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Whorf’s theory of linguistic relativity describes

['(A) the ways language influences thinking', '(B) the development of language from infancy', '(C) the development of bilingualism', '(D) the ways language influences intelligence', '(E) cultural influences on language']

(A) Whorf’s theory explores the ways language impacts thinking. According to linguistic relativity, the ways of thinking about a certain concept do not even come up unless there is some type of language to describe the concept.

Which concept is demonstrated by the expression “she slept like a

['(A) The linear relationship of thinking and language', '(B) The rigid relationship between thinking and language', '(C) The pattern of thinking and language', '(D) The interplay and adaptable relationship of thinking and language', '(E) None of the above']

(D) The expression “she slept like a log” is an example of figurative language. Figurative language is frequently used in American culture to convey ideas. The use of figurative language demonstrates the interplay between thinking and language because the language can conjure up mental images that are different than the literal representation of the language.

Which of the following is NOT one of the multiple intelligences in

['(A) Musical', '(B) Linguistic', '(C) Spatial', '(D) Historical', '(E) Logical-mathematical']

(D) Historical intelligence is not one of the multiple intelligences that Howard Gardner theorized about. In addition to musical, linguistic, spatial, and logical-mathematical, Gardner named interpersonal, intrapersonal, bodily kinesthetic, and naturalistic as individual intelligences. Gardner’s theory identifies types of intelligence with their own separate and individual capacities. This theory has been challenged.

Phillip has been diagnosed with pervasive developmental disorder

['(A) cognitive capacities', '(B) high IQ', '(C) savant syndrome', '(D) mental retardation', '(E) emotional intelligence']

(C) Savant syndrome is characterized by notable talent of an individual in one area, but marked lack of functioning in other areas, often due to the presence of a developmental disability. In this case, Phillip has a diagnosed developmental disability but has the very strong skill of knowing sports statistics.

All of the following are aspects of emotional intelligence EXCEPT

['(A) perceiving emotions of others', '(B) using emotions', '(C) understanding emotions', '(D) describing emotions', '(E) managing emotions']

(D) Describing emotions is not a factor in emotional intelligence. The ability to describe emotions may become a factor if the other factors of emotional intelligence exist, but it is not a factor in itself. The other choices are aspects of emotional intelligence.

Tacit knowledge contributes to which type of intelligence?

['(A) Emotional intelligence', '(B) Analytical intelligence', '(C) Practical intelligence', '(D) Creative intelligence', '(E) Fluid intelligence']

(C) Tacit knowledge involves skill building and how-to skills and is learned from acquiring daily experience. Tacit knowledge is not explicitly learned or taught. Therefore, practical intelligence depends on the tacit knowledge of an individual.

Verbal skills, cognitive skills, and reasoning make up which type

['(A) Practical intelligence', '(B) Analytical intelligence', '(C) Crystallized intelligence', '(D) Fluid intelligence', '(E) Emotional intelligence']

(C) Crystallized intelligence is comprised of verbal skills, cognitive skills, and reasoning. Crystallized intelligence influences fluid intelligence (D).

Included in _________________ is the ability to solve emerging

['(A) emotional intelligence', '(B) fluid intelligence', '(C) crystallized intelligence', '(D) analytical intelligence', '(E) emotional intelligence']

(B) Fluid intelligence is the ability to solve emerging issues and use spatial and visual imagery. This includes identifying and using new approaches to problems, as well as quick thinking.

Initial intelligence tests calculated the ratio of a child’s

['(A) mental age; chronological age', '(B) chronological age; mental age', '(C) mental age; test score', '(D) chronological age; test score', '(E) mental age; intelligence quotient']

(A) The ratio of mental age to chronological age (multiplied by 100) represents the first formula to measure intelligence quotient. Mental age was calculated by developmental place indicated by test scores. This formula was intended for use with children only.

Which type of mental ability is NOT measured on a Stanford-Binet IQ

['(A) Verbal reasoning', '(B) Abstract and visual reasoning', '(C) Quantitative reasoning', '(D) Long-term memory', '(E) Short-term memory']

(D) Long-term memory is not measured on a Stanford-Binet test. The other factors listed are measured in this type of IQ test. The Stanford-Binet test is only one of the IQ tests used today.

Which type of intelligence is typically measured by intelligence

['(A) Analytical intelligence', '(B) Practical intelligence', '(C) Multiple intelligences', '(D) Emotional intelligence', '(E) Creative intelligence']

(A) Analytical intelligence is typically measured by intelligence tests and is thought to be critical to academic success. The ability for reasoning and problem solving is called practical intelligence (B). The other answer choices represent other types or theories of intelligence.

Pauline noticed that her boss was quite upset. She could see and

['(A) multiple intelligences', '(B) emotional intelligence', '(C) tacit knowledge', '(D) analytical intelligence', '(E) practical intelligence']

(B) The skills Pauline used include perceiving, managing, using, and understanding emotions. All of these skills are components of emotional intelligence. The other choices refer to other types or theories of intelligence not described in the question.

When Henry is tired after work, he finds it difficult to think

['(A) Emotional intelligence', '(B) Crystallized intelligence', '(C) Fluid intelligence', '(D) Analytical intelligence', '(E) Practical intelligence']

(C) Fluid intelligence includes solving new and emerging issues as well as quick thinking, and it is impacted by fatigue in individuals.

Which two abilities do the Wechsler Adult Intelligence tests

['(A) Cognitive and spatial abilities', '(B) Intellectual and verbal abilities', '(C) Verbal and performance abilities', '(D) Verbal and mental abilities', '(E) Spatial and performance abilities']

(C) The Wechsler Adult Intelligence tests measure verbal and performance abilities. These tests also have additional subsets that measure additional skills (e.g., working memory) related to intelligence.

The fact that a boy’s intelligence test at age 5 yields very

['(A) content validity', '(B) criterion-related validity', '(C) predictive validity', '(D) split-half reliability', '(E) test-retest reliability']

(E) Test-retest reliability is the ability of a test to yield similar results each time it is taken. With intelligence tests, even if tests are taken with years in between, tests that are age appropriate yield similar results over time.

Which is NOT a limitation of intelligence tests?

['(A) Possible cultural bias', '(B) Self-fulfilling prophecy', '(C) Labeling', '(D) Genetic influence of intelligence', '(E) Small skill set measurement']

(D) The genetic influence of intelligence is not a limitation of the tests themselves. It is an important consideration in the area of intelligence. The other choices indicate known limitations of IQ tests.

Which factors that influence intelligence include access to

['(A) Genetic factors', '(B) Environmental factors', '(C) Hereditary factors', '(D) Cultural factors', '(E) Test-taking factors']

(B) Access to resources, nutrition, and intellectual stimulation are all environmental factors that influence intelligence. This is an important factor to consider when looking at poverty and intelligence data.

An individual with mental retardation shows deficiencies in which

['(A) Intelligence and problem-solving abilities', '(B) Adaptive functioning and self-care', '(C) Test-taking abilities and self-care', '(D) Intelligence and adaptive functioning', '(E) Adaptive functioning and practical intelligence']

(D) There are great differences in the abilities of individuals with mental retardation, but the qualities that indicate mental retardation include less-than-average intelligence and difficulties in adaptive functioning.

An individual with a very high IQ who also shows leadership and

['(A) an intelligent person', '(B) a gifted person', '(C) a savant', '(D) a genius', '(E) a prodigy']

(B) Gifted is the term used to describe an individual with above-average IQ who also shows leadership and creativity. Genius (D) is not a term used in psychology but rather in popular culture. Both savant (C) and prodigy (E) indicate extreme excellence in one area, and a savant typically has major deficits as well.

Which pair shows the highest correlation of IQ scores?

['(A) Siblings raised together', '(B) Fraternal twins raised apart', '(C) Fraternal twins raised together', '(D) Identical twins raised apart', '(E) Child raised with same-sex parent']

(D) Identical twins raised apart show very close correlations of IQ scores. Limitations to this research are that there are not too many cases of identical twins raised apart. Additionally, many times identical twins raised apart are raised in families of similar socioeconomic status. Regardless, this research finding indicates the importance of genetics in intelligence.

What factor likely influences the data in which men score higher on

['(A) Socioeconomic status', '(B) Cultural environment', '(C) Teacher qualities', '(D) Stereotypes', '(E) Nutrition']

(B) The cultural environment may overtly and/or covertly focus on skill building in the visual and spatial arenas for men, and men in the American culture are likely to engage in physical and spatially oriented careers. Generally, cultural environment is a critical factor to consider when looking at intelligence differences, as the environmental and genetic interplay in intelligence is repeatedly seen in the research.

Which statement about IQ tests indicates their predictive validity?

['(A) High scores on IQ tests correlate with workplace and school', '(B) High scores on IQ tests correlate with workplace and school success.', '(C) High scores on IQ tests in childhood predict high scores on IQ tests', '(D) High scores on IQ tests correlate with high scores on all tests.', '(E) High scores on one-half of an IQ test indicate high scores on the']

(B) Predictive validity refers to the ability of a test to measure what it’s intended to measure, and in this case is compared with an independent measure (workplace and school success). Choice (A) would indicate that IQ tests have little predictive validity. Choice (C) is an example of test-retest reliability, and choice (E) is an example of split-half reliability.

Which types of intelligence make up the triarchic theory of

['(A) Analytical, creative, and practical intelligences', '(B) Analytical, practical, and emotional intelligences', '(C) Creative, emotional, and practical intelligences', '(D) Crystallized, fluid, and analytical intelligences', '(E) Crystallized, fluid, and creative intelligences']

(A) The triarchic theory of intelligence includes analytical, creative, and practical intelligences. Analytical intelligence is the ability to solve problems and learn new things. Creative intelligence is the ability to adjust to new situations. Practical intelligence includes the ability to solve problems.

Toby has strong relationship skills and is aware of his feelings

['(A) Analytical intelligence', '(B) Emotional intelligence', '(C) Practical intelligence', '(D) Creative intelligence', '(E) Fluid intelligence']

(B) Toby displays all of the qualities of emotional intelligence. Awareness of one’s own emotions, the emotions of others, and the impact of emotions on one’s life is an important quality not measured by intelligence tests.

Verbal abilities and perceptual skills are measured on which type

['(A) Stanford-Binet IQ test', '(B) Binet test', '(C) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Third Edition test', '(D) Performance test', '(E) None of the above']

(C) The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale–Third Edition (WAIS-III) measures verbal abilities and perceptual skills. The Stanford-Binet intelligence test (A) measures some of the other qualities. Since performance tests (D) do not rely on language, they do not measure verbal abilities.

Which type of intelligence test does NOT rely on language skills?

['(A) Stanford-Binet IQ test', '(B) Group test', '(C) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Third Edition test', '(D) Performance test', '(E) Culture-fair test']

(D) Performance tests are intelligence tests that do not rely on language. They are sometimes used with preverbal children, individuals with mental retardation, or those without English-language skills. Culture-fair tests (E) attempt to limit culture bias but may still be written and rely on language skills.

An individual who can remember every word he or she has ever read

['(A) Giftedness', '(B) Emotional intelligence', '(C) Savant syndrome', '(D) Pervasive developmental disorder', '(E) Linguistic intelligence']

(C) The question describes an individual with savant syndrome. Savant syndrome is characterized by high performance in one particular arena but also lower than average intelligence (mental retardation).

A(n) ________________ is a need or desire that incites

['(A) feeling', '(B) drive', '(C) motive', '(D) behavior', '(E) emotion']

(C) A motive is a need or desire that incites goal-directed behavior. Feelings (A) and emotions (E) can influence or be influenced by behavior (D). A drive (B) is an internal state of arousal that is caused by internal bodily needs and can incite motivation.

Which term refers to the equilibrium, or balance, an individual

['(A) Motive', '(B) Drive', '(C) Homeostasis', '(D) Instinct', '(E) Thermoregulation']

(C) Homeostasis is the internal sense of balance that an individual seeks. The process of homeostasis can involve various internal processes. One effort toward achieving homeostasis is maintaining body temperature, or thermoregulation (E).

According to the drive-reduction theory, the drive to eat can come

['(A) an internal instinct', '(B) a state of tension caused by a change in homeostasis', '(C) a state of tension caused by innate drives', '(D) an attempt to reduce hunger', '(E) an attempt to achieve homeostasis']

(B) Drive-reduction theory states that drives arise from a change in homeostasis, and individuals seek to return to homeostasis through goal-oriented behaviors.

According to the arousal theory, what is the root of motivation?

['(A) To reduce arousal', '(B) To increase arousal', '(C) To reach optimum arousal', '(D) To track changes in arousal', '(E) To keep arousal at a steady baseline level']

(C) The root of motivation in arousal theory is to reach optimum arousal. The optimum level of arousal can change related to the moment. Different types of tasks appear to require different levels of arousal.

External stimuli that provoke behavior are called

['(A) drives', '(B) instincts', '(C) incentives', '(D) motives', '(E) feelings']

(C) Incentives are external stimuli that provoke behavior. The key word here is external, as many of the other choices indicate internal human processes. In the case of incentives, an individual is exposed to an outside experience that incites a behavior.

A salesman’s motivation to work more and sell more to make a bonus

['(A) drive', '(B) intrinsic motivation', '(C) extrinsic motivation', '(D) unconscious motivation', '(E) goal-directed motivation']

(C) Extrinsic motivation is one where behavior is induced due to an award or punishment structure. In this case the salesman is motivated because of the bonus award. Although purposely working more and selling more can be considered a goal-directed behavior, goal-directed motivation is not a term in the motivational theory.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to trigger the thirst drive?

['(A) Level of internal body fluids', '(B) Belief about the importance of fluids', '(C) Availability of a water fountain', '(D) Time of day', '(E) A commercial for spring water']

(D) Thirst can be triggered by both internal and external cues. External cues like walking by a water fountain (C) and seeing a commercial for water (E) provide direct links to thirst. Time of day is more likely an external cultural cue for hunger but not necessarily thirst.

Which is the only human motivation that is inherently social?

['(A) Hunger', '(B) Thirst', '(C) Sleep', '(D) Sex', '(E) Temperature regulation']

(D) Sex is considered the socially oriented human motivation. Although there are ways to achieve sexual orgasm through nonsocial ways (e.g., masturbation), the duality of sexual hormones, organs, and the motivation for mate choices indicate the social orientation of sex.

Which part of the body is NOT involved in regulating hunger and

['(A) Hypothalamus', '(B) Spinal cord', '(C) Liver', '(D) Stomach walls', '(E) Pituitary gland']

(E) The pituitary gland is located near the hypothalamus, one of the primary structures involved in regulating hunger, but it is not directly involved in regulating eating and hunger. There are many different physiological structures and qualities that influence hunger and eating.

Arousal theory is to _______________ as drive-reduction theory is

['(A) optimal arousal level; return to homeostasis', '(B) return to homeostasis; optimal arousal level', '(C) minimizing arousal; minimizing homeostasis', '(D) facilitating arousal; facilitating homeostasis', '(E) optimal arousal level; reduction of time in homeostasis']

(A) Arousal theory states that people are motivated by finding the optimal arousal level, whereas the drive-reduction theory states that people are motivated to reduce a drive and return to homeostasis. Both of these theories are theories of motivation.

In order to maximize performance, complicated tasks require

['(A) high arousal; low arousal', '(B) low arousal; high arousal', '(C) moderate arousal; high arousal', '(D) high arousal; high arousal', '(E) low arousal; low arousal']

(B) According to Yerkes-Dodson law, maximizing performance on complicated tasks requires lower arousal, while maximizing performance on simple tasks requires higher arousal levels.

Shane had no initial interest in trying a new neighborhood

['(A) motive', '(B) drive', '(C) feeling', '(D) instinct', '(E) incentive']

(E) An incentive is an external stimulus that prompts some sort of goal-directed behavior. In this case, the behavior is visiting the restaurant, and the stimulus is the advertisement. These factors make up an incentive.

Each morning four-year-old Chloe gets up and plays make-believe

['(A) Extrinsic motivation', '(B) Intrinsic motivation', '(C) Unconscious motivation', '(D) Drive-reduction motivation', '(E) Arousal-based motivation']

(B) Chloe is showing intrinsic motivation in this example. Intrinsic motivation originates internally, making the motivation for the behavior the behavior itself. In the case of Chloe playing, there are no external factors that drive the behavior.

Which of the following factors does NOT influence the motivation to

['(A) Cultural factors', '(B) Biological factors', '(C) Environmental factors', '(D) Secondary drive factors', '(E) Psychological factors']

(D) A secondary drive is a drive that is learned, whereas hunger is physiological and not learned, making it a primary drive. The other choices, cultural (A), biological (B), environmental (C), and psychological (E) factors do impact eating behaviors in individuals.

Which of the following is NOT a cultural influence on eating

['(A) The amount we eat', '(B) The times we eat', '(C) The body image ideal', '(D) Our memory of our last meal', '(E) The ritual around eating']

(D) Our memory, or lack of memory, of our last meal is related to our short-term, or possibly long-term, memory abilities. Those with short-term memory deficits may have difficulty remembering their last meal and, therefore, experience some misguided cues around if they are in fact hungry. This phenomenon is not influenced by culture, but the other choices are impacted by culture.

Which is a key difference in human sexual behavior versus sexual

['(A) Human sexual behavior is primarily biologically driven.', '(B) Human sexual behavior is heavily influenced by learning.', '(C) Human sexual behavior is driven by hormones.', '(D) Timing is critical in human sexual behavior.', '(E) Human sexual behavior is primarily automatic.']

(B) Unlike other organisms, much of human sexual behavior is learned. This is demonstrated by the fact that individuals continue to engage in sexual behavior after hormone levels or presence has changed. Choices (A) and (E) describe qualities of nonhuman sexual behavior, while choices (C) and (D) are present in human and nonhuman sexual behavior.

What is the correct order of the human sexual response cycle?

['(A) Resolution, excitement, plateau, orgasm', '(B) Excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution', '(C) Plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution', '(D) Excitement, orgasm, plateau, resolution', '(E) Plateau, orgasm, resolution, excitement']

(B) Excitement is the first phase of human sexual response, and it’s followed by the plateau phase with increasing arousal but at a slower pace. Orgasm follows the plateau phase, after which both males and females move to resolution, or return to previous heart rates and muscle relaxation.

All of the following is true about aggression in humans EXCEPT

['(A) aggression is externally triggered', '(B) aggression is learned', '(C) aggression is influenced by gender', '(D) aggression is influenced by intent', '(E) culture is not a factor in aggression']

(E) Culture is definitely a factor in aggression and the way aggressive behaviors are expressed in humans. Some argue that the exposure to violent media increases aggression. Cultural differences in aggressive behaviors exist regionally in the United States, by religious backgrounds, and in many other cultural contexts.

All of the following are types of human motivation EXCEPT

['(A) achievement', '(B) belonging', '(C) emotion', '(D) exploration', '(E) safety']

(C) Although motivations or behaviors may be driven by emotions, or in turn may influence emotions, emotions themselves are not motivations. The other choices do describe specific motivations frequently found in humans.

What is at the top of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

['(A) Self-actualization needs', '(B) Esteem needs', '(C) Belongingness needs', '(D) Safety needs', '(E) Physiological needs']

(A) Self-actualization is at the top of Maslow’s hierarchy and refers to a realization of potential in an individual. According to Maslow’s theory, an individual can only begin the process of reaching his or her own best potential after other needs in the hierarchy are met.

Natalie recently lost her job, and her home may be foreclosed. She

['(A) Physiological needs', '(B) Safety needs', '(C) Belongingness needs', '(D) Esteem needs', '(E) Self-actualization needs']

(B) Safety needs include shelter, health, and other basic needs above food and water. In this case, Natalie needs to fulfill her safety needs before moving up the hierarchy to belongingness needs.

All of the following contribute to the meaning of emotions EXCEPT

['(A) affective responses', '(B) the way we feel', '(C) physiology', '(D) intelligence', '(E) behavior']

(D) There are many different definitions of the word emotions. Emotions are affective responses. They are related to the way we feel and the influences on our behaviors and physiology of our feeling states. Intelligence is not a part of the definition of emotions, but level of emotional intelligence, or EQ score, may impact expression or handling of emotions.

Which of the following is NOT one of Plutchik’s basic emotions?

['(A) Fear', '(B) Sadness', '(C) Pain', '(D) Surprise', '(E) Anger']

(C) Pain is not one of Plutchik’s basic emotions. Pain may be related to sadness for some, but it can describe both physical and emotional pain.

Researchers found that the expression of emotion varied across

['(A) varying perception of emotions', '(B) display rules', '(C) biological predisposition', '(D) mood states', '(E) affective responses']

(B) Display rules dictate through cultural norms the way emotions are expressed. Display rules are also in play when people are encouraged to express certain emotions in particular social settings. Perception of emotions (A) has been shown as similar across cultures. Mood states (D) and affective responses (E) are related to emotions but not to display rules.

The James-Lange theory of emotion states that the experience of

['(A) experience of the physiological changes created by the stimuli', '(B) cognitive experience of the stimuli', '(C) physiological and neurobiological changes created by the stimuli', '(D) environmental clues created by the stimuli', '(E) neurobiological changes created by the stimuli']

(A) The James-Lange theory states that the experience of emotion is dictated by the experience of the physiological changes. It is the physiological changes and an individual’s awareness of those changes that prompt emotional responses.

According to the Cannon-Bard theory, which two factors are

['(A) Cognitive and emotional responses', '(B) Emotions and physiological responses', '(C) Physiological and cognitive responses', '(D) Physiological and environmental responses', '(E) Cognitive and neurobiological responses']

(B) The Cannon-Bard theory of emotions states that emotional and physiological changes are triggered simultaneously in response to environmental stimuli. This theory does not attempt to distinguish which response comes first, as there is a belief that emotions and physiological changes impact each other as soon as the stimuli is presented.

Social psychology is the study of how an individual’s thoughts,

['(A) beliefs about self', '(B) attributions about self', '(C) actions and qualities of others', '(D) behaviors of family members', '(E) attitudes of others']

(C) Social psychology is the study of how an individual’s thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are influenced by the actions and qualities of others. The actions and qualities of others may be real or inferred by the individual, but are nonetheless strong forces in the social universe.

The young man Carla is interviewing appears quite nervous, and

['(A) Attitudes', '(B) Behaviors', '(C) Cognitions', '(D) Attributions', '(E) Schemas']

(D) Attributions are inferences about why people behave in the way they do. In this case, Carla has made an inference or a judgment about why her interviewee is behaving nervously, maybe because he really wants the job or being on the spot in the interview process is not comfortable for him. Regardless of what the inference is about the behavior, that inference is called an attribution.

Although Paul has been kind and funny when they have interacted

['(A) Stereotyping', '(B) Primacy effect', '(C) Distinctiveness', '(D) Attribution', '(E) Cognitive dissonance']

(B) The primacy effect is the concept that early data about an individual can carry more influence than later data about the individual. This may influence the cultural emphasis in the United States on making good first impressions.

Schemata help humans form impressions by

['(A) evaluating relevant data', '(B) allowing for organization of information into categories and', '(C) prioritizing early information over later information', '(D) using a set of categories that is believed to be shared by members', '(E) answering questions about the causes of behaviors']

(B) Schemata allow for the organization of information into categories, and they influence how individuals interpret and remember information. Schemata include preconceived notions about the world and about individuals. Our schemata can be both conscious and subconscious and can have both positive and negative impacts on our thinking and perceptions.

Incorrect attribution of a behavior to personal qualities with lack

['(A) judgment error', '(B) fundamental attribution error', '(C) perception bias', '(D) just-world hypothesis', '(E) stereotyping']

(B) A fundamental attribution error involves incorrectly identifying the source of behavior as internally motivated or as a result of internal qualities without considering the possible external or situational qualities that could impact the situation.

A person’s relatively stable thoughts, feelings, and behaviors

['(A) belief', '(B) attitude', '(C) attribution', '(D) cognition', '(E) self-fulfilling prophecy']

(B) Thoughts, feelings, and behaviors toward someone, something, or another factor make up one’s attitude. Attitudes can trigger emotional responses and are sometimes guided by motivation.

A teacher’s belief that male students will do better on math tests

['(A) Just-world hypothesis', '(B) Defensive attribution', '(C) Prejudice', '(D) Stereotype', '(E) Self-fulfilling prophecy']

(E) A self-fulfilling prophecy is typically based on a stereotype (D) but is not a stereotype itself. A self-fulfilling prophecy is a person’s beliefs or expectations about another that increase the possibility that the expectations will occur. In other words, beliefs about behavior may elicit the expected behavior.

Julie was particularly upset when she lost her dog because she

['(A) Fundamental attribution error', '(B) Just-world hypothesis', '(C) Distinctiveness', '(D) Defensive attribution error', '(E) Cognitive dissonance']

(B) This is a just-world attribution error. A just-world attribution error is one based on the assumption that only bad things happen to bad people and only good things happen to good people. In this case, a bad thing happened to Julie. It was very difficult for her, as she had believed that as a good person only good things would happen to her.

A person who has had negative experiences with individuals from a

['(A) Stereotyping', '(B) Using attribution', '(C) Using the self-fulfilling prophecy', '(D) Forming a cognition', '(E) Forming an attitude']

(A) This is called stereotyping and is the result of schemas about certain groups. Stereotyping can result in judgments about other people. Stereotyping can cause problems for individuals as well as communities and the world at large.

Mr. Palmer believes strongly that his son Corey acts differently

['(A) An attribution', '(B) An attitude', '(C) A cognition', '(D) A prejudice', '(E) A schema']

(A) Mr. Palmer has made an inference about the “showing-off” behavior of his son Corey. An inference about the cause for behaviors is called an attribution.

What type of attribution error occurs when an individual attributes

['(A) Just-world hypothesis', '(B) Defensive attribution error', '(C) Fundamental attribution error', '(D) Cultural attribution error', '(E) Error in consensus']

(B) The question describes a defensive attribution error. Defensive attribution errors are those that attribute personal qualities and efforts to successes, while attributing social and external qualities to failures.

Which of the following is NOT known to be a factor in attraction?

['(A) Physical attractiveness', '(B) Similarity', '(C) Proximity', '(D) Trust', '(E) Equitable exchange']

(D) Trust is a factor in love and can be built up over time, but it is not a factor in initial attraction. Physical attractiveness (A) has been linked to attractiveness, as has physical proximity, including where people reside (C). Similarity (B) can be a factor in many arenas, including interests and values. Equitable exchanges (E) with the other play a factor in attractiveness.

When exploring attributions of people’s behaviors, it is critical

['(A) stereotypes', '(B) culture', '(C) attitudes', '(D) schemata', '(E) cognitions']

(B) Culture has a great influence on the way that people behave; therefore, it can play a large part in attribution. For example, people from different cultural backgrounds may have different beliefs about the role of family and the role of work, and may also have different social mores around family gatherings. All of these factors play a part in attribution.

Which example describes a fundamental attribution error?

['(A) Deciding that half of the subjects must be very smart due to test', '(B) Deciding that the test results are linked only to the amount of time', '(C) Deciding that half of the subjects may be very smart due to test', '(D) Deciding that half of the subjects were highly motivated to succeed', '(E) Deciding that half of the subjects were unmotivated to succeed on']

(A) Choice (A) describes a fundamental attribution error, which is attributing a certain behavior to internal qualities without considering the possible external circumstances surrounding the situation. The other choices describe errors but do not specifically describe a fundamental attribution error.

The tendency for early data about an individual to hold more weight

['(A) fundamental attribution error', '(B) primacy effect', '(C) just-world hypothesis', '(D) self-fulfilling prophecy', '(E) first impression error']

(B) The primacy effect describes the tendency to give more weight to first impression data rather than later data when forming impressions about people. Although it may be referred to causally as a first impression error (E), this is not a term used in psychology.

Schemata that put people of certain races, cultural backgrounds, or

['(A) prejudices', '(B) cognitions', '(C) stereotypes', '(D) beliefs', '(E) none of the above']

(C) Stereotypes are a result of negative schemata or categorizations of people in groups with negative connotations. Prejudices (A) result from stereotyping but refer to attitudes toward others rather than the categorizations and beliefs.

Cameron believed his skill allowed him to win the surf contest on

['(A) Fundamental attribution error', '(B) Just-world hypothesis', '(C) Defensive attribution error', '(D) Cognitive bias', '(E) Culturally biased attribution error']

(C) This example describes a defensive attribution error because Cameron attributes success to internal qualities and failure to external qualities. “Failure” is not earning first place, which for many is not considered failure. Regardless, the lack of self-ownership and the attribution of the results to solely external factors make this a defensive attribution error.

When an entire culture group was impacted by a natural disaster,

['(A) Fundamental attribution error', '(B) Just-world hypothesis', '(C) Culturally biased attribution error', '(D) Defensive attribution error', '(E) Judgment attribution error']

(B) The tendency to assume that bad things happen to bad people is called the just-world hypothesis. Although it may sound like it is a culturally biased attribution error (C), that is not a term used in the psychological literature, nor is it a judgment attribution error (E).

Sometimes an individual will group all individuals of a different

['(A) out-group homogeneity', '(B) in-group homogeneity', '(C) out-group heterogeneity', '(D) in-group heterogeneity', '(E) both-group homogeneity']

(A) This phenomena is called out-group homogeneity. The individual is not part of the group, thus it is an “out-group” rather than an “in-group.” The term homogeneity refers to the sameness of the group. A group may have some homogeneous qualities, for example, members of the same race, but individuals in this group do not necessarily share other similar qualities. Therefore, out-group homogeneity is a type of stereotyping.

The discomfort caused by an inconsistency or contradiction between

['(A) persuasion', '(B) cognitive dissonance', '(C) schemata', '(D) social influence', '(E) self-fulfilling prophecy']

(B) The discomfort caused by an inconsistency or contradiction between actions and attitudes is called cognitive dissonance. The desire in individuals to decrease cognitive dissonance is a form of self-persuasion.

Which of the following is NOT a direct factor in attitude

['(A) Learning', '(B) Family', '(C) Peers', '(D) Media', '(E) IQ scores']

(E) Scores on intelligence tests are not a direct factor in attitudes. The way an individual interprets his or her scores may be a factor of some sort, but the scores themselves are not a factor. The other choices are factors that can and do influence attitudes.

Using attitudes to predict behavior is challenging with individuals

['(A) low self-monitors', '(B) high self-monitors', '(C) low self-perception', '(D) high self-perception', '(E) vulnerability to persuasion']

(B) A high self-monitor is likely to act more on perceived expectations rather than his or her own attitudes, making behavior more difficult to predict. Low self-monitors (A), on the other hand, demonstrate and act on their attitudes more frequently, making behavior easier to predict.

A Caucasian individual who believes strongly that his or her

['(A) a self-fulfilling prophecy', '(B) out-group homogeneity', '(C) the frustration-aggression theory of prejudice', '(D) attitudinal change', '(E) cognitive dissonance']

(C) The frustration-aggression theory of prejudice states that one of the roots of prejudice is frustration in meeting personal goals that leads to anger or aggression toward a less powerful target. The target of this individual’s anger is affirmative action policies, which in turn has prejudicial implications. In reality, the job market, the economic outlook, and the person’s interviewing skills and workplace experience may all impact his or her ability to gain employment.

Which of the following is an example of a peripheral route to

['(A) An individual challenges his or her beliefs about a political', '(B) An individual is persuaded to vote for a certain candidate after a', '(C) An individual holds strongly to his or her beliefs about a candidate', '(D) An individual does careful Internet and library research to explore', '(E) An individual evaluates the reasons for choosing a candidate and']

(B) The peripheral route to persuasion is not rooted in a deep cognitive process but rather more superficial qualities. In this case, the attractiveness and charisma of the candidate persuades the voter. This type of persuasion is more common around issues that are of less importance or value to the individual.

Tina prides herself in living a healthy lifestyle and does so by

['(A) Conformity', '(B) Persuasion', '(C) Self-fulfilling prophecy', '(D) Self-perception theory', '(E) Cognitive dissonance']

(E) The discrepancy between her beliefs about health and her smoking habit cause a cognitive dissonance for Tina. This state is one that Tina could mitigate through persuading herself to change, by either changing her attitudes about health and lifestyle, or by changing her smoking behaviors.

According to the communication model of persuasion, which of the

['(A) Message', '(B) Source', '(C) Schema', '(D) Medium', '(E) Audience']

(C) Schema is not a function of persuasion in the communication model. That said, schema influences attitudes and likely influences how/if/when one changes one’s attitude. However, according to the communication model of persuasion, the message, source of the message, the way in which it’s delivered, and the characteristics of the audience all influence persuasion.

Which of the following is NOT a strategy to reduce prejudices?

['(A) Uncovering underlying prejudices through empirical studies', '(B) Increasing exposure between groups among people with equal status', '(C) Recategorizing cognitive schemata', '(D) Increasing one-on-one contact across groups', '(E) Maintaining mindfulness of differences']

(A) Although uncovering underlying prejudices through empirical studies may be a way of identifying unknown prejudices, it does not provide a specific way to reduce prejudices. The other choices are specific strategies toward reducing individual prejudices.

High self-monitors act on __________, while low self-monitors act

['(A) expectations; attitudes', '(B) attitudes; expectations', '(C) expectations; prejudices', '(D) prejudices; expectations', '(E) self-perception; attitudes']

(A) High self-monitors tend to attempt to assess the expectations of others and behave according to the perceived expectations. Low self-monitors tend to act according to their attitudes more consistently.

A series of acts based on prejudicial attitudes that limits access

['(A) stereotyping', '(B) prejudice', '(C) aggression', '(D) discrimination', '(E) perception']

(D) A series of acts that limits access to social capital and opportunities to groups or members of particular groups is considered discrimination. Discrimination is often based on prejudice (B) and stereotyping (A). Prejudice is the attitude; stereotype is the schema or believed characteristics of a certain group; discrimination is the action.

The tendency of individuals to answer questions differently in

['(A) obedience', '(B) truism', '(C) attitudes', '(D) cognitive dissonance', '(E) conformity']

(E) Conformity involves a change in behaviors, and sometimes attitudes, based on perceived social expectations. In this case, individuals may begin to question their own answers when they hear others’ answers. Or they do not want to stick out with a different answer, so they may choose answers closer to the majority rather than their own answers.

All of the following are forms of social influence EXCEPT

['(A) conformity', '(B) obedience', '(C) compliance', '(D) cognitive dissonance', '(E) group dynamics']

(D) Cognitive dissonance is not a specific type of social influence and is based on a disconnect between individual attitudes and behaviors. Social influences include conformity (A), obedience (B), compliance (C), and group dynamics (E).

Kristie’s good friend is bossy and intimidating, so Kristie finds

['(A) Cooperation', '(B) Obedience', '(C) Compliance', '(D) Conformity', '(E) Groupthink']

(B) The question describes a change in typical behavior for Kristie and is a response to a directive from someone else, making it an experience of obedience. The other choices are other types of social influences but are not obedience.

A fundraiser may ask for a very large donation with the expectation

['(A) that’s-not-all technique', '(B) ingratiation technique', '(C) foot-in-the-door technique', '(D) door-in-the-face technique', '(E) lowball procedure']

(D) The door-in-the-face technique involves expecting the initial request to be turned down in order to open the door for a more reasonable request. In this case, the technique is used in the hopes that the donor will comply with a request below the initial high request.

A lack of action by a large group of people when they see an

['(A) polarization effect', '(B) Hawthorne effect', '(C) bystander effect', '(D) social loafing', '(E) cultural effect']

(C) The bystander effect is in play when no one from a large group acts to provide help to an individual in distress. Generally, the larger the group is, the less likely it is that someone will provide help.

The track coach at Millers High has students run the 50-meter dash

['(A) Social inhibition', '(B) Social facilitation', '(C) Groupthink', '(D) Social loafing', '(E) Polarization']

(B) Social facilitation involves the tendency for individuals to perform better on tasks when in the presence of other people. In this case, although the coach is tracking individual times, instructing student athletes to run against each other in order to track the times likely increases their speed in the time trials.

Derek went with 10 of his friends to explore the damage caused by a

['(A) Social inhibition', '(B) Social loafing', '(C) Mere presence effect', '(D) Deindividuation', '(E) Polarization']

(D) It is likely that Derek had an experience of deindividuation, in which his personal responsibility was diminished and his anonymity was increased. This led Derek to behave in way that he would not have otherwise.

Conforming to group values and minimizing individual differences

['(A) deindividuation', '(B) social loafing', '(C) groupthink', '(D) group polarization', '(E) social facilitation']

(C) In situations with high group cohesiveness, a pattern of thinking known as groupthink can lead to flawed decision making. When this occurs, the group tends to agree on decision making but without attention to different arguments or points of view.

In an effort to come to agreement on the case, members of the jury

['(A) Group polarization', '(B) Groupthink', '(C) Social facilitation', '(D) Social inhibition', '(E) Deindividuation']

(A) Group polarization is characterized by a shift toward a more extreme stance after a group discussion. This can occur even if the discussion was intended to move the group toward alignment.

Students working on group projects who tend to do less work than

['(A) polarization', '(B) deindividuation', '(C) groupthink', '(D) social loafing', '(E) social inhibition']

(D) Social loafing is the phenomenon of group process that involves the tendency of individuals to produce less effort when part of a group. It appears that individual motivation and effort are impacted by participation in a group.

Milgram’s study involved students delivering progressively stronger

['(A) conformity', '(B) obedience', '(C) cultural norms', '(D) attitudes', '(E) cognitive dissonance']

(B) Milgram’s study was on obedience. Despite the distress of the students (“teachers” in the study) and the perceived distress of the “learners,” students continued to apply increased electric shocks as that was the instruction of the study leaders. The learners were in fact actors and were not truly receiving a shock, but the perception of the shocks was quite real. Results in the field of obedience from this study have had widespread implications on the field.

In which type of cultures is conformity likely to be higher?

['(A) Individualist cultures', '(B) Collectivist cultures', '(C) Small subcultures', '(D) Minority cultures', '(E) Homogenous cultures']

(B) Collectivist cultures are those that tend to place greater value on the good of the group than on the individual. Because of this value, conformity to social norms of the group is generally higher than in other types of cultures.

Which type of prosocial behavior includes helping without

['(A) Norm of reciprocity', '(B) Individualist viewpoint', '(C) Collectivist viewpoint', '(D) Bystander effect', '(E) Altruism']

(E) Altruism is a helping behavior without motivation toward self-gain or rewards. The focus of the helping from an altruistic point of view is the other. The expectation of altruistic behaviors varies across cultures.

As the number of individuals in a group _______________, the

['(A) decreases; decreases', '(B) increases; decreases', '(C) increases; increases', '(D) decreases; stays stable', '(E) none of the above']

(B) As the number of individuals in a group increases, the likelihood that an individual helps someone in distress decreases. This is called the bystander effect. This behavior may be linked to a decreased belief in responsibility or a belief that someone else will help the individual in distress.

Researchers must be aware that changes in productivity or behavior

['(A) Hawthorne effect', '(B) bystander effect', '(C) cultural effects', '(D) halo effect', '(E) polarization effect']

(A) The Hawthorne effect ascertains that the presence of researchers, or participants’ knowledge of their inclusion in the research, can impact productivity or behavior. This phenomenon is important in social psychology as it points out the strong impact of others’ presence related to outcomes.

An individual is stranded in her car on a busy highway, but not one

['(A) polarization effect', '(B) Hawthorne effect', '(C) bystander effect', '(D) conformity', '(E) cultural effects']

(C) The bystander effect is in play when no one from a large group acts to provide help to an individual in distress. Generally, the larger the group is, the less likely it is that someone will provide help. On a busy road, some may believe that with all of the passing cars another car will stop to help.

Which of these factors provides clues to the way someone is

['(A) What they say about their feelings', '(B) Facial expressions', '(C) Posture', '(D) Overt behaviors', '(E) All of the above']

(E) What people say about their feelings is only one part of the way feelings are expressed. Body language, including facial expressions and posture, can also provide valuable data. The way someone storms off or comes close to another provides information about how people are feeling.

Which two stages make up the prenatal period?

['(A) Embryonic stage; fetal stage', '(B) Fetal stage; uterine stage', '(C) Embryonic stage; prenatal stage', '(D) Fetal stage; prenatal stage', '(E) Prenatal stage; perinatal stage']

(A) The embryonic stage occurs after the zygote attaches to the uterine wall and continues until the fetal stage. The fetal stage occurs at approximately the ninth week until birth.