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Transvaginal ultrasound measurement of bladder wall thickness: a more reliable approach than transperineal and transabdominal approaches. OBJECTIVES To validate transperineal, transabdominal and transvaginal ultrasound (US) techniques to measure bladder wall thickness (BWT). SUBJECTS AND METHODS Women underwent US measurement of BWT at three different anatomical sites: anterior wall, dome and trigone of the bladder by two 'blinded' operators using transabdominal, transperineal and transvaginal approaches at separate visits and by a single operator using transabdominal and transperineal techniques. Bland-Altman analysis was used to determine interobserver reliability for all three techniques and intraobserver reliability for transabdominal and transperineal methods. RESULTS In all, 25 women were scanned. The transperineal US had a high interobserver mean difference when measuring the anterior BWT (-0.34) and a high intraobserver mean difference when measuring the anterior (0.54) and dome BWT (0.33). Transabdominal US had a high interobserver mean difference for all measurements of BWT, and a high intraobserver mean difference when measuring the trigonal thickness (0.56). Transvaginal US had a consistent interobserver mean difference for all three measurements. The transperineal and transabominal approaches had the widest intraobserver and interobserver 95% confidence intervals of the mean difference when compared with the transvaginal approach. CONCLUSIONS Transabdominal and transperineal US for measuring BWT did not have good intraobserver and interobserver reliability for measurement of the three anatomical sites to determine mean BWT. Transvaginal US had good interobserver reliability, thus mean BWT is best measured using the transvaginal approach.
How is bladder wall thickness measured?
5324bdba9b2d7acc7e00001a_004
{ "answer_start": [ 13 ], "text": [ "ultrasound" ] }
The evolutionary basis for the feeding behavior of domestic dogs (Canis familiaris) and cats (Felis catus). The dentition, sense of taste and meal patterning of domestic dogs and cats can be interpreted in terms of their descent from members of the order Carnivora. The dog is typical of its genus, Canis, in its relatively unspecialized dentition, and a taste system that is rather insensitive to salt. The preference of many dogs for large infrequent meals reflects the competitive feeding behavior of its pack-hunting ancestor, the wolf Canis lupus. However, its long history of domestication, possibly 100,000 years, has resulted in great intraspecific diversity of conformation and behavior, including feeding. Morphologically and physiologically domestic cats are highly specialized carnivores, as indicated by their dentition, nutritional requirements, and sense of taste, which is insensitive to both salt and sugars. Their preference for several small meals each day reflects a daily pattern of multiple kills of small prey items in their ancestor, the solitary territorial predator Felis silvestris. Although in the wild much of their food selection behavior must focus on what to hunt, rather than what to eat, cats do modify their food preferences based on experience. For example, the "monotony effect" reduces the perceived palatability of foods that have recently formed a large proportion of the diet, in favor of foods with contrasting sensory characteristics, thereby tending to compensate for any incipient nutritional deficiencies. Food preferences in kittens during weaning are strongly influenced by those of their mother, but can change considerably during at least the first year of life.
The common house cat, Felis silvestris catus and the domestic dog, Canis familiaris both belong to what taxonomic order?
5ab1483bfcf4565872000014_001
{ "answer_start": [ 255 ], "text": [ "Carnivora" ] }
The Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room (ROSIER) scale: development and validation of a stroke recognition instrument. BACKGROUND: In patients with acute stroke, rapid intervention is crucial to maximise early treatment benefits. Stroke patients commonly have their first contact with medical staff in the emergency room (ER). We designed and validated a stroke recognition tool-the Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room (ROSIER) scale-for use by ER physicians. METHODS: We prospectively collected data for 1 year (development phase) on the clinical characteristics of patients with suspected acute stroke who were admitted to hospital from the ER. We used logistic regression analysis and clinical reasoning to develop a stroke recognition instrument for application in this setting. Patients with suspected transient ischaemic attack (TIA) with no symptoms or signs when assessed in the ER were excluded from the analysis. The instrument was assessed using the baseline 1-year dataset and then prospectively validated in a new cohort of ER patients admitted over a 9-month period. FINDINGS: In the development phase, 343 suspected stroke patients were assessed (159 stroke, 167 non-stroke, 32 with TIA [17 with symptoms when seen in ER]). Common stroke mimics were seizures (23%), syncope (23%), and sepsis (10%). A seven-item (total score from -2 to +5) stroke recognition instrument was constructed on the basis of clinical history (loss of consciousness, convulsive fits) and neurological signs (face, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, visual field defect). When internally validated at a cut-off score greater than zero, the instrument showed a diagnostic sensitivity of 92%, specificity of 86%, positive predictive value (PPV) of 88%, and negative predictive value (NPV) of 91%. Prospective validation in 173 consecutive suspected stroke referrals (88 stroke, 59 non-stroke, 26 with TIA [13 with symptoms]) showed sensitivity of 93% (95% CI 89-97), specificity 83% (77-89), PPV 90% (85-95), and NPV 88% (83-93). The ROSIER scale had greater sensitivity than existing stroke recognition instruments in this population. INTERPRETATION: The ROSIER scale was effective in the initial differentiation of acute stroke from stroke mimics in the ER. Introduction of the instrument improved the appropriateness of referrals to the stroke team.
ROSIER scale is used for which disorder?
551fd9c06b348bb82c000012_025
{ "answer_start": [ 363 ], "text": [ "stroke" ] }
Two novel tyrosinase (TYR) gene mutations with pathogenic impact on oculocutaneous albinism type 1 (OCA1). Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is a heterogeneous group of autosomal recessive disorders resulting from mutations of the tyrosinase (TYR) gene and presents with either complete or partial absence of pigment in the skin, hair and eyes due to a defect in an enzyme involved in the production of melanin. In this study, mutations in the TYR gene of 30 unrelated Iranian OCA1 patients and 100 healthy individuals were examined using PCR-sequencing. Additionally, in order to predict the possible effects of new mutations on the structure and function of tyrosinase, these mutations were analyzed by SIFT, PolyPhen and I-Mutant 2 software. Here, two new pathogenic p.C89S and p.H180R mutations were detected in two OCA1 patients. Moreover, the R402Q and S192Y variants, which are common non-pathogenic polymorphisms, were detected in 17.5% and 35% of the patients, respectively. The outcome of this study has extended the genotypic spectrum of OCA1 patients, which paves the way for more efficient carrier detection and genetic counseling.
Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?
58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_077
{ "answer_start": [ 227 ], "text": [ "tyrosinase" ] }
Monitoring and reversal strategies for new oral anticoagulants. Thrombin inhibitor dabigatran and factor Xa inhibitors rivaroxaban, apixaban and edoxaban form a new class of non-vitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants and have been extensively studied in patients with venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation. They offer anticoagulation that is as effective and at least as safe compared to warfarin without the need for routine laboratory monitoring; however, no reversal strategies are currently validated in case of a non-vitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulant-associated bleed. In emergency situations, laboratory drug measurement and well-defined management for non-vitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulant-induced hemorrhage may improve clinical outcome. In this review, the merits and limitations of the routine coagulation tests and some of the more specific laboratory assays are compared. Furthermore, prohemostatic measures are reviewed and the recommended strategies in case of bleeding are summarized. Specific reversal agents are currently under development (idarucizumab for dabigatran, andexanet alfa for Xa inhibitors, and PER977 for both Xa- and thrombin inhibitors), which will facilitate clinical management of severe bleeding and emergency surgery.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_058
{ "answer_start": [ 1129 ], "text": [ "Xa" ] }
Two novel tyrosinase (TYR) gene mutations with pathogenic impact on oculocutaneous albinism type 1 (OCA1). Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is a heterogeneous group of autosomal recessive disorders resulting from mutations of the tyrosinase (TYR) gene and presents with either complete or partial absence of pigment in the skin, hair and eyes due to a defect in an enzyme involved in the production of melanin. In this study, mutations in the TYR gene of 30 unrelated Iranian OCA1 patients and 100 healthy individuals were examined using PCR-sequencing. Additionally, in order to predict the possible effects of new mutations on the structure and function of tyrosinase, these mutations were analyzed by SIFT, PolyPhen and I-Mutant 2 software. Here, two new pathogenic p.C89S and p.H180R mutations were detected in two OCA1 patients. Moreover, the R402Q and S192Y variants, which are common non-pathogenic polymorphisms, were detected in 17.5% and 35% of the patients, respectively. The outcome of this study has extended the genotypic spectrum of OCA1 patients, which paves the way for more efficient carrier detection and genetic counseling.
Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?
58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_050
{ "answer_start": [ 10 ], "text": [ "tyr" ] }
Known and putative mechanisms of resistance to EGFR targeted therapies in NSCLC patients with EGFR mutations-a review. Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer related deaths in Canada with non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) being the predominant form of the disease. Tumor characterization can identify cancer-driving mutations as treatment targets. One of the most successful examples of cancer targeted therapy is inhibition of mutated epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), which occurs in ~10-30% of NSCLC patients. While this treatment has benefited many patients with activating EGFR mutations, almost all who initially benefited will eventually acquire resistance. Approximately 50% of cases of acquired resistance (AR) are due to a secondary T790M mutation in exon 20 of the EGFR gene; however, many of the remaining mechanisms of resistance are still unknown. Much work has been done to elucidate the remaining mechanisms of resistance. This review aims to highlight both the mechanisms of resistance that have already been identified in patients and potential novel mechanisms identified in preclinical models which have yet to be validated in the patient settings.
Which gene harbors the mutation T790M?
56d1f790f22319765a000001_019
{ "answer_start": [ 788 ], "text": [ "EGFR" ] }
A genome-wide scan for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder in 155 German sib-pairs. Three groups have previously performed genome scans in attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD); linkage to chromosome 5p13 was detected in all of the respective studies. In the current study, we performed a whole-genome scan with 102 German families with two or more offspring who currently fulfilled the diagnostic criteria for ADHD. Including subsequent fine mapping on chromosome 5p, a total of 523 markers were genotyped. The highest nonparametric multipoint LOD score of 2.59 (empirical genome-wide significance 0.1) was obtained for chromosome 5p at 17 cM (according to the Marshfield map). Subsequent analyses revealed (a) a higher LOD score of 3.37 at 39 cM for a quantitative severity score based on symptoms of inattention than for hyperactivity/impulsivity (LOD score of 1.11 at 59 cM), and (b) an HLOD of 4.75 (empirical genome-wide significance 0.001) based on a parametric model assuming dominant inheritance. The locus of the solute carrier 6A3 (SLC6A3; dopamine transporter 1; DAT1) localizes to 5p15.33; the gene has repeatedly been implicated in the etiology of ADHD. However, in our sample the DAT1 VNTR did not show association with ADHD. We additionally identified nominal evidence for linkage to chromosomes 6q, 7p, 9q, 11 q, 12q and 17p, which had also been identified in previous scans. Despite differences in ethnicity, ascertainment and phenotyping schemes, linkage results in ADHD appear remarkably consistent.
Which is the chromosome area that the human gene coding for the dopamine transporter (DAT1) is located to?
58a2ced760087bc10a000004_002
{ "answer_start": [ 1109 ], "text": [ "5p15.3" ] }
Clinical scores for the identification of stroke and transient ischaemic attack in the emergency department: a cross-sectional study. OBJECTIVE: To compare the sensitivity and specificity of bedside diagnostic stroke scales in patients with suspected stroke. DESIGN: A cross-sectional observational study of patients with suspected acute stroke in an emergency department in a UK hospital. DIAGNOSTIC SCALES: The results of an assessment with the Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room (ROSIER) scale, the Face Arm Speech Test (FAST) scale and the diagnosis of definite or probable stroke by an emergency department. Reference standard A consensus diagnosis of stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA) made after discussion by an expert panel (members included stroke physicians, neurologists and neuroradiologists), who had access to the clinical findings, imaging and subsequent clinical course, but were blinded to the results of the assessments by emergency-department staff. RESULTS: In 356 patients with complete data, the expert panel assigned a diagnosis of acute stroke or TIA in 246 and a diagnosis of mimic in 110. The ROSIER had a sensitivity of 83% (95% CI 78 to 87) and specificity of 44% (95% CI 34 to 53), and the FAST had a sensitivity of 81% (95% CI 76 to 86) and a specificity of 39% (95% CI 30 to 48). There was no detectable difference between the scales in sensitivity (p = 0.39) or specificity (p = 0.30). CONCLUSIONS: The simpler FAST scale could replace the more complex ROSIER for the initial assessment of patients with suspected acute stroke in the emergency department.
ROSIER scale is used for which disorder?
551fd9c06b348bb82c000012_010
{ "answer_start": [ 587 ], "text": [ "stroke" ] }
Infantile neuroaxonal dystrophy and PLA2G6-associated neurodegeneration: An update for the diagnosis. Infantile neuroaxonal dystrophy is a rare neurodegenerative disorder characterized by infantile onset of rapid motor and cognitive regression and hypotonia evolving into spasticity. Recessively inherited mutations of the PLA2G6 gene are causative of infantile neuroaxonal dystrophy and other PLA2G6-associated neurodegeneration, which includes conditions known as atypical neuroaxonal dystrophy, Karak syndrome and early-onset dystonia-parkinsonism with cognitive impairment. Phenotypic spectrum continues to evolve and genotype-phenotype correlations are currently limited. Due to the overlapping phenotypes and heterogeneity of clinical findings characterization of the syndrome is not always achievable. We reviewed the most recent clinical and neuroradiological information in the way to make easier differential diagnosis with other degenerative disorders in the paediatric age. Recognizing subtle signs and symptoms is a fascinating challenge to drive towards better diagnostic and genetic investigations.
Which gene is mutated in the Karak syndrome?
588f9950ed9bbee70d000002_006
{ "answer_start": [ 323 ], "text": [ "PLA2G6" ] }
Development and clinical applications of novel oral anticoagulants. Part II. Drugs under clinical investigation. Following the clinical approval of novel oral anticoagulants as alternatives to the vitamin K antagonists, many additional novel oral anticoagulant drugs are currently in early and advanced stages of clinical development. The majority of the drugs in development belong to the class of direct factor Xa inhibitors (the -xabans). These include betrixaban, letaxaban, darexaban, eribaxaban, and LY517717. Another representative of the class of orally available direct thrombin inhibitors (the -gatrans) is known as AZD0837. Furthermore other coagulation factors with central roles within the coagulation cascade are currently investigated as potential targets for the development of novel oral anticoagulant drugs. Among those, the first direct oral factor IXa inhibitor TTP889 has entered the clinical phase of development. A short summary of novel oral anticoagulant currently in earlier stages of clinical development is provided.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_032
{ "answer_start": [ 413 ], "text": [ "Xa" ] }
Histone modifications and lamin A regulate chromatin protein dynamics in early embryonic stem cell differentiation. Embryonic stem cells are characterized by unique epigenetic features including decondensed chromatin and hyperdynamic association of chromatin proteins with chromatin. Here we investigate the potential mechanisms that regulate chromatin plasticity in embryonic stem cells. Using epigenetic drugs and mutant embryonic stem cells lacking various chromatin proteins, we find that histone acetylation, G9a-mediated histone H3 lysine 9 (H3K9) methylation and lamin A expression, all affect chromatin protein dynamics. Histone acetylation controls, almost exclusively, euchromatin protein dynamics; lamin A expression regulates heterochromatin protein dynamics, and G9a regulates both euchromatin and heterochromatin protein dynamics. In contrast, we find that DNA methylation and nucleosome repeat length have little or no effect on chromatin-binding protein dynamics in embryonic stem cells. Altered chromatin dynamics associates with perturbed embryonic stem cell differentiation. Together, these data provide mechanistic insights into the epigenetic pathways that are responsible for chromatin plasticity in embryonic stem cells, and indicate that the genome's epigenetic state modulates chromatin plasticity and differentiation potential of embryonic stem cells.
Do A-type lamins bind euchromatin or heterochromatin?
570917bccf1c325851000015_002
{ "answer_start": [ 790 ], "text": [ "both euchromatin and heterochromatin" ] }
In vivo regulation of precursor cells in the subventricular zone of adult rat brain by thyroid hormone and retinoids. The mature central nervous system contains precursor cells in the subventricular zone of the lateral ventricle. In this study we examined the possibility to affect fate of precursor cells through exogenous manipulations. The results indicate that administration of thyroid hormone and retinoic acid increases the expression of Ki67, a nuclear antigen associated with cell proliferation, and of nestin, a marker protein for precursor cells in the subventricular zone of adult male rats. Moreover, retinoic acid increases polysialated-neural cell adhesion molecules (PSA-NCAM)-immunoreactivity. These data suggest that nuclear receptor ligands are potential candidates for fate determination of precursor cells in the subventricular zone also in the adult brain.
Which intermediate filament (IF) protein can be used as a non-specific marker of the neuronal precursor cells of the subventricular zone?
5540ca8a0083d1bf0e000003_008
{ "answer_start": [ 512 ], "text": [ "nestin" ] }
The emergence of factor Xa inhibitors for the treatment of cardiovascular diseases: a patent review. INTRODUCTION: Factor Xa (FXa) is a critical enzyme in the coagulation cascade responsible for thrombin generation, the final enzyme that leads to fibrin clot formation. Significant success has recently been reported with compounds such as rivaroxaban, apixaban and edoxaban in the treatment and prevention of venous thromboembolism (VTE) and more recently in the prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation (AF). The success these agents have demonstrated is now being reflected by a narrowing of new FXa patents over the past few years. The new patents appear to be structural modifications of previously published, small molecule inhibitors and bind in a similar manner to the FXa enzyme. AREAS COVERED: SciFinder®, PubMed and Google websites were used as the main source of literature retrieval. Patent searches were conducted in the patent databases: HCAPlus, WPIX and the full text databases (USPAT2, USPATFULL, EPFULL, PCTFULL) using the following keywords: ((FXa) OR (F OR factor) (W) (Xa)) (S) (inhibit? or block? or modulat? or antagonist? or regulat?). The search was restricted to patent documents with the entry date on or after 1 January 2009. Literature and information related to clinical development was retrieved from Thomson Reuter's Pharma. EXPERT OPINION: A large body of Phase II and Phase III data is now available for FXa inhibitors such as rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban and betrixaban. The clinical data demonstrate favorable benefit-risk profiles compared with the standards of care for short- and long-term anticoagulation (i.e., low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) and wafarin). The potential exists that these agents will eventually be the agents of choice for the treatment of a host of cardiovascular disease states, offering improved efficacy, safety, and ease of use compared with existing anticoagulants.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_047
{ "answer_start": [ 1481 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
[Seizure triggered by benzodiazepine receptor antagonist]. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist. It is widely used as an antidote in comatose patients suspected of having ingested a benzodiazepine overdose. Flumazenil is known to induce cardiac arythmias and seizures, in part because of drug interactions. We present a 75-year-old woman, who was brought to the Emergency Department with a drug overdose following a suicide attempt. She developed generalized seizures shortly after the administration of flumazenil.
Which drug should be used as an antidote in benzodiazepine overdose?
514a0a57d24251bc05000051_005
{ "answer_start": [ 59 ], "text": [ "Flumazenil" ] }
Accelerated apoptosis of neutrophils in familial mediterranean Fever. The causative mutations for familial Mediterranean fever (FMF) are located in the MEFV gene, which encodes pyrin. Pyrin modulates the susceptibility to apoptosis via its PYD domain, but how the mutated versions of pyrin affect apoptotic processes are poorly understood. Spontaneous and induced rates of systemic neutrophil apoptosis as well as the levels of proteins involved in apoptosis were investigated ex vivo in patients with FMF using flow cytometry and RT-qPCR. The freshly collected neutrophils from the patients in FMF remission displayed a significantly larger number of cells spontaneously entering apoptosis compared to control (6.27 ± 2.14 vs. 1.69 ± 0.18%). This elevated ratio was retained after 24 h incubation of neutrophils in the growth medium (32.4 ± 7.41 vs. 7.65 ± 1.32%). Correspondingly, the mRNA level for caspase-3 was also significantly increased under these conditions. In response to the inducing agents, the neutrophils from FMF patients also displayed significantly elevated apoptotic rates compared to control. The elevated rates, however, can be largely explained by the higher basal ratio of apoptotic cells in the former group. Monitoring of several proteins involved in apoptosis has not revealed any conventional mechanisms contributing to the enhanced apoptotic rate of neutrophils in FMF. Although the exact molecular mechanisms of accelerated neutrophil apoptosis in FMF remain unknown, it may provide a protection against excessive inflammation and tissue damage due to a massive infiltration of neutrophils in the acute period of the disease.
What gene is mutated in Familial Mediterranean Fever?
5a6e42f1b750ff4455000046_003
{ "answer_start": [ 152 ], "text": [ "MEFV gene" ] }
Poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase inhibition enhances trastuzumab antitumour activity in HER2 overexpressing breast cancer. AIM: Poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibitors have shown promising results in Breast Cancer (BRCA) deficient breast cancer, but not in molecularly unselected patient populations. Two lines of research in this field are needed: the identification of novel subsets of patients that could potentially benefit from PARP inhibitors and the discovery of suitable targeted therapies for combination strategies. METHODS: We tested PARP inhibition, alone or combined with the anti-HER2 antibody trastuzumab on HER2+ breast cancer. We used two PARP inhibitors in clinical development, olaparib and rucaparib, as well as genetic downmodulation of PARP-1 for in vitro studies. DNA damage was studied by the formation of γH2AX foci and comet assay. Finally, the in vivo anti-tumour effect of olaparib and trastuzumab was examined in nude mice subcutaneously implanted with BT474 cells. RESULTS: In a panel of four HER2 overexpressing breast cancer cell lines, both olaparib and rucaparib significantly decreased cell growth and enhanced anti-tumour effects of trastuzumab. Cells exposed to olaparib and trastuzumab had greater DNA damage than cells exposed to each agent alone. Mechanistic exploratory assays showed that trastuzumab downmodulated the homologous recombination protein proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA). Combination treatment in the BT474 xenograft model resulted in enhanced growth inhibition, reduced tumour cell proliferation, and increased DNA damage and apoptosis. CONCLUSION: Taken together, our results show that PARP inhibition has antitumour effects and increases trastuzumab activity in HER2 overexpressing breast cancer. These findings make this novel combination a promising strategy for clinical development.
What is the target of the drug Olaparib?
54d649843706e89528000009_013
{ "answer_start": [ 659 ], "text": [ "PARP" ] }
Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) function is important to the development and expansion of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is characterized by constitutive activation of the B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling pathway, but variable responsiveness of the BCR to antigen ligation. Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) shows constitutive activity in CLL and is the target of irreversible inhibition by ibrutinib, an orally bioavailable kinase inhibitor that has shown outstanding activity in CLL. Early clinical results in CLL with other reversible and irreversible BTK inhibitors have been less promising, however, raising the question of whether BTK kinase activity is an important target of ibrutinib and also in CLL. To determine the role of BTK in CLL, we used patient samples and the Eμ-TCL1 (TCL1) transgenic mouse model of CLL, which results in spontaneous leukemia development. Inhibition of BTK in primary human CLL cells by small interfering RNA promotes apoptosis. Inhibition of BTK kinase activity through either targeted genetic inactivation or ibrutinib in the TCL1 mouse significantly delays the development of CLL, demonstrating that BTK is a critical kinase for CLL development and expansion and thus an important target of ibrutinib. Collectively, our data confirm the importance of kinase-functional BTK in CLL.
What is the name of Bruton's tyrosine kinase inhibitor that can be used for treatment of chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
530cf4c54a5037880c000008_003
{ "answer_start": [ 1083 ], "text": [ "ibrutinib" ] }
Rationale and design of LAPLACE-2: a phase 3, randomized, double-blind, placebo- and ezetimibe-controlled trial evaluating the efficacy and safety of evolocumab in subjects with hypercholesterolemia on background statin therapy. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) levels are significantly associated with atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) risk, and studies using interventions that lower LDL-C levels have been shown to reduce the risk of ASCVD events and mortality. Statin treatment is the current first-line therapy for lowering LDL-C and reducing ASCVD risk. However, many patients are still unable to reach recommended LDL-C goals on maximally tolerated statin therapy. Monoclonal antibodies that inhibit proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9, including evolocumab (previously AMG 145), dramatically lowered LDL-C in phase 2 clinical trials when administered alone or in combination with a statin. The aim of this phase 3 study is to evaluate the efficacy of 12 weeks of subcutaneous evolocumab (vs placebo) administered every 2 weeks or every month in combination with a statin in patients with hypercholesterolemia and mixed dyslipidemia. This study will also provide comparative efficacy, safety, and tolerability data between evolocumab and ezetimibe when added to background atorvastatin therapy.
Which enzyme is targeted by Evolocumab?
54e0d1491388e8454a000014_003
{ "answer_start": [ 731 ], "text": [ "proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9" ] }
Recurrence of the D409H mutation in Spanish Gaucher disease patients: description of a new homozygous patient and haplotype analysis. Gaucher disease results, in most patients, from mutations in the gene encoding glucocerebrosidase. Mutation D409H is the third most frequent in Spanish patients, accounting for 5.7% of all mutated alleles. This allele is associated mainly with the neurological forms of the disease. Recently, homozygosity for the D409H mutation has been associated with a particular phenotype, including specific cardiovascular symptoms. Here we report a second Spanish patient bearing the D409H/D409H genotype with a very early manifestation of the disease. The patient started enzyme replacement therapy at 3 months of age. A common origin for the Spanish D409H alleles was ruled out by haplotype analysis using an internal polymorphism of the glucocerebrosidase gene and two external microsatellite markers.
What is the gene mutated in the Gaucher disease?
532f55fed6d3ac6a34000036_010
{ "answer_start": [ 213 ], "text": [ "glucocerebrosidase" ] }
A novel mutation in the fibrillin gene (FBN1) in familial arachnodactyly. Mutations of the fibrillin gene (FBN1) are known to cause classical Marfan's syndrome, ectopia lentis and neonatal Marfan's syndrome. We have identified a novel missense mutation in exon 28 of the FBN1 gene (R1170H) which is responsible for an atypical marfanoid phenotype characterised by dolichostenomelia and arachnodactyly.
Which gene mutations cause the Marfan syndrome?
58d8e6818acda3452900000a_020
{ "answer_start": [ 107 ], "text": [ "FBN1" ] }
A monoclonal antibody based capture ELISA for botulinum neurotoxin serotype B: toxin detection in food. Botulism is a serious foodborne neuroparalytic disease, caused by botulinum neurotoxin (BoNT), produced by the anaerobic bacterium Clostridium botulinum. Seven toxin serotypes (A-H) have been described. The majority of human cases of botulism are caused by serotypes A and B followed by E and F. We report here a group of serotype B specific monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) capable of binding toxin under physiological conditions. Thus, they serve as capture antibodies for a sandwich (capture) ELISA. The antibodies were generated using recombinant peptide fragments corresponding to the receptor-binding domain of the toxin heavy chain as immunogen. Their binding properties suggest that they bind a complex epitope with dissociation constants (KD's) for individual antibodies ranging from 10 to 48 × 10-11 M. Assay performance for all possible combinations of capture-detector antibody pairs was evaluated and the antibody pair resulting in the lowest level of detection (L.O.D.), ~20 pg/mL was determined. Toxin was detected in spiked dairy samples with good recoveries at concentrations as low as 0.5 pg/mL and in ground beef samples at levels as low as 2 ng/g. Thus, the sandwich ELISA described here uses mAb for both the capture and detector antibodies (binding different epitopes on the toxin molecule) and readily detects toxin in those food samples tested.
Which is the most known bacterium responsible for botulism (sausage-poisoning)?
55475dc2f35db75526000001_001
{ "answer_start": [ 235 ], "text": [ "Clostridium botulinum" ] }
The Role of Nursing Professionals in the Management of Patients With High-Risk Neuroblastoma Receiving Dinutuximab Therapy. Neuroblastoma, an embryonic cancer of the sympathetic nervous system, is the most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood. Dinutuximab (formerly called ch14.18), a monoclonal antibody targeting the disialoganglioside GD2, has been shown to significantly improve survival rates in patients with high-risk neuroblastoma. However, the safe and effective use of dinutuximab therapy in these high-risk patients requires medical expertise in patient selection, treatment administration, and the monitoring and management of adverse events. Findings of the randomized phase III study (ANBL0032) led to the approval of dinutuximab for the treatment of children with high-risk neuroblastoma. Multi-institutional nursing approaches to implementing standard protocols ensure the effective management of high-risk neuroblastoma patients receiving dinutuximab immunotherapy. Understanding and implementing recommendations for the management of the clinically important and most common adverse events are essential to ensuring patient continuation of therapy and improving patient outcomes.
Dinutuximab is used for treatment of which disease?
589a247078275d0c4a000035_021
{ "answer_start": [ 797 ], "text": [ "neuroblastoma" ] }
Pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of mepolizumab, an anti-interleukin-5 monoclonal antibody. Mepolizumab is a fully humanized monoclonal antibody (IgG1/κ) targeting human interleukin-5 (IL-5), a key haematopoietin needed for eosinophil development and function. Mepolizumab blocks human IL-5 from binding to the α-chain of the IL-5 receptor complex on the eosinophil cell surface, thereby inhibiting IL-5 signalling. The pharmacokinetics of mepolizumab have been evaluated in clinical studies at doses of 0.05-10 mg/kg and at 250 mg, 750 mg and 1500 mg. Mepolizumab was eliminated slowly, with mean initial and terminal phase half-life values of approximately 2 and 20 days, respectively. Plasma clearance ranged from 0.064 to 0.163 mL/h/kg and steady-state volume of distribution ranged from 49 to 93 mL/kg. Pharmacokinetics were dose proportional and time independent. Estimates based on a two-compartment intravenous infusion model from patients with asthma or healthy subjects following single doses predicted mepolizumab plasma concentrations in multiple-dose studies involving patients with hypereosinophilic syndrome (HES), asthma or eosinophilic oesophagitis. The absolute bioavailability of mepolizumab was 64-75% following subcutaneous injection and 81% following intramuscular injection. Peripheral blood eosinophil levels decreased in healthy subjects and patients with HES, asthma, eosinophilic oesophagitis or atopic dermatitis after intravenous mepolizumab infusion and subcutaneous injection. Reductions in eosinophil counts in oesophagus, sputum, skin, bone marrow, nasal lavage fluid and/or bronchial mucosa after treatment with mepolizumab were observed in placebo-controlled studies in various indications. The relationship between percentage change from baseline in blood eosinophils and mepolizumab plasma concentrations was described by an indirect pharmacological response model. The estimated maximal decrease in eosinophil count was approximately 85% from baseline and the half-maximal inhibitory concentration (IC50) was approximately 0.45 μg/mL.
Which molecule is targeted by a monoclonal antibody Mepolizumab?
54d907c84b1fd0d33c000008_020
{ "answer_start": [ 175 ], "text": [ "interleukin-5" ] }
traseR: an R package for performing trait-associated SNP enrichment analysis in genomic intervals. UNLABELLED: Genome-wide association studies (GWASs) have successfully identified many sequence variants that are significantly associated with common diseases and traits. Tens of thousands of such trait-associated SNPs have already been cataloged, which we believe form a great resource for genomic research. Recent studies have demonstrated that the collection of trait-associated SNPs can be exploited to indicate whether a given genomic interval or intervals are likely to be functionally connected with certain phenotypes or diseases. Despite this importance, currently, there is no ready-to-use computational tool able to connect genomic intervals to phenotypes. Here, we present traseR, an easy-to-use R Bioconductor package that performs enrichment analyses of trait-associated SNPs in arbitrary genomic intervals with flexible options, including testing method, type of background and inclusion of SNPs in LD. AVAILABILITY AND IMPLEMENTATION: The traseR R package preloaded with up-to-date collection of trait-associated SNPs are freely available in Bioconductor CONTACT: [email protected] SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: Supplementary data are available at Bioinformatics online.
Which R / bioconductor package is used for performing SNP enrichment analysis?
587e3129c32c812009000002_006
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "traseR" ] }
Use of Hy's law and a new composite algorithm to predict acute liver failure in patients with drug-induced liver injury. BACKGROUND & AIMS: Hy's Law, which states that hepatocellular drug-induced liver injury (DILI) with jaundice indicates a serious reaction, is used widely to determine risk for acute liver failure (ALF). We aimed to optimize the definition of Hy's Law and to develop a model for predicting ALF in patients with DILI. METHODS: We collected data from 771 patients with DILI (805 episodes) from the Spanish DILI registry, from April 1994 through August 2012. We analyzed data collected at DILI recognition and at the time of peak levels of alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and total bilirubin (TBL). RESULTS: Of the 771 patients with DILI, 32 developed ALF. Hepatocellular injury, female sex, high levels of TBL, and a high ratio of aspartate aminotransferase (AST):ALT were independent risk factors for ALF. We compared 3 ways to use Hy's Law to predict which patients would develop ALF; all included TBL greater than 2-fold the upper limit of normal (×ULN) and either ALT level greater than 3 × ULN, a ratio (R) value (ALT × ULN/alkaline phosphatase × ULN) of 5 or greater, or a new ratio (nR) value (ALT or AST, whichever produced the highest ×ULN/ alkaline phosphatase × ULN value) of 5 or greater. At recognition of DILI, the R- and nR-based models identified patients who developed ALF with 67% and 63% specificity, respectively, whereas use of only ALT level identified them with 44% specificity. However, the level of ALT and the nR model each identified patients who developed ALF with 90% sensitivity, whereas the R criteria identified them with 83% sensitivity. An equal number of patients who did and did not develop ALF had alkaline phosphatase levels greater than 2 × ULN. An algorithm based on AST level greater than 17.3 × ULN, TBL greater than 6.6 × ULN, and AST:ALT greater than 1.5 identified patients who developed ALF with 82% specificity and 80% sensitivity. CONCLUSIONS: When applied at DILI recognition, the nR criteria for Hy's Law provides the best balance of sensitivity and specificity whereas our new composite algorithm provides additional specificity in predicting the ultimate development of ALF.
Hy's law measures failure for what organ?
58f4b25e70f9fc6f0f000011_007
{ "answer_start": [ 196 ], "text": [ "liver" ] }
Evolution of the sex-related locus and genomic features shared in microsporidia and fungi. BACKGROUND: Microsporidia are obligate intracellular, eukaryotic pathogens that infect a wide range of animals from nematodes to humans, and in some cases, protists. The preponderance of evidence as to the origin of the microsporidia reveals a close relationship with the fungi, either within the kingdom or as a sister group to it. Recent phylogenetic studies and gene order analysis suggest that microsporidia share a particularly close evolutionary relationship with the zygomycetes. METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: Here we expanded this analysis and also examined a putative sex-locus for variability between microsporidian populations. Whole genome inspection reveals a unique syntenic gene pair (RPS9-RPL21) present in the vast majority of fungi and the microsporidians but not in other eukaryotic lineages. Two other unique gene fusions (glutamyl-prolyl tRNA synthetase and ubiquitin-ribosomal subunit S30) that are present in metazoans, choanoflagellates, and filasterean opisthokonts are unfused in the fungi and microsporidians. One locus previously found to be conserved in many microsporidian genomes is similar to the sex locus of zygomycetes in gene order and architecture. Both sex-related and sex loci harbor TPT, HMG, and RNA helicase genes forming a syntenic gene cluster. We sequenced and analyzed the sex-related locus in 11 different Encephalitozoon cuniculi isolates and the sibling species E. intestinalis (3 isolates) and E. hellem (1 isolate). There was no evidence for an idiomorphic sex-related locus in this Encephalitozoon species sample. According to sequence-based phylogenetic analyses, the TPT and RNA helicase genes flanking the HMG genes are paralogous rather than orthologous between zygomycetes and microsporidians. CONCLUSION/SIGNIFICANCE: The unique genomic hallmarks between microsporidia and fungi are independent of sequence based phylogenetic comparisons and further contribute to define the borders of the fungal kingdom and support the classification of microsporidia as unusual derived fungi. And the sex/sex-related loci appear to have been subject to frequent gene conversion and translocations in microsporidia and zygomycetes.
In which kingdom do microsporidia belong, according to their current classification scheme?
5547a01cf35db75526000005_012
{ "answer_start": [ 363 ], "text": [ "fungi" ] }
webSDA: a web server to simulate macromolecular diffusional association. Macromolecular interactions play a crucial role in biological systems. Simulation of diffusional association (SDA) is a software for carrying out Brownian dynamics simulations that can be used to study the interactions between two or more biological macromolecules. webSDA allows users to run Brownian dynamics simulations with SDA to study bimolecular association and encounter complex formation, to compute association rate constants, and to investigate macromolecular crowding using atomically detailed macromolecular structures. webSDA facilitates and automates the use of the SDA software, and offers user-friendly visualization of results. webSDA currently has three modules: 'SDA docking' to generate structures of the diffusional encounter complexes of two macromolecules, 'SDA association' to calculate bimolecular diffusional association rate constants, and 'SDA multiple molecules' to simulate the diffusive motion of hundreds of macromolecules. webSDA is freely available to all users and there is no login requirement. webSDA is available at http://mcm.h-its.org/webSDA/.
Which server is used for simulation of macromolecular diffusional association?
589480b47d9090f353000007_005
{ "answer_start": [ 339 ], "text": [ "webSDA" ] }
The effect of selective estrogen receptor modulators on type 2 diabetes onset in women: Basic and clinical insights. Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) are a class of compounds that interact with estrogen receptors (ERs) and exert agonist or antagonist effects on ERs in a tissue-specific manner. Tamoxifen, a first generation SERM, is used for treatment of ER positive breast cancer. Raloxifene, a second generation SERM, was used to prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis. The third-generation SERM bazedoxifene (BZA) effectively prevents osteoporosis while preventing estrogenic stimulation of breast and uterus. Notably, BZA combined with conjugated estrogens (CE) is a new menopausal treatment. The menopausal state predisposes to metabolic syndrome and type 2 diabetes, and therefore the effects of SERMs on metabolic homeostasis are gaining attention. Here, we summarize knowledge of SERMs' impacts on metabolic, homeostasis, obesity and diabetes in rodent models and postmenopausal women.
What is a SERM?
5a74e9ad0384be955100000a_013
{ "answer_start": [ 117 ], "text": [ "Selective estrogen receptor modulator" ] }
psygenet2r: a R/Bioconductor package for the analysis of psychiatric disease genes. Motivation: Psychiatric disorders have a great impact on morbidity and mortality. Genotype-phenotype resources for psychiatric diseases are key to enable the translation of research findings to a better care of patients. PsyGeNET is a knowledge resource on psychiatric diseases and their genes, developed by text mining and curated by domain experts. Results: We present psygenet2r, an R package that contains a variety of functions for leveraging PsyGeNET database and facilitating its analysis and interpretation. The package offers different types of queries to the database along with variety of analysis and visualization tools, including the study of the anatomical structures in which the genes are expressed and gaining insight of gene's molecular function. Psygenet2r is especially suited for network medicine analysis of psychiatric disorders. Availability and implementation: The package is implemented in R and is available under MIT license from Bioconductor (http://bioconductor.org/packages/release/bioc/html/psygenet2r.html). Contact: [email protected] or [email protected]. Supplementary information: Supplementary data are available at Bioinformatics online.
Which R/Bioconductor package has been developed for the analysis of psychiatric disease genes?
5a6e2b1bb750ff445500003e_004
{ "answer_start": [ 850 ], "text": [ "Psygenet2r" ] }
[Promising molecules for treatment of hyperglycemia in patients with type 2 diabetes]. New antidiabetic drugs are being developed today that expand the range of pharmacological intervention, in particular for patients with type 2 diabetes (imeglimin, semaglutide, dulaglutide, FGF 21 analogue). At the same time innovations take place that "better" the well-proven molecules, they offer new application forms we have no experience of diabetology (osmotic pump for exenatide, faster acting insulin aspart). New properties are brought by just the change of concentration (insulin glargine in a concentration of 300 U/ml), unexpected positive results are also brought by new fixed-ratio combinations of antidiabetics (fixed-ratio combination of insulin degludec and liraglutide, fixed-ratio combination of insulin glargine and lixisenatide). Also results of clinical studies appear that concern molecules already in use which facilitate the formulation of new recommendations regarding treatment type 2 diabetes.Key words: type 2 diabetes mellitus - dulaglutide - FGF 21 - imeglimin - insulin aspart - insulin degludek - insulin glargine - ITCA 650 - liraglutide - national information diabetes system - semaglutide.
Which disease is treated with semaglutide?
5880c42fc872c95565000008_003
{ "answer_start": [ 223 ], "text": [ "type 2 diabetes" ] }
Visualization of genomic data with the Hilbert curve. UNLABELLED: In many genomic studies, one works with genome-position-dependent data, e.g. ChIP-chip or ChIP-Seq scores. Using conventional tools, it can be difficult to get a good feel for the data, especially the distribution of features. This article argues that the so-called Hilbert curve visualization can complement genome browsers and help to get further insights into the structure of one's data. This is demonstrated with examples from different use cases. An open-source application, called HilbertVis, is presented that allows the user to produce and interactively explore such plots. AVAILABILITY: http://www.ebi.ac.uk/huber-srv/hilbert/.
Which R/bioconductor package utilizes the Hilbert curve in order to visualize genomic data?
56bdcc4cef6e394741000002_001
{ "answer_start": [ 554 ], "text": [ "HilbertVis" ] }
Regional cerebral glucose metabolism after pridopidine (ACR16) treatment in patients with Huntington disease. OBJECTIVES: Huntington disease is a hereditary neurodegenerative disorder resulting in loss of motor, cognitive, and behavioral functions and is characterized by a distinctive pattern of cerebral metabolic abnormalities. Pridopidine (ACR16) belongs to a novel class of central nervous system compounds in development for the treatment of Huntington disease. The objective of the study was to investigate the metabolic changes in patients with Huntington disease before and after pridopidine treatment. METHODS: [(18)F]Fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomographic imaging was used to measure the regional cerebral metabolic rate of glucose at baseline and after 14 days of open-label pridopidine treatment in 8 patients with Huntington disease. Clinical assessments were performed using the Unified Huntington's Disease Rating Scale. RESULTS: Statistical parametric mapping analysis showed increased metabolic activity in several brain regions such as the precuneus and the mediodorsal thalamic nucleus after treatment. In addition, after pridopidine treatment, the correlation between the clinical status and the cerebral metabolic activity was strengthened. CONCLUSIONS: Our findings suggest that pridopidine induces metabolic changes in brain regions implicated as important for mediating compensatory mechanisms in Huntington disease. In addition, the finding of a strong relationship between clinical severity and metabolic activity after treatment also suggests that pridopidine treatment targets a Huntington disease-related metabolic activity pattern.
Pridopidine has been tested for treatment of which disorder?
550ea8f1b305b40c5c000005_008
{ "answer_start": [ 1432 ], "text": [ "Huntington disease" ] }
Nerve growth factor inhibition with tanezumab influences weight-bearing and subsequent cartilage damage in the rat medial meniscal tear model. OBJECTIVE: To investigate whether the effects of nerve growth factor (NGF) inhibition with tanezumab on rats with medial meniscal tear (MMT) effectively model rapidly progressive osteoarthritis (RPOA) observed in clinical trials. METHODS: Male Lewis rats underwent MMT surgery and were treated weekly with tanezumab (0.1, 1 or 10 mg/kg), isotype control or vehicle for 7, 14 or 28 days. Gait deficiency was measured to assess weight-bearing on the operated limb. Joint damage was assessed via histopathology. A second arm, delayed onset of treatment (starting 3-8 weeks after MMT surgery) was used to control for analgesia early in the disease process. A third arm, mid-tibial amputation, evaluated the dependency of the model on weight-bearing. RESULTS: Gait deficiency in untreated rats was present 3-7 days after MMT surgery, with a return to normal weight-bearing by days 14-28. Prophylactic treatment with tanezumab prevented gait deficiency and resulted in more severe cartilage damage. When onset of treatment with tanezumab was delayed to 3-8 weeks after MMT surgery, there was no increase in cartilage damage. Mid-tibial amputation completely prevented cartilage damage in untreated MMT rats. CONCLUSIONS: These data suggest that analgesia due to NGF inhibition during the acute injury phase is responsible for increased voluntary weight-bearing and subsequent cartilage damage in the rat MMT model. This model failed to replicate the hypotrophic bone response observed in tanezumab-treated patients with RPOA.
What is the target of tanezumab?
5890e163621ea6ff7e000004_003
{ "answer_start": [ 213 ], "text": [ "NGF" ] }
A novel mutation in the endosomal Na+/H+ exchanger NHE6 (SLC9A6) causes Christianson syndrome with electrical status epilepticus during slow-wave sleep (ESES). Mutations in the solute carrier family 9, subfamily A member 6 (SLC9A6) gene, encoding the endosomal Na+/H+ exchanger 6 (NHE6) are associated with Christianson syndrome, a syndromic form of X-linked intellectual disability characterized by microcephaly, severe global developmental delay, autistic behavior, early onset seizures and ataxia. In a 7-year-old boy with characteristic clinical and neuroimaging features of Christianson syndrome and epileptic encephalopathy with continuous spikes and waves during sleep, we identified a novel splice site mutation (IVS10-1G>A) in SLC9A6. These findings expand the clinical spectrum of the syndrome and indicate NHE6 dysfunction as a new cause of electrical status epilepticus during slow-wave sleep (ESES).
Which syndrome is NHE6 associated with?
56d860ad51531f7e33000002_001
{ "answer_start": [ 72 ], "text": [ "Christianson syndrome" ] }
Stabilization of the skeletal muscle ryanodine receptor ion channel-FKBP12 complex by the 1,4-benzothiazepine derivative S107. Activation of the skeletal muscle ryanodine receptor (RyR1) complex results in the rapid release of Ca(2+) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and muscle contraction. Dissociation of the small FK506 binding protein 12 subunit (FKBP12) increases RyR1 activity and impairs muscle function. The 1,4-benzothiazepine derivative JTV519, and the more specific derivative S107 (2,3,4,5,-tetrahydro-7-methoxy-4-methyl-1,4-benzothiazepine), are thought to improve skeletal muscle function by stabilizing the RyR1-FKBP12 complex. Here, we report a high degree of nonspecific and specific low affinity [(3)H]S107 binding to SR vesicles. SR vesicles enriched in RyR1 bound ∼48 [(3)H]S107 per RyR1 tetramer with EC(50) ∼52 µM and Hillslope ∼2. The effects of S107 and FKBP12 on RyR1 were examined under conditions that altered the redox state of RyR1. S107 increased FKBP12 binding to RyR1 in SR vesicles in the presence of reduced glutathione and the NO-donor NOC12, with no effect in the presence of oxidized glutathione. Addition of 0.15 µM FKBP12 to SR vesicles prevented FKBP12 dissociation; however, in the presence of oxidized glutathione and NOC12, FKBP12 dissociation was observed in skeletal muscle homogenates that contained 0.43 µM myoplasmic FKBP12 and was attenuated by S107. In single channel measurements with FKBP12-depleted RyR1s, in the absence and presence of NOC12, S107 augmented the FKBP12-mediated decrease in channel activity. The data suggest that S107 can reverse the harmful effects of redox active species on SR Ca(2+) release in skeletal muscle by binding to RyR1 low affinity sites.
The drug JTV519 is derivative of which group of chemical compounds?
54f9b74306d9727f76000004_003
{ "answer_start": [ 415 ], "text": [ "1,4-benzothiazepine" ] }
A randomized evaluation of betrixaban, an oral factor Xa inhibitor, for prevention of thromboembolic events after total knee replacement (EXPERT). Betrixaban is an oral direct inhibitor of factor Xa (FXa) being developed for the prevention of venous thromboembolism (VTE). Its antithrombotic effects had not been previously tested in patients. This exploratory clinical trial in the US and Canada randomized 215 patients undergoing elective total knee replacement (TKR) in a 2:2:1 ratio to receive post-operative betrixaban 15 mg or 40 mg p.o. bid or enoxaparin 30 mg s.c. q12h, respectively, for 10-14 days. The betrixaban dosage was blinded, but enoxaparin was not. Primary efficacy outcome was the incidence of VTE, consisting of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) on mandatory unilateral (operated leg) venography, symptomatic proximal DVT, or pulmonary embolism (PE) through Day 10-14. Safety outcomes included major and clinically significant non-major bleeds through 48 h after treatment. All efficacy and bleeding outcomes were adjudicated by a blinded independent central adjudication committee. Of 214 treated patients, 175 (82%) were evaluable for primary efficacy. VTE incidence was 14/70 (20%; 95% CI: 11, 31) for betrixaban 15 mg, 10/65 (15%; 95% CI: 8, 27) for betrixaban 40 mg, and 4/40 (10%; 95% CI: 3, 24) for enoxaparin. No bleeds were reported for betrixaban 15 mg, 2 (2.4%) clinically significant non-major bleeds with betrixaban 40 mg, and one (2.3%) major and two (4.6%) clinically significant non-major bleeds with enoxaparin. A dose- and concentration-dependent effect of betrixaban on inhibition of thrombin generation and anti-Xa levels was observed. Betrixaban demonstrated antithrombotic activity and appeared well tolerated in knee replacement patients at the doses studied.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_087
{ "answer_start": [ 152 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Calpain cleavage regulates the protein stability of p73. The function of p73, a transcription factor belonging to the p53 family, is finely regulated by its steady-state protein stability. p73 protein degradation/stabilization can be regulated by mechanisms in part dependent on the ubiquitin proteasome system (UPS): (i) Itch/NEDD4-like UPS degradation, (ii) NEDD8 UPS degradation, and (iii) NQO1 20S proteasome-dependent (but ubiquitin-independent) breakdown. Here, we show that, in vitro, Calpain I can cleave p73 at two distinct sites: the first proline-rich region and within the oligomerization domain. Consequently, different p73 isoforms can be degraded by calpains, i.e., both N-terminal isoforms (TAp73 and DeltaNp73) as well as the C-terminal isoforms (alpha, beta, gamma, delta). Moreover, overexpression of the specific endogenous calpain inhibitor, calpastatin, in cultured cells increased the steady-state p73 level. This suggests that calpains may play a physiological role in the regulation of p73 protein stability.
How many TAp73 isoforms have been identified in humans?
5173bdb38ed59a060a000020_071
{ "answer_start": [ 710 ], "text": [ "7" ] }
A randomised study in healthy volunteers to investigate the safety, tolerability and pharmacokinetics of idarucizumab, a specific antidote to dabigatran. Idarucizumab, a monoclonal antibody fragment that binds dabigatran with high affinity, is in development as a specific antidote for dabigatran. In this first-in-human, single-rising-dose study, we investigated the pharmacokinetics, safety and tolerability of idarucizumab. Healthy male volunteers aged 18-45 years received between 20 mg and 8 g idarucizumab as a 1-hour intravenous infusion in 10 sequential dose groups, or 1, 2 or 4 g idarucizumab as a 5-minute infusion. Subjects within each dose group were randomised 3:1 to idarucizumab or placebo. A total of 110 randomised subjects received study drug (27 placebo, 83 idarucizumab). Peak and total exposure to idarucizumab increased proportionally with dose. Maximum plasma concentrations were achieved near the end of infusion, followed by a rapid decline, with an initial idarucizumab half-life of ~45 minutes. For the 5-minute infusions, this resulted in a reduction of plasma concentrations to less than 5 % of peak within 4 hours. Idarucizumab (in the absence of dabigatran) had no effect on coagulation parameters or endogenous thrombin potential. Overall adverse event (AE) frequency was similar for idarucizumab and placebo, and no relationship with idarucizumab dose was observed. Drug-related AEs (primary endpoint) were rare (occurring in 2 placebo and 3 idarucizumab subjects) and were mostly of mild intensity; none of them resulted in study discontinuation. In conclusion, the pharmacokinetic profile of idarucizumab meets the requirement for rapid peak exposure and rapid elimination, with no effect on pharmacodynamic parameters. Idarucizumab was safe and well tolerated in healthy males.
Which drug can be reversed with idarucizumab?
5a7237672dc08e987e000008_009
{ "answer_start": [ 210 ], "text": [ "dabigatran" ] }
S-adenosylmethionine inhibits lipopolysaccharide-induced gene expression via modulation of histone methylation. UNLABELLED: We previously showed that S-adenosylmethionine (SAMe) and its metabolite methylthioadenosine (MTA) blocked lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFalpha) expression in RAW (murine macrophage cell line) and Kupffer cells at the transcriptional level without affecting nuclear factor kappa B nuclear binding. However, the exact molecular mechanism or mechanisms of the inhibitory effect were unclear. While SAMe is a methyl donor, MTA is an inhibitor of methylation. SAMe can convert to MTA spontaneously, so the effect of exogenous SAMe may be mediated by MTA. The aim of our current work is to examine whether the mechanism of SAMe and MTA's inhibitory effect on proinflammatory mediators might involve modulation of histone methylation. In RAW cells, we found that LPS induced TNFalpha expression by both transcriptional and posttranscriptional mechanisms. SAMe and MTA treatment inhibited the LPS-induced increase in gene transcription. Using the chromatin immunoprecipitation assay, we found that LPS increased the binding of trimethylated histone 3 lysine 4 (H3K4) to the TNFalpha promoter, and this was completely blocked by either SAMe or MTA pretreatment. Similar effects were observed with LPS-mediated induction of inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS). LPS increased the binding of histone methyltransferases Set1 and myeloid/lymphoid leukemia to these promoters, which was unaffected by SAMe or MTA. The effects of MTA in RAW cells were confirmed in vivo in LPS-treated mice. Exogenous SAMe is unstable and converts spontaneously to MTA, which is stable and cell-permeant. Treatment with SAMe doubled intracellular MTA and S-adenosylhomocysteine (SAH) levels. SAH also inhibited H3K4 binding to TNFalpha and iNOS promoters. CONCLUSION: The mechanism of SAMe's pharmacologic inhibitory effect on proinflammatory mediators is mainly mediated by MTA and SAH at the level of histone methylation.
Which is the methyl donor of histone methyltransferases?
516e7fda298dcd4e51000081_022
{ "answer_start": [ 554 ], "text": [ "SAM" ] }
Barth syndrome: cellular compensation of mitochondrial dysfunction and apoptosis inhibition due to changes in cardiolipin remodeling linked to tafazzin (TAZ) gene mutation. Cardiolipin is a mitochondrion-specific phospholipid that stabilizes the assembly of respiratory chain complexes, favoring full-yield operation. It also mediates key steps in apoptosis. In Barth syndrome, an X chromosome-linked cardiomyopathy caused by tafazzin mutations, cardiolipins display acyl chain modifications and are present at abnormally low concentrations, whereas monolysocardiolipin accumulates. Using immortalized lymphoblasts from Barth syndrome patients, we showed that the production of abnormal cardiolipin led to mitochondrial alterations. Indeed, the lack of normal cardiolipin led to changes in electron transport chain stability, resulting in cellular defects. We found a destabilization of the supercomplex (respirasome) I+III2+IVn but also decreased amounts of individual complexes I and IV and supercomplexes I+III and III+IV. No changes were observed in the amounts of individual complex III and complex II. We also found decreased levels of complex V. This complex is not part of the supercomplex suggesting that cardiolipin is required not only for the association/stabilization of the complexes into supercomplexes but also for the modulation of the amount of individual respiratory chain complexes. However, these alterations were compensated by an increase in mitochondrial mass, as demonstrated by electron microscopy and measurements of citrate synthase activity. We suggest that this compensatory increase in mitochondrial content prevents a decrease in mitochondrial respiration and ATP synthesis in the cells. We also show, by extensive flow cytometry analysis, that the type II apoptosis pathway was blocked at the mitochondrial level and that the mitochondria of patients with Barth syndrome cannot bind active caspase-8. Signal transduction is thus blocked before any mitochondrial event can occur. Remarkably, basal levels of superoxide anion production were slightly higher in patients' cells than in control cells as previously evidenced via an increased protein carbonylation in the taz1Δ mutant in the yeast. This may be deleterious to cells in the long term. The consequences of mitochondrial dysfunction and alterations to apoptosis signal transduction are considered in light of the potential for the development of future treatments.
Which gene is involved in the development of Barth syndrome?
5717d86029809bbe7a000003_001
{ "answer_start": [ 143 ], "text": [ "tafazzin (TAZ) gene" ] }
Syndromes of reduced sensitivity to thyroid hormone: genetic defects in hormone receptors, cell transporters and deiodination. At least six major steps are required for secreted thyroid hormone (TH) to exert its action on target tissues. Mutations interfering with three of these steps have been so far identified. The first recognized defect, which causes resistance to TH, involves the TH receptor beta gene and has been given the acronym RTH. Occurring in approximately 1 per 40,000 newborns, more than 1000 affected subjects, from 339 families, have been identified. The gene defect remains unknown in 15% of subjects with RTH. Two novel syndromes causing reduced sensitivity to TH were recently identified. One, producing severe psychomotor defects in > 100 males from 26 families, is caused by mutations in the cell-membrane transporter of TH, MCT8; the second, affecting the intracellular metabolism of TH in four individuals from two families, is caused by mutations in the SECISBP2 gene, which is required for the synthesis of selenoproteins, including TH deiodinases.
Which thyroid hormone transporter is implicated in thyroid hormone resistance syndrome?
52ece29f98d023950500002c_004
{ "answer_start": [ 850 ], "text": [ "MCT8" ] }
α-Synuclein posttranslational modification and alternative splicing as a trigger for neurodegeneration. Lewy body diseases include Parkinson disease and dementia with Lewy bodies and are characterized by the widespread distribution of Lewy bodies in virtually every brain area. The main component of Lewy bodies is alpha-synuclein (AS). Accumulating evidence suggests that AS oligomerization and aggregation are strongly associated with the pathogenesis of Lewy body diseases. AS is a small soluble protein with aggregation-prone properties under certain conditions. These properties are enhanced by posttranslational modifications such as phosphorylation, ubiquitination, nitration, and truncation. Accordingly, Lewy bodies contain abundant phosphorylated, nitrated, and monoubiquitinated AS. However, alternative splicing of the AS gene is also known to modify AS aggregation propensities. Splicing gives rise to four related forms of the protein, the main transcript and those that lack exon 4, exon 6, or both. Since AS structure and properties have been extensively studied, it is possible to predict the consequences of the splicing out of the two aforesaid exons. The present review discusses the latest insights on the mechanisms of AS posttranslational modifications and intends to depict their role in the pathogenesis of Lewy body diseases. The implications of deregulated alternative splicing are examined as well, and a hypothesis for the development of the pure form of dementia with Lewy bodies is proposed.
What is the main component of the Lewy bodies?
550c3d45a103b78016000008_020
{ "answer_start": [ 315 ], "text": [ "alpha-synuclein" ] }
Strand-specific PCR of UV radiation-damaged genomic DNA revealed an essential role of DNA-PKcs in the transcription-coupled repair. BACKGROUND: In eukaryotic cells, there are two sub-pathways of nucleotide excision repair (NER), the global genome (gg) NER and the transcription-coupled repair (TCR). TCR can preferentially remove the bulky DNA lesions located at the transcribed strand of a transcriptional active gene more rapidly than those at the untranscribed strand or overall genomic DNA. This strand-specific repair in a suitable restriction fragment is usually determined by alkaline gel electrophoresis followed by Southern blotting transfer and hybridization with an indirect end-labeled single-stranded probe. Here we describe a new method of TCR assay based on strand-specific-PCR (SS-PCR). Using this method, we have investigated the role of DNA-dependent protein kinase catalytic subunit (DNA-PKcs), a member of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase-related protein kinases (PIKK) family, in the TCR pathway of UV-induced DNA damage. RESULTS: Although depletion of DNA-PKcs sensitized HeLa cells to UV radiation, it did not affect the ggNER efficiency of UV-induced cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers (CPD) damage. We postulated that DNA-PKcs may involve in the TCR process. To test this hypothesis, we have firstly developed a novel method of TCR assay based on the strand-specific PCR technology with a set of smart primers, which allows the strand-specific amplification of a restricted gene fragment of UV radiation-damaged genomic DNA in mammalian cells. Using this new method, we confirmed that siRNA-mediated downregulation of Cockayne syndrome B resulted in a deficiency of TCR of the UV-damaged dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) gene. In addition, DMSO-induced silencing of the c-myc gene led to a decreased TCR efficiency of UV radiation-damaged c-myc gene in HL60 cells. On the basis of the above methodology verification, we found that the depletion of DNA-PKcs mediated by siRNA significantly decreased the TCR capacity of repairing the UV-induced CPDs damage in DHFR gene in HeLa cells, indicating that DNA-PKcs may also be involved in the TCR pathway of DNA damage repair. By means of immunoprecipitation and MALDI-TOF-Mass spectrometric analysis, we have revealed the interaction of DNA-PKcs and cyclin T2, which is a subunit of the human transcription elongation factor (P-TEFb). While the P-TEFb complex can phosphorylate the serine 2 of the carboxyl-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II and promote transcription elongation. CONCLUSION: A new method of TCR assay was developed based the strand-specific-PCR (SS-PCR). Our data suggest that DNA-PKcs plays a role in the TCR pathway of UV-damaged DNA. One possible mechanistic hypothesis is that DNA-PKcs may function through associating with CyclinT2/CDK9 (P-TEFb) to modulate the activity of RNA Pol II, which has already been identified as a key molecule recognizing and initializing TCR.
Which gene strand is targeted by transcription-coupled repair (TCR)?
5545186cbf90a13052000002_015
{ "answer_start": [ 363 ], "text": [ "the transcribed strand" ] }
GLUT10 is required for the development of the cardiovascular system and the notochord and connects mitochondrial function to TGFβ signaling. Growth factor signaling results in dramatic phenotypic changes in cells, which require commensurate alterations in cellular metabolism. Mutations in SLC2A10/GLUT10, a member of the facilitative glucose transporter family, are associated with altered transforming growth factor-β (TGFβ) signaling in patients with arterial tortuosity syndrome (ATS). The objective of this work was to test whether SLC2A10/GLUT10 can serve as a link between TGFβ-related transcriptional regulation and metabolism during development. In zebrafish embryos, knockdown of slc2a10 using antisense morpholino oligonucleotide injection caused a wavy notochord and cardiovascular abnormalities with a reduced heart rate and blood flow, which was coupled with an incomplete and irregular vascular patterning. This was phenocopied by treatment with a small-molecule inhibitor of TGFβ receptor (tgfbr1/alk5). Array hybridization showed that the changes at the transcriptome level caused by the two treatments were highly correlated, revealing that a reduced tgfbr1 signaling is a key feature of ATS in early zebrafish development. Interestingly, a large proportion of the genes, which were specifically dysregulated after glut10 depletion gene and not by tgfbr1 inhibition, play a major role in mitochondrial function. Consistent with these results, slc2a10 morphants showed decreased respiration and reduced TGFβ reporter gene activity. Finally, co-injection of antisense morpholinos targeting slc2a10 and smad7 (a TGFβ inhibitor) resulted in a partial rescue of smad7 morphant phenotypes, suggesting scl2a10/glut10 functions downstream of smads. Taken together, glut10 is essential for cardiovascular development by facilitating both mitochondrial respiration and TGFβ signaling.
Mutation of which gene causes arterial tortuosity syndrome?
5a70d42899e2c3af26000002_006
{ "answer_start": [ 290 ], "text": [ "SLC2A10" ] }
Indication for antihypertensive treatment: superiority of ambulatory vs casual blood pressure measurement. The antihypertensive effect of isradipine was studied in 45 patients with mild-to-moderate hypertension (mean age 59 years) using casual and ambulatory 24-h blood pressure measurement. Patients were included into the study according to their casual blood pressure. Isradipine was started at a dose of 1.25 mg twice daily for 4 weeks, and increased to 2.5 mg twice daily if casual blood pressure was not normalized. If necessary, 3 mg of spirapril, a new angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, (n = 1) or 5 mg of pindolol (n = 1) was added. The active-treatment period lasted 24 weeks. At the end of the therapy, casual blood pressure was significantly decreased (p < 0.001) from 173/103 to 150/86 mmHg, and mean ambulatory blood pressure, from 146/87 to 140/83 mmHg (p < 0.05). When patients were divided into three groups according to initial whole-day ambulatory blood pressure values (group I: < 140/90 mmHg; group II: > or = 140/90 mmHg; group III: > or = 140/<90 mmHg), no effect of treatment was detected in group I. However, whole-day blood pressure fell significantly (p < 0.001) in group II (155/96 vs 143/88 mmHg) as did systolic blood pressure (p < 0.01) in group III (150/83 vs 142/81 mmHg), whereas diastolic blood pressure remained unchanged. Thus, ambulatory blood pressure measurement may be superior to casual measurement in the decision-making process to treat hypertension, avoiding not only the phenomenon of 'white-coat hypertension', but also ineffective treatment. This conclusion, however, should be confirmed by prospective studies.
What is the indication for isradipine?
56c3184050c68dd416000003_004
{ "answer_start": [ 198 ], "text": [ "hypertension" ] }
When blood transfusion medicine becomes complicated due to interference by monoclonal antibody therapy. BACKGROUND: Monoclonal antibodies (MoAbs) are increasingly integrated in the standard of care. The notion that therapeutic MoAbs can interfere with clinical laboratory tests is an emerging concern that requires immediate recognition and the development of appropriate solutions. Here, we describe that treatment of multiple myeloma patients with daratumumab, a novel anti-CD38 MoAb, resulted in false-positive indirect antiglobulin tests (IATs) for all patients for 2 to 6 months after infusion. This precluded the correct identification of irregular blood group antibodies for patients requiring blood transfusion. STUDY DESIGN AND METHODS: The IAT was performed using three- and 11-donor-cell panels. Interference of daratumumab and three other anti-CD38 MoAbs was studied using fresh-frozen plasma spiked with different MoAb concentrations. Additionally it was tested whether two potentially neutralizing agents, anti-idiotype antibody and recombinant soluble CD38 (sCD38) extracellular domain, were able to inhibit the interference. RESULTS: The CD38 MoAbs caused agglutination in the IAT in a dose-dependent manner. Addition of an excess of anti-idiotype antibodies or sCD38 protein to the test abrogated CD38 MoAb interference and successfully restored irregular antibody screening and identification. DISCUSSION: CD38 MoAb therapy causes false-positive results in the IAT. The reliability of the test could be restored by adding a neutralizing agent against the CD38 MoAb to the patient's plasma. This study emphasizes that during drug development, targeted therapeutics should be investigated for potential interference with laboratory tests. Clinical laboratories should be informed when patients receive MoAb treatments and matched laboratory tests to prevent interference should be employed.
Which molecule is targeted by Daratumumab?
56c04412ef6e39474100001b_008
{ "answer_start": [ 856 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }
Validation of the use of the ROSIER scale in prehospital assessment of stroke. AIM: To determine the utility of the Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room (ROSIER) scale as a stroke recognition tool among Chinese patients in the prehospital setting. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Compared with the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS), emergency physicians prospectively used the ROSIER as a stroke recognition tool on suspected patients in the prehospital setting. And, the final discharge diagnosis of stroke or transient ischemic attack made by neurologists, after assessment and review of clinical symptomatology and brain imaging findings, was used as the reference standard for diagnosis in the study. Then, the ROSIER and the CPSS like sensitivity (Se), specificity (Sp), positive predictive value (PPV), negative predictive value (NPV), related coefficient (r) and Kappa value were calculated. RESULTS: In this study, 540 of 582 suspected stroke patients met the study criteria. The CPSS showed a diagnostic Se of 88.77% (95% confidence intervals [CI] 86.11-91.43%), Sp of 68.79% (95% CI 64.88-72.70%), PPV of 87.40% (95% CI 85.97-88.83%), NPV of 71.52% (95% CI 67.71-75.33%) and r of 0.503. Relatively, the ROSIER showed a diagnostic Se of 89.97% (95% CI 87.44-92.64%), Sp of 83.23% (95% CI 80.08-86.38%), PPV of 92.66% (95% CI 90.46-94.86%), NPV of 77.91% (95% CI 74.41-81.41%) and r of 0.584. According to the final discharge diagnosis, both the ROSIER and the CPSS were associated with the final discharge diagnosis (P < 0.05).The Kappa statistic value of the ROSIER and the CPSS were 0.718 and 0.582, respectively. However, there was no statistical significance of the positive rate between the ROSIER and the CPSS in this study (P > 0.05). CONCLUSIONS: The ROSIER is a sensitive and specific stroke recognition tool for health providers' use among Chinese patients in the prehospital setting. However, it cannot be used to confidently rule out or identify stroke as a diagnosis. Comprehensive clinical assessment and further examination on potential stroke patients are still important and cannot be replaced. When it is difficult to objectively complete the ROSIER for patients, the CPSS could replace it in the prehospital setting.
ROSIER scale is used for which disorder?
551fd9c06b348bb82c000012_001
{ "answer_start": [ 71 ], "text": [ "stroke" ] }
The active site of the SET domain is constructed on a knot. The SET domain contains the catalytic center of lysine methyltransferases that target the N-terminal tails of histones and regulate chromatin function. Here we report the structure of the SET7/9 protein in the absence and presence of its cofactor product, S-adenosyl-L-homocysteine (AdoHcy). A knot within the SET domain helps form the methyltransferase active site, where AdoHcy binds and lysine methylation is likely to occur. A structure-guided comparison of sequences within the SET protein family suggests that the knot substructure and active site environment are conserved features of the SET domain.
What is the characteristic domain of histone methyltransferases?
532dcfc9d6d3ac6a34000021_023
{ "answer_start": [ 64 ], "text": [ "SET domain" ] }
Cell-cycle regulation of cohesin stability along fission yeast chromosomes. Sister chromatid cohesion is mediated by cohesin, but the process of cohesion establishment during S-phase is still enigmatic. In mammalian cells, cohesin binding to chromatin is dynamic in G1, but becomes stabilized during S-phase. Whether the regulation of cohesin stability is integral to the process of cohesion establishment is unknown. Here, we provide evidence that fission yeast cohesin also displays dynamic behavior. Cohesin association with G1 chromosomes requires continued activity of the cohesin loader Mis4/Ssl3, suggesting that repeated loading cycles maintain cohesin binding. Cohesin instability in G1 depends on wpl1, the fission yeast ortholog of mammalian Wapl, suggestive of a conserved mechanism that controls cohesin stability on chromosomes. wpl1 is nonessential, indicating that a change in wpl1-dependent cohesin dynamics is dispensable for cohesion establishment. Instead, we find that cohesin stability increases at the time of S-phase in a reaction that can be uncoupled from DNA replication. Hence, cohesin stabilization might be a pre-requisite for cohesion establishment rather than its consequence.
During which stage of the cell cycle is cohesin deposited on the yeast genome?
56e2acfe51531f7e33000014_002
{ "answer_start": [ 1033 ], "text": [ "S-phase" ] }
Novel vaccine peptide GV1001 effectively blocks β-amyloid toxicity by mimicking the extra-telomeric functions of human telomerase reverse transcriptase. GV1001 is a 16-amino-acid vaccine peptide derived from the human telomerase reverse transcriptase sequence. We investigated the effects of GV1001 against β-amyloid (Aβ) oligomer-induced neurotoxicity in rat neural stem cells (NSCs). Primary culture NSCs were treated with several concentrations of GV1001 and/or Aβ₂₅₋₃₅ oligomer for 48 hours. GV1001 protected NSCs against the Aβ₂₅₋₃₅ oligomer in a concentration-dependent manner. Aβ₂₅₋₃₅ concentration dependently decreased viability, proliferation, and mobilization of NSCs and GV1001 treatment restored the cells to wild-type levels. Aβ₂₅₋₃₅ increased free radical levels in rat NSCs while combined treatment with GV1001 significantly reduced these levels. In addition, GV1001 treatment of Aβ₂₅₋₃₅-injured NSCs increased the expression level of survival-related proteins, including mitochondria-associated survival proteins, and decreased the levels of death and inflammation-related proteins, including mitochondria-associated death proteins. Together, these results suggest that GV1001 possesses neuroprotective effects against Aβ₂₅₋₃₅ oligomer in NSCs and that these effects are mediated through mimicking the extra-telomeric functions of human telomerase reverse transcriptase, including the induction of cellular proliferation, anti-apoptotic effects, mitochondrial stabilization, and anti-aging and anti-oxidant effects.
GV1001 vaccine targets which enzyme?
56c1f02cef6e39474100004c_002
{ "answer_start": [ 212 ], "text": [ "human telomerase reverse transcriptase" ] }
Chlamydial SET domain protein functions as a histone methyltransferase. SET domain genes have been identified in numbers of bacterial genomes based on similarity to SET domains of eukaryotic histone methyltransferases. Herein, a Chlamydophila pneumoniae SET domain gene was clarified to be coincidently expressed with hctA and hctB genes encoding chlamydial histone H1-like proteins, Hc1 and Hc2, respectively. The SET domain protein (cpnSET) is localized in chlamydial cells and interacts with Hc1 and Hc2 through the C-terminal SET domain. As expected from conservation of catalytic sites in cpnSET, it functions as a protein methyltransferase to murine histone H3 and Hc1. However, little is known about protein methylation in the molecular pathogenesis of chlamydial infection. cpnSET may play an important role in chlamydial cell maturation due to modification of chlamydial histone H1-like proteins.
What is the characteristic domain of histone methyltransferases?
532dcfc9d6d3ac6a34000021_012
{ "answer_start": [ 11 ], "text": [ "SET domain" ] }
The rise of methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus in U.S. correctional populations. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is an emerging threat to public health, especially in correctional settings. Outbreaks have been seen in jails and prisons in Mississippi, California, Texas, and Georgia in recent years. Also, many correctional settings have seen an increase in MRSA infection greater than in the general population. This article examines the lessons that have been learned about MRSA in correctional settings and ponders what is yet to be learned about this disease in these populations.
What is MRSA?
58a32efe60087bc10a000013_048
{ "answer_start": [ 135 ], "text": [ "MRSA" ] }
TMEM132: an ancient architecture of cohesin and immunoglobulin domains define a new family of neural adhesion molecules. Summary: The molecular functions of TMEM132 genes remain poorly understood and under-investigated despite their mutations associated with non-syndromic hearing loss, panic disorder and cancer. Here we show the full domain architecture of human TMEM132 family proteins solved using in-depth sequence and structural analysis. We reveal them to be five previously unappreciated cell adhesion molecules whose domain architecture has an early holozoan origin prior to the emergence of choanoflagellates and metazoa. The extra-cellular portions of TMEM132 proteins contain five conserved domains including three tandem immunoglobulin domains, and a cohesin domain homologue, the first such domain found in animals. These findings strongly predict a cellular adhesion function for TMEM132 family, connecting the extracellular medium with the intracellular actin cytoskeleton. Contact: [email protected]. Supplementary information: Supplementary data are available at Bioinformatics online.
What is the function of the TMEM132 genes?
5a6e472ab750ff4455000048_003
{ "answer_start": [ 864 ], "text": [ "cellular adhesion function" ] }
Oral and parenteral anticoagulants: new kids on the block. Well-documented drawbacks of traditional anticoagulants have lead to the quest for an ideal anticoagulant resulting in a surge of novel anticoagulant molecules. These newer agents directly target specific steps in coagulation cascade and include newer low molecular weight heparins (adomiparin), ultra low molecular weight heparins (semuloparin, RO-14), inhibitors of activated factor II (dabigatran, AZD0837), X (rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban, betrixaban), IX (REG1,2), XI (antisense oligonucleotides, BMS 262084, clavatadine A), VII/tissue factor (tifacogin, PCI 274836, and BMS 593214), V (recomodulin, solulin), VIII (TB402), dual thrombin/factor X inhibitors (EP21709, tanogitran), and newer vitamin K antagonists (tecarfarin). Direct thrombin inhibitors and Factor X inhibitors are the most clinically advanced. This article discusses the recent advances in the development of novel targets of anticoagulants. Medline, EMBASE, cochrane database, medscape, SCOPUS, and clinicaltrials.gov were searched using terms "anticoagulants", "blood coagulation inhibitors", "anticoagulants and venous thromboembolism", "anticoagulants and atrial fibrillation", and "'antithrombins." Journal articles published from 2007 to 2012 discussing pharmacology and/or clinical trials were screened.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_140
{ "answer_start": [ 499 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
The atxA gene product activates transcription of the anthrax toxin genes and is essential for virulence. Bacillus anthracis plasmid pXO1 carries the structural genes for the three anthrax toxin proteins, cya (edema factor), lef (lethal factor), and pag (protective antigen). Expression of the toxin genes by B. anthracis is enhanced during growth under elevated levels of CO2. This CO2 effect is observed only in the presence of another pXO1 gene, atxA, which encodes a transactivator of anthrax toxin synthesis. Here we show that transcription of atxA does not appear to differ in cells grown in 5% CO2 compared with cells grown in air. Using a new efficient method for gene replacement in B. anthracis, we constructed an atxA-null mutant in which the atxA-coding sequence on pXO1 is replaced with an omega km-2 cassette. Transcription of all three toxin genes is decreased in the absence of atxA. The pag gene possesses two apparent transcription start sites, P1 and P2; only transcripts with 5' ends mapping to P1 are decreased in the atxA-null mutant. Deletion analysis of the pag promoter region indicates that the 111 bp region upstream of the P1 site is sufficient for atxA-mediated activation of this transcript. The cya and lef genes each have one apparent start site for transcription. Transcripts with 5' ends mapping to these sites are not detected in the atxA-null mutant. The atxA-null mutant is avirulent in mice. Moreover, the antibody response to all three toxin proteins is decreased significantly in atxA-null mutant-infected mice. These data suggest that the atxA gene product also regulates toxin gene expression during infection.
Which metabolite activates AtxA?
5710a592cf1c32585100002a_028
{ "answer_start": [ 600 ], "text": [ "CO2" ] }
The therapeutical potential of alpha-synuclein antiaggregatory agents for dementia with Lewy bodies. Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), the second most frequent cause of dementia after Alzheimer disease (AD), is characterized by the widespread distribution of Lewy bodies in virtually every brain area. Clinically, DLB is distinguished from AD by fluctuating cognition, prominent visual hallucinations and parkinsonism, and from Parkinson disease, by the appearance of parkinsonism within one year of cognitive or behavioral decline. The main component of Lewy bodies is alpha-synuclein. Accumulating evidence suggests that its aggregation constitutes one of the first steps preceding Lewy body formation, so that antiaggregation strategies would be very useful to prevent alpha-synuclein fibril formation. Main therapies nevertheless applied up to the present remain symptomatological. In this context, cholinesterase inhibitors such as rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil, are used for the treatment of delusions and other psychotic symptoms. This review focuses on the recent discovery of possible alpha-synuclein anti-aggregation factors, where four main classes can be defined. First, beta-synuclein as well as alpha-synuclein derived peptides in addition to antibodies present a group of proteins and peptides that directly interact with alpha-synuclein and so inhibit its aggregation. Second, small molecules interfere with alpha-synuclein aggregation by their covalent binding, although not all of them are suitable for an appropriate inhibition of alpha-synuclein aggregation. Third, to inhibit the expression of alpha-synuclein and its isoforms at the RNA level, the use of interference RNA represents a future challenge. The fourth strategy is based on the enhancement of inclusion body formation to accelerate the elimination of soluble alpha-synuclein oligomers. Each chapter section includes the discussion of possible strategies for the development of drugs and therapies.
What is the main component of the Lewy bodies?
550c3d45a103b78016000008_010
{ "answer_start": [ 569 ], "text": [ "alpha-synuclein" ] }
Reversal of direct oral anticoagulants: a practical approach. Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) have at least noninferior efficacy compared with other oral anticoagulants and have ancillary benefits, including overall better safety profiles, lack of the need for routine monitoring, rapid onset of action, and ease of administration. Reversal of these agents may be indicated in certain situations such as severe bleeding and for perioperative management. DOAC-associated bleeding should be risk stratified: patients with moderate or severe bleeding should have the DOAC discontinued and reversal strategies should be considered. Laboratory testing has limited utility in the acute management of bleeding; thrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time may be useful for excluding clinically relevant levels of dabigatran. Prothrombin time is potentially useful for rivaroxaban and edoxaban, but calibrated anti-Xa assays are optimal for determining clinically relevant levels of factor Xa inhibitors. Because specific reversal agents are not widely available, supportive care and interventions for local hemostasis remain the cornerstones of therapy in the patient with DOAC-associated bleeding. Nonspecific reversal agents should be considered only in the event of severe bleeding because their efficacy is unknown, and they are associated with risk of thrombosis. Recent results from phase 3/4 studies demonstrate efficacy for an antidote to dabigatran (idarucizumab, a monoclonal antibody fragment with specificity for dabigatran) and an antidote to factor Xa inhibitors (andexanet alfa, a recombinant and inactive form of factor Xa that binds inhibitors). A universal reversal agent (ciraparantag) for many anticoagulants, including the DOACs, shows promise in results from phase 1 and 2 studies.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_038
{ "answer_start": [ 1590 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Clinical, electrophysiologic and pathologic findings in 10 patients with myotonic dystrophy 2. BACKGROUND: Myotonic dystrophy type 2 (DM2) is an autosomal dominant, multisystem disorder caused by a CCTG tetranucleotide repeat expansion located in intron 1 of the zinc finger protein 9 gene (ZNF9 gene) on chromosome 3q 21.3. OBJECTIVES: To describe the clinical, electrophysiologic and pathologic findings in patients with myotonic dystrophy 2. METHODS: We evaluated 10 patients genetically, clinically and electrophysiologically during the years 2007 to 2008. RESULTS: All patients were of Jewish European ancestry. Among affected individuals, eight patients had symptoms of proximal muscle weakness, two had muscle pain, and two exhibited myotonia. On physical examination six patients had severe weakness of hip flexor muscles. Seven individuals underwent cataract surgery, and cardiac involvement was seen in one case. On the initial electromyographic (EMG) examination five patients demonstrated myotonic discharges; repeated studies showed these discharges in nine cases. Six muscle biopsies showed non-specific pathological changes. Seven patients had an affected first-degree relative with either a diagnosed or an undiagnosed muscular disorder consistent with an autosomal dominant trait. CONCLUSIONS: DM2 may often present with proximal muscle weakness without myotonia. EMG may initially fail to show myotonic discharges, but these discharges may eventually show in most cases on repeated EMG. Thus, DM2 may be underdiagnosed and should be included in the differential diagnosis of adult patients of Jewish European ancestry presenting with proximal lower limb weakness.
How is myotonic dystrophy inherited?
51635202298dcd4e5100004f_001
{ "answer_start": [ 145 ], "text": [ "autosomal dominant" ] }
Recent advances in antiarrhythmic drug treatment of atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most prevalent sustained cardiac arrhythmia in clinical practice associated with significant morbidity and mortality. With the growing number of the affected individuals, the development of safe and effective treatment options for AF has become a worldwide priority. Currently available antiarrhythmic medications for the restoration and maintenance of sinus rhythm have limitations due to the modest efficacy and a potential for adverseeffects. Although substantial progress has been made in AF-ablation techniques, broad application of these nonpharmacological treatment modalities is limited and antiarrhythmic drug treatment is still the cornerstone and the first-line therapy for the majority of AF patients. Improvements in the understanding of the principal pathophysiological mechanisms of AF obtained in the last several years have provided promising treatment opportunities. New therapeutic options are based on the more selective targeting of ion channels and intercellular connection proteins predominantly expressed in the atria, the restoration of intracellular Ca(2+) homeostasis and the prevention of AF-associated electrical and structural remodeling. In this review, we provide a highlight of the most important pathophysiological mechanisms in AF with a relation to the potential therapeutic interventions, and discuss novel findings regarding the current and future pharmacological AF management and recent patents.
Which is the most prevalent form of arrhythmia worldwide?
54d8ea2c4b1fd0d33c000002_008
{ "answer_start": [ 94 ], "text": [ "AF" ] }
Altered brain iron homeostasis and dopaminergic function in Restless Legs Syndrome (Willis-Ekbom Disease). Restless legs syndrome (RLS), also known as Willis-Ekbom Disease (WED), is a sensorimotor disorder for which the exact pathophysiology remains unclear. Brain iron insufficiency and altered dopaminergic function appear to play important roles in the etiology of the disorder. This concept is based partly on extensive research studies using cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), autopsy material, and brain imaging indicating reduced regional brain iron and on the clinical efficacy of dopamine receptor agonists for alleviating RLS symptoms. Finding causal relations, linking low brain iron to altered dopaminergic function in RLS, has required however the use of animal models. These models have provided insights into how alterations in brain iron homeostasis and dopaminergic system may be involved in RLS. The results of animal models of RLS and biochemical, postmortem, and imaging studies in patients with the disease suggest that disruptions in brain iron trafficking lead to disturbances in striatal dopamine neurotransmission for at least some patients with RLS. This review examines the data supporting an iron deficiency-dopamine metabolic theory of RLS by relating the results from animal model investigations of the influence of brain iron deficiency on dopaminergic systems to data from clinical studies in patients with RLS.
Willis-Ekbom disease is also known as?
5891f9e549702f2e01000002_044
{ "answer_start": [ 107 ], "text": [ "Restless legs syndrome" ] }
A transgenic mouse model demonstrates a dominant negative effect of a point mutation in the RPS19 gene associated with Diamond-Blackfan anemia. Diamond Blackfan anemia (DBA) is an inherited erythroblastopenia associated with mutations in at least 8 different ribosomal protein genes. Mutations in the gene encoding ribosomal protein S19 (RPS19) have been identified in approximately 25% of DBA families. Most of these mutations disrupt either the translation or stability of the RPS19 protein and are predicted to cause DBA by haploinsufficiency. However, approximately 30% of RPS19 mutations are missense mutations that do not alter the stability of the RPS19 protein and are hypothesized to act by a dominant negative mechanism. To formally test this hypothesis, we generated a transgenic mouse model expressing an RPS19 mutation in which an arginine residue is replaced with a tryptophan residue at codon 62 (RPS19R62W). Constitutive expression of RPS19R62W in developing mice was lethal. Conditional expression of RPS19R62W resulted in growth retardation, a mild anemia with reduced numbers of erythroid progenitors, and significant inhibition of terminal erythroid maturation, similar to DBA. RNA profiling demonstrated more than 700 dysregulated genes belonging to the same pathways that are disrupted in RNA profiles of DBA patient cells. We conclude that RPS19R62W is a dominant negative DBA mutation.
In which syndrome is the RPS19 gene most frequently mutated?
5a896c26fcd1d6a10c000007_005
{ "answer_start": [ 119 ], "text": [ "Diamond-Blackfan anemia" ] }
Periovulatory expression of hydrogen peroxide-induced sulfiredoxin and peroxiredoxin 2 in the rat ovary: gonadotropin regulation and potential modification. Reactive oxygen species are involved in ovulation. The aim of this study was to examine gonadotropin regulation of antioxidant enzyme sulfiredoxin (Srx) and peroxiredoxin 2 (PRDX2) expressions and modification during the ovulatory process in rats. Administration of antioxidants in vivo reduced ovulation rate and cumulus expansion. LH treatment increased H(2)O(2) levels within 15 min, which, in turn, induced Srx gene expression in cultured preovulatory follicles. Treatment of preovulatory follicles with catalase suppressed the stimulatory effect of LH on Akt phosphorylation. LH- or H(2)O(2)-stimulated Srx mRNA levels were suppressed by inhibitors of antioxidant agents and MAPK kinase. An in vivo injection of equine chorionic gonadotropin-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) stimulated Srx mRNA within 1 h in granulosa but not thecal cells of preovulatory follicles. Srx protein levels were stimulated from 3 h post-hCG injection. Immunofluorescence analysis revealed that oocytes expressed the Srx protein. Furthermore, hCG treatment increased Srx expression in mural granulosa, theca and cumulus cells, but the Srx protein was not detected in corpora lutea. Gene expression of PRDX2, identified as an Srx-dependent modified enzyme, was stimulated by gonadotropins. In situ hybridization analysis demonstrated that PRDX2 mRNA was detected in oocytes and theca cells as well as granulosa cells of some antral and preovulatory follicles. High levels of PRDX2 mRNA were detected in corpora lutea. Total levels of PRDX2 protein were not changed by gonadotropins. However, levels of hyperoxidized PRDX2 increased within 2-3 h after the hCG injection. Taken together, gonadotropin stimulation of Srx expression and PRDX2 modification in the ovary suggest the existence of an antioxidant system to maintain H(2)O(2) production and elimination during the periovulatory period.
What type of enzyme is peroxiredoxin 2 (PRDX2)?
52bf1f1303868f1b06000014_003
{ "answer_start": [ 272 ], "text": [ "antioxidant" ] }
Differential effects of diverse p53 isoforms on TAp73 transcriptional activity and apoptosis. The p53 activities are due, at least in part, to its ability to form oligomers that bind to specific DNA sequences and activate transcription. Since some mutant p53 proteins and ΔNp73 isoforms form heterocomplexes with TAp73, we asked whether p53 isoforms can do the same and potentially act as dominant-negative inhibitors of TAp73. Moreover, it has already been found that some isoforms form complex with wtp53 and some of them inhibit p53 tumor-suppressor functions. Therefore, we studied the complex formation and co-immunoprecipitation assays show that all six p53 isoforms examined can form complexes with TAp73β, whereas only Δ133p53α/β/γ isoforms form complex with TAp73α. All p53 isoforms counteract TAp73β transactivation function but with different efficiency and in a promoter-dependent manner. Furthermore, apoptotic activity of TAp73β was augmented by coexpression of p53β, whereas Δ133p53α and β inhibit its apoptotic activity most efficiently. We have determined the half-life of different p53 isoforms: p53γ isoform has the shortest half-life, whereas Δ133p53γ has the longest half-life. Inhibitory interactions of two proteins in complex often lead to their stabilization. However, only three isoforms (Δ133p53α, Δ133p53β and Δ40p53α) stabilize TAp73β. We are convinced that defining the interactions between p53/p73 would give a new insight into how the p53 isoforms modulate the p73 functions in tumorigenesis.
How many TAp73 isoforms have been identified in humans?
5173bdb38ed59a060a000020_025
{ "answer_start": [ 316 ], "text": [ "7" ] }
Heme and FLVCR-related transporter families SLC48 and SLC49. Heme is critical for a variety of cellular processes, but excess intracellular heme may result in oxidative stress and membrane injury. Feline leukemia virus subgroup C receptor (FLVCR1), a member of the SLC49 family of four paralogous genes, is a cell surface heme exporter, essential for erythropoiesis and systemic iron homeostasis. Disruption of FLVCR1 function blocks development of erythroid progenitors, likely due to heme toxicity. Mutations of SLC49A1 encoding FLVCR1 are noted in patients with a rare neurodegenerative disorder: posterior column ataxia with retinitis pigmentosa. FLVCR2 is highly homologous to FLVCR1 and may function as a cellular heme importer. Mutations of SLC49A2 encoding FLVCR2 are observed in Fowler syndrome, a rare proliferative vascular disorder of the brain. The functions of the remaining members of the SLC49 family, MFSD7 and DIRC2 (encoded by the SLC49A3 and SLC49A4 genes), are unknown, although the latter is implicated in hereditary renal carcinomas. SLC48A1 (heme responsive gene-1, HRG-1), the sole member of the SLC48 family, is associated with the endosome and appears to transport heme from the endosome into the cytosol.
Which SLC family is FLVCR1 a member of?
56d85e7751531f7e33000001_003
{ "answer_start": [ 265 ], "text": [ "SLC49" ] }
Blockage of RNA polymerase II at a cyclobutane pyrimidine dimer and 6-4 photoproduct. The blockage of transcription elongation by RNA polymerase II (pol II) at a DNA damage site on the transcribed strand triggers a transcription-coupled DNA repair (TCR), which rapidly removes DNA damage on the transcribed strand of the expressed gene and allows the resumption of transcription. To analyze the effect of UV-induced DNA damage on transcription elongation, an in vitro transcription elongation system using pol II and oligo(dC)-tailed templates containing a cyclobutane pyrimidine dimer (CPD) or 6-4 photoproduct (6-4PP) at a specific site was employed. The results showed that pol II incorporated nucleotides opposite the CPD and 6-4PP and then stalled. Pol II formed a stable ternary complex consisting of pol II, the DNA damage template, and the nascent transcript. Furthermore, atomic force microscopy imaging revealed that pol II stalled at the damaged region. These findings may provide the basis for analysis of the initiation step of TCR.
Which gene strand is targeted by transcription-coupled repair (TCR)?
5545186cbf90a13052000002_018
{ "answer_start": [ 291 ], "text": [ "the transcribed strand" ] }
Topoisomerase II: its functions and phosphorylation. The gene encoding topoisomerase II in yeast is unique and essential, required for both mitotic and meiotic proliferation. The use of temperature-sensitive mutants in topoisomerase II have demonstrated roles in the relaxation of tortional stress, reduction of recombination rates, and in the separation of sister chromatids after replication. In vertebrate cells, topoisomerase II was shown to be the most abundant component of the metaphase chromosomal scaffold, and has been shown to play a role in chromosome condensation in vitro. The cell cycle control of chromosome condensation may well require phosphorylation of topoisomerase II, since the enzyme is more highly phosphorylated in metaphase than in G1. Recent studies have identified casein kinase II as the major enzyme phosphorylating topoisomerase II in intact yeast cells. The target sites of CKII are exclusively in the C-terminal 400 amino acids of topoisomerase II, the region that is most divergent among the eukaryotic type II enzymes and which is absent in the bacterial gyrase homologues.
Which topoisomerase is essential in yeast?
5a4e50b242878bf97d000001_013
{ "answer_start": [ 71 ], "text": [ "topoisomerase II" ] }
Orteronel (TAK-700), a novel non-steroidal 17,20-lyase inhibitor: effects on steroid synthesis in human and monkey adrenal cells and serum steroid levels in cynomolgus monkeys. Surgical or pharmacologic methods to control gonadal androgen biosynthesis are effective approaches in the treatment of a variety of non-neoplastic and neoplastic diseases. For example, androgen ablation and its consequent reduction in circulating levels of testosterone is an effective therapy for advanced prostate cancers. Unfortunately, the therapeutic effectiveness of this approach is often temporary because of disease progression to the 'castration resistant' (CRPC) state, a situation for which there are limited treatment options. One mechanism thought to be responsible for the development of CRPC is extra-gonadal androgen synthesis and the resulting impact of these residual extra-gonadal androgens on prostate tumor cell proliferation. An important enzyme responsible for the synthesis of extra-gonadal androgens is CYP17A1 which possesses both 17,20-lyase and 17-hydroxylase catalytic activities with the 17,20-lyase activity being key in the androgen biosynthetic process. Orteronel (TAK-700), a novel, selective, and potent inhibitor of 17,20-lyase is under development as a drug to inhibit androgen synthesis. In this study, we quantified the inhibitory activity and specificity of orteronel for testicular and adrenal androgen production by evaluating its effects on CYP17A1 enzymatic activity, steroid production in monkey adrenal cells and human adrenal tumor cells, and serum levels of dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), cortisol, and testosterone after oral dosing in castrated and intact male cynomolgus monkeys. We report that orteronel potently suppresses androgen production in monkey adrenal cells but only weakly suppresses corticosterone and aldosterone production; the IC(50) value of orteronel for cortisol was ~3-fold higher than that for DHEA. After single oral dosing, serum levels of DHEA, cortisol, and testosterone were rapidly suppressed in intact cynomolgus monkeys. In castrated monkeys treated twice daily with orteronel, suppression of DHEA and testosterone persisted throughout the treatment period. In both in vivo models and in agreement with our in vitro data, suppression of serum cortisol levels following oral dosing was less than that seen for DHEA. In terms of human CYP17A1 and human adrenal tumor cells, orteronel inhibited 17,20-lyase activity 5.4 times more potently than 17-hydroxylase activity in cell-free enzyme assays and DHEA production 27 times more potently than cortisol production in human adrenal tumor cells, suggesting greater specificity of inhibition between 17,20-lyase and 17-hydroxylase activities in humans vs monkeys. In summary, orteronel potently inhibited the 17,20-lyase activity of monkey and human CYP17A1 and reduced serum androgen levels in vivo in monkeys. These findings suggest that orteronel may be an effective therapeutic option for diseases where androgen suppression is critical, such as androgen sensitive and CRPC.
Which enzyme is inhibited by Orteronel?
54e0c3e71388e8454a000013_008
{ "answer_start": [ 1463 ], "text": [ "CYP17A1" ] }
libFLASM: a software library for fixed-length approximate string matching. BACKGROUND: Approximate string matching is the problem of finding all factors of a given text that are at a distance at most k from a given pattern. Fixed-length approximate string matching is the problem of finding all factors of a text of length n that are at a distance at most k from any factor of length ℓ of a pattern of length m. There exist bit-vector techniques to solve the fixed-length approximate string matching problem in time [Formula: see text] and space [Formula: see text] under the edit and Hamming distance models, where w is the size of the computer word; as such these techniques are independent of the distance threshold k or the alphabet size. Fixed-length approximate string matching is a generalisation of approximate string matching and, hence, has numerous direct applications in computational molecular biology and elsewhere. RESULTS: We present and make available libFLASM, a free open-source C++ software library for solving fixed-length approximate string matching under both the edit and the Hamming distance models. Moreover we describe how fixed-length approximate string matching is applied to solve real problems by incorporating libFLASM into established applications for multiple circular sequence alignment as well as single and structured motif extraction. Specifically, we describe how it can be used to improve the accuracy of multiple circular sequence alignment in terms of the inferred likelihood-based phylogenies; and we also describe how it is used to efficiently find motifs in molecular sequences representing regulatory or functional regions. The comparison of the performance of the library to other algorithms show how it is competitive, especially with increasing distance thresholds. CONCLUSIONS: Fixed-length approximate string matching is a generalisation of the classic approximate string matching problem. We present libFLASM, a free open-source C++ software library for solving fixed-length approximate string matching. The extensive experimental results presented here suggest that other applications could benefit from using libFLASM, and thus further maintenance and development of libFLASM is desirable.
Which library is used for fixed-length approximate string matching?
587f7a69d8d850a152000001_001
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "libFLASM" ] }
Detection of K-ras mutations in mucinous pancreatic duct hyperplasia from a patient with a family history of pancreatic carcinoma. Mutations in the K-ras oncogene and in the p53 tumor suppressor gene are commonly identified in sporadic cases of pancreatic adenocarcinoma. Although these genes might serve as useful markers for early diagnosis of pancreatic carcinoma in patients at risk for the development of this disease, familial pancreatic carcinomas have not been studied for these mutations. We recently had the opportunity to examine a pancreas prophylactically removed from a patient with a strong family history of pancreatic carcinoma. This gave us the unique opportunity to study the early events in the development of familial adenocarcinoma of the pancreas. Histopathological examination of the pancreas revealed multifocal papillary and nonpapillary mucinous duct hyperplasia. Seven of these foci were microdissected and analyzed for K-ras and p53 mutations. The K-ras mutations were detected by combined mutant-enriched polymerase chain reaction-restriction fragment length polymorphism analysis and characterized further by allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization. Five of the seven duct lesions harbored activating point mutations in codon 12 of K-ras; a G to A transition was found in four and a G to C transversion in one. In contrast, these lesions did not harbor detectable p53 mutations as determined by denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis of exons 5 to 8, nor was there overexpression of the p53 protein as determined by immunohistochemistry. These findings suggest that mutations in K-ras represent an early event in the pathogenesis of pancreatic carcinoma. In addition, monitoring of patients with a strong family history of pancreatic carcinoma for K-ras mutations may identify patients at risk for the development of invasive carcinoma.
Which is the molecular mechanism underlying K-ras alterations in carcinomas?
5177def18ed59a060a000034_002
{ "answer_start": [ 1238 ], "text": [ "point mutations" ] }
Imatinib mesylate (STI571) therapy for Philadelphia chromosome-positive chronic myelogenous leukemia in blast phase. Molecular abnormalities caused by the hybrid Bcr-Abl gene are causally associated with the development and progression of Philadelphia chromosome-positive (Ph(+)) chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). Imatinib mesylate (STI571), a specific Bcr-Abl tyrosine-kinase signal-transduction inhibitor, has shown encouraging activity in phase I and II studies of CML. Here, we describe the use of imatinib mesylate to treat 75 patients in blast-phase CML (median age, 53 years; 65 with nonlymphoid and 10 with lymphoid blasts), and compare the results with those of a historical control group treated with standard cytarabine-based therapy. Imatinib mesylate was given as oral doses at 300 to 1000 mg per day and was the first salvage therapy for 47 patients. The objective response rate was 52% (39 of 75 patients: 16 had complete and 3 had partial hematologic response; 12 had hematologic improvement; 7 returned to second chronic phase; and 1 had a complete response in extramedullary blastic disease). Response rates were not different between nonlymphoid and lymphoid groups. The cytogenetic response rate was 16% (12 patients: 5 complete, 3 partial [Ph(+) below 35%], and 4 minor [Ph(+), 34% to 90%]). The estimated median overall survival was 6.5 months; the estimated 1-year survival was 22%. Response to therapy (landmark analysis at 8 weeks) was associated with survival prolongation. Compared with standard cytarabine combinations, imatinib mesylate therapy was less toxic and produced a higher response rate (55% versus 29%, P =.001), longer median survival (7 versus 4 months, P =.04), and lower 4-week induction mortality (4% versus 15%, P =.07). Imatinib mesylate is currently being tested in combination with other drugs to improve the prognosis for blast-phase CML.
What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?
5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_093
{ "answer_start": [ 355 ], "text": [ "Bcr-Abl" ] }
The Roles of Arabidopsis CDF2 in Transcriptional and Posttranscriptional Regulation of Primary MicroRNAs. The precise regulation of microRNA (miRNA) transcription and processing is important for eukaryotic development. Plant miRNAs are first transcribed as stem-loop primary miRNAs (pri-miRNAs) by RNA polymerase II,then cleaved in the nucleus into mature miRNAs by Dicer-like 1 (DCL1). We identified a cycling DOF transcription factor, CDF2, which interacts with DCL1 and regulates the accumulation of a population of miRNAs. CDF2 binds directly to the promoters of some miRNAs and works as a transcription activator or repressor for these miRNA genes. CDF2 binds preferentially to the pri-miRNAs regulated by itself and affects DCL1-mediated processing of these pri-miRNAs. Genetically, CDF2 works in the same pathway as miR156 or miR172 to control flowering. We conclude that CDF2 regulates a group of pri-miRNAs at both the transcriptional and posttranscriptional levels to maintain proper levels of their mature miRNAs to control plant development.
Which polymerase transcribes pri-miRNAs?
589d965a78275d0c4a000049_014
{ "answer_start": [ 298 ], "text": [ "RNA polymerase II" ] }
SERMs and SERMs with estrogen for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Bone loss with aging places postmenopausal women at a higher risk for osteoporosis and its consequences such as fractures, pain, disability, and increased morbidity and mortality. Approximately 200 million patients worldwide are affected. The Third National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES III) estimated that up to 18% of US women aged 50 and older have osteoporosis and up to 50% have osteopenia. Greater than 2 million osteoporotic related fractures occurred in the United States with direct healthcare costs exceeding $17 billion. Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) was a popular option for postmenopausal women before the Women's Health Initiative (WHI). Several agents are available in the U.S., including bisphosphonates, hormone therapy, calcitonin, parathyroid hormone and the selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) raloxifene. There are concerns about long term safety and compliance. Therefore, other agents are under investigation. SERMs are a diverse group of agents that bind to the estrogen receptor and each SERM appears to have a unique set of clinical responses, which are not always consistent with the typical responses seen with other SERMs. This article will discuss the SERMs approved in the United States, tamoxifene and raloxifene, and investigational SERMs. The ideal SERM would include the beneficial effects of estrogen in bone, heart and the central nervous system, with neutral or antagonistic effects in tissues where estrogen effects are undesirable(breast and endometrium). A new target in treating postmenopausal osteoporosis is the tissue estrogen complex or the pairing of a SERM with a conjugated estrogen known as a tissue selective estrogen complex (TSEC). This novel approach is currently being evaluated with bazodoxifene which could yield the beneficial effects of estrogens and SERMS, while potentially being more tolerable and safer than either therapy alone.
What is a SERM?
5a74e9ad0384be955100000a_018
{ "answer_start": [ 864 ], "text": [ "selective estrogen receptor modulator" ] }
The antioxidant enzyme peroxiredoxin-2 is depleted in lymphocytes seven days after ultra-endurance exercise. PURPOSE: Peroxiredoxin-2 (PRDX-2) is an antioxidant and chaperone-like protein critical for cell function. This study examined whether the levels of lymphocyte PRDX-2 are altered over 1 month following ultra-endurance exercise. METHODS: Nine middle-aged men undertook a single-stage, multi-day 233 km (145 mile) ultra-endurance running race. Blood was collected immediately before (Pre), upon completion/retirement (Post), and following the race at Day 1, Day 7 and Day 28. Lymphocyte lysates were examined for PRDX-2 by reducing and non-reducing SDS-PAGE with western blotting. In a sub-group of men who completed the race (n = 4), PRDX-2 oligomeric state (indicative of redox status) was investigated. RESULTS: Ultra-endurance exercise caused significant changes in lymphocyte PRDX-2 (F(4,32) 3.409, p = 0.020, η(2) = 0.299): 7 days after the race, PRDX-2 levels in lymphocytes had fallen to 30% of pre-race values (p = 0.013) and returned to near-normal levels at Day 28. Non-reducing gels demonstrated that dimeric PRDX-2 (intracellular reduced PRDX-2 monomers) was increased in three of four race completers immediately post-race, indicative of an 'antioxidant response'. Moreover, monomeric PRDX-2 was also increased immediately post-race in two of four race-completing subjects, indicative of oxidative damage, which was not detectable by Day 7. CONCLUSIONS: Lymphocyte PRDX-2 was decreased below normal levels 7 days after ultra-endurance exercise. Excessive accumulation of reactive oxygen species induced by ultra-endurance exercise may underlie depletion of lymphocyte PRDX-2 by triggering its turnover after oxidation. Low levels of lymphocyte PRDX-2 could influence cell function and might, in part, explain reports of dysregulated immunity following ultra-endurance exercise.
What type of enzyme is peroxiredoxin 2 (PRDX2)?
52bf1f1303868f1b06000014_001
{ "answer_start": [ 149 ], "text": [ "antioxidant" ] }
[Pharmacologic and clinical characteristics of direct inhibitors of factor Xa: rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban and betrixaban]. Heparins and vitamin K antagonists (VKA) used commonly are the standard treatment of venous and arterial thromboses. They are very efficient and safe, but have some limitations: iatrogenicity, laboratory monitoring, parenteral use for heparins and fondaparinux. Nowadays, four new inhibitors of factor Xa are used orally (rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban, betrixaban), and they are at least as efficient as heparins and vitamin K antagonists. The objective is to substitute these indirect inhibitors of factor Xa (heparins, low molecular weight heparins and fondaparinux) in the prevention of venous and arterial thromboembolic episodes. The new direct inhibitors do not require routine laboratory monitoring of blood coagulation. They inhibit the extrinsic and the intrinsic pathways of blood coagulation. Rivaroxaban and apixaban are efficacious and safe in the prevention of cerebral infarcts in patients with non-valvular fibrillation. Apixaban is another direct inhibitor of factor Xa used orally which is developed in the same indications as rivaroxaban. Edoxaban and betrixaban are also in development. The objective of this work is to study the pharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic, the efficacy and safety of these four oral direct factor Xa inhibitors.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_113
{ "answer_start": [ 466 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Disease-causing mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator determine the functional responses of alveolar macrophages. Alveolar macrophages (AMs) play a major role in host defense against microbial infections in the lung. To perform this function, these cells must ingest and destroy pathogens, generally in phagosomes, as well as secrete a number of products that signal other immune cells to respond. Recently, we demonstrated that murine alveolar macrophages employ the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) Cl(-) channel as a determinant in lysosomal acidification (Di, A., Brown, M. E., Deriy, L. V., Li, C., Szeto, F. L., Chen, Y., Huang, P., Tong, J., Naren, A. P., Bindokas, V., Palfrey, H. C., and Nelson, D. J. (2006) Nat. Cell Biol. 8, 933-944). Lysosomes and phagosomes in murine cftr(-/-) AMs failed to acidify, and the cells were deficient in bacterial killing compared with wild type controls. Cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in CFTR and is characterized by chronic lung infections. The information about relationships between the CFTR genotype and the disease phenotype is scarce both on the organismal and cellular level. The most common disease-causing mutation, DeltaF508, is found in 70% of patients with cystic fibrosis. The mutant protein fails to fold properly and is targeted for proteosomal degradation. G551D, the second most common mutation, causes loss of function of the protein at the plasma membrane. In this study, we have investigated the impact of CFTR DeltaF508 and G551D on a set of core intracellular functions, including organellar acidification, granule secretion, and microbicidal activity in the AM. Utilizing primary AMs from wild type, cftr(-/-), as well as mutant mice, we show a tight correlation between CFTR genotype and levels of lysosomal acidification, bacterial killing, and agonist-induced secretory responses, all of which would be expected to contribute to a significant impact on microbial clearance in the lung.
Which is the most common CFTR mutation in Caucasians?
56c5feb75795f9a73e000006_005
{ "answer_start": [ 1235 ], "text": [ "DeltaF508" ] }
methylKit: a comprehensive R package for the analysis of genome-wide DNA methylation profiles. DNA methylation is a chemical modification of cytosine bases that is pivotal for gene regulation, cellular specification and cancer development. Here, we describe an R package, methylKit, that rapidly analyzes genome-wide cytosine epigenetic profiles from high-throughput methylation and hydroxymethylation sequencing experiments. methylKit includes functions for clustering, sample quality visualization, differential methylation analysis and annotation features, thus automating and simplifying many of the steps for discerning statistically significant bases or regions of DNA methylation. Finally, we demonstrate methylKit on breast cancer data, in which we find statistically significant regions of differential methylation and stratify tumor subtypes. methylKit is available at http://code.google.com/p/methylkit.
Which R package is used for the analysis of genome-wide DNA methylation profiles?
588f8e9794c1512c50000005_010
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "methylKit" ] }
Expression of DUX4 in zebrafish development recapitulates facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy. Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD) is a common form of muscular dystrophy characterized by an asymmetric progressive weakness and wasting of the facial, shoulder and upper arm muscles, frequently accompanied by hearing loss and retinal vasculopathy. FSHD is an autosomal dominant disease linked to chromosome 4q35, but the causative gene remains controversial. DUX4 is a leading candidate gene as causative of FSHD. However, DUX4 expression is extremely low in FSHD muscle, and there is no DUX4 animal model that mirrors the pathology in human FSHD. Here, we show that the misexpression of very low levels of human DUX4 in zebrafish development recapitulates the phenotypes seen in human FSHD patients. Microinjection of small amounts of human full-length DUX4 (DUX4-fl) mRNA into fertilized zebrafish eggs caused asymmetric abnormalities such as less pigmentation of the eyes, altered morphology of ears, developmental abnormality of fin muscle, disorganization of facial musculature and/or degeneration of trunk muscle later in development. Moreover, DUX4-fl expression caused aberrant localization of myogenic cells marked with α-actin promoter-driven enhanced green fluorescent protein outside somite boundary, especially in head region. These abnormalities were rescued by coinjection of the short form of DUX4 (DUX4-s). Our results suggest that the misexpression of DUX4-fl, even at extremely low level, can recapitulate the phenotype observed in FSHD patients in a vertebrate model. These results strongly support the current hypothesis for a role of DUX4 in FSHD pathogenesis. We also propose that DUX4 expression during development is important for the pathogenesis of FSHD.
Which disease is associated with the ectopic expression of the protein encoded by the gene DUX4?
550f0e4c6a8cde6b72000003_033
{ "answer_start": [ 1562 ], "text": [ "FSHD" ] }
[Prevention of MRSA spread in the neurosurgical field]. We investigated the distribution of MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) on and around six patients with MRSA infection in our neurosurgical ward. All patients had a disturbance of consciousness and had sputum colonization of MRSA. Samples were obtained from 11 sites (patients' hands, attendances' hands, floors, sidetables, bedclothes, chairs, walls, curtains, door knobs, faucets and disposable gloves) in the patients' rooms by the wiping method. High counts of MRSA were detected on horizontal planes such as floors, sidetables and chairs, but MRSA was not detected on vertical planes such as curtains and walls. The reason why MRSA was detected on the horizontal planes was due to a fall of MRSA spread from sputum in the air. These findings indicate that the disinfection of horizontal planes is important for preventing the spread of MRSA. We also evaluated what disinfectant was useful for floor disinfection and concluded that 0.5% chlorhexidine digluconate (Hibitane) and 0.5% benzalkonium chloride (Osvan) were more effective than the other usually-used disinfectants such as alkyldiaminoethyl glycine (Tego-51).
What is MRSA?
58a32efe60087bc10a000013_005
{ "answer_start": [ 175 ], "text": [ "MRSA" ] }
Universal, class-specific and drug-specific reversal agents for the new oral anticoagulants. Although there is controversy about the absolute need for a reversal agent for the new direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs), the absence of such an agent is a barrier to more widespread use of these agents. For the management of major life-threatening bleeding with the DOACs, most authorities recommend the use of four factor prothrombin complex concentrates, although the evidence to support their use in terms of improving outcomes is meager. At the present time, there are three antidotes in development and poised to enter the market. Idarucizumab is a drug-specific antidote targeted to reverse the direct thrombin inhibitor, dabigatran. Andexanet alfa is a class-specific antidote targeted to reverse the oral direct factor Xa inhibitors as well as the indirect inhibitor, enoxaparin. Ciraparantag is a universal antidote targeted to reverse the direct thrombin and factor Xa inhibitors as well as the indirect inhibitor, enoxaparin.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_047
{ "answer_start": [ 874 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Nf1;Trp53 mutant mice develop glioblastoma with evidence of strain-specific effects. Astrocytomas are the leading cause of brain cancer in humans. Because these tumours are highly infiltrative, current treatments that rely on targeting the tumour mass are often ineffective. A mouse model for astrocytoma would be a powerful tool for dissecting tumour progression and testing therapeutics. Mouse models of astrocytoma have been designed to express oncogenic proteins in astrocytes, but have had limited success due to low tumour penetrance or limited tumour progression. We present here a mouse model of astrocytomas involving mutation of two tumour-suppressor genes, Nf1 and Trp53. Humans with mutations in NF1 develop neurofibromatosis type I (NF1) and have increased risk of optic gliomas, astrocytomas and glioblastomas. The TP53 tumour suppressor is often mutated in a subset of astrocytomas that develop at a young age and progress slowly to glioblastoma (termed secondary glioblastomas, in contrast to primary glioblastomas that develop rapidly de novo). This mouse model shows a range of astrocytoma stages, from low-grade astrocytoma to glioblastoma multiforme, and may accurately model human secondary glioblastoma involving TP53 loss. This is the first reported mouse model of astrocytoma initiated by loss of tumour suppressors, rather than overexpression of transgenic oncogenes.
Which is the gene mutated in type 1 neurofibromatosis?
5343fc1aaeec6fbd07000003_027
{ "answer_start": [ 746 ], "text": [ "NF1" ] }
Case-control study of SUDEP. OBJECTIVE: To examine the influence of various factors on the risk of sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP). METHODS: The authors investigated 154 cases in which a postmortem examination was performed. Each case had four controls with epilepsy from the community, matched for age and geographic location. Backward stepwise conditional logistic regression analysis was performed and odds ratios for risk and protection were determined. RESULTS: The risk of SUDEP was increased with a history of generalized tonic-clonic seizures in the previous 3 months (odds ratio [OR]: 13.8, 95% CI: 6.6 to 29.1). The presence of supervision at night was found to be protective (OR: 0.4, 95% CI: 0.2 to 0.8) when a supervising individual shared the same bedroom or when special precautions such as a listening device were employed (OR: 0.1, 95% CI: 0.0 to 0.3). CONCLUSION: This work lends support to the view that SUDEP is a seizure-related phenomenon and that control of tonic-clonic seizures is important in its prevention. Nocturnal supervision seems to protect against SUDEP.
What condition is usually represented by the acronym SUDEP?
58dbb8968acda3452900001b_022
{ "answer_start": [ 99 ], "text": [ "sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP)" ] }
Dialectical behavior therapy skills use as a mediator and outcome of treatment for borderline personality disorder. A central component of Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) is the teaching of specific behavioral skills with the aim of helping individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) replace maladaptive behaviors with skillful behavior. Although existing evidence indirectly supports this proposed mechanism of action, no study to date has directly tested it. Therefore, we examined the skills use of 108 women with BPD participating in one of three randomized control trials throughout one year of treatment and four months of follow-up. Using a hierarchical linear modeling approach we found that although all participants reported using some DBT skills before treatment started, participants treated with DBT reported using three times more skills at the end of treatment than participants treated with a control treatment. Significant mediation effects also indicated that DBT skills use fully mediated the decrease in suicide attempts and depression and the increase in control of anger over time. DBT skills use also partially mediated the decrease of nonsuicidal self-injury over time. Anger suppression and expression were not mediated. This study is the first to clearly support the skills deficit model for BPD by indicating that increasing skills use is a mechanism of change for suicidal behavior, depression, and anger control.
Which personality disorder is treated using dialectical behavior therapy?
5a68f005b750ff4455000016_013
{ "answer_start": [ 261 ], "text": [ "Borderline Personality Disorder" ] }
Excessive iron storage in a patient with Wilson's disease. We report on an otherwise healthy female, mother of two children, with severe decompensated liver cirrhosis due to an iron overload and Wilson's disease. The patient was considered heterozygote for hemochromatosis on the basis of the autosomal recessive inheritance for hemochromatosis, the frequency of the hemochromatosis gene, and the laboratory parameters defining her iron overload. The case is interesting because of the coincidence of Wilson's disease and excessive iron storage.
What is the mode of inheritance of Wilson's disease?
52bf1b0a03868f1b06000009_007
{ "answer_start": [ 293 ], "text": [ "autosomal recessive" ] }
Programed death-1/programed death-ligand 1 expression in lymph nodes of HIV infected patients: results of a pilot safety study in rhesus macaques using anti-programed death-ligand 1 (Avelumab). OBJECTIVE: The programed death-1 (PD1)/programed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) pathway plays a critical role in balancing immunity and host immunopathology. During chronic HIV/SIV infection, there is persistent immune activation accompanied by accumulation of virus-specific cells with terminally differentiated phenotypes and expression of regulatory receptors such as PD1. These observations led us to hypothesize that the PD1/PD-L1 pathway contributes to the functional dysregulation and ineffective viral control, and its blockade may be a potential immunotherapeutic target. METHODS: Lymph node biopsies from HIV-infected patients (n = 23) were studied for expression of PD1 and PD-L1. In addition, we assessed the safety and biological activity of a human anti-PD-L1 antibody (Avelumab) in chronically SIV-infected rhesus macaques. RESULTS: PD-L1 expression was observed in cells with myloid/macrophage morphology in HIV-infected lymph nodes. Administration of anti-PD-L1 was well tolerated, and no changes in body weights, hematologic, or chemistry parameters were observed during the study. Blockade of PD-L1 led to a trend of transient viral control after discontinuation of treatment. CONCLUSION: Administration of anti-PD-L1 in chronic SIV-infected rhesus macaques was well tolerated. Overall, these data warrant further investigation to assess the efficacy of anti-PD-L1 treatment on viral control in chronic SIV infection as a prelude to such therapy in humans.
What molecule is targeted by Avelumab?
5884c72fe56acf517600000f_005
{ "answer_start": [ 954 ], "text": [ "PD-L1" ] }
LARVA: an integrative framework for large-scale analysis of recurrent variants in noncoding annotations. In cancer research, background models for mutation rates have been extensively calibrated in coding regions, leading to the identification of many driver genes, recurrently mutated more than expected. Noncoding regions are also associated with disease; however, background models for them have not been investigated in as much detail. This is partially due to limited noncoding functional annotation. Also, great mutation heterogeneity and potential correlations between neighboring sites give rise to substantial overdispersion in mutation count, resulting in problematic background rate estimation. Here, we address these issues with a new computational framework called LARVA. It integrates variants with a comprehensive set of noncoding functional elements, modeling the mutation counts of the elements with a β-binomial distribution to handle overdispersion. LARVA, moreover, uses regional genomic features such as replication timing to better estimate local mutation rates and mutational hotspots. We demonstrate LARVA's effectiveness on 760 whole-genome tumor sequences, showing that it identifies well-known noncoding drivers, such as mutations in the TERT promoter. Furthermore, LARVA highlights several novel highly mutated regulatory sites that could potentially be noncoding drivers. We make LARVA available as a software tool and release our highly mutated annotations as an online resource (larva.gersteinlab.org).
Which tool is used for the identification of recurrent variants in noncoding regions?
589635dd78275d0c4a000009_001
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "LARVA" ] }
Healthcare- and Community-Associated Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and Fatal Pneumonia with Pediatric Deaths in Krasnoyarsk, Siberian Russia: Unique MRSA's Multiple Virulence Factors, Genome, and Stepwise Evolution. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a common multidrug-resistant (MDR) pathogen. We herein discussed MRSA and its infections in Krasnoyarsk, Siberian Russia between 2007 and 2011. The incidence of MRSA in 3,662 subjects was 22.0% and 2.9% for healthcare- and community-associated MRSA (HA- and CA-MRSA), respectively. The 15-day mortality rates for MRSA hospital- and community-acquired pneumonia (HAP and CAP) were 6.5% and 50%, respectively. MRSA CAP cases included pediatric deaths; of the MRSA pneumonia episodes available, > 27.3% were associated with bacteremia. Most cases of HA-MRSA examined exhibited ST239/spa3(t037)/SCCmecIII.1.1.2 (designated as ST239Kras), while all CA-MRSA cases examined were ST8/spa1(t008)/SCCmecIV.3.1.1(IVc) (designated as ST8Kras). ST239Kras and ST8Kras strongly expressed cytolytic peptide (phenol-soluble modulin α, PSMα; and δ-hemolysin, Hld) genes, similar to CA-MRSA. ST239Kras pneumonia may have been attributed to a unique set of multiple virulence factors (MVFs): toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1), elevated PSMα/Hld expression, α-hemolysin, the staphylococcal enterotoxin SEK/SEQ, the immune evasion factor SCIN/SAK, and collagen adhesin. Regarding ST8Kras, SEA was included in MVFs, some of which were common to ST239Kras. The ST239Kras (strain OC3) genome contained: a completely unique phage, φSa7-like (W), with no att repetition; S. aureus pathogenicity island SaPI2R, the first TSST-1 gene-positive (tst+) SaPI in the ST239 lineage; and a super copy of IS256 ( > 22 copies/genome). ST239Kras carried the Brazilian SCCmecIII.1.1.2 and United Kingdom-type tst. ST239Kras and ST8Kras were MDR, with the same levofloxacin resistance mutations; small, but transmissible chloramphenicol resistance plasmids spread widely enough to not be ignored. These results suggest that novel MDR and MVF+ HA- and CA-MRSA (ST239Kras and ST8Kras) emerged in Siberian Russia (Krasnoyarsk) associated with fatal pneumonia, and also with ST239Kras, a new (Siberian Russian) clade of the ST239 lineage, which was created through stepwise evolution during its potential transmission route of Brazil-Europe-Russia/Krasnoyarsk, thereby selective advantages from unique MVFs and the MDR.
What is MRSA?
58a32efe60087bc10a000013_009
{ "answer_start": [ 82 ], "text": [ "MRSA" ] }
Mammalian target of rapamycin inhibitor-associated stomatitis. With the recent introduction of inhibitors of mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) in oncology, distinct cutaneous and oral adverse events have been identified. In fact, stomatitis and rash are documented as the most frequent and potentially dose-limiting side effects. Clinically, mTOR inhibitor-associated stomatitis (mIAS) more closely resembles aphthous stomatitis than oral mucositis due to conventional anticancer therapies. While most cases of mIAS are mild to moderate and self-limiting, more severe and persistent mIAS can become a dose-limiting toxicity. Small ulcerations may cause significant pain and mucosal sensitivity may occur in the absence of clinical changes. Use of clinical assessment tools that are primarily driven by ulceration size may underestimate mIAS, and assessment should include patient-reported outcomes. This article provides an up-to-date review of the clinical presentation, terminology, pathogenesis, assessment and management of mIAS and other mTOR inhibitor-associated oral adverse events. In addition, areas of future research are considered.
What does mTOR stands for?
5505a587f73303d458000005_006
{ "answer_start": [ 109 ], "text": [ "mammalian target of rapamycin" ] }
Suitability of [18F]altanserin and PET to determine 5-HT2A receptor availability in the rat brain: in vivo and in vitro validation of invasive and non-invasive kinetic models. PURPOSE: While the selective 5-hydroxytryptamine type 2a receptor (5-HT2AR) radiotracer [18F]altanserin is well established in humans, the present study evaluated its suitability for quantifying cerebral 5-HT2ARs with positron emission tomography (PET) in albino rats. PROCEDURES: Ten Sprague Dawley rats underwent 180 min PET scans with arterial blood sampling. Reference tissue methods were evaluated on the basis of invasive kinetic models with metabolite-corrected arterial input functions. In vivo 5-HT2AR quantification with PET was validated by in vitro autoradiographic saturation experiments in the same animals. RESULT: Overall brain uptake of [18F]altanserin was reliably quantified by invasive and non-invasive models with the cerebellum as reference region shown by linear correlation of outcome parameters. Unlike in humans, no lipophilic metabolites occurred so that brain activity derived solely from parent compound. PET data correlated very well with in vitro autoradiographic data of the same animals. CONCLUSION: [18F]Altanserin PET is a reliable tool for in vivo quantification of 5-HT2AR availability in albino rats. Models based on both blood input and reference tissue describe radiotracer kinetics adequately. Low cerebral tracer uptake might, however, cause restrictions in experimental usage.
Which receptors can be evaluated with the [18F]altanserin?
55242d512c8b63434a000006_033
{ "answer_start": [ 243 ], "text": [ "5-HT2A" ] }
Motor restlessness, sleep disturbances, thermal sensory alterations and elevated serum iron levels in Btbd9 mutant mice. Restless legs syndrome (RLS), also known as Willis-Ekbom disease, is a sensory-motor neurological disorder with a circadian component. RLS is characterized by uncomfortable sensations in the extremities, generally at night or during sleep, which often leads to an uncontrollable urge to move them for relief. Recently, genomic studies identified single-nucleotide polymorphisms in BTBD9, along with three other genes, as being associated with a higher risk of RLS. Little is known about the function of BTBD9 or its potential role in the pathophysiology of RLS. We therefore examined a line of Btbd9 mutant mice we recently generated for phenotypes similar to symptoms found in RLS patients. We observed that the Btbd9 mutant mice had motor restlessness, sensory alterations likely limited to the rest phase, and decreased sleep and increased wake times during the rest phase. Additionally, the Btbd9 mutant mice had altered serum iron levels and monoamine neurotransmitter systems. Furthermore, the sensory alterations in the Btbd9 mutant mice were relieved using ropinirole, a dopaminergic agonist widely used for RLS treatment. These results, taken together, suggest that the Btbd9 mutant mice model several characteristics similar to RLS and would therefore be the first genotypic mouse model of RLS. Furthermore, our data provide further evidence that BTBD9 is involved in RLS, and future studies of the Btbd9 mutant mice will help shine light on its role in the pathophysiology of RLS. Finally, our data argue for the utility of Btbd9 mutant mice to discover and screen novel therapeutics for RLS.
Willis-Ekbom disease is also known as?
5891f9e549702f2e01000002_008
{ "answer_start": [ 121 ], "text": [ "Restless legs syndrome" ] }
The mammalian de novo DNA methyltransferases DNMT3A and DNMT3B are also DNA 5-hydroxymethylcytosine dehydroxymethylases. For cytosine (C) demethylation of vertebrate DNA, it is known that the TET proteins could convert 5-methyl C (5-mC) to 5-hydroxymethyl C (5-hmC). However, DNA dehydroxymethylase(s), or enzymes able to directly convert 5-hmC to C, have been elusive. We present in vitro evidence that the mammalian de novo DNA methyltransferases DNMT3A and DNMT3B, but not the maintenance enzyme DNMT1, are also redox-dependent DNA dehydroxymethylases. Significantly, intactness of the C methylation catalytic sites of these de novo enzymes is also required for their 5-hmC dehydroxymethylation activity. That DNMT3A and DNMT3B function bidirectionally both as DNA methyltransferases and as dehydroxymethylases raises intriguing and new questions regarding the structural and functional aspects of these enzymes and their regulatory roles in the dynamic modifications of the vertebrate genomes during development, carcinogenesis, and gene regulation.
Which enzyme is involved in the maintenance of DNA (cytosine-5-)-methylation?
51585b28d24251bc0500008d_004
{ "answer_start": [ 499 ], "text": [ "DNMT1" ] }
The essential function of Swc4p - a protein shared by two chromatin-modifying complexes of the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae - resides within its N-terminal part. The Swc4p protein, encoded by an essential gene, is shared by two chromatin-remodeling complexes in Saccharomyces cerevisiae cells: NuA4 (nucleosome acetyltransferase of H4) and SWR1. The SWR1 complex catalyzes ATP-dependent exchange of the nucleosomal histone H2A for H2AZ (Htz1p). The activity of NuA4 is responsible mainly for the acetylation of the H4 histone but also for the acetylation of H2A and H2AZ. In this work we investigated the role of the Swc4p protein. Using random mutagenesis we isolated a collection of swc4 mutants and showed that the essential function of Swc4p resides in its N-terminal part, within the first 269 amino acids of the 476-amino acid-long protein. We also demonstrated that Swc4p is able to accommodate numerous mutations without losing its functionality under standard growth conditions. However, when swc4 mutants were exposed to methyl methanesulfonate (MMS), hydroxyurea or benomyl, severe growth deficiencies appeared, pointing to an involvement of Swc4p in many chromatin-based processes. The mutants' phenotypes did not result from an impairment of histone acetylation, as in the mutant which bears the shortest isolated variant of truncated Swc4p, the level of overall H4 acetylation was unchanged.
Which protein mediates the replacement of H2A by H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
58a6db8660087bc10a00002c_022
{ "answer_start": [ 342 ], "text": [ "SWR1" ] }
The telomerase inhibitor imetelstat depletes cancer stem cells in breast and pancreatic cancer cell lines. Cancer stem cells (CSC) are rare drug-resistant cancer cell subsets proposed to be responsible for the maintenance and recurrence of cancer and metastasis. Telomerase is constitutively active in both bulk tumor cell and CSC populations but has only limited expression in normal tissues. Thus, inhibition of telomerase has been shown to be a viable approach in controlling cancer growth in nonclinical studies and is currently in phase II clinical trials. In this study, we investigated the effects of imetelstat (GRN163L), a potent telomerase inhibitor, on both the bulk cancer cells and putative CSCs. When breast and pancreatic cancer cell lines were treated with imetelstat in vitro, telomerase activity in the bulk tumor cells and CSC subpopulations were inhibited. Additionally, imetelstat treatment reduced the CSC fractions present in the breast and pancreatic cell lines. In vitro treatment with imetelstat, but not control oligonucleotides, also reduced the proliferation and self-renewal potential of MCF7 mammospheres and resulted in cell death after <4 weeks of treatment. In vitro treatment of PANC1 cells showed reduced tumor engraftment in nude mice, concomitant with a reduction in the CSC levels. Differences between telomerase activity expression levels or telomere length of CSCs and bulk tumor cells in these cell lines did not correlate with the increased sensitivity of CSCs to imetelstat, suggesting a mechanism of action independent of telomere shortening for the effects of imetelstat on the CSC subpopulations. Our results suggest that imetelstat-mediated depletion of CSCs may offer an alternative mechanism by which telomerase inhibition may be exploited for cancer therapy.
Which enzyme is inhibited by Imetelstat?
56c048acef6e39474100001c_021
{ "answer_start": [ 1751 ], "text": [ "telomerase" ] }
Clinical phenotype and endocrinological investigations in a patient with a mutation in the MCT8 thyroid hormone transporter. UNLABELLED: Thyroid hormones are known to be essential for growth, development, and metabolism. Recently, the monocarboxylate transporter 8 (MCT8) was identified as a thyroid hormone transporter, and MCT8 mutations have been associated with Allan-Herndon-Dudley syndrome, an X linked condition characterized by severe mental retardation, dysarthria, athetoid movements, muscle hypoplasia, and spastic paraplegia. Here we describe in detail the clinical and biochemical features and the response to thyroid hormone (L-thyroxine (LT4)) administration in a boy with an MCT8 mutation (c.1649delA) that truncates the protein in the twelfth transmembrane domain. It is of note that brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed delayed myelination from infancy. Endocrine functions other than thyroid hormone regulation and metabolism were intact, resulting in normal hypothalamic/pituitary function tests. While LT4 administration suppressed thyrotropin (TSH) secretion, no significant changes in thyroid hormone values or clinical symptoms were observed. CONCLUSION: the characteristic thyroid hormone function tests and brain MRI findings may allow screening of high-risk populations for a better understanding of MCT8 pathophysiology.
Which hormone concentrations are altered in patients with the Allan–Herndon–Dudley syndrome?
530f900ee3eabad021000003_016
{ "answer_start": [ 1209 ], "text": [ "thyroid" ] }
Universal, class-specific and drug-specific reversal agents for the new oral anticoagulants. Although there is controversy about the absolute need for a reversal agent for the new direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs), the absence of such an agent is a barrier to more widespread use of these agents. For the management of major life-threatening bleeding with the DOACs, most authorities recommend the use of four factor prothrombin complex concentrates, although the evidence to support their use in terms of improving outcomes is meager. At the present time, there are three antidotes in development and poised to enter the market. Idarucizumab is a drug-specific antidote targeted to reverse the direct thrombin inhibitor, dabigatran. Andexanet alfa is a class-specific antidote targeted to reverse the oral direct factor Xa inhibitors as well as the indirect inhibitor, enoxaparin. Ciraparantag is a universal antidote targeted to reverse the direct thrombin and factor Xa inhibitors as well as the indirect inhibitor, enoxaparin.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_002
{ "answer_start": [ 739 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
McLeod phenotype associated with a XK missense mutation without hematologic, neuromuscular, or cerebral involvement. BACKGROUND: The X-linked McLeod neuroacanthocytosis syndrome is a multisystem disorder with hematologic, neuromuscular, and central nervous system (CNS) manifestations. All carriers of the McLeod blood group phenotype examined so far had at least subclinical signs of systemic involvement. STUDY DESIGN AND METHODS: Evaluation of two brothers carrying the McLeod phenotype with neurologic examination, immunohematology, RBC membrane protein Western blotting, analysis of XK DNA sequence and RNA levels, muscle histology including XK/Kell immunohistochemistry, cerebral magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and quantified positron emission tomography (PET). RESULTS: Immunohematology and Western blotting confirmed presence of the McLeod blood group phenotype. No acanthocytosis or other hematologic anomalies were found. XK gene sequence analysis revealed a missense mutation in exon 3 (E327K). WBC XK RNA levels were not decreased. There were no neuromuscular and CNS signs or symptoms. In addition, no subclinical involvement was discovered on the basis of normal muscle histology with a physiologic pattern of XK and Kell immunohistochemistry, normal cerebral MRI, and quantified PET. CONCLUSION: Known disease-causing XK gene mutations comprised deletions, nonsense, or splice-site mutations predicting absent or truncated XK protein devoid of the Kell-protein binding site. Although the E327K missense mutation was associated with the immunohematologic characteristics of McLeod syndrome, the mutated XK protein seemed to be largely functional. These findings contribute to the understanding of the physiology of XK and Kell proteins, and the pathogenetic mechanisms of acanthocytosis, myopathy, and striatal neurodegeneration in McLeod syndrome.
Mutation of which gene is associated with McLeod syndrome?
531464a6e3eabad021000014_041
{ "answer_start": [ 1620 ], "text": [ "XK" ] }
The evolution of African great ape subtelomeric heterochromatin and the fusion of human chromosome 2. Chimpanzee and gorilla chromosomes differ from human chromosomes by the presence of large blocks of subterminal heterochromatin thought to be composed primarily of arrays of tandem satellite sequence. We explore their sequence composition and organization and show a complex organization composed of specific sets of segmental duplications that have hyperexpanded in concert with the formation of subterminal satellites. These regions are highly copy number polymorphic between and within species, and copy number differences involving hundreds of copies can be accurately estimated by assaying read-depth of next-generation sequencing data sets. Phylogenetic and comparative genomic analyses suggest that the structures have arisen largely independently in the two lineages with the exception of a few seed sequences present in the common ancestor of humans and African apes. We propose a model where an ancestral human-chimpanzee pericentric inversion and the ancestral chromosome 2 fusion both predisposed and protected the chimpanzee and human genomes, respectively, to the formation of subtelomeric heterochromatin. Our findings highlight the complex interplay between duplicated sequences and chromosomal rearrangements that rapidly alter the cytogenetic landscape in a short period of evolutionary time.
Which human chromosome is the product of fusion?
5ace238e0340b9f05800000d_002
{ "answer_start": [ 99 ], "text": [ "2" ] }
Evolution of the sex-related locus and genomic features shared in microsporidia and fungi. BACKGROUND: Microsporidia are obligate intracellular, eukaryotic pathogens that infect a wide range of animals from nematodes to humans, and in some cases, protists. The preponderance of evidence as to the origin of the microsporidia reveals a close relationship with the fungi, either within the kingdom or as a sister group to it. Recent phylogenetic studies and gene order analysis suggest that microsporidia share a particularly close evolutionary relationship with the zygomycetes. METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: Here we expanded this analysis and also examined a putative sex-locus for variability between microsporidian populations. Whole genome inspection reveals a unique syntenic gene pair (RPS9-RPL21) present in the vast majority of fungi and the microsporidians but not in other eukaryotic lineages. Two other unique gene fusions (glutamyl-prolyl tRNA synthetase and ubiquitin-ribosomal subunit S30) that are present in metazoans, choanoflagellates, and filasterean opisthokonts are unfused in the fungi and microsporidians. One locus previously found to be conserved in many microsporidian genomes is similar to the sex locus of zygomycetes in gene order and architecture. Both sex-related and sex loci harbor TPT, HMG, and RNA helicase genes forming a syntenic gene cluster. We sequenced and analyzed the sex-related locus in 11 different Encephalitozoon cuniculi isolates and the sibling species E. intestinalis (3 isolates) and E. hellem (1 isolate). There was no evidence for an idiomorphic sex-related locus in this Encephalitozoon species sample. According to sequence-based phylogenetic analyses, the TPT and RNA helicase genes flanking the HMG genes are paralogous rather than orthologous between zygomycetes and microsporidians. CONCLUSION/SIGNIFICANCE: The unique genomic hallmarks between microsporidia and fungi are independent of sequence based phylogenetic comparisons and further contribute to define the borders of the fungal kingdom and support the classification of microsporidia as unusual derived fungi. And the sex/sex-related loci appear to have been subject to frequent gene conversion and translocations in microsporidia and zygomycetes.
In which kingdom do microsporidia belong, according to their current classification scheme?
5547a01cf35db75526000005_015
{ "answer_start": [ 1924 ], "text": [ "fungi" ] }
The molecular genetics of Marfan syndrome and related microfibrillopathies. Mutations in the gene for fibrillin-1 (FBN1) have been shown to cause Marfan syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder of connective tissue characterised by pleiotropic manifestations involving primarily the ocular, skeletal, and cardiovascular systems. Fibrillin-1 is a major component of the 10-12 nm microfibrils, which are thought to play a role in tropoelastin deposition and elastic fibre formation in addition to possessing an anchoring function in some tissues. Fibrillin-1 mutations have also been found in patients who do not fulfil clinical criteria for the diagnosis of Marfan syndrome, but have related disorders of connective tissue, such as isolated ectopia lentis, familial aortic aneurysm, and Marfan-like skeletal abnormalities, so that Marfan syndrome may be regarded as one of a range of type 1 fibrillinopathies. There appear to be no particular hot spots since mutations are found throughout the entire fibrillin-1 gene. However, a clustering of mutations associated with the most severe form of Marfan syndrome, neonatal Marfan syndrome, has been noted in a region encompassing exons 24 to 32. The gene for fibrillin-2 (FBN2) is highly homologous to FBN1, and mutations in FBN2 have been shown to cause a phenotypically related disorder termed congenital contractural arachnodactyly. Since mutations in the fibrillin genes are likely to affect the global function of the microfibrils, the term microfibrillopathy may be the most appropriate to designate the spectrum of disease associated with dysfunction of these molecules. The understanding of the global and the molecular functions of the fibrillin containing microfibrils is still incomplete and, correspondingly, no comprehensive theory of the pathogenesis of Marfan syndrome has emerged to date. Many, but not all, fibrillin-1 gene mutations are expected to exert a dominant negative effect, whereby mutant fibrillin monomers impair the global function of the microfibrils. In this paper we review the molecular physiology and pathophysiology of Marfan syndrome and related microfibrillopathies.
Which gene mutations cause the Marfan syndrome?
58d8e6818acda3452900000a_055
{ "answer_start": [ 115 ], "text": [ "FBN1" ] }
Deciphering transcription dysregulation in FSH muscular dystrophy. DUX4, a homeobox-containing gene present in a tandem array, is implicated in facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD), a dominant autosomal disease. New findings about DUX4 have raised as many fundamental questions about the molecular pathology of this unique disease as they have answered. This review discusses recent studies addressing the question of whether there is extensive FSHD-related transcription dysregulation in adult-derived myoblasts and myotubes, the precursors for muscle repair. Two models for the role of DUX4 in FSHD are presented. One involves transient pathogenic expression of DUX4 in many cells in the muscle lineage before the myoblast stage resulting in a persistent, disease-related transcription profile ('Majority Rules'), which might be enhanced by subsequent oscillatory expression of DUX4. The other model emphasizes the toxic effects of inappropriate expression of DUX4 in only an extremely small percentage of FSHD myoblasts or myotube nuclei ('Minority Rules'). The currently favored Minority Rules model is not supported by recent studies of transcription dysregulation in FSHD myoblasts and myotubes. It also presents other difficulties, for example, explaining the expression of full-length DUX4 transcripts in FSHD fibroblasts. The Majority Rules model is the simpler explanation of findings about FSHD-associated gene expression and the DUX4-encoded homeodomain-type protein.
Which disease is associated with the ectopic expression of the protein encoded by the gene DUX4?
550f0e4c6a8cde6b72000003_035
{ "answer_start": [ 184 ], "text": [ "FSHD" ] }