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Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most likely to be associated with partial anodontia?
A: erythema multiformae B: hereditary ectodermal dysplasia C: keratosis follicularits D: lichen Onus
Answer: B
Early neonatal sepsis occurs within (hours) -
A: 8 B: 12 C: 36 D: 72
Answer: D
Cylindrical dilatation of renal tubules is seen in -
A: Polycystic disease of kidney B: Medullary cystic disease C: Wilms tumour D: Lipoid nephrosis
Answer: A
All the following are features of Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia except
A: Eosinophilia>3000/mm3 B: Microfilaria in blood C: Paroxysmal cough and wheeze D: Bilateral chest mottling and increased bronchivascular markings
Answer: B
Feilization occurs in which pa of the fallopian tube
A: Ampulla B: Isthmus C: Interstitial D: Infundibular
Answer: A
Naturally occurring LA –
A: Cocaine B: Lidocaine C: Bupivacaine D: Tetracaine
Answer: A
The dangerous paicle size causing pneumoconiosis varies from ?
A: 100-150 m B: 50-100 m C: 10-50 m D: 1-5 m
Answer: D
An 6 cm simple ovarian cyst was identified in late pregnancy, what would be the best management ?:
A: Emergency laparotomy B: Removal after after 6 weeks of puerperium C: Removal early in the puerperium D: Conservative as most tumors would subside
Answer: C
Periodontal pack is least successful in the management of?
A: Splinting B: Antimicrobial Properties C: Hemostasis D: Pain elimination
Answer: D
Neovascularisation is seen in
A: Central vein obstruction B: Central retinal aery obstruction C: Branch retinal vein obstruction D: All of the above.
Answer: A
A person present with cribriform plate fracture with CSF rhinorrhea. What will be immediate treatment?
A: Frequent blowing of nose B: Plugging of nose with paraffin C: Craniotomy D: Antibiotics with wait for 7 days
Answer: D
Which of the following structures is least likely to be damaged during mandibular 3rd molar extraction
A: Lingual artery B: Lingual nerve C: Inferior alveolar nerve D: Inferior alveolar artery
Answer: A
A 60 yr old female with I-1/0 8 blood transfusion in 2 years. Her Hb- 60g/L, TLC-5800, platelet-3.4 lakhs, MCV 60, RBC-2.1 lakhs/mm3. He is having hypochromic microcytic anemia. Which investigation is not needed aEUR'
A: Evaluation for pulmonary hemosiderosis B: Urinary hemosiderin C: Bone marrow examination D: G I endoscopy
Answer: A
Nitrates are not used in -
A: CCF B: Esophageal spasm C: Renal colic D: Cyanide poisoning
Answer: C
Natural uncoupler is-
A: Thermogenin B: 2, 4-dinitrocresol C: 2, 4 Dinitrophenol D: Oligomycin
Answer: A
All of the following statements about hairy cell leukemia are true except:
A: Splenomegaly is conspicuous B: Results from an expansion of neoplastic T-lymphocytes C: Cells are positive for Taarate Resistant Acid phosphatase D: The cells express CD25 consistently
Answer: B
A decrease in which of the following parameters will shift the O2 dissociation curve to the right?
A: pH B: Paial pressure of CO2 C: 2,3 DPG concentration D: Temperature
Answer: A
Kussumauls breathing
A: Metabolic alkalosis B: Respiratory alkalosis C: Respiratory acidosis D: Metabolic acidosis
Answer: D
Dislocation of lens is seen in:
A: Trachoma B: Diabetes mellitus C: Homocystinuria D: Turner's syndrome
Answer: C
Which of the following is not a prodrug-
A: Enalapril B: Oxcarbazepine C: Chloral hydrate D: Diazepam
Answer: D
Cause of "bloody" vomitus in a neonate
A: Meckel's diveiculum B: Intussusception C: Malrotation D: Cholecystitis
Answer: A
Lancinating pain around the tonsils during eating is indicative of
A: Trigeminal neuralgia B: Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C: Facial neuralgia D: None of the above
Answer: B
Bird of Prey" sign is seen in the radiographic barium examination of:
A: Gastric volvulus B: Intussusception C: Sigmoid volvulus D: Caeca! volvulus
Answer: C
A 30-year-old woman sustained a traumatic blow to her right breast. Initially, there was a 3-cm contusion beneath the skin that resolved within 3 weeks, but she then felt a firm, painless lump that persisted below the site of the bruise 1 month later. What is the most likely diagnosis for this lump?
A: Abscess B: Fat necrosis C: Fibroadenoma D: Inflammatory carcinoma
Answer: B
The basis of Korotkoff sound is
A: Aoic valve closure B: Production of hea sound C: Aerial turbulence D: Aerial valve expansion
Answer: C
Aganglionic segment is encountered in which part of colon in case of Hirchsprung's disease -
A: Distal to dilated segment B: In whole colon C: Proximal to dilated segment D: In dilated segment
Answer: A
Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynecomastia except-
A: Testosterone B: Prolactin C: Estradiol D: Luteinising hormone
Answer: B
Light requirement in watch manufacturing company is -
A: 2000-3000 Lux B: 5000-10000 Lux C: 10000-20000 Lux D: 50000 Lux
Answer: A
Drug with membrane stabilizing activity is?
A: Nadolol B: Atenolol C: Carvedilol D: Oxprenolol
Answer: D
Which of the following statement is/are true of all paramyxoviruses -a) They contain a single standed RNA genome of negative polarityb) Envelope is derived from the host cells plasma membranec) They have a cytoplasmic site of replicationd) They enter the body by the respiratory route
A: acd B: abcd C: abc D: ab
Answer: B
Venous congestion of liver affects ?
A: Midzone B: Perihepatic zone C: Centrilobular zone D: All the above
Answer: C
In alcohol withdrawal which is not seen -
A: Seizure B: Blackout C: Coarse tremor D: Hallucination
Answer: B
Pitting of nails is seen in – a) Lichen planusb) Psoriasisc) Pemphigusd) Arsenic poisoning
A: ab B: a C: ad D: bc
Answer: A
A triphasic withdrawal syndrome follows an abrupt discontinuation of ______ use.
A: Alcohol B: LSD C: Heroin D: Cocaine
Answer: D
Lamivudine is given when?
A: HBeAg positive B: HBeAg negative C: ALT >_ 2 ULN D: Viral DNA> 10(square) copies
Answer: C
In PML, all of the following are seen except :
A: Retinoic acid is used in treatment B: 15/17 translocation C: CD 15/34 both seen in same cell D: Associated with DIVC
Answer: C
All the following are true of Paget disease Except
A: It affects elderly individuals B: It may be monostotic or polyostotic C: There is an imbalance between osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity D: Deformed long bones result from coical bone thinning
Answer: D
True about keratoconus are all of the following except: September 2005
A: Can be seen in Down's syndrome B: It manifests just after bih C: Munson sign is characteristic D: Corneal transplantation is needed in severe cases
Answer: B
Vaccines prepared by embryonated hen's egg are:
A: Measles B: Rabies C: Rubella D: Varicella
Answer: B
How does the distal nephron differ functionally from the proximal tubule?
A: The distal nephron has a more negative intraluminal potential than the proximal tubule. B: The distal nephron is less responsive to aldosterone than the proximal tubule. C: The distal nephron is more permeable to hydrogen ion than the proximal tubule. D: The distal nephron secretes more hydrogen ion than the proximal tubule does.
Answer: A
Which is the commonest abdominal mass in neonate -
A: Wilm's tumor B: Polycystic kidney C: Neuroblastoma D: Rhabdomyosarcoma
Answer: C
Mode Is:
A: Arthimetic average of the values B: Most frequently occurring observations C: Middle observation when arranged in ascending or descending order D: Adding all values and then dividing by number of values
Answer: B
A patient gets tingling when his bed light is flashed suddenly. Which type of hallucination is this :
A: Hypnagogic hallucinations B: Hypnopompic hallucinations C: Reflex hallucinations D: Functional hallucinations
Answer: C
Which of the following amino acids is most responsible for the buffering capacity of hemoglobin and other proteins?
A: Arginine B: Aspaic acid C: Glutamic acid D: Histidine
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT associated with elevation Right hemi-diaphragm:
A: Amebic abscess B: Pyogenic abscess C: Cholecystitis D: Sub diaphragmatic abscess
Answer: C
All of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of a patient with acute bronchial asthma except
A: Ipratropium B: Salbutamol C: Montelukast D: Hydrocortisone
Answer: C
Mydriasis is/are caused by:
A: Homer syndrome B: Neurosyphilis C: Organophosphorus poisoning D: Atropine
Answer: D
Which of the following techniques use piezoelectric crystals -
A: Ultrasonography B: X-ray diffraction C: NMR imaging D: Xeroradiography
Answer: A
A patient with hypeension is also having aoic dissection. Anti-hypeensive agent of choice is: September 2008
A: Sodium nitroprusside B: Reserpine C: Pindolol D: Nifedipine
Answer: A
The parietal peritoneum covering the inferior surface of the diaphragm transits its sensory information via the phrenic nerve. In the case of peritonitis in the parietal peritoneum on the inferior surface of the diaphragm, pain may be referred through which of the following nerves?
A: A B: B C: C D: D
Answer: D
Operation of choice in GERD is
A: Highly selective vagotomy B: Fundoplication C: Hellers myotomy D: Gastrectomy
Answer: B
Non immunized susceptible diphtheria contacts should receive:
A: Erythromycin B: Penicillin and diphtheria antitoxin C: Penicillin, diphtheria antitoxin and DPT vaccine D: No treatment is required
Answer: C
In emergency tracheostomy following structures are damaged except:
A: Isthmus of thyroid B: Inferior thyoid vein C: Inferior thyroid aery D: Thyroid ima
Answer: C
Intrinsic factor is required for absorption of ?
A: Folic acid B: Vitamin B12 C: Vitamin B D: Vitamin B2
Answer: B
After a normal prenatal period, a lady developed sudden HTN and bleeding from all places. Diagnosis is:
A: DIC B: Aplastic anemia C: ITP D: APLA
Answer: A
Which of the following is the best test to diagnose bleeding in DIC?
A: Increased PT B: Increased aPTT C: Decreased fibrinogen D: Increased fibrin degradation products
Answer: D
Chlorhexidine as a root canal irrigant is
A: Active against gram +ve , gram –ve bacterias and to some extent Virus with lipid envelop. B: Normally used at 2% conc C: A poly biguinide D: All of the above
Answer: D
Inferior border of scapula lies at the level of which rib?
A: 5th B: 6th C: 7th D: 8th
Answer: C
Most common complication of acute pancreatitis is -
A: Pancreatic abscess B: Pseudocyst C: Phlegmon D: Pleural effusion
Answer: B
Marble bone disease, characterized by increase in bone density is due to mutation in the gene encoding:
A: Carbonic Anhydrase I B: Carbonic Anhydrase II C: Carbonic Anhydrase III D: Carbonic Anhydrase IV
Answer: B
Cidex is
A: Gluteraldehyde B: Alcohol C: A phenolic compound D: A caustic agent
Answer: A
Hemorrhagic fever is caused by -
A: West-Mile fever B: Sandfly fever C: Ebola virus D: All of the above
Answer: C
Initial stage of clinical union of bone is equivalent to
A: Callus formation with woven bone B: Woven bone Formation C: Haematoma formation D: Calcification formation only
Answer: A
A two-year-old child presents with persistent diarrhea, acidic stools and presence of one percent of reducing substance in the fresh stools. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A: Cystic fibrosis B: Lactose intolerance C: Rotavirus induced diarrhea D: Intestinal tuberculosis
Answer: B
Drug of choice for mycoplasma pneumonia is
A: Penicillin B: Tetracycline C: Cefuroxime D: Erythromycin
Answer: D
A 6 year old female patient complains of pain due to a decayed lower right 2nd molar. During the treatment, patient becomes uncooperative and throws a tantrum. The dentist then asks the mother to step out of the operatory, after which the child begins to cooperate. The example demonstrated by the dentist falls under which type of conditioning, as described by Skinner?
A: Positive reinforcement B: Negative reinforcement C: Omission D: Punishment
Answer: C
Desks provided with table top to prevent neck problems in an example of
A: Primordial prevention B: Secondary prevention C: Specific protection D: Disability limitation
Answer: C
Glutamine synthetase is a -
A: Isomerase B: Ligase C: Lyase D: Transferase
Answer: B
Which of the following is not an accepted method of randomization-
A: Computer drawn randomization B: Odd/even day hospital admission C: Lottery D: Random number table
Answer: B
A 23 year old profession footballer sufferd a twisting injury to his right ankle. On examination there is a lot of swelling around the medial malleolus but xray doesn't show any fracture. The structure injured could be -
A: Deltoid Ligament B: Anterior talofibular ligament C: Spring ligament D: Tendo Achilles
Answer: A
Von Willebrand&;s factor is synthesized in which one of the following -
A: Vascular endothelium B: Macrophages C: Liver D: Eosinophils
Answer: A
Persistence of Moro's reflex is abnormal beyond the age of –
A: 3rd month B: 4th month C: 5th month D: 6th month
Answer: D
Which of the following statements regarding live vaccines is false
A: Two live vaccines cannot be administered simultaneously B: Booster doses are not required when live vaccines are administered C: Single dose gives lfe long immunity D: Live vaccine contains both major and minor antigens
Answer: A
All are alkylating agents, except ?
A: 5-FU B: Melphalan C: Cyclophosphamide D: Chlorambucil
Answer: A
True about VSD are all except -
A: Left to right shunt B: Pansystolic mormor C: Reverse spitting of S2 D: Left atrial hyperophy
Answer: C
The most common causative organism for external otitis in adults is:
A: Streptococcus viridans B: Staphylococcus epidermidis C: Pseudomonas aeruginosa D: E. coli
Answer: C
Insulin is secreted along with the following molecule in a 1: 1 ratio:
A: Pancreatic polypeptide B: Glucagon C: GLP-1 D: C- peptide
Answer: D
A 20 year old boy c/o hearing of voices, aggressive behavior since 2 days. He has fever since 2 days. When asked to his family, they says that he has been muttering to self and gesticulating. There is no h/o of psychiatric illness. Likely diagnosis is
A: Dementia B: Acute psychosis C: Delirium D: Delusional disorder
Answer: B
The most impoant prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is
A: Histological grade of the tumor B: Stage of the tumor at the time of diagnosis C: Status of estrogen and progesterone receptors D: Over expression of p-53 tumour suppressor gene
Answer: B
Which of the following is associated with > 20% risk of chromosomal anomalies?
A: Omphalocele B: Gastroschisis C: Cleft lip D: Spina bifida
Answer: A
Features of SLE include all of the following except -
A: Recurent abortion B: Sterility C: Coomb's positive hemolytic anemia D: Psychosis
Answer: B
Multiple myeloma most common part involved is-
A: Bone marrow B: Cortex of bone C: Metaphyses D: Epiphyses
Answer: A
All are the causes of neovascular glaucoma except:
A: Intraocular tumour B: Central retinal vein occlusion C: Diabetic retinopathy D: Central serous retinopathy
Answer: D
False about Corona viruses?
A: Corona viruses are non-enveloped B: Spreads by coughing and sneezing C: Most of them infect animals and birds D: Human infection is rare
Answer: A
Copper sulfate poisoning manifests with
A: High anion gap acidosis B: Rhabdomyolysis C: Acute hemolysis D: Peripheral neuropathy
Answer: C
Which of the following enzyme is associated with the conversion of androgen to oestrogen in a growing ovarian follicle is:
A: Aromatase B: 5 alpha reductase C: Desmolase D: Isomerase
Answer: A
All of the following may occur in Noonan syndrome except:
A: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B: Cryptorchidism C: Infertility in females D: Autosomal dominant transmission
Answer: C
Gas gangrene is caused by all except
A: Cl. Histolyticum B: Cl. novyi C: Cl. septicum D: Cl. Sporogenes
Answer: D
60 yrs old, air in biliary tree, colicky abdominal pain hyper-peristaltic abdominal sounds diagnosis -
A: Gall stone ileus B: Hemobilia C: Cholangitis D: Pneumobilia
Answer: A
The term applied when it is doubtful whether there will be space for all the teeth in mixed dentition analysis is:
A: Space maintenance B: Space regaining C: Space supervision D: None of the above
Answer: C
Absence seizures are seen in:
A: Grand mal epilepsy B: Myoclonic epilepsy C: Petitmal epilepsy D: Hyperkinetic child
Answer: C
Which of the following enzymes contain manganese as its cofactor?
A: LDH B: Arginase C: Hexokinase D: DNA polymerase
Answer: B
Ergometrine is not used for initiation of labour because -
A: Show onset of action B: Fetal hypoxia C: Increases blood pressure D: Act on D2 receptors to cause vomiting
Answer: B
A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain described as retrosternal chest pressure radiating to the jaw. The symptoms started at rest and coming and going, but never lasting more than 15 minutes. He has a prior history of hypertension and smokes 1 pack/day. He is currently chest-pain free and on physical examination the blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg, pulse 88/min, and O2 saturation 98%. The heart and lung examination is normal.His ECG shows ST-segment depression in leads V1 to V4 that is new, and the first set of cardiac enzymes is negative. He is diagnosed with unstable angina pectoris, admitted to a monitored unit, and started on low molecular weight heparin, aspirin, nitroglycerin, and beta- adrenergic blockers. He continues to have ongoing chest pain symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A: IV streptokinase B: coronary angiography C: exercise testing D: oral aspirin
Answer: B
Which of the following manifestations is not a clinical manifestation of parvovirus infection?
A: Erythema infectiosum B: Polyarthropathy C: Pure Red Cell aplasia D: Tropical sprue
Answer: D
Which one of the following statements about the gap junction is true?
A: It extends as a zone around the apical perimeter of adjacent cells. B: It possesses dense plaques composed in pa of desmoplakins. C: It permits the passage of ions from one cell to an adjacent cell. D: Its adhesion is dependent upon calcium ions.
Answer: C
The muscle responsible for falsetto voice of puber phonia is
A: Vocalis B: Thyroarytenoid C: Posterior cricoarytenoid D: Cricothyroid
Answer: D
The virus, which spreads by both hermatogenous and neural route is -
A: Rabies virus B: Varicella zoster virus C: Poliovirus D: E.B. Virus
Answer: C
The esophagus crosses the diaphragm at the level of:
A: T8 B: T9 C: T10 D: T11
Answer: C
Constriction of the afferent aeriole to the kidney glomerulus results in:
A: Reduction of glomerular filtration rate and decreased urinary output B: Increased urine output C: Increased glomerular filtration rate and no change in urine output. D: Decreased urine output
Answer: A