) infusion ~2 h after DE at steady state. RESULTS: Dabigatran-prolonged diluted thrombin time, ecarin clotting time and activated partial thromboplastin time were reversed to baseline immediately after idarucizumab infusion in all groups. Reversal was sustained with doses > 2.5 g. Idarucizumab was well tolerated under all conditions. No impact of age on idarucizumab pharmacokinetics was observed; however, subjects with mild or moderate renal impairment demonstrated increased exposure (up to 84 %), decreased clearance and prolonged (by up to 49 %) initial half-life of idarucizumab compared with healthy middle-aged subjects. CONCLUSIONS: Impaired renal function was associated with increased exposure and decreased clearance of idarucizumab. Idarucizumab resulted in immediate, complete and sustained reversal of dabigatran anticoagulant activity, and was safe and well tolerated in middle-aged, elderly and renally impaired volunteers. The results support the clinical use of a 5 g dose of idarucizumab. CLINICAL TRIAL REGISTRATION: http://www.clinicaltrials.gov . Unique identifier: NCT01955720.
Which drug can be reversed with idarucizumab?
5a7237672dc08e987e000008_003
{ "answer_start": [ 286 ], "text": [ "dabigatran" ] }
Pse-in-One: a web server for generating various modes of pseudo components of DNA, RNA, and protein sequences. With the avalanche of biological sequences generated in the post-genomic age, one of the most challenging problems in computational biology is how to effectively formulate the sequence of a biological sample (such as DNA, RNA or protein) with a discrete model or a vector that can effectively reflect its sequence pattern information or capture its key features concerned. Although several web servers and stand-alone tools were developed to address this problem, all these tools, however, can only handle one type of samples. Furthermore, the number of their built-in properties is limited, and hence it is often difficult for users to formulate the biological sequences according to their desired features or properties. In this article, with a much larger number of built-in properties, we are to propose a much more flexible web server called Pse-in-One (http://bioinformatics.hitsz.edu.cn/Pse-in-One/), which can, through its 28 different modes, generate nearly all the possible feature vectors for DNA, RNA and protein sequences. Particularly, it can also generate those feature vectors with the properties defined by users themselves. These feature vectors can be easily combined with machine-learning algorithms to develop computational predictors and analysis methods for various tasks in bioinformatics and system biology. It is anticipated that the Pse-in-One web server will become a very useful tool in computational proteomics, genomics, as well as biological sequence analysis. Moreover, to maximize users' convenience, its stand-alone version can also be downloaded from http://bioinformatics.hitsz.edu.cn/Pse-in-One/download/, and directly run on Windows, Linux, Unix and Mac OS.
Which server is used for generating modes of pseudo components of DNA, RNA and protein sequences?
589317e849702f2e01000005_007
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "Pse-in-One" ] }
Resolving the daratumumab interference with blood compatibility testing. BACKGROUND: Daratumumab (DARA), a promising novel therapy for multiple myeloma, is an IgG1κ monoclonal antibody that recognizes CD38 on myeloma cells. During routine compatibility testing, we observed that the plasma of five of five DARA-treated patients demonstrated a positive antibody screen and panreactivity on red blood cell (RBC) panel testing. We hypothesized that the observed panreactivity reflected DARA binding to CD38 on reagent RBCs, and we investigated methods to prevent this binding. STUDY DESIGN AND METHODS: DARA binding to CD38+ or CD38- HL60 cells was assessed by flow cytometry. To remove cell surface CD38, cells were incubated with dithiothreitol (DTT) or trypsin. Soluble CD38 or anti-DARA was used to neutralize DARA in solution. Routine blood bank serologic methods were used to test samples from DARA-treated patients and normal plasma samples spiked with DARA and/or alloantibodies. RESULTS: Normal plasma samples spiked with DARA (0.1-10 µg/mL) and incubated with reagent RBCs recapitulated the interference observed with samples from DARA-treated patients. Flow cytometry experiments confirmed DARA binding to CD38+ HL60 cells, but not to CD38- controls. DTT treatment of CD38+ HL60 cells reduced DARA binding by 92% by denaturing cell surface CD38. Treating DARA-containing plasma with soluble CD38 or anti-DARA idiotype also inhibited DARA binding. CONCLUSION: DARA causes panreactivity in vitro by binding to CD38 on reagent RBCs. Treating reagent RBCs with DTT is a robust method to negate the DARA interference, enabling the safe provision of blood to DARA-treated patients. Because DTT denatures Kell antigens, K- units are provided to these patients.
Which molecule is targeted by Daratumumab?
56c04412ef6e39474100001b_051
{ "answer_start": [ 1243 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }
Role of orally available antagonists of factor Xa in the treatment and prevention of thromboembolic disease: focus on rivaroxaban. Interpatient variability in the safety and efficacy of oral anticoagulation with warfarin presents several challenges to clinicians, thus underscoring the emergent need for new orally available anticoagulants with predictable pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic profiles and ability to target circulating clotting factors. Seven compounds including rivaroxaban, apixaban, betrixaban, and eribaxaban are orally available direct inhibitors of activated factor X currently in development for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism and for thromboprophylaxis in patients with atrial fibrillation or following an acute coronary syndrome. At doses used in phase 2 and 3 clinical trials, rivaroxaban and apixaban demonstrated a predictable onset of effect, maximal plasma concentration, and half-life that was unaffected by age, renal, or hepatic disease. In clinical trials for the treatment and prevention of venous thromboembolism, rivaroxaban and apixaban produced equivalent or superior reductions in the development or progression of venous thromboembolism compared with either low molecular weight heparin or warfarin. Trials comparing the efficacy of rivaroxaban or apixaban to standard therapy for stroke prophylaxis in patients with atrial fibrillation are in process. Rivaroxaban, the sentinel compound in this class, is already approved in the European Union and Canada. It is likely to be approved for use in the United States in 2010.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_128
{ "answer_start": [ 524 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Oxytocin receptor gene sequences in owl monkeys and other primates show remarkable interspecific regulatory and protein coding variation. The oxytocin (OT) hormone pathway is involved in numerous physiological processes, and one of its receptor genes (OXTR) has been implicated in pair bonding behavior in mammalian lineages. This observation is important for understanding social monogamy in primates, which occurs in only a small subset of taxa, including Azara's owl monkey (Aotus azarae). To examine the potential relationship between social monogamy and OXTR variation, we sequenced its 5' regulatory (4936bp) and coding (1167bp) regions in 25 owl monkeys from the Argentinean Gran Chaco, and examined OXTR sequences from 1092 humans from the 1000 Genomes Project. We also assessed interspecific variation of OXTR in 25 primate and rodent species that represent a set of phylogenetically and behaviorally disparate taxa. Our analysis revealed substantial variation in the putative 5' regulatory region of OXTR, with marked structural differences across primate taxa, particularly for humans and chimpanzees, which exhibited unique patterns of large motifs of dinucleotide A+T repeats upstream of the OXTR 5' UTR. In addition, we observed a large number of amino acid substitutions in the OXTR CDS region among New World primate taxa that distinguish them from Old World primates. Furthermore, primate taxa traditionally defined as socially monogamous (e.g., gibbons, owl monkeys, titi monkeys, and saki monkeys) all exhibited different amino acid motifs for their respective OXTR protein coding sequences. These findings support the notion that monogamy has evolved independently in Old World and New World primates, and that it has done so through different molecular mechanisms, not exclusively through the oxytocin pathway.
Which is the "bonding hormone"?
58aa0c6f396a458e50000008_004
{ "answer_start": [ 142 ], "text": [ "oxytocin" ] }
Disease progression and treatment responses in a prospective DMARD-naive seropositive early rheumatoid arthritis cohort: does gender matter? OBJECTIVE: To assess gender differences in disease characteristics and treatment responses over time in a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)-naive seropositive early rheumatoid arthritis (RA) cohort. METHODS: Patients with polyarticular disease who were DMARD-naive and had seropositive early RA (< 14 months) were recruited by the Western Consortium of Practicing Rheumatologists. Each patient was examined at study entry, after 6 and 12 months, and yearly thereafter. Clinical and demographic data were collected. We investigated gender differences in baseline disease characteristics and treatment using chi-squared, Mann-Whitney U, and t tests. We used generalized estimating equations (GEE) models for repeated measures to examine whether the rate of change of specific disease outcomes during the first 2 years after DMARD initiation was significantly influenced by gender. RESULTS: At baseline, men (n = 67) and women (n = 225) had similar disease activity and radiographic damage; men, however, had significantly worse erosion, while women had worse joint space narrowing. Despite similar treatment, women had worse disease progression over the 2-year followup, as assessed by trends in Disease Activity Score 28/erythrocyte sedimentation rate (DAS28-ESR4), physician global scores, and tender joint counts. In the GEE model, gender was significantly associated with the rate of change of DAS28-ESR4 scores (p = 0.009), although not independently associated with disease activity. Self-reported measures (Health Assessment Questionnaire-Disability Index, patient global scores, fatigue, pain) were worse among women at baseline and throughout the study period. Men were more likely to achieve remission. CONCLUSION: At baseline, men and women had similar disease activity and joint damage. Responses to treatment over time were better among men in this prebiologic era; women had worse progression despite similar treatment.
Is Rheumatoid Arthritis more common in men or women?
5118dd1305c10fae75000001_006
{ "answer_start": [ 2029 ], "text": [ "women" ] }
The evolutionary chromosome translocation 4;19 in Gorilla gorilla is associated with microduplication of the chromosome fragment syntenic to sequences surrounding the human proximal CMT1A-REP. Many genomic disorders occur as a result of chromosome rearrangements involving low-copy repeats (LCRs). To better understand the molecular basis of chromosome rearrangements, including translocations, we have investigated the mechanism of evolutionary rearrangements. In contrast to several intrachromosomal rearrangements, only two evolutionary translocations have been identified by cytogenetic analyses of humans and greater apes. Human chromosome 2 arose as a result of a telomeric fusion between acrocentric chromosomes, whereas chromosomes 4 and 19 in Gorilla gorilla are the products of a reciprocal translocation between ancestral chromosomes, syntenic to human chromosomes 5 and 17, respectively. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) was used to characterize the breakpoints of the latter translocation at the molecular level. We identified three BAC clones that span translocation breakpoints. One breakpoint occurred in the region syntenic to human chromosome 5q13.3, between the HMG-CoA reductase gene (HMGCR) and RAS p21 protein activator 1 gene (RASA1). The second breakpoint was in a region syntenic to human chromosome 17p12 containing the 24 kb region-specific low-copy repeat-proximal CMT1A-REP. Moreover, we found that the t(4;19) is associated with a submicroscopic chromosome duplication involving a 19p chromosome fragment homologous to the human chromosome region surrounding the proximal CMT1A-REP. These observations further indicate that higher order genomic architecture involving low-copy repeats resulting from genomic duplication plays a significant role in karyotypic evolution.
Which human chromosome is the product of fusion?
5ace238e0340b9f05800000d_021
{ "answer_start": [ 645 ], "text": [ "2" ] }
Test-retest variability of serotonin 5-HT2A receptor binding measured with positron emission tomography and [18F]altanserin in the human brain. The role of serotonin in CNS function and in many neuropsychiatric diseases (e.g., schizophrenia, affective disorders, degenerative dementias) support the development of a reliable measure of serotonin receptor binding in vivo in human subjects. To this end, the regional distribution and intrasubject test-retest variability of the binding of [18F]altanserin were measured as important steps in the further development of [18F]altanserin as a radiotracer for positron emission tomography (PET) studies of the serotonin 5-HT2A receptor. Two high specific activity [18F]altanserin PET studies were performed in normal control subjects (n = 8) on two separate days (2-16 days apart). Regional specific binding was assessed by distribution volume (DV), estimates that were derived using a conventional four compartment (4C) model, and the Logan graphical analysis method. For both analysis methods, levels of [18F]altanserin binding were highest in cortical areas, lower in the striatum and thalamus, and lowest in the cerebellum. Similar average differences of 13% or less were observed for the 4C model DV determined in regions with high receptor concentrations with greater variability in regions with low concentrations (16-20%). For all regions, the absolute value of the test-retest differences in the Logan DV values averaged 12% or less. The test-retest differences in the DV ratios (regional DV values normalized to the cerebellar DV) determined by both data analysis methods averaged less than 10%. The regional [18F]altanserin DV values using both of these methods were significantly correlated with literature-based values of the regional concentrations of 5-HT2A receptors determined by postmortem autoradiographic studies (r2 = 0.95, P < 0.001 for the 4C model and r2 = 0.96, P < 0.001 for the Logan method). Brain uptake studies in rats demonstrated that two different radiolabeled metabolites of [18F]altanserin (present at levels of 3-25% of the total radioactivity in human plasma 10-120 min postinjection) were able to penetrate the blood-brain barrier. However, neither of these radiolabeled metabolites bound specifically to the 5-HT2A receptor and did not interfere with the interpretation of regional [18F]altanserin-specific binding parameters obtained using either a conventional 4C model or the Logan graphical analysis method. In summary, these results demonstrate that the test-retest variability of [18F]altanserin-specific binding is comparable to that of other PET radiotracers and that the regional specific binding of [18F]altanserin in human brain was correlated with the known regional distribution of 5-HT2A receptors. These findings support the usefulness of [18F]altanserin as a radioligand for PET studies of 5-HT2A receptors.
Which receptors can be evaluated with the [18F]altanserin?
55242d512c8b63434a000006_025
{ "answer_start": [ 1810 ], "text": [ "5-HT2A" ] }
Molecular basis of albinism: mutations and polymorphisms of pigmentation genes associated with albinism. Albinism, caused by a deficiency of melanin pigment in the skin, hair, and eye (oculocutaneous albinism [OCA]), or primarily in the eye (ocular albinism [OA]), results from mutations in genes involved in the biosynthesis of melanin pigment. The lack of melanin pigment in the developing eye leads to fovea hypoplasia and abnormal routing of the optic nerves. These changes are responsible for the nystagmus, strabismus, and reduced visual acuity common to all types of albinism. Mutations in six genes have been reported to be responsible for different types of oculocutaneous and ocular albinism, including the tyrosinase gene (TYR) and OCA1 (MIM# 203100), the OCA2 gene and OCA2 (MIM# 203200), the tyrosinase-related protein-1 gene (TYRP1) and OCA3 (MIM# 203290), the HPS gene and Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome (MIM# 203300), the CHS gene (CHS1), and Chediak-Higashi syndrome (MIM# 214500), and the X-linked ocular albinism gene and OA1 (MIM#300500). The function of only two of the gene products is known tyrosinase and tyrosinase-related protein-1 both of which are enzymes in the melanin biosynthetic pathway. Continued mutational analysis coupled with function/structure studies should aid our understanding of the function of the remaining genes and their role in albinism. Mutation and polymorphism data on these genes are available from the International Albinism Center Albinism Database web site (http://www.cbc.umn.edu/tad).
Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?
58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_038
{ "answer_start": [ 805 ], "text": [ "tyrosinase" ] }
Comparative pharmacokinetics, safety, and tolerability of two sources of ch14.18 in pediatric patients with high-risk neuroblastoma following myeloablative therapy. PURPOSE: Dinutuximab (Unituxin™; ch14.18), a monoclonal antibody against disialoganglioside, improved survival as part of post-consolidation therapy for high-risk neuroblastoma. United Therapeutics Corporation (UTC) assumed ch14.18 production from the National Cancer Institute (NCI); this study evaluates pharmacokinetic comparability, safety, and tolerability of UTC and NCI products. METHODS: In this randomized, two-sequence crossover study, 28 patients aged < 8 years with high-risk neuroblastoma received equivalent ch14.18-UTC or ch14.18-NCI doses. Despite comparable protein content, nominal doses differed: 17.5 mg/m(2)/day (ch14.18-UTC) and 25 mg/m(2)/day (ch14.18-NCI). Patients received one product during therapy cycles 1 and 2, the other during cycles 3-5. Ch14.18 pharmacokinetic profile characterization used population modeling (NONMEM(®) version 7.2). A two-compartment model with first-order distribution and elimination processes described pharmacokinetic data. Estimated product parameters were normalized to UTC nominal dose. For pharmacokinetic comparability, the final model was used to estimate exposure ratios (UTC/NCI) and associated 90 % confidence intervals (CIs) for area under the curve from time zero to infinity (AUCinf) and maximum concentration (C max). All comparisons were based on a standardized single-dose regimen (17.5 mg/m(2) over 10 h). RESULTS: Final-model pharmacokinetic parameters were similar to previously published ch14.18-NCI parameters and comparable for UTC and NCI products. Products' systemic exposures were comparable, with 90 % CIs around ratios for AUCinf (0.96; 90 % CI 0.88-1.04) and C max (1.04; 90 % CI 0.98-1.11) within standard bioequivalence bounds (90 % CI 0.80-1.25). Products' adverse events were similar and consistent with those previously reported. CONCLUSIONS: Equivalent actual ch14.18-UTC and ch14.18-NCI doses produced comparable exposures, with no notable safety or tolerability differences.
Dinutuximab is used for treatment of which disease?
589a247078275d0c4a000035_001
{ "answer_start": [ 328 ], "text": [ "neuroblastoma" ] }
Rapid detection of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in diverse clinical specimens by the BD GeneOhm MRSA assay and comparison with culture. The efficacy of the BD GeneOhm methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) assay was assessed by analyzing nasal swabs and swabs from other body sites for the presence of MRSA in a low-prevalence area. From 681 patients with a high risk for MRSA carriage, 1,601 specimens were collected and transported in Amies agar. After discordant analysis, the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value of the BD GeneOhm MRSA assay were 84.3%, 99.2%, 88.4%, and 98.9%, respectively, compared to culture.
What is MRSA?
58a32efe60087bc10a000013_037
{ "answer_start": [ 64 ], "text": [ "MRSA" ] }
New anticoagulants: focus on venous thromboembolism. Anticoagulation is recommended for prophylaxis and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE) (deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism) and/or arterial thromboembolism. The therapeutic arsenal of anticoagulants available to clinicians is mainly composed by unfractionated heparin (UFH), low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), fondaparinux and oral vitamin K antagonists (VKA) (i.e. warfarin and acenocumarol). These anticoagulants are effective, but they require parenteral administration (UFH, LMWH, fondaparinux) and/or frequent anticoagulant monitoring (intravenous UFH, oral VKA). Novel anticoagulants in clinical testing include orally active direct factor II inhibitors [dabigatran etexilate (BIBR 1048), AZD0837)], parenteral direct factor II inhibitors (flovagatran sodium), orally active direct factor X inhibitors [rivaroxaban (BAY 59-7939), apixaban, betrixaban, YM150, DU-176b, LY-517717, GW813893, TAK-442, PD 0348292] and new parenteral FXa inhibitors [idraparinux, idrabiotaparinux (biotinilated idraparinux; SSR 126517), ultra-low-molecular-weight heparins (ULMWH: AVE5026, RO-14)]. These new compounds have the potential to complement heparins and fondaparinux for short-term anticoagulation and/or to replace VKA for long-term anticoagulation in most patients. Dabigatran and rivaroxaban have been the firsts of the new oral anticoagulants to be licensed for the prevention of VTE after hip and knee replacement surgery. In the present review, we discuss the pharmacology of new anticoagulants, the key points necessary for interpreting the results of studies on VTE prophylaxis and treatment, the results of clinical trials testing these new compounds and their potential advantages and drawbacks over existing therapies.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_099
{ "answer_start": [ 1006 ], "text": [ "Xa" ] }
Clinical significance of fatty liver disease induced by tamoxifen and toremifene in breast cancer patients. BACKGROUND AND AIM: The aim of this study was to identify the effect of selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) on non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) in Asian women. METHODS: We retrospectively evaluated fatty liver development and/or serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) elevation during SERM treatment in 1061 women who were diagnosed and treated with breast cancer in 2005 at Asan Medical Center. RESULTS: 45 of 618 SERM-treated patients with normal ALT at baseline experienced ALT elevation during SERM treatment. Among the 112 SERM-treated patients who underwent liver imaging test, fatty liver was observed in 47 and both fatty liver and ALT elevation developed in 16 of 102 SERM-treated patients with normal baseline ALT. The cumulative rates of ALT elevation (10.7 vs. 4.3%; P = 0.002), fatty liver (48.5 vs. 20.9%; P < 0.001), and both fatty liver and ALT elevation (17.7 vs. 7.1%; P = 0.02) at 60 months were significantly higher in the SERM group than non-SERM group. By multivariate analysis, SERM treatment increased the risk of ALT elevation (hazard ratio [HR], 2.20; P = 0.01), fatty liver development (HR, 3.59; P < 0.001), and both fatty liver and ALT elevation (HR, 4.98; P = 0.01). After discontinuation of SERM, elevated serum ALT normalized in 39 (92.9%) and there were no instances of liver-related death or progression to liver cirrhosis in patients who experienced fatty liver or ALT elevation. CONCLUSIONS: Although SERM treatment is significantly associated with NAFLD in Asian women, considering the tolerability and reversibility of NAFLD induced by SERM, it can be continued with liver function monitoring in relevant patients.
What is a SERM?
5a74e9ad0384be955100000a_030
{ "answer_start": [ 180 ], "text": [ "selective estrogen receptor modulator" ] }
High yield purification of JNK1β1 and activation by in vitro reconstitution of the MEKK1→MKK4→JNK MAPK phosphorylation cascade. The c-Jun N-terminal kinase (JNK) pathway forms part of the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) signaling pathways comprising a sequential three-tiered kinase cascade. Here, an upstream MAP3K (MEKK1) phosphorylates and activates a MAP2K (MKK4 and MKK7), which in turn phosphorylates and activates the MAPK, JNK. The C-terminal kinase domain of MEKK1 (MEKK-C) is constitutively active, while MKK4/7 and JNK are both activated by dual phosphorylation of S/Y, and T/Y residues within their activation loops, respectively. While improvements in the purification of large quantities of active JNKs have recently been made, inadequacies in their yield, purity, and the efficiency of their phosphorylation still exist. We describe a novel and robust method that further improves upon the purification of large yields of highly pure, phosphorylated JNK1β1, which is most suitable for biochemical and biophysical characterization. Codon harmonization of the JNK1β1 gene was used as a precautionary measure toward increasing the soluble overexpression of the kinase. While JNK1β1 and its substrate ATF2 were both purified to >99% purity as GST fusion proteins using GSH-agarose affinity chromatography and each cleaved from GST using thrombin, constitutively-active MEKK-C and inactive MKK4 were separately expressed in E. coli as thioredoxin-His(6)-tagged proteins and purified using urea refolding and Ni(2+)-IMAC, respectively. Activation of JNK1β1 was then achieved by successfully reconstituting the JNK MAPK activation cascade in vitro; MEKK-C was used to activate MKK4, which in turn was used to efficiently phosphorylate and activate large quantities of JNK1β1. Activated JNK1β1 was thereafter able to phosphorylate ATF2 with high catalytic efficiency.
Which MAP kinase phosphorylates the transcription factor c-jun?
5518e7da622b194345000004_016
{ "answer_start": [ 157 ], "text": [ "JNK" ] }
Evidence for a complex of transcription factor IIB with poly(A) polymerase and cleavage factor 1 subunits required for gene looping. Gene looping, defined as the interaction of the promoter and the terminator regions of a gene during transcription, requires transcription factor IIB (TFIIB). We have earlier demonstrated association of TFIIB with the distal ends of a gene in an activator-dependent manner (El Kaderi, B., Medler, S., Raghunayakula, S., and Ansari, A. (2009) J. Biol. Chem. 284, 25015-25025). The presence of TFIIB at the 3' end of a gene required its interaction with cleavage factor 1 (CF1) 3' end processing complex subunit Rna15. Here, employing affinity chromatography and glycerol gradient centrifugation, we show that TFIIB associates with poly(A) polymerase and the entire CF1 complex in yeast cells. The factors required for general transcription such as TATA-binding protein, RNA polymerase II, and TFIIH are not a component of the TFIIB complex. This holo-TFIIB complex was resistant to MNase digestion. The complex was observed only in the looping-competent strains, but not in the looping-defective sua7-1 strain. The requirement of Rna15 in gene looping has been demonstrated earlier. Here we provide evidence that poly(A) polymerase (Pap1) as well as CF1 subunits Rna14 and Pcf11 are also required for loop formation of MET16 and INO1 genes. Accordingly, cross-linking of TFIIB to the 3' end of genes was abolished in the mutants of Pap1, Rna14, and Pcf11. We further show that in sua7-1 cells, where holo-TFIIB complex is not formed, the kinetics of activated transcription is altered. These results suggest that a complex of TFIIB, CF1 subunits, and Pap1 exists in yeast cells. Furthermore, TFIIB interaction with the CF1 complex and Pap1 is crucial for gene looping and transcriptional regulation.
Which protein mediates gene loop formation in the yeast S. cerevisiae?
58adc1ff9ef3c34033000006_009
{ "answer_start": [ 284 ], "text": [ "TFIIB" ] }
INCA: synonymous codon usage analysis and clustering by means of self-organizing map. UNLABELLED: INteractive Codon usage Analysis (INCA) provides an array of features useful in analysis of synonymous codon usage in whole genomes. In addition to computing codon frequencies and several usage indices, such as 'codon bias', effective Nc and CAI, the primary strength of INCA has numerous options for the interactive graphical display of calculated values, thus allowing visual detection of various trends in codon usage. Finally, INCA includes a specific unsupervised neural network algorithm, the self-organizing map, used for gene clustering according to the preferred utilization of codons. AVAILABILITY: INCA is available for the Win32 platform and is free of charge for academic use. For details, visit the web page http://www.bioinfo-hr.org/inca or contact the author directly. SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: Software is accompanied with a user manual and a short tutorial.
Which tool employs self organizing maps for analyzing synonymous codon usage?
5891c90949702f2e01000001_020
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "INCA" ] }
Oral direct factor Xa inhibitors for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Safe and effective stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation (AF) is crucial as the number of patients with this condition continues to increase. Several novel oral anticoagulants are being developed as replacements for warfarin for this indication. Direct factor Xa inhibitors comprise the largest class of oral anticoagulants in development; the inhibition of factor Xa is recognized to be a promising target for therapeutic anticoagulation, partly because of its location in the coagulation cascade. Apixaban, betrixaban, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban are small-molecule, selective inhibitors that directly and reversibly bind to the active site of factor Xa. Their pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic profiles vary, which might allow patient-specific therapy. Several of these agents have been tested in clinical trials for various indications, including AF, with favorable results. In particular, apixaban and rivaroxaban have shown superiority and noninferiority, respectively, to warfarin in phase III clinical trials for stroke prevention in AF. These agents have also been shown to be safe in terms of bleeding risk. Despite these advantages, factor Xa inhibitors have several characteristics, such as potential interactions with other drugs (inhibitors of cytochrome P450 and P-glycoprotein) and the inability to reverse their anticoagulant effects, as well as concerns about poor patient compliance, which must be considered when initiating patients on a novel factor Xa inhibitor.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_130
{ "answer_start": [ 596 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Thyroid hemiagenesis and elevated thyrotropin levels in a child with Williams syndrome. A girl with Williams syndrome (WS) presented with elevated thyrotropin (TSH) levels (7.0 microU/ml), normal free thyroid hormone concentrations, and absent antithyroid autoantibodies. Thyroid ultrasonography and scintigraphy showed hemiagenesis of the left lobe and no evidence of ectopic tissue. TSH response to thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) injection (200 microg/mq, i.v.) was exaggerated and prolonged, suggesting subclinical hypothyroidism. The biological activity of circulating TSH was slightly below the normal range [TSH bioactivity (B) to immunoreactivity (I) ratio (TSH B/I) = 0.4, normal: 0.6-2.2]. These abnormalities are similar to those seen in patients with hypothalamic hypothyroidism. Thyroid function is not a recognized manifestation of WS and is not routinely investigated. However, abnormalities of the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid (HPT) axis and thyroid dysgenesis have been found in other WS cases. Genes mapping at 7q11.23, contiguous to the chromosomal region deleted in most WS patients, may be involved in the development of the thyroid gland, contributing to the complex phenotype of WS.
Which hormone abnormalities are common in Williams syndrome ?
530cefaaad0bf1360c00000d_028
{ "answer_start": [ 248 ], "text": [ "thyroid" ] }
A mitotic topoisomerase II checkpoint in budding yeast is required for genome stability but acts independently of Pds1/securin. Topoisomerase II (Topo II) performs topological modifications on double-stranded DNA molecules that are essential for chromosome condensation, resolution, and segregation. In mammals, G2 and metaphase cell cycle delays induced by Topo II poisons have been proposed to be the result of checkpoint activation in response to the catenation state of DNA. However, the apparent lack of such controls in model organisms has excluded genetic proof that Topo II checkpoints exist and are separable from the conventional DNA damage checkpoint controls. But here, we define a Topo II-dependent G2/M checkpoint in a genetically amenable eukaryote, budding yeast, and demonstrate that this checkpoint enhances cell survival. Conversely, a lack of the checkpoint results in aneuploidy. Neither DNA damage-responsive pathways nor Pds1/securin are needed for this checkpoint. Unusually, spindle assembly checkpoint components are required for the Topo II checkpoint, but checkpoint activation is not the result of failed chromosome biorientation or a lack of spindle tension. Thus, compromised Topo II function activates a yeast checkpoint system that operates by a novel mechanism.
Which topoisomerase is essential in yeast?
5a4e50b242878bf97d000001_009
{ "answer_start": [ 146 ], "text": [ "Topo II" ] }
[Apert syndrome. Ultrasonic diagnosis, obstetrical management]. We report two observations of antenatal diagnosis of Apert syndrome. This uncommon genetic disorder suggest an autosomal dominant inheritance, but almost all cases described are sporadic; the responsible gene is yet not located. Ultrasonographic detection is difficult, based on the following signs: brachycephalic skull (unusually detected), flat facial profile with a nasal bridge depression, tall appearance of the forehead (inconstant), total bilateral and symmetrical syndactylies of the hands and feet. At last we present our arguments for medical abortion, when this disorder is detected.
What is the inheritance pattern of Apert syndrome?
52c7275103868f1b0600001c_004
{ "answer_start": [ 175 ], "text": [ "autosomal dominant" ] }
Pre-specified subgroup analyses of a placebo-controlled phase III trial (TEMSO) of oral teriflunomide in relapsing multiple sclerosis. BACKGROUND: The Teriflunomide Multiple Sclerosis Oral (TEMSO) trial, a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled phase III study, demonstrated that teriflunomide significantly reduced annualized relapse rate (ARR), disease progression and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) activity, with a favorable safety profile in relapsing multiple sclerosis (RMS) patients. OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study was to report the effects of teriflunomide on ARR and disability progression in pre-specified subgroups. METHODS: RMS patients (n=1088) were randomized to placebo or teriflunomide, 7 mg or 14 mg, once daily, for 108 weeks. Subgroup analyses were performed for ARR and disability progression by baseline demographics (gender, race, age), disease characteristics (Expanded Disability Status Scale (EDSS) strata, relapse history, multiple sclerosis (MS) subtype), MRI parameters (gadolinium-enhancing lesions, total lesion volume) and prior use of MS drugs. A generalized estimating equation method and Cox regression model were used to assess consistency of the treatment effect across subgroups, utilizing a treatment-by-subgroup interaction test for each factor separately. RESULTS: Reductions in ARR and disability progression were consistent across subgroups in favor of teriflunomide, with no treatment-by-subgroup interaction test reaching statistical significance. CONCLUSION: The positive effects of teriflunomide were demonstrated consistently across subgroups in TEMSO.
Which drug was tested in the TEMSO Trial for multiple sclerosis?
589a246078275d0c4a00002a_032
{ "answer_start": [ 151 ], "text": [ "Teriflunomide" ] }
Daratumumab, a novel therapeutic human CD38 monoclonal antibody, induces killing of multiple myeloma and other hematological tumors. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein highly expressed in hematological malignancies including multiple myeloma (MM), represents a promising target for mAb-based immunotherapy. In this study, we describe the cytotoxic mechanisms of action of daratumumab, a novel, high-affinity, therapeutic human mAb against a unique CD38 epitope. Daratumumab induced potent Ab-dependent cellular cytotoxicity in CD38-expressing lymphoma- and MM-derived cell lines as well as in patient MM cells, both with autologous and allogeneic effector cells. Daratumumab stood out from other CD38 mAbs in its strong ability to induce complement-dependent cytotoxicity in patient MM cells. Importantly, daratumumab-induced Ab-dependent cellular cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity were not affected by the presence of bone marrow stromal cells, indicating that daratumumab can effectively kill MM tumor cells in a tumor-preserving bone marrow microenvironment. In vivo, daratumumab was highly active and interrupted xenograft tumor growth at low dosing. Collectively, our results show the versatility of daratumumab to effectively kill CD38-expressing tumor cells, including patient MM cells, via diverse cytotoxic mechanisms. These findings support clinical development of daratumumab for the treatment of CD38-positive MM tumors.
Which molecule is targeted by Daratumumab?
56c04412ef6e39474100001b_018
{ "answer_start": [ 535 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }
OikoBase: a genomics and developmental transcriptomics resource for the urochordate Oikopleura dioica. We report the development of OikoBase (http://oikoarrays.biology.uiowa.edu/Oiko/), a tiling array-based genome browser resource for Oikopleura dioica, a metazoan belonging to the urochordates, the closest extant group to vertebrates. OikoBase facilitates retrieval and mining of a variety of useful genomics information. First, it includes a genome browser which interrogates 1260 genomic sequence scaffolds and features gene, transcript and CDS annotation tracks. Second, we annotated gene models with gene ontology (GO) terms and InterPro domains which are directly accessible in the browser with links to their entries in the GO (http://www.geneontology.org/) and InterPro (http://www.ebi.ac.uk/interpro/) databases, and we provide transcript and peptide links for sequence downloads. Third, we introduce the transcriptomics of a comprehensive set of developmental stages of O. dioica at high resolution and provide downloadable gene expression data for all developmental stages. Fourth, we incorporate a BLAST tool to identify homologs of genes and proteins. Finally, we include a tutorial that describes how to use OikoBase as well as a link to detailed methods, explaining the data generation and analysis pipeline. OikoBase will provide a valuable resource for research in chordate development, genome evolution and plasticity and the molecular ecology of this important marine planktonic organism.
Mention the only available genomics and developmental transcriptomics resource for the urochordate Oikopleura dioica
56ae6e650a360a5e4500000e_001
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "OikoBase" ] }
The organic cation transporter 3 (OCT3) as molecular target of psychotropic drugs: transport characteristics and acute regulation of cloned murine OCT3. The organic cation transporter 3 (OCT3) is a widely expressed transporter for endogenous and exogenous organic cations. Of particular interest is OCT3 expression and function in the brain, where it plays a role in serotonin clearance and influences mood and behavior. Protein kinase signaling mediates rapid modulation of cerebral processes, but little is known about acute regulation of OCT3 by protein kinases. Therefore, we cloned mouse OCT3 (mOCT3) and generated a human embryonic kidney cell line stably expressing the transporter to study transport characteristics, acute regulation by protein kinases, and interaction with psychotropic drugs. Uptake measurement was performed using the fluorescent cation 4-(4-(dimethylamino)styryl)-N-methylpyridinium iodide (ASP(+), 1 μM) as a substrate. The translational value of these findings was determined by comparing results obtained with cloned mouse and human OCT3. mOCT3-mediated transport is membrane potential dependent and pH independent. ASP(+) uptake by mOCT3 and human OCT3 (hOCT3) was efficiently inhibited by 1-methyl-4-phenylpyridinium, tetrapentylammonium (TPA(+)), corticosterone, serotonin, and histamine and by the drugs ketamine, fluoxetine, and diazepam. The half maximal inhibitory concentrations of mOCT3 and hOCT3 for TPA(+), serotonin, diazepam, and ketamine are significantly different. Diazepam is a non-transported inhibitor. Furthermore, the activities of mOCT3 and hOCT3 are acutely regulated by the p56 (lck) tyrosine kinase by decreasing their V max. Studies with freshly isolated renal proximal tubules from mOCT1/2(-/-) mice, in which mOCT3 is the only OCT present, confirmed this regulation pathway. Only the activity of hOCT3 is regulated by calmodulin. These findings suggest that even though many transport properties of mOCT3 and hOCT3 are similar, there are also species-specific aspects of OCT3 function.
How is OCT3 associated with serotonin?
571e2beabb137a4b0c000006_004
{ "answer_start": [ 367 ], "text": [ "serotonin clearance" ] }
TRPC6 fulfills a calcineurin signaling circuit during pathologic cardiac remodeling. The heart responds to injury and chronic pressure overload by pathologic growth and remodeling, which frequently result in heart failure and sudden death. Calcium-dependent signaling pathways promote cardiac growth and associated changes in gene expression in response to stress. The calcium/calmodulin-dependent phosphatase calcineurin, which signals to nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT) transcription factors, serves as a transducer of calcium signals and is sufficient and necessary for pathologic cardiac hypertrophy and remodeling. Transient receptor potential (TRP) proteins regulate cation entry into cells in response to a variety of signals, and in skeletal muscle, expression of TRP cation channel, subfamily C, member 3 (TRPC3) is increased in response to neurostimulation and calcineurin signaling. Here we show that TRPC6 was upregulated in mouse hearts in response to activated calcineurin and pressure overload, as well as in failing human hearts. Two conserved NFAT consensus sites in the promoter of the TRPC6 gene conferred responsiveness to cardiac stress. Cardiac-specific overexpression of TRPC6 in transgenic mice resulted in heightened sensitivity to stress, a propensity for lethal cardiac growth and heart failure, and an increase in NFAT-dependent expression of beta-myosin heavy chain, a sensitive marker for pathologic hypertrophy. These findings implicate TRPC6 as a positive regulator of calcineurin-NFAT signaling and a key component of a calcium-dependent regulatory loop that drives pathologic cardiac remodeling.
Which calcium/calmodulin dependent protein phosphatase is involved in the activation of the family of NFAT transcription factors (Nuclear Factors of Activated T cells)?
54f9c40ddd3fc62544000001_014
{ "answer_start": [ 410 ], "text": [ "calcineurin" ] }
Incremental diagnostic quality gain of CTA over V/Q scan in the assessment of pulmonary embolism by means of a Wells score Bayesian model: results from the ACDC collaboration. OBJECTIVE: Our objective was to evaluate the diagnostic value of computed tomography angiography (CTA) and ventilation perfusion (V/Q) scan in the assessment of pulmonary embolism (PE) by means of a Bayesian statistical model. METHODS: Wells criteria defined pretest probability. Sensitivity and specificity of CTA and V/Q scan for PE were derived from pooled meta-analysis data. Likelihood ratios calculated for CTA and V/Q were inserted in the nomogram. Absolute (ADG) and relative diagnostic gains (RDG) were analyzed comparing post- and pretest probability. Comparative gain difference was calculated for CTA ADG over V/Q scan integrating ANOVA p value set at 0.05. RESULTS: The sensitivity for CT was 86.0% (95% CI: 80.2%, 92.1%) and specificity of 93.7% (95% CI: 91.1%, 96.3%). The V/Q scan yielded a sensitivity of 96% (95% CI: 95%, 97%) and a specificity of 97% (95% CI: 96%, 98%). Bayes nomogram results for CTA were low risk and yielded a posttest probability of 71.1%, an ADG of 56.1%, and an RDG of 374%, moderate-risk posttest probability was 85.1%, an ADG of 56.1%, and an RDG of 193.4%, and high-risk posttest probability was 95.2%, an ADG of 36.2%, and an RDG of 61.35%. The comparative gain difference for low-risk population was 46.1%; in moderate-risk 41.6%; and in high-risk a 22.1% superiority. ANOVA analysis for LR+ and LR- showed no significant difference (p = 0.8745, p = 0.9841 respectively). CONCLUSIONS: This Bayesian model demonstrated a superiority of CTA when compared to V/Q scan for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Low-risk patients are recognized to have a superior overall comparative gain favoring CTA.
What can be predicted with the Wells criteria?
5a7428090384be9551000001_003
{ "answer_start": [ 337 ], "text": [ "pulmonary embolism" ] }
Carfilzomib and oprozomib synergize with histone deacetylase inhibitors in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma models of acquired resistance to proteasome inhibitors. Acquired resistance to proteasome inhibitors represents a considerable impediment to their effective clinical application. Carfilzomib and its orally bioavailable structural analog oprozomib are second-generation, highly-selective, proteasome inhibitors. However, the mechanisms of acquired resistance to carfilzomib and oprozomib are incompletely understood, and effective strategies for overcoming this resistance are needed. Here, we developed models of acquired resistance to carfilzomib in two head and neck squamous cell carcinoma cell lines, UMSCC-1 and Cal33, through gradual exposure to increasing drug concentrations. The resistant lines R-UMSCC-1 and R-Cal33 demonstrated 205- and 64-fold resistance, respectively, relative to the parental lines. Similarly, a high level of cross-resistance to oprozomib, as well as paclitaxel, was observed, whereas only moderate resistance to bortezomib (8- to 29-fold), and low level resistance to cisplatin (1.5- to 5-fold) was seen. Synergistic induction of apoptosis signaling and cell death, and inhibition of colony formation followed co-treatment of acquired resistance models with carfilzomib and the histone deacetylase inhibitor (HDACi) vorinostat. Synergism was also seen with other combinations, including oprozomib plus vorinostat, or carfilzomib plus the HDACi entinostat. Synergism was accompanied by upregulation of proapoptotic Bik, and suppression of Bik attenuated the synergy. The acquired resistance models also exhibited elevated levels of MDR-1/P-gp. Inhibition of MDR-1/P-gp with reversin 121 partially overcame carfilzomib resistance in R-UMSCC-1 and R-Cal33 cells. Collectively, these studies indicate that combining carfilzomib or oprozomib with HDAC or MDR-1/P-gp inhibitors may be a useful strategy for overcoming acquired resistance to these proteasome inhibitors.
How is oprozomib administered?
56ecfd572ac5ed1459000002_007
{ "answer_start": [ 312 ], "text": [ "orally" ] }
RADAR: a rigorously annotated database of A-to-I RNA editing. We present RADAR--a rigorously annotated database of A-to-I RNA editing (available at http://RNAedit.com). The identification of A-to-I RNA editing sites has been dramatically accelerated in the past few years by high-throughput RNA sequencing studies. RADAR includes a comprehensive collection of A-to-I RNA editing sites identified in humans (Homo sapiens), mice (Mus musculus) and flies (Drosophila melanogaster), together with extensive manually curated annotations for each editing site. RADAR also includes an expandable listing of tissue-specific editing levels for each editing site, which will facilitate the assignment of biological functions to specific editing sites.
Which annotated database of A-to-I RNA editing is available?
587e1a01fc7e8dd84f000001_002
{ "answer_start": [ 73 ], "text": [ "RADAR" ] }
Peroxiredoxin 2 inhibits granulosa cell apoptosis during follicle atresia through the NFKB pathway in mice. Peroxiredoxin 2 (PRDX2) has been known to act as an antioxidant enzyme whose main function is H(2)O(2) reduction in cells. We aimed to study the expression patterns of PRDX2 in mouse ovaries and explore the function of this protein in apoptosis of granulosa cells (GCs). We found that the expression of the PRDX2 protein in atretic follicle GCs was markedly higher than in healthy follicle GCs. In vitro, the transfection of siRNA targeting the Prdx2 gene inhibited the proliferation and induced the apoptosis of primary cultured GCs. Furthermore, suppression of PRDX2 resulted in the augmentation of endogenous H(2)O(2), and the ability to eliminate the exogenous H(2)O(2) was attenuated. The expression of PRDX2 and nuclear factor kappa-light-chain-enhancer of activated B cells (NFKB), whose activity was inhibited by binding to IKB, increased in GCs treated with various concentrations of H(2)O(2) for 30 min. However, no significant change in cytoplasmic IKB expression was observed. At 2 h after treatment with H(2)O(2), nuclear NFKB expression level was reduced, cytoplasmic IKB expression was increased, and PRDX2 expression was unchanged. Silencing of the Prdx2 gene caused early changes in NFKB and IKB expression in the primary cultured GCs compared to that in control cells. Taken together, these data suggest that PRDX2 plays an important role in inhibiting apoptosis in GCs and that PRDX2 actions may be related to the expression of NFKB and IKB.
What type of enzyme is peroxiredoxin 2 (PRDX2)?
52bf1f1303868f1b06000014_004
{ "answer_start": [ 160 ], "text": [ "antioxidant" ] }
Chromosome XII context is important for rDNA function in yeast. The rDNA cluster in Saccharomyces cerevisiae is located 450 kb from the left end and 610 kb from the right end of chromosome XII and consists of approximately 150 tandemly repeated copies of a 9.1 kb rDNA unit. To explore the biological significance of this specific chromosomal context, chromosome XII was split at both sides of the rDNA cluster and strains harboring deleted variants of chromosome XII consisting of 450 kb, 1500 kb (rDNA cluster only) and 610 kb were created. In the strain harboring the 1500 kb variant of chromosome XII consisting solely of rDNA, the size of the rDNA cluster was found to decrease as a result of a decrease in rDNA copy number. The frequency of silencing of URA3 inserted within the rDNA locus was found to be greater than in a wild-type strain. The localization and morphology of the nucleolus was also affected such that a single and occasionally (6-12% frequency) two foci for Nop1p and a rounded nucleolus were observed, whereas a typical crescent-shaped nucleolar structure was seen in the wild-type strain. Notably, strains harboring the 450 kb chromosome XII variant and/or the 1500 kb variant consisting solely of rDNA had shorter life spans than wild type and also accumulated extrachromosomal rDNA circles. These observations suggest that the context of chromosome XII plays an important role in maintaining a constant rDNA copy number and in physiological processes related to rDNA function in S.cerevisiae.
In which yeast chromosome does the rDNA cluster reside?
5710e131a5ed216440000001_010
{ "answer_start": [ 352 ], "text": [ "chromosome XII" ] }
Ser67-phosphorylated inhibitor 1 is a potent protein phosphatase 1 inhibitor. Inhibitor 1 (I-1) is a protein inhibitor of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1), a major eukaryotic Ser/Thr phosphatase. Nonphosphorylated I-1 is inactive, whereas phosphorylated I-1 is a potent PP1 inhibitor. I-1 is phosphorylated in vivo on Thr(35) and Ser(67). Thr(35) is phosphorylated by cAMP-dependent protein kinase (A kinase), and Thr(35)-phosphorylated I-1 inhibits PP1. Until now the kinase that phosphorylates Ser(67) had not been identified and the physiological role of Ser(67) phosphorylation was unknown. In this study we detected a high level of kinase activity in brain extract when a glutathione S-transferase (GST) fusion I-1 mutant containing an Ala substituted for Thr(35) [GST-I-1(T35A)] was used as the substrate. GST-I-1(T35A) kinase and neuronal cdc2-like protein kinase (NCLK) in the brain extract could not be separated from each other by a series of sequential chromatographies. GST-I-1(T35A) kinase immunoprecipitated with anti-NCLK antibody from kinase-active column fractions. Purified NCLK-phosphorylated GST-I-1(T35A) and I-1 (0.7 mole of phosphate per mole of I-1). HPLC phosphopeptide mapping, amino acid sequencing, and site-directed mutagenesis determined that NCLK phosphorylates Ser(67) of I-1. NCLK-phosphorylated I-1 and I-1(T35A) inhibited PP1 with IC(50) values approximately 9.5 and 13. 8 nM, respectively. When compared, A kinase-phosphorylated I-1 was only approximately 1.2 times more inhibitory than NCLK-phosphorylated I-1. Our data indicate that NCLK is a potential in vivo I-1 kinase and that Thr(35) and Ser(67) phosphorylation independently activate I-1.
Which protein is the main inhibitor of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1)?
550618f58e1671127b000007_002
{ "answer_start": [ 78 ], "text": [ "Inhibitor 1" ] }
X-linked Christianson syndrome: heterozygous female Slc9a6 knockout mice develop mosaic neuropathological changes and related behavioral abnormalities. Christianson syndrome (CS) is an X-linked neurodevelopmental and neurological disorder characterized in males by core symptoms that include non-verbal status, intellectual disability, epilepsy, truncal ataxia, postnatal microcephaly and hyperkinesis. CS is caused by mutations in the SLC9A6 gene, which encodes a multipass transmembrane sodium (potassium)-hydrogen exchanger 6 (NHE6) protein, functional in early recycling endosomes. The extent and variability of the CS phenotype in female heterozygotes, who presumably express the wild-type and mutant SLC9A6 alleles mosaically as a result of X-chromosome inactivation (XCI), have not yet been systematically characterized. Slc9a6 knockout mice (Slc9a6 KO) were generated by insertion of the bacterial lacZ/β-galactosidase (β-Gal) reporter into exon 6 of the X-linked gene. Mutant Slc9a6 KO male mice have been shown to develop late endosomal/lysosomal dysfunction associated with glycolipid accumulation in selected neuronal populations and patterned degeneration of Purkinje cells (PCs). In heterozygous female Slc9a6 KO mice, β-Gal serves as a transcriptional/XCI reporter and thus facilitates testing of effects of mosaic expression of the mutant allele on penetrance of the abnormal phenotype. Using β-Gal, we demonstrated mosaic expression of the mutant Slc9a6 allele and mosaically distributed lysosomal glycolipid accumulation and PC pathology in the brains of heterozygous Slc9a6 KO female mice. At the behavioral level, we showed that heterozygous female mice suffer from visuospatial memory and motor coordination deficits similar to but less severe than those observed in X-chromosome hemizygous mutant males. Our studies in heterozygous Slc9a6 KO female mice provide important clues for understanding the likely phenotypic range of Christianson syndrome among females heterozygous for SLC9A6 mutations and might improve diagnostic practice and genetic counseling by helping to characterize this presumably underappreciated patient/carrier group.
Mutation of which gene is implicated in the Christianson syndrome?
5895bc397d9090f35300000b_026
{ "answer_start": [ 2002 ], "text": [ "SLC9A6" ] }
Sp1 binds to the external promoter of the p73 gene and induces the expression of TAp73gamma in lung cancer. The p73 gene possesses an extrinsic P1 promoter and an intrinsic P2 promoter, resulting in TAp73 and DeltaNup73 isoforms, respectively. The ultimate effect of p73 in oncogenesis is thought to depend on the apoptotic TA to antiapoptotic DeltaN isoforms' ratio. This study was aimed at identifying novel transcription factors that affect TA isoform synthesis. With the use of bioinformatics tools, in vitro binding assays, and chromatin immunoprecipitation analysis, a region extending -233 to -204 bp upstream of the transcription start site of the human p73 P1 promoter, containing conserved Sp1-binding sites, was characterized. Treatment of cells with Sp1 RNAi and Sp1 inhibitor functionally suppress TAp73 expression, indicating positive regulation of P1 by the Sp1 protein. Notably Sp1 inhibition or knockdown also reduces DeltaNup73 protein levels. Therefore, Sp1 directly regulates TAp73 transcription and affects DeltaNup73 levels in lung cancer. TAp73gamma was shown to be the only TA isoform overexpressed in several lung cancer cell lines and in 26 non-small cell lung cancers, consistent with Sp1 overexpression, thereby questioning the apoptotic role of this specific p73 isoform in lung cancer.
How many TAp73 isoforms have been identified in humans?
5173bdb38ed59a060a000020_046
{ "answer_start": [ 217 ], "text": [ "7" ] }
A novel mutation in the GAN gene causes an intermediate form of giant axonal neuropathy in an Arab-Israeli family. Giant axonal neuropathy is a severe autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disorder of childhood that affects both the peripheral and central nervous systems. It is caused by mutations in the GAN gene linked to chromosome 16q24.1 At least 45 distinct disease-causing mutations have been identified throughout the gene in families of various ethnic origins, with different symptomatologies and different clinical courses. To date, no characteristic mutation or phenotype-genotype correlation has been established. We describe a novel missense mutation in four siblings born to consanguineous parents of Arab original with clinical and molecular features compatible with giant axonal neuropathy. The phenotype was characterized by a predominant motor and sensory peripheral neuropathies and severe skeletal deformities.
Which gene is involved in Giant Axonal Neuropathy?
572096c90fd6f91b6800000e_006
{ "answer_start": [ 24 ], "text": [ "GAN gene" ] }
Evidence of nestin-positive cells in the human cutaneus Meissner and Pacinian corpuscles. Nestin is an intermediate filament protein expressed in neuroepithelial stem cells during development and it is later replaced by cell specific neuronal or glial filaments. Nevertheless, nestin⁺ cells remain within adult tissues and they can be regarded as potential neural stem cell (NSC). Nestin⁺ cells have been detected in Schwann cells related with sensory corpuscles of rodent and they have been demonstrated to be NSC. We have investigated the existence of nestin⁺ in human cutaneous cells Meissner and Pacinian corpuscles through the use of immunohistochemistry techniques and in situ hybridization. S100 protein (also regarded as a marker for NSC) and vimentin (the intermediate filament of mature Schwann cells in sensory corpuscles) were also investigated. The results show that the adult human cutaneous sensory Meissner and Pacinian corpuscles contains a small population of Schwann-related cells (vimentin⁺) which on the basis of their basic immunohistochemical characteristics (S100 protein⁺, nestin⁺) can be potential NSCs. Cells sharing identical immunohistochemical profile were also found in the close vicinity of Meissner corpuscles. Because their localization they are easily accessible and may represent a peripheral niche of NSC to be used for therapeutic goals.
Which intermediate filament (IF) protein can be used as a non-specific marker of the neuronal precursor cells of the subventricular zone?
5540ca8a0083d1bf0e000003_007
{ "answer_start": [ 90 ], "text": [ "Nestin" ] }
Homozygous mutations in LPIN2 are responsible for the syndrome of chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis and congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia (Majeed syndrome). BACKGROUND: Majeed syndrome is an autosomal recessive, autoinflammatory disorder characterised by chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis and congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia. The objectives of this study were to map, identify, and characterise the Majeed syndrome causal gene and to speculate on its function and role in skin and bone inflammation. METHODS: Six individuals with Majeed syndrome from two unrelated families were identified for this study. Homozygosity mapping and parametric linkage analysis were employed for the localisation of the gene responsible for Majeed syndrome. Direct sequencing was utilised for the identification of mutations within the genes contained in the region of linkage. Expression studies and in silico characterisation of the identified causal gene and its protein were carried out. RESULTS: The phenotype of Majeed syndrome includes inflammation of the bone and skin, recurrent fevers, and dyserythropoietic anaemia. The clinical picture of the six affected individuals is briefly reviewed. The gene was mapped to a 5.5 cM interval (1.8 Mb) on chromosome 18p. Examination of genes in this interval led to the identification of homozygous mutations in LPIN2 in affected individuals from the two families. LPIN2 was found to be expressed in almost all tissues. The function of LPIN2 and its role in inflammation remains unknown. CONCLUSIONS: We conclude that homozygous mutations in LPIN2 result in Majeed syndrome. Understanding the aberrant immune response in this condition will shed light on the aetiology of other inflammatory disorders of multifactorial aetiology including isolated chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis, Sweet syndrome, and psoriasis.
Which gene has been implicated in Majeed Syndrome?
56f7c15a09dd18d46b000012_001
{ "answer_start": [ 24 ], "text": [ "LPIN2" ] }
Dinutuximab for the treatment of pediatric patients with high-risk neuroblastoma. Neuroblastoma (NB) is the most common extra cranial solid tumor of childhood, with 60% of patients presenting with high risk (HR) NB by means of clinical, pathological and biological features. The 5-year survival rate for HR-NB remains below 40%, with the majority of patients suffering relapse from chemorefractory tumor. Immunotherapy is the main strategy against minimal residual disease and clinical experience has mostly focused on monoclonal antibodies (MoAb) against the glycolipid disialoganglioside GD2. Three anti-GD2 antibodies have been tested in the clinic including murine 14G2a, human-mouse chimeric ch14.18 and 3F8. Anti-GD2 MoAb induces cellular cytoxicity against NB and is most effective when effector cells like natural killer cells, granulocytes and macrophages are amplified by cytokines. The combination of cytokines IL-2 and GM-CSF with the anti-GD2 MoAb ch14.18 (Dinutuximab) has shown a significant improvement in outcome for HR-NB. The FDA and EMA approved dinutuximab (Unituxin(R)) in 2015 for the treatment of patients with HR-NB who achieved at least a partial response after multimodality therapy.
Dinutuximab is used for treatment of which disease?
589a247078275d0c4a000035_019
{ "answer_start": [ 67 ], "text": [ "neuroblastoma" ] }
Calcineurin signaling and NFAT activation in cardiovascular and skeletal muscle development. Calcineurin signaling has been implicated in a broad spectrum of developmental processes in a variety of organ systems. Calcineurin is a calmodulin-dependent, calcium-activated protein phosphatase composed of catalytic and regulatory subunits. The serine/threonine-specific phosphatase functions within a signal transduction pathway that regulates gene expression and biological responses in many developmentally important cell types. Calcineurin signaling was first defined in T lymphocytes as a regulator of nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT) transcription factor nuclear translocation and activation. Recent studies have demonstrated the vital nature of calcium/calcineurin/NFAT signaling in cardiovascular and skeletal muscle development in vertebrates. Inhibition, mutation, or forced expression of calcineurin pathway genes result in defects or alterations in cardiomyocyte maturation, heart valve formation, vascular development, skeletal muscle differentiation and fiber-type switching, and cardiac and skeletal muscle hypertrophy. Conserved calcineurin genes are found in invertebrates such as Drosophila and Caenorhabditis elegans, and genetic studies have demonstrated specific myogenic functions for the phosphatase in their development. The ability to investigate calcineurin signaling pathways in vertebrates and model genetic organisms provides a great potential to more fully comprehend the functions of calcineurin and its interacting genes in heart, blood vessel, and muscle development.
Which calcium/calmodulin dependent protein phosphatase is involved in the activation of the family of NFAT transcription factors (Nuclear Factors of Activated T cells)?
54f9c40ddd3fc62544000001_003
{ "answer_start": [ 213 ], "text": [ "Calcineurin" ] }
TIRR regulates 53BP1 by masking its histone methyl-lysine binding function. P53-binding protein 1 (53BP1) is a multi-functional double-strand break repair protein that is essential for class switch recombination in B lymphocytes and for sensitizing BRCA1-deficient tumours to poly-ADP-ribose polymerase-1 (PARP) inhibitors. Central to all 53BP1 activities is its recruitment to double-strand breaks via the interaction of the tandem Tudor domain with dimethylated lysine 20 of histone H4 (H4K20me2). Here we identify an uncharacterized protein, Tudor interacting repair regulator (TIRR), that directly binds the tandem Tudor domain and masks its H4K20me2 binding motif. Upon DNA damage, the protein kinase ataxia-telangiectasia mutated (ATM) phosphorylates 53BP1 and recruits RAP1-interacting factor 1 (RIF1) to dissociate the 53BP1-TIRR complex. However, overexpression of TIRR impedes 53BP1 function by blocking its localization to double-strand breaks. Depletion of TIRR destabilizes 53BP1 in the nuclear-soluble fraction and alters the double-strand break-induced protein complex centring 53BP1. These findings identify TIRR as a new factor that influences double-strand break repair using a unique mechanism of masking the histone methyl-lysine binding function of 53BP1.
Which protein is regulated by Tudor interacting repair regulator (TIRR)?
5a774fdcfaa1ab7d2e000008_028
{ "answer_start": [ 1093 ], "text": [ "53BP1" ] }
JAK inhibitor tofacitinib for treating rheumatoid arthritis: from basic to clinical. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a representative autoimmune disease characterized by chronic and destructive inflammatory synovitis. The multiple cytokines play pivotal roles in RA pathogenesis by inducing intracellular signaling, and members of the Janus kinase (JAK) family are essential for such signal transduction. An orally available JAK3 inhibitor, tofacitinib, has been applied for RA, with satisfactory effects and acceptable safety in multiple clinical examinations. From phase 2 dose-finding studies, tofacitinib 5 mg and 10 mg twice a day appear suitable for further evaluation. Subsequently, multiple phase 3 studies were carried out, and tofacitinib with or without methotrexate (MTX) is efficacious and has a manageable safety profile in active RA patients who are MTX naïve or show inadequate response to methotrexate (MTX-IR), disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARD)-IR, or tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-inhibitor-IR. The common adverse events were infections, such as nasopharyngitis; increases in cholesterol, transaminase, and creatinine; and decreases in neutrophil counts. Although the mode of action of tofacitinib remains unclear, we clarified that the inhibitory effects of tofacitinib could be mediated through suppression of interleukin (IL)-17 and interferon (IFN)-γ production and proliferation of CD4(+) T cells in the inflamed synovium. Taken together, an orally available kinase inhibitor tofacitinib targeting JAK-mediated signals would be expected to be a new option for RA treatment.
Which JAK (Janus kinase) inhibitor is approved for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
53357193d6d3ac6a34000047_012
{ "answer_start": [ 734 ], "text": [ "tofacitinib" ] }
Bacillus anthracis virulence regulator AtxA: oligomeric state, function and CO(2) -signalling. AtxA, a unique regulatory protein of unknown molecular function, positively controls expression of the major virulence genes of Bacillus anthracis. The 475 amino acid sequence of AtxA reveals DNA binding motifs and regions similar to proteins associated with the phosphoenolpyruvate: carbohydrate phosphotransferase system (PTS). We used strains producing native and functional epitope-tagged AtxA proteins to examine protein-protein interactions in cell lysates and in solutions of purified protein. Co-affinity purification, non-denaturing polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis and bis(maleimido)hexane (BMH) cross-linking experiments revealed AtxA homo-multimers. Dimers were the most abundant species. BMH cross-links available cysteines within 13 Å. To localize interaction sites, six AtxA mutants containing distinct Cys→Ser substitutions were tested for multimerization and cross-linking. All mutants multimerized, but one mutation, C402S, prevented cross-linking. Thus, BMH uses C402 to make the inter-molecular bond between AtxA proteins, but C402 is not required for protein-protein interaction. C402 is in a region bearing amino acid similarity to Enzyme IIB proteins of the PTS. The AtxA EIIB motif may function in protein oligomerization. Finally, cultures grown with elevated CO(2) /bicarbonate exhibited increased AtxA dimer/monomer ratios and increased AtxA activity, relative to cultures grown without added CO(2) /bicarbonate, suggesting that this host-associated signal enhances AtxA function by shifting the dimer/monomer equilibrium towards the dimeric state.
Which metabolite activates AtxA?
5710a592cf1c32585100002a_004
{ "answer_start": [ 1524 ], "text": [ "bicarbonate" ] }
Genetic mapping of "Lubag" (X-linked dystonia-parkinsonism) in a Filipino kindred to the pericentromeric region of the X chromosome. "Lubag" is an X-linked disorder causing dystonia and parkinsonism that has only been described in families from the Philippines, principally from the island of Panay. We have established linkage between the disease phenotype "lubag" and DNA markers which span the Xp11.22-Xq21.3 region by using a large Filipino family with 8 affected men in three generations. These DNA markers define an interval of about 20 centimorgans in the pericentromeric region of the X chromosome as the most likely site of the disease locus XDPD (X-linked dystonia-parkinsonism). XDPD has a maximum multipoint log likelihood ratio score (Zmax) of about 4.6 over the interval from Xq12 to Xq21.31 (DXS159-DXYS1X). The co-occurrence of dystonia and parkinsonism in lubag and in other known disorders suggests there may be a common pathogenetic mechanism. Identification of the genetic defect in this family may provide an important clue toward understanding the pathogenesis and pathophysiology of both dystonia and parkinsonism.
What is the synonym of the lubag disease?
54df695b1388e8454a000004_021
{ "answer_start": [ 28 ], "text": [ "X-linked dystonia-parkinsonism" ] }
The immunopathogenesis of chronic autoimmune thyroiditis one century after hashimoto. Hakaru Hashimoto described 4 patients with a hitherto unknown cause for goitre, struma lymphomatosa, a century ago. He was careful to distinguish this from Riedel thyroiditis but it has become clear that fibrosis and atrophy of the thyroid are indeed components of Hashimoto thyroiditis, and in rare cases IgG4-related sclerosing disease may be an outcome. Although the cause of the lymphocytic infiltration was unknown to Hashimoto, we now know through the pioneering studies of N.R. Rose and E. Witebsky [J Immunol 1956;76:417-427] that this condition is the archetype for autoimmune destruction as a disease mechanism. In the last two decades in particular, there has been huge interest in unravelling the genetic basis for this and related autoimmune disorders. The list of polymorphisms associated with autoimmune thyroid disease grows each year, and in the case of vitiligo, which is frequently found in association with thyroid autoimmunity, we know that 27 separate susceptibility loci account for less than 20% of the heritability of this condition. Environmental and existential factors may turn out to be just as complex in number and in interactions. We can thus imagine a 'Swiss cheese' model for the causation of autoimmune thyroid disease, in which the effects of cumulative weaknesses line up - like the holes in slices of cheese - to allow the catastrophic event of autoimmune destruction to occur.
Which antibodies cause Riedel thyroiditis?
56c1f040ef6e394741000055_012
{ "answer_start": [ 392 ], "text": [ "IgG4" ] }
Post-surgical outcome for epilepsy associated with type I focal cortical dysplasia subtypes. Focal cortical dysplasias are a well-recognized cause of medically intractable seizures. The clinical relevance of certain subgroups of the International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) classification scheme remains to be determined. The aim of the present work is to assess the effect of the focal cortical dysplasia type Ib and Ic histologic subtypes on surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency. This study also provides an opportunity to compare the predictive value of the ILAE and Palmini et al classification schemes with regard to the type I focal cortical dysplasias. We retrospectively reviewed 91 focal cortical dysplasia patients (55% female; median age: 19 years (interquartile range 8-34); median seizure duration: 108 months (interquartile range 36-204)) with chronic epilepsy who underwent surgery. We compared the pathological subtypes, evaluating the patients' post-surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency according to the Engel's classification and the ILAE outcome classification. Both the ILAE classification scheme and Palmini et al classification scheme were utilized to classify the histologic subtype. Using χ(2) and Fisher's exact tests, we compared the post-surgical outcomes among these groups. Of the 91 patients, there were 50 patients with ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type Ib, 41 with ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type Ic, 63 with Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type IA, and 28 with Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type IB. After surgery, 44 patients (48%) were seizure-free. Crude analysis revealed no significant difference between patients with subtypes of ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type I or Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type I concerning postoperative outcome according to the Engel and ILAE scoring systems on seizure frequency. Our findings revealed no significant difference concerning surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency for the histologic subtypes of ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type I (Ib vs Ic) or Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type I (IA vs IB). In isolation, the histologic subtype of focal cortical dysplasia type I does not appear predictive of postoperative outcome.
Which disorder is rated by Palmini classification?
56c1f020ef6e394741000047_014
{ "answer_start": [ 1435 ], "text": [ "focal cortical dysplasia" ] }
Molecular analysis of HEXA gene in Argentinean patients affected with Tay-Sachs disease: possible common origin of the prevalent c.459+5A>G mutation. Tay-Sachs disease (TSD) is a recessively inherited disorder caused by the deficient activity of hexosaminidase A due to mutations in the HEXA gene. Up to date there is no information regarding the molecular genetics of TSD in Argentinean patients. In the present study we have studied 17 Argentinean families affected by TSD, including 20 patients with the acute infantile form and 3 with the sub-acute form. Overall, we identified 14 different mutations accounting for 100% of the studied alleles. Eight mutations were novel: 5 were single base changes leading to drastic residue changes or truncated proteins, 2 were small deletions and one was an intronic mutation that may cause a splicing defect. Although the spectrum of mutations was highly heterogeneous, a high frequency of the c.459+5G>A mutation, previously described in different populations was found among the studied cohort. Haplotype analysis suggested that in these families the c.459+5G>A mutation might have arisen by a single mutational event.
Which is the gene most commonly mutated in Tay-Sachs disease?
536e46f27d100faa09000012_007
{ "answer_start": [ 22 ], "text": [ "HEXA" ] }
The Nedd8-activating enzyme inhibitor MLN4924 thwarts microenvironment-driven NF-κB activation and induces apoptosis in chronic lymphocytic leukemia B cells. BACKGROUND: Stromal-mediated signaling enhances NF-κB pathway activity in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) B cells, leading to cell survival and chemoresistance. Ubiquitination of IκBα may partially account for constitutive activation of NF-κB. MLN4924 is an investigational agent that inhibits the Nedd8-activating enzyme, thereby neutralizing Cullin-RING ubiquitin ligases and preventing degradation of their substrates. EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN: We conducted a preclinical assessment of MLN4924 in CLL. Primary CLL cells were cocultured in vitro with CD40L-expressing stroma to mimic the prosurvival conditions present in lymphoid tissue. The effect of MLN4924 on CLL cell apoptosis, NF-κB pathway activity, Bcl-2 family members, and cell cycle was assessed by flow cytometry, Western blotting, PCR, and immunocytochemistry. RESULTS: CD40L-expressing stroma protected CLL cells from spontaneous apoptosis and induced resistance to multiple drugs, accompanied by NF-κB activation and Bim repression. Treatment with MLN4924 induced CLL cell apoptosis and circumvented stroma-mediated resistance. This was accompanied by accumulation of phospho-IκBα, decreased nuclear translocation of p65 and p52 leading to inhibition of both the canonical and noncanonical NF-κB pathways, and reduced transcription of their target genes, notably chemokines. MLN4924 promoted induction of Bim and Noxa in the CLL cells leading to rebalancing of Bcl-2 family members toward the proapoptotic BH3-only proteins. siRNA-mediated knockdown of Bim or Noxa decreased sensitivity to MLN4924. MLN4924 enhanced the antitumor activity of the inhibitors of B-cell receptor (BCR)-associated kinases. CONCLUSIONS: MLN4924 disrupts NF-κB activation and induces Bim expression in CLL cells, thereby preventing stroma-mediated resistance. Our data provide rationale for further evaluation of MLN4924 in CLL.
Which enzyme does MLN4924 inhibit?
56ed03862ac5ed1459000004_014
{ "answer_start": [ 459 ], "text": [ "Nedd8-activating enzyme" ] }
Complete OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiency causes human Rotor syndrome by interrupting conjugated bilirubin reuptake into the liver. Bilirubin, a breakdown product of heme, is normally glucuronidated and excreted by the liver into bile. Failure of this system can lead to a buildup of conjugated bilirubin in the blood, resulting in jaundice. The mechanistic basis of bilirubin excretion and hyperbilirubinemia syndromes is largely understood, but that of Rotor syndrome, an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, coproporphyrinuria, and near-absent hepatic uptake of anionic diagnostics, has remained enigmatic. Here, we analyzed 8 Rotor-syndrome families and found that Rotor syndrome was linked to mutations predicted to cause complete and simultaneous deficiencies of the organic anion transporting polypeptides OATP1B1 and OATP1B3. These important detoxification-limiting proteins mediate uptake and clearance of countless drugs and drug conjugates across the sinusoidal hepatocyte membrane. OATP1B1 polymorphisms have previously been linked to drug hypersensitivities. Using mice deficient in Oatp1a/1b and in the multispecific sinusoidal export pump Abcc3, we found that Abcc3 secretes bilirubin conjugates into the blood, while Oatp1a/1b transporters mediate their hepatic reuptake. Transgenic expression of human OATP1B1 or OATP1B3 restored the function of this detoxification-enhancing liver-blood shuttle in Oatp1a/1b-deficient mice. Within liver lobules, this shuttle may allow flexible transfer of bilirubin conjugates (and probably also drug conjugates) formed in upstream hepatocytes to downstream hepatocytes, thereby preventing local saturation of further detoxification processes and hepatocyte toxic injury. Thus, disruption of hepatic reuptake of bilirubin glucuronide due to coexisting OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiencies explains Rotor-type hyperbilirubinemia. Moreover, OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 null mutations may confer substantial drug toxicity risks.
Which syndrome is associated with OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiency?
571e40a8bb137a4b0c000009_008
{ "answer_start": [ 707 ], "text": [ "Rotor syndrome" ] }
Phosphorylation meets ubiquitination: the control of NF-[kappa]B activity. NF-kappaB (nuclear factor-kappaB) is a collective name for inducible dimeric transcription factors composed of members of the Rel family of DNA-binding proteins that recognize a common sequence motif. NF-kappaB is found in essentially all cell types and is involved in activation of an exceptionally large number of genes in response to infections, inflammation, and other stressful situations requiring rapid reprogramming of gene expression. NF-kappaB is normally sequestered in the cytoplasm of nonstimulated cells and consequently must be translocated into the nucleus to function. The subcellular location of NF-kappaB is controlled by a family of inhibitory proteins, IkappaBs, which bind NF-kappaB and mask its nuclear localization signal, thereby preventing nuclear uptake. Exposure of cells to a variety of extracellular stimuli leads to the rapid phosphorylation, ubiquitination, and ultimately proteolytic degradation of IkappaB, which frees NF-kappaB to translocate to the nucleus where it regulates gene transcription. NF-kappaB activation represents a paradigm for controlling the function of a regulatory protein via ubiquitination-dependent proteolysis, as an integral part of a phosphorylationbased signaling cascade. Recently, considerable progress has been made in understanding the details of the signaling pathways that regulate NF-kappaB activity, particularly those responding to the proinflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis factor-alpha and interleukin-1. The multisubunit IkappaB kinase (IKK) responsible for inducible IkappaB phosphorylation is the point of convergence for most NF-kappaB-activating stimuli. IKK contains two catalytic subunits, IKKalpha and IKKbeta, both of which are able to correctly phosphorylate IkappaB. Gene knockout studies have shed light on the very different physiological functions of IKKalpha and IKKbeta. After phosphorylation, the IKK phosphoacceptor sites on IkappaB serve as an essential part of a specific recognition site for E3RS(IkappaB/beta-TrCP), an SCF-type E3 ubiquitin ligase, thereby explaining how IKK controls IkappaB ubiquitination and degradation. A variety of other signaling events, including phosphorylation of NF-kappaB, hyperphosphorylation of IKK, induction of IkappaB synthesis, and the processing of NF-kappaB precursors, provide additional mechanisms that modulate the level and duration of NF-kappaB activity.
Which is the E3 ubiquitin ligase which ubiquitinates IkB leading to its proteasomal degradation?
550af222c2af5d5b7000000b_005
{ "answer_start": [ 2076 ], "text": [ "beta-TrCP" ] }
Aurora B kinase phosphorylates and instigates degradation of p53. Aurora B is a mitotic checkpoint kinase that plays a pivotal role in the cell cycle, ensuring correct chromosome segregation and normal progression through mitosis. Aurora B is overexpressed in many types of human cancers, which has made it an attractive target for cancer therapies. Tumor suppressor p53 is a genome guardian and important negative regulator of the cell cycle. Whether Aurora B and p53 are coordinately regulated during the cell cycle is not known. We report that Aurora B directly interacts with p53 at different subcellular localizations and during different phases of the cell cycle (for instance, at the nucleus in interphase and the centromeres in prometaphase of mitosis). We show that Aurora B phosphorylates p53 at S183, T211, and S215 to accelerate the degradation of p53 through the polyubiquitination-proteasome pathway, thus functionally suppressing the expression of p53 target genes involved in cell cycle inhibition and apoptosis (e.g., p21 and PUMA). Pharmacologic inhibition of Aurora B in cancer cells with WT p53 increased p53 protein level and expression of p53 target genes to inhibit tumor growth. Together, these results define a mechanism of p53 inactivation during the cell cycle and imply that oncogenic hyperactivation or overexpression of Aurora B may compromise the tumor suppressor function of p53. We have elucidated the antineoplastic mechanism for Aurora B kinase inhibitors in cancer cells with WT p53.
Which tumor suppressor is referred to as "the guardian of the genome"?
55421ee7ccca0ce74b000002_009
{ "answer_start": [ 367 ], "text": [ "p53" ] }
Effect of SEA0400, a novel inhibitor of sodium-calcium exchanger, on myocardial ionic currents. The effects of 2-[4-[(2,5-difluorophenyl) methoxy]phenoxy]-5-ethoxyaniline (SEA0400), a newly synthesized Na(+)-Ca(2+) exchanger (NCX) inhibitor, on the NCX current and other membrane currents were examined in isolated guinea-pig ventricular myocytes and compared with those of 2-[2-[4-(4-nitrobenzyloxy) phenyl]ethyl]isothiourea (KB-R7943). SEA0400 concentration-dependently inhibited the NCX current with a 10 fold higher potency than that of KB-R7943; 1 microM SEA0400 and 10 microM KB-R7943 inhibited the NCX current by more than 80%. KB-R7943, at 10 microM, inhibited the sodium current, L-type calcium current, delayed rectifier potassium current and inwardly rectifying potassium current by more than 50%, but SEA0400 (1 microM) had no significant effect on these currents. These results indicate that SEA0400 is a potent and highly selective inhibitor of NCX, and would be a powerful tool for further studies on the role of NCX in the heart and the therapeutic potential of its inhibition.
The small molecule SEA0400 is an inhibitor of which ion antiporter/exchanger?
5506c3e38e1671127b00000a_050
{ "answer_start": [ 486 ], "text": [ "NCX" ] }
Evaluation of the oral direct factor Xa inhibitor - betrixaban. INTRODUCTION: For over 60 years vitamin K antagonists have been the mainstay of oral therapy for treatment and prevention of venous and arterial thromboembolic disease. The emergence of two new classes of orally administered anticoagulants, direct thrombin and factor Xa inhibitors have drastically changed the landscape in the management of these disease states. Betrixaban , an orally administered direct factor Xa inhibitor, is entering a Phase III trial and undergoing investigation for similar indications as apixaban, dabigatran and rivaroxaban. AREAS COVERED: The chemical development of betrixaban, pharmacokinetic differences between betrixaban and currently available novel anticoagulants and future considerations for clinical use. EXPERT OPINION: Betrixaban, the fifth novel oral anticoagulant in line for the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval, possesses some unique pharmacokinetic characteristics in comparison with the currently available novel anticoagulants, including limited renal excretion, minimal metabolism through the cytochrome p450 system and a long half-life. This pharmacokinetic profile may allow greater flexibility for use in patients with poor renal function, offer the convenience of once daily dosing, and exhibit less drug interactions. Betrixaban is currently being evaluated for prophylaxis against venous thromboembolic disease (VTED) and the prevention of stroke and systemic embolism associated with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, its role in the management of acute VTED and acute coronary syndromes is yet to be defined based on clinical data and evaluation. Of interest, a factor Xa decoy, PRT4445, is currently under evaluation in conjunction with betrixaban, and may be a universal reversal agent for all anticoagulants with anti-Xa activity. Currently, there are no specific reversal agents for the novel anticoagulants. The availability of an effective reversal agent would be very attractive for the management of associated bleeding, bleeding due to trauma, or the need for emergent surgery.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_004
{ "answer_start": [ 478 ], "text": [ "Xa" ] }
methylKit: a comprehensive R package for the analysis of genome-wide DNA methylation profiles. DNA methylation is a chemical modification of cytosine bases that is pivotal for gene regulation, cellular specification and cancer development. Here, we describe an R package, methylKit, that rapidly analyzes genome-wide cytosine epigenetic profiles from high-throughput methylation and hydroxymethylation sequencing experiments. methylKit includes functions for clustering, sample quality visualization, differential methylation analysis and annotation features, thus automating and simplifying many of the steps for discerning statistically significant bases or regions of DNA methylation. Finally, we demonstrate methylKit on breast cancer data, in which we find statistically significant regions of differential methylation and stratify tumor subtypes. methylKit is available at http://code.google.com/p/methylkit.
Which R package is used for the analysis of genome-wide DNA methylation profiles?
588f8e9794c1512c50000005_001
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "methylKit" ] }
Specific antidotes in development for reversal of novel anticoagulants: a review. In the last decade, several direct oral anticoagulants (DOAC; dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban) have been marketed for prophylaxis and/or treatment of thromboembolism without having specific antidotes available for their reversal. Current management of bleeding associated to DOAC includes the removal of all antithrombotic medications and supportive care. Non-specific procoagulant agents (prothrombin complex concentrates and activated factor VIIa) have been used in case of serious bleeding. Currently, some specific antidotes for the DOAC are under development. Idarucizumab (BI 655075; Boehringer Ingelheim) is a fragment of an antibody (Fab), which is a specific antidote to the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran. Andexanet alfa (r-Antidote, PRT064445; Portola Pharmaceuticals) is a truncated form of enzymatically inactive factor Xa, which binds and reverses the anticoagulant action of the factor Xa inhibitors (e.g.: rivaroxaban, apixaban and edoxaban). Aripazine (PER-977, ciraparantag; Perosphere Inc.) is a synthetic small molecule (~500 Da) that reverses oral dabigatran, apixaban, rivaroxaban, as well as subcutaneous fondaparinux and LMWH in vivo. These antidotes could provide an alternative for management of life-threatening bleeding events occurring with the above-mentioned anticoagulants. In addition, the specific antidote anivamersen (RB007; Regado Biosciences Inc.) is an RNA aptamer in clinical development to reverse the anticoagulant effect of the parenteral factor IXa inhibitor pegnivacogin, which is also in development. This anticoagulant-antidote pair may provide an alternative in situations in which a fast onset and offset of anticoagulation is needed, like in patients undergoing cardiac surgery with extracorporeal circulation, as an alternative to the heparin/protamine pair. This patent review includes a description of the pharmacological characteristics of the novel specific antidotes, the available results from completed non-clinical and clinical studies and the description of ongoing clinical trials with the new compounds.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_031
{ "answer_start": [ 999 ], "text": [ "factor Xa" ] }
Observational, retrospective study of the effectiveness of 5-aminolevulinic acid in malignant glioma surgery in Spain (The VISIONA study). OBJECTIVE: To assess effectiveness of 5-aminolevulinic acid (5-ALA, Gliolan(®)) in patients treated for malignant glioma under typical daily practice conditions in Spain, using complete resection rate (CR) and progression free survival at 6 months (PFS6). MATERIAL AND METHODS: Retrospective review of data from 18 neurosurgery departments that were categorised as either using or not using 5-ALA. The study included adult patients with suspected malignant gliomas for whom the intended treatment plan included complete resection followed by radiotherapy and chemotherapy with temozolomide. Postoperative MRI and clinical data representing at least 6 months were required for inclusion. Rates of CR and PFS6 were compared between patients with 5-ALA treatment and those without. RESULTS: The study included 251 evaluable cases. CR and PFS6 rates were significantly higher in the group of patients treated surgically with 5-ALA: CR, 67% versus 45%, p=.000; PFS6 for patients with grade IV tumours, 69% versus 48%; p=.002. The differences retained their significance and magnitude after adjusting for all covariates including age, functional status, and whether gliomas were located in eloquent areas. CONCLUSIONS: In this retrospective series, use of 5-ALA during habitual surgical procedures in Spain was associated with a higher complete resection rate for malignant glioma and increased PFS6 for grade iv glioma.
What is the generic name of Gliolan?
54d73e223706e89528000010_002
{ "answer_start": [ 177 ], "text": [ "5-aminolevulinic acid" ] }
Regulation of NOXO1 activity through reversible interactions with p22 and NOXA1. Reactive oxygen species (ROS) have been known for a long time to play important roles in host defense against microbial infections. In addition, it has become apparent that they also perform regulatory roles in signal transduction and cell proliferation. The source of these chemicals are members of the NOX family of NADPH oxidases that are found in a variety of tissues. NOX1, an NADPH oxidase homologue that is most abundantly expressed in colon epithelial cells, requires the regulatory subunits NOXO1 (NOX organizing protein 1) and NOXA1 (NOX activating protein 1), as well as the flavocytochrome component p22(phox) for maximal activity. Unlike NOX2, the phagocytic NADPH oxidase whose activity is tightly repressed in the resting state, NOX1 produces superoxide constitutively at low levels. These levels can be further increased in a stimulus-dependent manner, yet the molecular details regulating this activity are not fully understood. Here we present the first quantitative characterization of the interactions made between the cytosolic regulators NOXO1 and NOXA1 and membrane-bound p22(phox). Using isothermal titration calorimetry we show that the isolated tandem SH3 domains of NOXO1 bind to p22(phox) with high affinity, most likely adopting a superSH3 domain conformation. In contrast, complex formation is severely inhibited in the presence of the C-terminal tail of NOXO1, suggesting that this region competes for binding to p22(phox) and thereby contributes to the regulation of superoxide production. Furthermore, we provide data indicating that the molecular details of the interaction between NOXO1 and NOXA1 is significantly different from that between the homologous proteins of the phagocytic oxidase, suggesting that there are important functional differences between the two systems. Taken together, this study provides clear evidence that the assembly of the NOX1 oxidase complex can be regulated through reversible protein-protein interactions.
Which NADPH oxidase family member requires interaction with NOXO1 for function?
58a5a51060087bc10a000021_021
{ "answer_start": [ 454 ], "text": [ "NOX1" ] }
Quantification of UCP1 function in human brown adipose tissue. Brown adipose tissue (BAT) mitochondria are distinct from their counterparts in other tissues in that ATP production is not their primary physiologic role. BAT mitochondria are equipped with a specialized protein known as uncoupling protein 1 (UCP1). UCP1 short-circuits the electron transport chain, allowing mitochondrial membrane potential to be transduced to heat, making BAT a tissue capable of altering energy expenditure and fuel metabolism in mammals without increasing physical activity. The recent discovery that adult humans have metabolically active BAT has rekindled an interest in this intriguing tissue, with the overarching aim of manipulating BAT function to augment energy expenditure as a countermeasure for obesity and the metabolic abnormalities it incurs. Subsequently, there has been heightened interest in quantifying BAT function and more specifically, determining UCP1-mediated thermogenesis in BAT specimens - including in those obtained from humans. In this article, BAT mitochondrial bioenergetics will be described and compared with more conventional mitochondria in other tissues. The biochemical methods typically used to quantify BAT mitochondrial function will also be discussed in terms of their specificity for assaying UCP1 mediated thermogenesis. Finally, recent data concerning BAT UCP1 function in humans will be described and discussed.
Which is the main protein in brown adipose tissue (BAT) active in thermogenesis?
5a8980d2fcd1d6a10c00000d_003
{ "answer_start": [ 314 ], "text": [ "UCP1" ] }
GBshape: a genome browser database for DNA shape annotations. Many regulatory mechanisms require a high degree of specificity in protein-DNA binding. Nucleotide sequence does not provide an answer to the question of why a protein binds only to a small subset of the many putative binding sites in the genome that share the same core motif. Whereas higher-order effects, such as chromatin accessibility, cooperativity and cofactors, have been described, DNA shape recently gained attention as another feature that fine-tunes the DNA binding specificities of some transcription factor families. Our Genome Browser for DNA shape annotations (GBshape; freely available at http://rohslab.cmb.usc.edu/GBshape/) provides minor groove width, propeller twist, roll, helix twist and hydroxyl radical cleavage predictions for the entire genomes of 94 organisms. Additional genomes can easily be added using the GBshape framework. GBshape can be used to visualize DNA shape annotations qualitatively in a genome browser track format, and to download quantitative values of DNA shape features as a function of genomic position at nucleotide resolution. As biological applications, we illustrate the periodicity of DNA shape features that are present in nucleosome-occupied sequences from human, fly and worm, and we demonstrate structural similarities between transcription start sites in the genomes of four Drosophila species.
Which genome browser database for DNA shape annotations is available?
56c8f4615795f9a73e00001a_018
{ "answer_start": [ 919 ], "text": [ "GBshape" ] }
Avascular necrosis of the femoral head among children and adolescents with sickle cell disease in Greece. Hemoglobinopathies are very common in Greece, the incidence of beta-thalassemia trait being 8% and that of sickle cell trait ranging from 1 to 32% in various districts. In Greek populations, sickle cell disease (SCD) is mainly represented by S-beta thalassemia.
What is the incidence of beta-thalassemia in Greek population?
58a2df9c60087bc10a000006_001
{ "answer_start": [ 198 ], "text": [ "8%" ] }
Swc2 is a widely conserved H2AZ-binding module essential for ATP-dependent histone exchange. The histone variant H2AZ is incorporated preferentially at specific locations in chromatin to modulate chromosome functions. In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, deposition of histone H2AZ is mediated by the multiprotein SWR1 complex, which catalyzes ATP-dependent exchange of nucleosomal histone H2A for H2AZ. Here, we define interactions between SWR1 components and H2AZ, revealing a link between the ATPase domain of Swr1 and three subunits required for the binding of H2AZ. We discovered that Swc2 binds directly to and is essential for transfer of H2AZ. Swc6 and Arp6 are necessary for the association of Swc2 and for nucleosome binding, whereas other subunits, Swc5 and Yaf9, are required for H2AZ transfer but neither H2AZ nor nucleosome binding. Finally, the C-terminal alpha-helix of H2AZ is crucial for its recognition by SWR1. These findings provide insight on the initial events of histone exchange.
Which protein mediates the replacement of H2A by H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
58a6db8660087bc10a00002c_011
{ "answer_start": [ 306 ], "text": [ "SWR1" ] }
Dermatitis herpetiformis: coeliac disease of the skin. Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH) is a lifelong, gluten-sensitive, blistering skin disease with pathognomonic immunoglobulin (Ig)A deposits in the papillary dermis. Less than 10% of patients with DH have gastrointestinal symptoms suggestive of coeliac disease, yet they all have gluten-sensitive enteropathy. The rash, too, responds to gluten withdrawal. Therefore, DH provides a unique example of the frequent existence of gastroenterologically 'silent' but dermatologically active coeliac disease. DH and coeliac disease are strictly associated with class II HLA alleles A1*0501 and B1*02 encoding the HLA-DQ2 heterodimer. Coeliac disease segregates in the families of patients with DH, also supporting a shared genetic background. Monozygotic twins, one with DH and the other with coeliac disease, show that environmental, not genetic, factors seem to be responsible for the development of the rash in DH. A clinically silent but immunologically active coeliac disease in the gut could well produce IgA autoantibodies which react also with the connective tissue in the skin. The antigen for deposited IgA and its role, if any, in the blister formation in DH remains, however, to be elucidated.
What is the typical rash associated with gluten ?
55180ef46487737b43000006_015
{ "answer_start": [ 55 ], "text": [ "Dermatitis herpetiformis" ] }
Recent developments in the diagnosis of Marfan syndrome and related disorders. Marfan syndrome is a multisystem disorder of connective tissue that is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, and results from mutation of the FBN1 gene on human chromosome 15. There are a number of conditions of the connective tissue with a similar phenotype that can be confused with Marfan syndrome. Modifications of the diagnostic criteria have recently been published, facilitating the differentiation of Marfan syndrome from these conditions. It is still difficult to use modern genetic testing for diagnosis because Marfan syndrome can be caused by many different mutations in FBN1, a large gene with 65 coding segments, while mutations in other genes can cause overlapping phenotypes. Several clinical trials of drug therapy, including the antihypertensive drug losartan, are in progress.
Which gene mutations cause the Marfan syndrome?
58d8e6818acda3452900000a_042
{ "answer_start": [ 227 ], "text": [ "FBN1" ] }
Reversal agents for use with direct and indirect anticoagulants. PURPOSE: The properties of three oral anticoagulant-specific reversal agents are reviewed, and guidance is presented to assist pharmacists in planning for the agents' introduction to the market. SUMMARY: Idarucizumab, which received Food and Drug Administration approval in October 2015, is a humanized monoclonal antibody fragment that immediately neutralizes the anticoagulant effect of dabigatran, as evidenced by reduced unbound dabigatran concentrations and normalized coagulation tests. Preliminary Phase III trial results demonstrated a median maximum reversal of 100%, a median time to bleeding cessation of 11.4 hours, and normal intraoperative hemostasis in 92% of patients requiring anticoagulation reversal before an urgent procedure. Andexanet alfa is a factor Xa (FXa) decoy that binds to direct and indirect FXa inhibitors. In Phase III trials in healthy volunteers, andexanet alfa reduced anti-FXa activity by more than 90%, reduced the concentration of unbound direct FXa inhibitor, and inhibited thrombin generation. Ciraparantag is a reversal agent under development for reversal of anticoagulation with direct and indirect FXa inhibitors and certain factor IIa inhibitors; it exerts its effect through hydrogen bonding. Concerns for thromboembolic events directly related to administration of idarucizumab, andexanet alfa, or ciraparantag have not arisen. Pharmacists need to begin preparing for the introduction of these specific reversal agents through protocol development and provider education; in addition, pharmacy departments need to plan for procurement and storage. The specific reversal agents should be incorporated into antithrombotic stewardship or other clinical pharmacy programs for surveillance. CONCLUSION: As agents that provide rapid reversal of direct oral anticoagulant activity become available, advance planning will help hospitals to optimize their use.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_026
{ "answer_start": [ 889 ], "text": [ "Xa" ] }
The golden jubilee of vaccination against poliomyelitis. Inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV), developed in the USA by Jonas Salk in the early 1950s, was field tested in 1954, and found to be safe and effective. The year 2004 marks the golden jubilee of this breakthrough. From 1955 IPV was used extensively in the US and polio incidence declined by more than 95 per cent. However, in 1962, when oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) became available, the national policy was shifted to its exclusive use, for reasons other than science and economics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) also adopted the policy of the exclusive use of OPV in developing countries. Thus IPV fell into disrepute in much of the world, while Northern European countries continued to use it. New research led to improving its potency, reducing its manufacturing costs and combining it with the diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis (DTP) vaccine to simplify its administration and reduce programmatic costs. All countries that chose to persist with IPV eliminated poliovirus circulation without OPV-induced polio or the risk of live vaccine viruses reverting to wild-like nature. IPV is highly immunogenic, confers mucosal immunity and exerts herd protective effect, all qualities of a good vaccine. It can be used in harmony with the extendend programme on immunization (EPI) schedule of infant immunisation with DTP, thus reducing programmatic costs. During the last ten years IPV has once again regained its popularity and some 25 industrialised countries use it exclusively. The demand is increasing from other countries and the supply has not caught up, leaving market forces to dictate the sale price of IPV. Anticipating such a turn of events India had launched its own IPV manufacturing programme in 1987, but the project was closed in 1992. Today it is not clear if we can complete the job of global polio eradication without IPV, on account of the genetic instability of OPV and the consequent tendency of vaccine viruses to revert to wild-like properties. The option to use IPV is complicated since it is not yet licensed in India, we do not manufacture it and imported vaccine would be prohibitively costly. However, in this golden jubilee year we have much to celebrate as the global eradication of wild polioviruses is within sight. Had we strictly followed the principles of science and health economics, perhaps we could have achieved success earlier and cheaper, with the absence of vaccine-induced polio as the bonus.
When did the polio vaccine becomes available?
58a1c0f178275d0c4a000056_001
{ "answer_start": [ 170 ], "text": [ "1954" ] }
Tietz/Waardenburg type 2A syndrome associated with posterior microphthalmos in two unrelated patients with novel MITF gene mutations. Tietz syndrome and Waardenburg syndrome type 2A are allelic conditions caused by MITF mutations. Tietz syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and is characterized by congenital deafness and generalized skin, hair, and eye hypopigmentation, while Waardenburg syndrome type 2A typically includes variable degrees of sensorineural hearing loss and patches of de-pigmented skin, hair, and irides. In this paper, we report two unrelated families with MITF mutations. The first family showed an autosomal dominant pattern and variable expressivity. The second patient was isolated. MITF gene analysis in the first family demonstrated a c.648A>C heterozygous mutation in exon 8 c.648A>C; p. (R216S), while in the isolated patient, an apparently de novo heterozygous c.1183_1184insG truncating mutation was demonstrated in exon 10. All patients except one had bilateral reduced ocular anteroposterior axial length and a high hyperopic refractive error corresponding to posterior microphthalmos, features that have not been described as part of the disease. Our results suggest that posterior microphthalmos might be part of the clinical characteristics of Tietz/Waardenburg syndrome type 2A and expand both the clinical and molecular spectrum of the disease. © 2016 Wiley Periodicals, Inc.
Which mutated gene is associated with Waardenburg and Tietz syndromes?
58a57f9460087bc10a00001f_002
{ "answer_start": [ 215 ], "text": [ "MITF" ] }
Epidural blood patch for headache after lumboperitoneal shunt placement. Headaches complicating lumboperitoneal (LP) shunt placement have been attributed to shunt failure with resultant high intracranial pressure or to overdrainage with resultant low intracranial pressure. In this case, a 17-yr-old girl had symptoms of a low-pressure headache after LP shunt placement alleviated by an epidural blood patch. The success of this therapy suggests postdural puncture as a possible cause for low-pressure headache after LP shunt placement. Epidural blood patch may be an alternative initial therapy for some low-pressure headaches after LP shunt placement.
What is the definitive treatment for low pressure headache?
53262cdcd6d3ac6a34000003_006
{ "answer_start": [ 387 ], "text": [ "epidural blood patch" ] }
Mutation analysis and genotype/phenotype relationships of Gaucher disease patients in Spain. Mutations in the glucocerebrosidase (GBA) gene cause Gaucher disease (GD). The aim of this study was to characterise the GBA mutations and analyze genotype/phenotype relationships in 193 unrelated patients from the Spanish GD Registry. We have identified 98.7% of the mutated GBA alleles, finding 56 different GBA mutations and 66 genotypes causing GD in Spain: 47 previously described mutations and 9 novel mutations (4 missense R395C, R463H, W312R and V398I, 1 nonsense R359X, 4 frameshift c.708delC, c.1214-1215delGC, c.1439-1445del7 and c.42-65del24). The most prevalent mutations were N370S and L444P, accounting for 68.7% of the mutated alleles. A wide phenotypic difference was observed within each genotypic group, and 9% of diagnosed type 1 patients developed neurological involvement including parkisonism, tremor, hypoacusia and eye movements. All of these findings indicate that there is a significant genotypic heterogeneity that explains the huge phenotypic variation among Spanish GD patients.
What is the gene mutated in the Gaucher disease?
532f55fed6d3ac6a34000036_006
{ "answer_start": [ 110 ], "text": [ "glucocerebrosidase" ] }
Molecular regulation of H3K4 trimethylation by Wdr82, a component of human Set1/COMPASS. In yeast, the macromolecular complex Set1/COMPASS is capable of methylating H3K4, a posttranslational modification associated with actively transcribed genes. There is only one Set1 in yeast; yet in mammalian cells there are multiple H3K4 methylases, including Set1A/B, forming human COMPASS complexes, and MLL1-4, forming human COMPASS-like complexes. We have shown that Wdr82, which associates with chromatin in a histone H2B ubiquitination-dependent manner, is a specific component of Set1 complexes but not that of MLL1-4 complexes. RNA interference-mediated knockdown of Wdr82 results in a reduction in the H3K4 trimethylation levels, although these cells still possess active MLL complexes. Comprehensive in vitro enzymatic studies with Set1 and MLL complexes demonstrated that the Set1 complex is a more robust H3K4 trimethylase in vitro than the MLL complexes. Given our in vivo and in vitro observations, it appears that the human Set1 complex plays a more widespread role in H3K4 trimethylation than do the MLL complexes in mammalian cells.
Which is the histone residue methylated by MLL1?
533be71dfd9a95ea0d000009_012
{ "answer_start": [ 165 ], "text": [ "H3K4" ] }
Thyroid morphology and subclinical hypothyroidism in children and adolescents with Williams syndrome. OBJECTIVE: To verify the prevalence of morpho-volumetric and functional thyroid abnormalities in young patients with Williams syndrome (WS). STUDY DESIGN: Ninety-two patients with WS (49 boys and 43 girls, 0.2-17.2 years of age) underwent evaluation of thyroid function by means of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), fT3, and fT4 measurement. Thyroid ultrasonography was performed in 37 patients. Thyroid antibodies (thyroid peroxidase and thyroglobulin) were measured in all patients with abnormal thyroid function tests. RESULTS: None of our patients had overt hypothyroidism; 29 patients (31.5%) had subclinical hypothyroidism. Thyroid antibodies were absent in all patients. The prevalence of patients with subclinical hypothyroidism was significantly higher in the younger patients. Ultrasonography revealed morphological or volumetric abnormalities of the thyroid gland in 67.5% of patients; these abnormalities were more frequently observed in the older children. CONCLUSIONS: Subclinical hypothyroidism is a frequent but stable finding in young children with WS. The great majority of patients with WS >10 years, either with normal or hypoplastic thyroid, have normal thyroid function. Therefore, we suggest yearly monitoring of thyroid function and sonographic studies at least once in patients with WS. Treatment should be reserved for the patients with overt hypothyroidism or for those whose thyroid function shows signs of progressive deterioration.
Which hormone abnormalities are common in Williams syndrome ?
530cefaaad0bf1360c00000d_033
{ "answer_start": [ 1102 ], "text": [ "thyroid" ] }
Characterization of radioactive metabolites of 5-HT2A receptor PET ligand [18F]altanserin in human and rodent. This study was performed to identify and characterize the radiometabolites of the serotonin 5-HT2A receptor ligand [18F]altanserin in supporting quantification of the target receptors by positron emission tomography. In analogy to its analog ketanserin, we postulated 4-(4-fluorobenzoyl)piperidine (FBP) and altanserinol for the previously observed two polar radiometabolites, corresponding to dealkylation at the piperidine nitrogen and reduction at the ketone, respectively. To test this hypothesis and characterize the in vivo and in vitro behavior of the radiometabolites, we synthesized nonradioactive authentic compounds altanserinol, 1-(4-fluorophenyl)-1-(piperidin-4-yl)methanol (FBPOH), and isolated nonradioactive FBP metabolite from monkey plasma. [18F]Altanserinol was obtained by NaBH4 reduction of [18F]altanserin, followed by acid hydrolysis. Identification of radiometabolites was carried out by high performance liquid chromatography and thin layer chromatography comparison of the radioactive plasma after injection of tracers with five authentic compounds. Human studies revealed that at least four radiometabolites, one identified as [18F]altanserinol, resulted from reduction of the ketone functionality. The N-dealkylation product [18F]FBP was not detectable; however, a radiometabolite of FBP was present in plasma after administration of [18F]altanserin. Monkey studies showed nonradioactive FBP was converted rapidly to a less polar metabolite. In rat, altanserin and altanserinol were converted to each other in vivo, and all the radiometabolites likely penetrated the blood-brain barrier and entered the brain. Displacement binding of altanserin to cloned serotonin 5-HT2A, 5-HT2C, 5-HT6, and 5-HT7 receptors showed Ki values of 0.3, 6.0, 1,756, and 15 nM; the binding of FBP and altanserinol to these four 5-HT subtypes was negligible. We conclude from these studies that the radiometabolites of [18F]altanserin from N-dealkylation and ketone reduction should not interfere with specific receptor quantification in an equilibrium paradigm.
Which receptors can be evaluated with the [18F]altanserin?
55242d512c8b63434a000006_038
{ "answer_start": [ 47 ], "text": [ "5-HT2A" ] }
Fam118B, a newly identified component of Cajal bodies, is required for Cajal body formation, snRNP biogenesis and cell viability. Cajal bodies are specialized and dynamic compartments in the nucleus that are involved in the biogenesis of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs). Because of the dynamic and varied roles of Cajal bodies, it is of great interest to identify the components of Cajal bodies to better understand their functions. We performed a genome-wide screen to identify proteins that colocalize with coilin, the marker protein of Cajal bodies. In this study, we identified and characterized Fam118B as a newly discovered component of Cajal bodies. Fam118B is widely expressed in a variety of cell lines derived from various origins. Overexpression of Fam118B changes the canonical morphology of Cajal bodies, whereas depletion of Fam118B disrupts the localization of components of Cajal bodies, including coilin, the survival of motor neuron protein (SMN) and the Sm protein D1 (SmD1, also known as SNRPD1). Moreover, depletion of Fam118B reduces splicing capacity and inhibits cell proliferation. In addition, Fam118B associates with coilin and SMN proteins. Fam118B depletion reduces symmetric dimethylarginine modification of SmD1, which in turn diminishes the binding of SMN to this Sm protein. Taken together, these data indicate that Fam118B, by regulating SmD1 symmetric dimethylarginine modification, plays an important role in Cajal body formation, snRNP biogenesis and cell viability.
Which protein is the main marker of Cajal bodies?
58eb9542eda5a57672000007_031
{ "answer_start": [ 519 ], "text": [ "coilin" ] }
Assessing manganese efflux using SEA0400 and cardiac T1-mapping manganese-enhanced MRI in a murine model. The sodium-calcium exchanger (NCX) is one of the transporters contributing to the control of intracellular calcium (Ca(2+)) concentration by normally mediating net Ca(2+) efflux. However, the reverse mode of the NCX can cause intracellular Ca(2+) concentration overload, which exacerbates the myocardial tissue injury resulting from ischemia. Although the NCX inhibitor SEA0400 has been shown to therapeutically reduce myocardial injury, no in vivo technique exists to monitor intracellular Ca(2+) fluctuations produced by this drug. Cardiac manganese-enhanced MRI (MEMRI) may indirectly assess Ca(2+) efflux by estimating changes in manganese (Mn(2+)) content in vivo, since Mn(2+) has been suggested as a surrogate marker for Ca(2+). This study used the MEMRI technique to examine the temporal features of cardiac Mn(2+) efflux by implementing a T(1)-mapping method and inhibiting the NCX with SEA0400. The change in (1)H(2)O longitudinal relaxation rate, Delta R(1), in the left ventricular free wall, was calculated at different time points following infusion of 190 nmol/g manganese chloride (MnCl(2)) in healthy adult male mice. The results showed 50% MEMRI signal attenuation at 3.4 +/- 0.6 h post-MnCl(2) infusion without drug intervention. Furthermore, treatment with 50 +/- 0.2 mg/kg of SEA0400 significantly reduced the rate of decrease in Delta R(1). At 4.9-5.9 h post-MnCl(2) infusion, the average Delta R(1) values for the two groups treated with SEA0400 were 2.46 +/- 0.29 and 1.72 +/- 0.24 s(-1) for 50 and 20 mg/kg doses, respectively, as compared to the value of 1.27 +/- 0.28 s(-1) for the control group. When this in vivo data were compared to ex vivo absolute manganese content data, the MEMRI T(1)-mapping technique was shown to effectively quantify Mn(2+) efflux rates in the myocardium. Therefore, combining an NCX inhibitor with MEMRI may be a useful technique for assessing Mn(2+) transport mechanisms and rates in vivo, which may reflect changes in Ca(2+) transport.
The small molecule SEA0400 is an inhibitor of which ion antiporter/exchanger?
5506c3e38e1671127b00000a_027
{ "answer_start": [ 462 ], "text": [ "NCX" ] }