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Familial adenomatous polyposis is characterized by all except
A: Autosomal recessive transmission B: More than 100 polyps in colorectal area C: Polyps seen in duodenum D: Extra-intestinal manifestations are present
Answer: A
In Steiner's analysis, SNA demonstrates:
A: Position of mandible in relation to cranial base B: Position of maxilla in relation to cranial base C: Maxillo-mandibular relationship D: None of the above
Answer: B
. Sulphasalazine is NOT used for the treatment of-
A: Crohn's disease B: Rheumatoid ahritis C: Sarcoidosis D: Ulcerative colitis
Answer: C
Post traumatic stress disorder is differentiated from other anxiety disorders by which of the following symptoms?
A: Nightmares B: Re-living of past adverse event C: Hypervigilance D: Avoidance
Answer: B
Which muscle is responsible for unlocking of knee?
A: Popliteus B: Quadriceps femoris C: Semitendinosus D: Semimembranosus
Answer: A
Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia can occur when terfenadine(antihistaminic):
A: Is coadministrator with azithromycin B: Is coadministrator with fluconazole C: Is given in higher doses D: Reduces QT interval
Answer: C
Which component transfers four protons:
A: NADH-Q Oxidoreductase B: Cytochrome -C oxidase C: Cytochrome C - Q oxidoredictase D: Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
Answer: A
All of the following are true about Asthma, Except:
A: Charcol Leydin crystals may be seen in sputum B: Reversible Airflow obstruction is a characteristic feature C: Large airways are involved D: Small airways are not involved
Answer: D
In emergency, which aery can be safely ligated ?
A: Internal iliac B: Popliteal C: Renal aeryInternal carotid D: All
Answer: A
Late metabolic acidosis is seen in-
A: Term infant given formula feed B: Preterm baby getting cow milk C: Long term breast feeding D: None of the above
Answer: B
Chemotherapeutic drugs can cause?
A: Only necrosis B: Only apoptosis C: Both necrosis and apoptosis D: Anoikis
Answer: C
Which of the following nerve is involved in Frey's syndrome?
A: Trigeminal B: Mandibular C: Ariculo temporal D: Lingual
Answer: C
Opening of mouth is caused by:
A: Lateral pterygoid B: Medial pterygoid C: Temporalis D: Masseter
Answer: A
All are true about streptococcus Except
A: M-protein is responsible for production of mucoid colonies B: M-protein is responsible for virulence C: Mucoid colonies are virulent D: Classified based on their haemolytic propeies.
Answer: A
What is monitored in a patient of Pre eclamsia ?
A: Uric acid B: Platlet count C: LFT D: All of the above
Answer: D
In a young female of reproductive age an absolute contraindication for prescribing oral contraceptive pills is:
A: Diabetes B: Hypertension C: Obesity D: Impaired liver function
Answer: D
A tracheostomised patient, with poex tracheostomy tube, in the ward, developed sudden complete blockage of the tube. Which of the following is best next step in the management?
A: Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube B: Suction of tube with sodium bicarbonate C: Suction of tube with saline D: Jet ventilation
Answer: A
All of the following are well recognised predisposing factors for adult respiratory distress syndrome, except:
A: Multiple blood transfusions B: Septicemia C: Status asthmaticus D: Toxic gas inhalation
Answer: C
Gottron papules is seen in ?
A: Dermatomyositis B: Scleroderma C: Sarcoidosis D: Behcets syndrome
Answer: A
Which among the following is the BEST irrigating fluid during ECCE?
A: Ringer lactate B: Normal saline C: Balanced salt solution D: Balanced salt solution + glutathione
Answer: D
Acute Gouty ahritis is seen early in treatment following -
A: Probenecid B: Allopurinol C: Rasburicase D: All of the above
Answer: D
Chandler's index is associated with: September 2006
A: Round worm B: Hook worm C: Pin worm D: Tape worm
Answer: B
Heparin is the commonly used anticoagulant in cardiac surgery. All of the following are true about heparin except-
A: Weakest acid found in living things B: Most commercial preparations of heparin now utilize pig intestinal slimes C: Act via Antithrombin activation D: Produce thrombocytopenia
Answer: A
One of the following is the first enzyme to be released at the site of wound?
A: Aminopeptidase B: ATPase C: Acid phosphatase D: Alkaline phosphatase
Answer: B
Sign of diabetic ketoacidosis is-
A: Loss of sweating B: Depression C: Dehydration D: Absent deep tendon reflexes
Answer: C
Which of the following drug is used in scabies as single oral dose agent: March 2011
A: Permethrin B: Retinoids C: Ivermectin D: Co-trimoxazole
Answer: C
Most common complication after ERCP is
A: Acute Pancreatitis B: Acute cholangitis C: Acute cholecystitis D: Duodenal perforation
Answer: A
Progesterone production in the ovary is primarily by:
A: Stroma B: Corpora albicans C: Corpora lutea D: Mature follicles
Answer: C
Which of the following clinical situations is associated with an increase in predominantly conjugated ("direct") bilirubin?
A: Physiologic jaundice of the neonate B: Kernicterus Following Rhesus Incompatibility C: Gilbe's Syndrome D: Pancreatic head tumor
Answer: D
The use of kinematic face bow is contraindicated in the edentulous patients because
A: It has to be used on the mandibular ridge B: Recording base may be unstable on the edentulous mandible C: Movement of bases may lead to inaccuracy in recording hinge axis D: All of the above
Answer: D
Regarding carcinoma Gallbladder true statement
A: Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common B: Present with jaundice C: Good prognosis D: 65% survival after surgery
Answer: B
Which anaesthetic agent increases intracranial tension among the following
A: Thiopentone B: Propofol C: Lignocaine D: Sevoflurane
Answer: D
Granules of Eleidin are present in which of the following layer?
A: Stratum corneum B: Stratum lucidum C: Stratum spinosum D: Stratum basale
Answer: B
Which of the following drug is a long acting beta–2 agonist ?
A: Albuterol B: Salmeterol C: Pirbuterol D: Orciprenaline
Answer: B
Antidepressant drug used in nocturnal enuresis is:
A: Imipramine B: Fluoxetine C: Trazodone D: Seraline
Answer: A
Five days after an uneventful cholecystectomy, an asymptomatic middle-aged woman is found to have a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?
A: Administration of hypeonic saline solution B: Restriction of free water C: Plasma ultrafiltration D: Hemodialysis
Answer: B
Reversible cause of dementia is -
A: Alzheimer's disease B: Parkinsonism C: Hypothyroidism D: Vascular dementia
Answer: C
A obese female having hirsutism on laboratory investigation has high level of LH and androgens. Likely cause is-
A: PCOS B: Exogenous steroid ingestion C: Turner syndrome D: Kleinfelter syndrome
Answer: A
Which of the following is a feature of papillon lefevre syndrome?
A: destructive periodontitis B: palmar-plantar keratosis C: calcification of dura D: all the above
Answer: D
All are used in the management of head injury patient except?
A: Neuromuscular paralysis B: Nor-epinephrine C: Sedation D: Glucocoicoids
Answer: D
Not a premalignant condition: March 2005
A: Retinitis pigmentosa B: Crohn's disease C: Ulcerative colitis D: Leukoplakia
Answer: A
Which of the following is false about Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy
A: Due to major catecholamine discharge B: Lv Contractile dysfunction C: Presents with acute chest pain D: Echo never reverts back to normal
Answer: D
In rheumatic heart disease, infective endocarditis is detected by echocardiogram and the largest vegetations seen are due to-
A: Streptococcus viridans B: Staphylococcus aureus C: Candida albicans D: Salmonella typhi
Answer: C
Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) has an increased risk of all the following except
A: Endometrium B: Ovary C: Stomach D: Pancreas
Answer: D
Iodine RDA is -
A: 300 microgram B: 500 microgram C: 150 microgram D: 50microgram
Answer: C
Spanish windlass was practices in Spain as a method of execution. It is a type of:
A: Bansdola B: Mugging C: Garrotting D: Hanging
Answer: C
Dispropoionately increased blood urea levels compared to serum creatinine (urea creatinine ratio 20:1) can be seen in the following except -
A: Prerenal failure B: CCF C: Intrinsic renal failure D: Hypovolemia
Answer: C
For RNA, which blotting technique is used -
A: Western blot B: Northern blot C: Southernblod D: None
Answer: B
Which bacteria acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?
A: Pseudomonas B: Staphylococcus C: Streptococcus D: Klebsiella
Answer: A
Panthothenic acid is coenzyme of which of the following reaction (s):
A: Dehydrogenation B: Oxidation C: Decarboxylation D: Acetylation
Answer: D
Delusion that someone from high socio economic status is loving you is in -
A: Othello syndrome B: Capgras syndrome C: De clerambault syndrome D: Franklin syndrome
Answer: C
Oesophageal motility disorder are best diagnosed by?
A: Barium studies B: Endoscopy C: 24 hour pH monitoring D: Manometry
Answer: B
Quinine given to a patient of falciparum malaria caused sweating and palpitation, the likely cause is?
A: Cinchonism B: Hyperglycemia C: Hypoglycemia D: Hypokalemia
Answer: C
Good pasture's syndrome is characterized by all of the following, except:
A: Glomerulonephritis B: Leucocytoclastic Vasculitis C: Diffuse alveolar haemorrhage D: Presence of antibodies to Basement Membrane
Answer: B
Main source of energy derived from
A: Fat B: Glycogen C: Lactate D: Ketone
Answer: B
Reverse Coarctation is seen in
A: Giant cell arteritis B: Takayasu arteritis C: Polyarteritis nodosa D: Microscopic polyangitis
Answer: B
Measures involved in sentinel surveillance includes all of the following except.
A: Identifying missing cases in notification of diseases B: Identifying new cases of infection C: Identifying old and new cases D: Identifying cases free of disability
Answer: D
Which of the following drug crosses placenta
A: Heparin B: Warfarin C: Dicumarol D: Nicoumalone
Answer: B
Vocal cord palsy is not associated with -
A: Vertebral secondaries B: Left atrial enlargement C: Bronchogenic carcinoma D: secondaries in mediastinum
Answer: A
Thymic hypoplsia is seen in which of the following
A: Wiskott Aldrich syndrome B: Digeorge syndrome C: IgA deficiency D: Agammaglobulinamia
Answer: D
Rett's syndrome occurs due to deficiency of ?
A: Niacin B: Biotin C: Carotene D: Vit D
Answer: B
The Triat in which the parents are clinically normal and only siblings are affected but males and females are affected in equal propoions is:
A: AD B: AR C: XLD D: XLR
Answer: B
Vitamin K is ivolved in the posttranslational modification?
A: Glutamate B: Aspartate C: Leucine D: Lysine
Answer: A
True about primary peritonitis
A: Mostly monobacterial B: It is chemical peritonitis proceeds secondary peritonitis C: Needs peritoneal lavage D: Occurs with Cirrhosis of liver
Answer: D
Osgood Schlatter disease is associated with osteochondritis of
A: Patella B: Femur medial condyle C: Tibial tubercle D: Femur lateral condyle
Answer: C
Datura seeds resemble -
A: Ricinus communis B: Capsicum C: Opium D: None
Answer: B
Measles is infective for:
A: One day before and 4 days after rash B: Four days before and five days after rash C: Entire incubation period D: Only during scabs falling
Answer: B
True about Caspases is?
A: Involved in apoptosis B: Cause necrosis C: Involved in pain pathway D: Are cytokines inhibitor
Answer: A
Metachromatic granules are stained by?
A: Ponder's stain B: Negative stain C: Gram's stain D: Leishman stain
Answer: A
Finger print bureau was first established in the following country:
A: India B: England C: USA D: France
Answer: A
Which of the following drug acts against Pseudomonas -
A: Piperacillin B: Methicillin C: Nafcillin D: Cloxacillin
Answer: A
Cicatrial Alopecia is seen in:
A: Tenia Capitis B: Psoriasis C: DLE D: Alopecia Aereta
Answer: C
According to Spetzler-Main criteria, how much score is given for a 5 cm nidus with AV malformation?
A: 3 B: 4 C: 2 D: 5
Answer: C
Which of these following statements is wrong about Tacrolimus?
A: It is one of the macrolide antibiotic B: It can be safely administered with any nephrotoxic drug C: Glucose intolerance is a well known side effect D: It is used as prophylaxis for transplant rejection
Answer: B
Macrosomia is a
A: Large size baby B: Big mouth C: Large head D: Large tongue
Answer: A
Which one of the following device conves radioactive emissions to light for detection?
A: Geiger counter B: Photographic film C: Scintillation counter D: Radiotracer
Answer: C
Enterobius commonly inhabit the: September 2011
A: Duodenum B: Jejunum C: Ileum D: Caecum
Answer: D
Which of the following results in increase in secretion of ADH?
A: Hypervolemia B: Hypeension C: Hypovolemia D: Decrease osmolarity
Answer: C
Urine osmolality in Diabetes insipidus is
A: <150 mmol/L B: <300 mmol/L C: <600 mmol/L D: <900 mmol/L
Answer: A
1-a hydroxylation in Vitamin-D metabolism takes place in
A: Skin B: Liver C: Kidney D: Blood
Answer: C
Magaldrate is conveed by gastric acid to ?
A: Magnesium hydroxide B: Magnesium hydroxide and calcium carbonate C: Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide D: Calcium carbonate and aluminium hydroxide
Answer: C
Which of the following nerves are affected after spinal anaesthetic block –
A: Motor and sensory only B: Sensory and autonomic nerve only C: Sensory nerves only D: Sensory, autonomic and motor nerves
Answer: D
Drug of choice for Treponema Pallidum is?
A: Penicillin G B: Tetracycline C: Azithromycin D: Doxycycline
Answer: A
If hemoglobin status of a population with mean value is 10.3 gm % with SD 2 gm%, then 5% population will be below what value of Hb?
A: 6.67 B: 7.35 C: 9 D: 8.6
Answer: B
Inclusion body conjunctivitis true is all except:
A: Self limiting B: Present only in infants C: Occurs while passage from bih canal D: Caused by chlamydia
Answer: B
A 55 year old man, a chronic smoker is brought to emergency with history of polyuria, polydipsia, nausea and altered sensorium for last two days. He had been diagnosed as having squamous cell carcinoma of lung two months prior to this. On examination, he was lethargic and confused. An ECG was normal except for a narrowed QT interval. Which one of the following is the most likely metabolic abnormality ?
A: Hypematremia B: Hypercalcemia C: Hypokalemia D: Hyponatremia
Answer: B
EBV causes all EXCEPT:
A: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma B: Burkitt s lymphoma C: Verrucous lymphoma D: Hodgkin's lymphoma
Answer: C
All of the following are required more during lactation as compared to pregnancy, except ?
A: Iron B: Vitamin A C: Niacin D: Energy
Answer: A
Not a B cell marker -
A: CD 19 B: CD 20 C: CD 134 D: CD 10
Answer: C
Actinomycosis is commonly seen in -
A: Tibia B: Mandible C: Scapula D: Femur
Answer: B
In sebaceous glands, accumulation of sebum leads to:
A: Milia B: Acne C: Epidermoid cyst D: Miliaria
Answer: B
A young girl presents with abdominal pain and a recent change in bowel habit, with passage of mucus in stool. There is no associated blood in stool and symptoms are increased with stress. The most likely diagnosis is-
A: Irritable bowel syndrome B: Ulcerative colitis C: Crohn's disease D: Amebiasis
Answer: A
Length of umbilical cord is?
A: 40-50 cms B: 60- 120 cms C: 30-100 cms D: 25-40 cms
Answer: C
Vinyl chloride has been implicated in -
A: Angiosarcoma of liver B: Angiofibroma of nose C: Hepatomas D: Bladder cancer
Answer: A
Vitamin B12 intrinsic factor absorption occurs in
A: Duodenum B: Ileum C: Jejunum D: Colon
Answer: B
Splenunculi are commonly seen in
A: Hilum of spleen B: Tail of spleen C: Mesocolon D: Splenic ligaments
Answer: A
Causative agent of Favus is:
A: Tinea schoenleinii B: Tinea rubrum C: Malassezia furfur D: Epidermophyton floccosum
Answer: A
Zona Pellucida disappears by:-
A: Before ferilisation B: During feilization C: 5th day after feilization D: 7th day after feilization
Answer: C
Storage form of thyroid hormone-
A: Tri-iodo tyrosine B: Tri - iodo thyronine C: Thyroglobulin D: Di-iodo tyrosine
Answer: C
Congenital hepatic fibrosis is a characteristic feature of
A: Multicystic renal dysplasia B: ARPKD C: Familial juvenile nephronophthisis D: Medullary sponge kidney
Answer: B