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The specific name of the anomaly shown in the following radiograph is:
A: Dens in dente B: Dilated odontome C: Dens invaginatus D: Ghost tooth
Answer: B
An upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion involving cranial nerve VII would most likely produce
A: Contralateral weakness of the lower half of the face with sparing of the upper half of the face B: Decreased gag (pharyngeal) reflex with decreased taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue C: Hemianesthesia of the face with flaccid paralysis of the muscles of mastication D: Ipsilateral anosmia with primary amenorrhea in females
Answer: A
Dry skin seen due to excess dosage of datura is due to
A: Vasodilatation B: Absence of sweating C: Central action D: Change in BMR
Answer: B
Perception of uterine contraction is known as:
A: Chadwik sign B: Goodell sign C: Palmer sign D: Hegar sign
Answer: C
The most common site of puerperal infection is:
A: Placental site B: Cervical laceration C: Episiotomy wound D: Vaginal laceration
Answer: A
Maximum urease +ve is produced by -
A: H. pylori B: P. mirabilis C: K. rhinomatis D: Ureaplasma
Answer: A
Gas causing global warming but is not a greenhouse gas?
A: CO2 B: SO2 C: CFC D: Ozone
Answer: B
Lahsal classification is used for:
A: Cleft lip and palate B: Tumor staging C: Neurological assessment of trauma patient D: None of the above
Answer: A
Features of vernal keratoconjunctivitis are – a) Papillary hypertrophyb) Follicular hypertrophyc) Herbert's pitsd) Tantra\'s Spote) Ciliary congestion
A: b B: c C: ac D: ad
Answer: D
Dawn phenomenon refers to: March 2013
A: Early morning hyperglycemia B: Early morning hypoglycemia C: Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia D: High insulin levels
Answer: A
Women with PCOS and Hirsutism, management is :
A: Ethinyl estradiol B: Ethinyl estradiol + Cyproterone Acetate C: Levonorgestrel D: Ethinyl estradiol + Levonorgestrel
Answer: B
Gaucher's disease is inherited as?
A: Autosomal recessive B: Autosomal dominant C: X-linked recessive D: X-linked dominant
Answer: A
Gamma Rays Are used in which Diagnostic Modality ?
A: Fluoroscopy B: CT Scan C: MRI D: Bone scan
Answer: D
Fomepizole acts as antidote for -
A: Methanol poisoning B: Cannabis poisoning C: Lead poisoning D: Cadmium Poisoning
Answer: A
Lymphoid tissues reach their maximum size:
A: In early childhood B: During adolescence C: At pubey D: At 20 years of age
Answer: C
Incubation period of gonorrhoea is -
A: Less than 24 hrs B: 1 to 2 days C: 2 to 15 days D: 12 to 25 days
Answer: C
Which of the following are causes for cholecystitis wxcept?
A: Estrogen B: OCP C: Diabetes mellitus D: Obesity
Answer: C
If the maxillary right second molar is treated successfully the distal furcation involvement can best be kept plaque free by using:
A: Dental Floss B: Perio aid C: Stimudent D: Rubber tip stimulator
Answer: B
NADPH actions in RBC are a/e
A: Produce ATP B: Stabilizes the membrane C: Reductive biosynthesis D: GP6D deficiency causes decreased synthesis of NADPH
Answer: A
Which is called nerve of Wrisberg
A: Motor root of facial nerve B: Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve C: Sensory root of facial nerve D: Greater auricular nerve
Answer: C
A patient repoed with a history of fall on an outstretched hand, complains of pain in the anatomical snuffbox and clinically no deformities visible. The diagnosis is:
A: Colles' fracture B: Lunate dislocation C: Baon's fracture D: Scaphoid fracture
Answer: D
High spinal anaesthesia is characterized by:
A: Hypertension, tachycardia B: Hypertension, bradycardia C: Hypotension, tachycardia D: Hypotension, bradycardia
Answer: D
Iron absorption is inhibited by all except:
A: Vitamin C B: Phytates C: Caffeine D: Milk
Answer: A
Most common nerve involved in supracondylar fracture of humerus is:
A: Radial nerve B: Ulnar nerve C: Median nerve D: Anterior interosseus Nerve
Answer: D
Fistula formation due to the below etiology occurs within
A: 24 hours B: 48 hours C: 5 days D: 2 weeks
Answer: C
Botulism is a disease of ?
A: Neural transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum B: Muscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum C: Neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum D: Non neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum
Answer: C
Retinoscopy is done for:
A: Examination of Retina B: Assessing surface of cornea C: Refractive errors D: Examination of vitreous
Answer: C
The commonest location for the carcinoid tumor is which of the following?
A: Small intestine B: Bronchus C: Appendix D: Stomach
Answer: A
Persistent and inappropriate repetition of response beyond the point of relevance is called
A: Thought insertion B: Thought block C: Perseveration D: Neologism
Answer: C
The common etiology of periodontitis is
A: Occlusal trauma B: Systemic factors C: Local irritating factors D: Hormonal defects
Answer: C
If the prevalene is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease, it implies -
A: Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable B: Disease is nonfatal C: Calculation of prevalence and incidence is wrong D: Nothing can be said, as they are independent
Answer: A
Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?
A: Genetic disorder B: Alcohol C: Smoking D: Chemical exposure
Answer: B
Stroma of cornea is developed from
A: Neural ectoderm B: Surface ectoderm C: Mesoderm D: Neural crest
Answer: C
Distribution of functional renal tissue is seen by –
A: DMSA B: DTPA C: MAG3 – Tc99 D: 1123 iodocholesterol
Answer: A
Coical representation of body in the cerebrum is
A: Horizontal B: Veical C: Tandem D: Oblique
Answer: B
Most common site of histiocytosis is -
A: Bone B: Skin C: Lung D: Liver
Answer: A
Tick born relapsing fever is/are caused by -
A: Borrelia recurrentis B: Borrelia duttonii C: Borrlia burgdorferi D: All
Answer: B
Spatial relationship of every atom in a molecule is known as:
A: Conformation B: Configuration C: Both of the above D: None of the above
Answer: A
Q fever is caused by -
A: Pseudomonas B: Francisella C: Coxiella burnetii D: Rickettsia typhi
Answer: C
Mac Callum plaques in rheumatic hea disease are
A: Left atrium B: Left ventricle C: Right atrium D: Right ventricle
Answer: A
Same amino acid is coded by multiple codons d/t following :
A: Degeneracy B: Frame-shift mutation C: Transcription D: Mutation
Answer: A
Features of histocytosis are all except -
A: Antigen processing cells B: CD1a marker present C: CD127 marker D: Osteolytic lesions
Answer: C
SAFE strategy use in
A: Inclusion conjunctivitis B: Ophthalmia neonatorum C: Trachoma D: Haemorrhagic conjunctivitis
Answer: C
In carcinoma cheek what is the best drug for single drug chemotherapy
A: Cyclophosphamide B: Vincristine C: Danorubicin D: Cisplatin
Answer: D
Zinc phosphide is -
A: Rodenticide B: Insecticide C: Larvicide D: All
Answer: A
In Pediatric advanced life support, intraosseous access for drug/fluid administration is recommended for pediatric age of –
A: < 1 year age B: < 5 years age C: < 6 years age D: Any age
Answer: C
The content of base pair A in the DNA is 15%, what could be the amount of G in DNA according to Chargaff's base pair rule?
A: 15% B: 85% C: 35% D: 70%
Answer: C
Most common type of breast carcinoma is: September 2010
A: Lobular B: Sarcoma C: Ductal D: Granuloma
Answer: C
The braggs peak is found in:
A: Proton beam B: Microwave C: UV Rays D: Infrared
Answer: A
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid:
A: Wide test B: Eleks test C: Mantoux test D: Wasserman test
Answer: A
A 43-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of peritonitis in the right lower quadrant. The clinical impression and supportive data suggest acute appendicitis. At exploration, however, a tumor is found; frozen section suggests carcinoid features. For each tumor described, choose the most appropriate surgical procedure. A 2. 5-cm tumor at the base of the appendix (SELECT 1 PROCEDURE)
A: Appendectomy B: Segmental ileal resection C: Cecectomy D: Right hemicolectomy
Answer: D
Gillette's space is:
A: Retropharyngeal space B: Peritonsillar space C: Parapharyngeal space D: None
Answer: A
Demography deals with all except-
A: Mortality B: Fertility C: Morbidity D: Marriage
Answer: C
Disulfiram-like reaction is caused by: Kerala 11
A: Acamprostate B: Metronidazole C: Tetracycline D: Digitalis
Answer: B
CVS change in pregnancy -
A: Slight right axis deviation in ECG B: Slight left axis deviation in ECG C: Diastolic murmur D: Pulse rate is decreased
Answer: B
Most cases of paraneoplastic syndrome are associated with which type of lung carcinoma?
A: Small Cell Ca B: Bronchogenic Ca C: Bronchoalveolar Ca D: Adeno Ca
Answer: A
A 7-year-old boy has severe microcytic anemia due to beta-thalassemia major (homozygous). He requires frequent blood transfusions (once every 6 weeks) to prevent the skeletal and developmental complications of thalassemia. Which of the following medications is also indicated in the treatment of patients requiring frequent blood transfusions?
A: oral calcium supplements B: fresh frozen plasma (FFP) C: desferrioxamine D: penicillamine
Answer: C
Botulinum toxin is used for the treatment of: DNB 08
A: Blepharospasm B: Risus sardonicus C: Strabismus D: All
Answer: D
The most common mechanical failure for metal-ceramic restorations is
A: Debonding of the porcelain from the metal. B: Shrinkage of the porcelain at mouth temperature. C: Debonding of the PFM from the tooth. D: None of the above
Answer: A
HHH syndrome is due to defect in ?
A: Tryptophan metabolism B: Histidine transpoer C: Branched chain AA metabolism D: Ornithine transpoer
Answer: D
Main action of superior rectus -
A: Extorsion B: Intorsion C: Elevation D: Depression
Answer: C
The major regulator of platelet production is the hormone thrombopoietin (THPO), which is produced by
A: Kidneys B: Liver C: Liver and kidneys D: Spleen and lymph nodes
Answer: C
Ovicidal drug for scabies is –
A: BHC B: DDT C: HHC D: Permethrin
Answer: D
Not characteristic feature of granuloma ?
A: Chronic inflammatory infiltrate B: Epitheloid cell C: Giant cell D: PMN's with fibrinoid necrosis with cellular infiltrates
Answer: D
Highest cholesterol content is seen in -
A: LDL B: VLDL C: Chylomicrons D: IDL
Answer: A
A 70 year old male chronic smoker is diagnosed of having cancer of the urinary bladder. It is confined to the trigone and extention is upto the submucosa. The management would be -
A: Complete Transurethral resction B: Complete Transurethral resection with intravesical chemotherapy C: Palliative Radiotherapy D: Radical Cystectomy
Answer: B
True about leimyosarcoma breast
A: Axillary lymph mode dissection is mandatory B: Well encapsulated C: Follow up not required D: Mastectomy is mainstay treatment
Answer: B
Which of the following is not a component of APACHE score
A: Serum potassium B: Serum calcium C: Serum sodium D: Creatinine
Answer: B
False about Immunoglobulins is
A: Y shaped heterodimer composed of four polypeptide chains B: All four H and L chains are bound to each by disulfide bonds C: Antibody contains two types of light chain and one type of heavy chain D: There are 5 classes of H chains and two classes of light chains
Answer: C
What is the pathology of edema in nephrotic syndrome
A: Reduced plasma protein B: Sodium and water retention C: Increased venous pressure D: Hyperlipidemia
Answer: B
The median of values 2, 5, 7, 10, 10, 13, 25 -
A: 10 B: 13 C: 25 D: 5
Answer: A
What percentage of Lente Insulin is amorphous?
A: 70% B: 30% C: 50% D: 90%
Answer: B
A 30-year-old women presents a history of amenorrhoea and impaired vision of six month's duration. Physical examination shows everything except for pale optic discs and diminished visual acuity. The most likely diagnosis is -
A: Pituitary adenoma B: Craniopharyngioma C: Hypothalamic glioma D: Benign intracranial hypertension
Answer: A
Lobar pneumonia is caused predominantly by:
A: Klebsiella pneumoniae B: Staphylococcus pyogenes C: Haemophilus influenzae D: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer: D
Caudate lobe of liver is ?
A: I B: III C: IV D: VI
Answer: B
Nucleosomes are
A: DNA+RNA B: DNA+Histones C: RNA+Histones D: DNA+RNA+Histones
Answer: B
Bilirubin is the degradation product of -
A: Albumin B: Globulin C: Heme D: Transferrin
Answer: C
Which is not Glucogenic ?
A: Arginine B: Histidine C: Glycine D: Lysine
Answer: D
Linear enamel caries is called as:
A: Odontoclasia. B: Occult caries C: Fluoride bomb D: None of the above
Answer: A
A 3-day-old newborn was born with ectopia cordis. Despite the efforts of doctors at the pediatric intensive care unit the infant died from cardiac failure and hypoxemia. Which of the following embryologic events is most likely responsible for the development of such conditions?
A: Faulty development of the sternum and pericardium, secondary to incomplete fusion of the lateral folds B: Interruption of third pharyngeal arch development C: Interruption of fourth pharyngeal arch development D: Interruption of fifth pharyngeal arch development
Answer: A
All of the following predominantly involve the white matter EXCEPT?
A: Alexander disease B: Canavan disease C: Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis D: Adrenoleukodystrophy
Answer: C
What is not true regarding venous ulcer?
A: It is managed by stripping superficial saphenous venous system B: It may be associated with Klippel Trenaunay syndrome C: It is found in elderly males D: Biopsy is required for long standing ulcer
Answer: C
All are the features of rheumatoid ahitis except?
A: Osteosclerosis of joint B: Soft tissue swelling C: Narrowing of joint space D: Periaicular osteoporosis
Answer: A
The number of deaths prevented as a result of paicular health programme is best evaluated by:
A: Cost accounting B: Cost benefit analysis C: Cost effective analysis D: None of the above
Answer: C
Diagnostic criterion for infective endocarditis includes all EXCEPT:
A: Rheumatoid factor B: ESR C: Positive blood culture D: Positive ECG
Answer: B
True about celiac disease -a) Villous atrophyb) Crypt hyperplasiac) Infiltration of lymphocytesd) Cryptitise) Superficial layer thinning
A: ab B: abc C: acd D: bcd
Answer: B
Longest acting L.A
A: Bupivacaine B: Tetracaine C: Xylocaine D: Procaine
Answer: B
When is the World No Tobacco Day celebrated?
A: 1st May B: 31st May C: 1st August D: 31st August
Answer: B
Antemortem and postmortem wounds could be differentiated by all, except -
A: Everted margins B: Blood clots in surrounding C: Swollen edges D: Sharp edges
Answer: D
The normal range of total serum bilirubin is:
A: 0.2-1.2 mg/100 ml B: 1.5-1.8 mg/100 ml C: 2.0-4.0 mg/100 ml D: Above 7.0 mg/100 ml
Answer: A
The structure that integrates impulses for eye-hand coordination is:
A: Superior colliculus B: Frontal eye field C: Pretectal nucleus D: Area 17
Answer: A
Autopsy of a specimen shows pale infarction. Pale infarct is seen in all of the following organs, EXCEPT:
A: Hea B: Spleen C: Lung D: Kidney
Answer: C
Accumulation of homogentisic acid causes?
A: Ochronosis B: Tyrosinemia C: Albinism D: Tyrosinosis
Answer: A
All of the following are anti-Pseudomonal drugs except:-
A: Piperacillin B: Cefoperazone C: Ceftazidime D: Cefadroxil
Answer: D
Oronasal intubation is not indicated in?
A: Lefort 1 # B: Lefort 2 and 3 # C: Parietal bone # D: Mandibular #
Answer: B
Which of the following is a characteristic radiological finding in neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis –
A: Gas in the portal system B: Gas in the intestinal wall C: Pneumoperitonium D: Air fluid levels
Answer: B
All of the following drugs can be administered in acute hypeension during labour,except
A: IV Labetalol B: IV Nitroprusside C: IV Hydralazine D: IV Esmolol
Answer: B
Most common type of TAPVC -
A: Supracardiac B: Cardiac C: Infracardiac D: Mixed
Answer: A
All of the following benzodiazepines can be used in the elderly and those with liver disease EXCEPT:
A: Lorazepam B: Oxazepam C: Triazolam D: Diazepam
Answer: D
Barr body is seen in :
A: Turners syndrome B: Klinefelters syndromeTesticular feminisation C: Tesiicular leminisation syndrome D: 46 XY
Answer: B