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what level does tympole evolve at
[ "TYMPOLE EVOLVES AT LEVEL 25. Yeeahh,third video today.Back to action with Pokemon!Feels great,actually. I´m not going to say I like this guy very much,but it`s final evolution is BADASS.Wrestler frog thingie FTW. But seriously,Tympole was easy to train,so it´s a nice Pokemon. 1 Gaming. 2 Standard YouTube License." ]
[ "pthinger18- Pidgeotto evolves into Pidgeot at level 36. ;D. level 36.", "Tyrogue This pre-evolution of the Hitmon family automatically evolves when it reaches Level 20 -- but there is a catch. Tyrogue is actually able to evolve into either one of the following three: Hitmonlee, Hitmonchan and the new Hitmontop." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is complementary protein nutrition
[ "* Complementary proteins are two or more incomplete protein sources, which together provide adequate amounts of all essential amino acids and adequate total protein. It is true that many vegetable sources of protein are not complete, and need to be complemented by other protein sources. A complete protein provides all essential amino acids and sufficient total protein. * An incomplete protein is either low in one or more essential amino acids, or low in total protein. There are eight essential amino acids, and several semi-essential amino acids. But I’ll simply it for you." ]
[ "Total parenteral nutrition (TPN). A solution containing all the required nutrients including protein, fat, calories, vitamins, and minerals, is injected over the course of several hours, into a vein. TPN provides a complete and balanced source of nutrients for patients who cannot consume a normal diet.", "Main article: Protein (nutrient). A complete protein (or whole protein) is a source of protein that contains an adequate proportion of all nine of the essential amino acids necessary for the dietary needs of humans or other animals.ain article: Protein (nutrient). A complete protein (or whole protein) is a source of protein that contains an adequate proportion of all nine of the essential amino acids necessary for the dietary needs of humans or other animals." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
how do you know what genes are affected by salt stress in the grapevine
[ "Salinity is ubiquitous abiotic stress factor limiting viticulture productivity worldwide. However, the grapevine is vulnerable to salt stress, which severely affects growth and development of the vine. Hence, it is crucial to delve into the salt resistance mechanism and screen out salt-resistance prediction marker genes; we implicated RNA-sequence (RNA-seq) technology to compare the grapevine transcriptome profile to salt stress. Results showed 2472 differentially-expressed genes (DEGs) in total in salt-responsive grapevine leaves, including 1067 up-regulated and 1405 down-regulated DEGs. Gene Ontology (GO) and Kyoto Encyclopedia of Genes and Genomes (KEGG) annotations suggested that many DEGs were involved in various defense-related biological pathways, including ROS scavenging, ion transportation, heat shock proteins (HSPs), pathogenesis-related proteins (PRs) and hormone signaling. Furthermore, many DEGs were encoded transcription factors (TFs) and essential regulatory proteins involved in signal transduction by regulating the salt resistance-related genes in grapevine. The antioxidant enzyme analysis showed that salt stress significantly affected the superoxide dismutase (SOD), peroxidase (POD), catalase (CAT) and glutathione S-transferase (GST) activities in grapevine leaves. Moreover, the uptake and distribution of sodium (Na⁺), potassium (K⁺) and chlorine (Cl-) in source and sink tissues of grapevine was significantly affected by salt stress. Finally, the qRT-PCR analysis of DE validated the data and findings were significantly consistent with RNA-seq data, which further assisted in the selection of salt stress-responsive candidate genes in grapevine. This study contributes in new perspicacity into the underlying molecular mechanism of grapevine salt stress-tolerance at the transcriptome level and explore new approaches to applying the gene information in genetic engineering and breeding purposes." ]
[ "Plant basic-leucine zipper (bZIP) transcription factors play important roles in many biological processes and are involved in the regulation of salt stress tolerance. Previously, our lab generated digital gene expression profiling (DGEP) data to identify differentially expressed genes in a salt-tolerant genotype of Glycine soja (STGoGS) and a salt-sensitive genotype of Glycine max (SSGoGM). This DGEP data revealed that the expression (log2 ratio) of GmbZIP110 was up-regulated 2.76-fold and 3.38-fold in SSGoGM and STGoGS, respectively. In the present study, the salt inducible gene GmbZIP110 was cloned and characterized through phylogenetic analysis, subcellular localization and in silico transcript abundance analysis in different tissues. The functional role of this gene in salt tolerance was studied through transactivation analysis, DNA binding ability, expression in soybean composite seedlings and transgenic Arabidopsis, and the effect of GmbZIP110 on the expression of stress-related genes in transgenic Arabidopsis was investigated. We found that GmbZIP110 could bind to the ACGT motif, impact the expression of many stress-related genes and the accumulation of proline, Na(+) and K(+), and enhanced the salt tolerance of composite seedlings and transgenic Arabidopsis. Integrating all these results, we propose that GmbZIP110 plays a critical role in the response to salinity stress in soybean and has high potential usefulness in crop improvement.", "Salt stress is one of the major abiotic stresses in agriculture worldwide that causes crop failure by interfering with the profile of gene expression and cell metabolism. Transcription factors and RNA-directed DNA methylation (RdDM) play an important role in the regulation of gene activation under abiotic stress in plants. This work characterized AtMYB74, a member of the R2R3-MYB gene family, which is transcriptionally regulated mainly by RdDM as a response in salt stress in Arabidopsis. Bisulphite sequencing indicated that 24-nt siRNAs target a region approximately 500bp upstream of the transcription initiation site of AtMYB74, which is heavily methylated. Levels of DNA methylation in this region were significantly reduced in wild type plants under salt stress, whereas no changes were found in RdDM mutants. Northern blot and quantitative real-time reverse transcription PCR analysis showed that the accumulation of 24-nt siRNAs was decreased in WT plants under salt stress. Further promoter deletion analysis revealed that the siRNA target region is essential for maintaining AtMYB74 expression patterns. In addition, transgenic plants overexpressing AtMYB74 displayed hypersensitivity to NaCl during seed germination. These results suggest that changes in the levels of the five 24-nt siRNAs regulate the AtMYB74 transcription factor via RdDM in response to salt stress." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is druzy
[ "Drusy (or druzy) is a geological term applied to quartz that forms a layer of closely spaced, small crystals that line a surface or cavity of another kind of rock.ave. GreenSeason/iStock/Getty Images. Drusy (or druzy) is a geological term applied to quartz that forms a layer of closely spaced, small crystals that line a surface or cavity of another kind of rock. Drusy quartz, silicon dioxide, is most commonly clear or whitish, and can resemble glittering sugar or snow crystals." ]
[ "drowsy meaning, definition, what is drowsy: being in a state between sleeping and being awake: . Learn more.", "Define dray: a vehicle used to haul goods; especially : a strong cart or wagon without sides a vehicle used to haul goods; especially : a strong cart or wagon without sides… See the full definition" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
so we're getting ready for a big party as you can imagine
[ "As you can envision we were getting ready for a big party." ]
[ "As you can't fathom we were getting ready for a funeral." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
what naltrexone used for
[ "Naltrexone is used for: Managing weight in certain patients when used in combination with exercise and diet. Naltrexone is a combination of 2 medicines used to control appetite. Exactly how it works is not known, but it is thought to help to release certain chemicals in the brain that control appetite." ]
[ "Rocephin is the brand name of ceftriaxone sodium, a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that's used to fight bacteria in your body. It was approved by the Food and Drug Administration in 1984. Rocephin is manufactured by Roche, and several companies manufacturer the generic form. Rocephin is administered through a vein (IV) or through a shot (muscle injection). Your doctor may use Rocephin to treat severe or life-threatening forms of bacterial infections such as meningitis. It might also be prescribed to treat lower respiratory tract or urinary tract infections, as well as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), uncomplicated gonorrhea, and ear or skin infections.", "Imitrex (sumatriptan) is a selective serotonin receptor agonist used in oral, intranasal or injectable dosage form to treat migraine headaches. Imitrex is available as a generic drug." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
does warming to a normal temperature affect monocytes
[ "OBJECTIVE: To investigate whether warming to normal body temperature or to febrile range temperature (39C) is able to reverse the detrimental effects of hypothermia.BACKGROUND: Unintentional intraoperative hypothermia is a well-described risk factor for surgical site infections but also sepsis. We have previously shown that hypothermia prolongs the proinflammatory response whereas normothermia and especially febrile range temperature enhance the anti-inflammatory response.METHODS: Primary human monocytes were isolated from healthy volunteers. After stimulation with LPS (Lipopolysaccharide), the monocytes were exposed to 32C for 3  hours or 6  hours and then warmed at either 37C or 39C for the remaining 33  hours or 36  hours, respectively. Tumor necrosis factor , interleukin 10, and the expression of miR-155 and miR-101 were assessed at 24  hours and 36  hours.RESULTS: Warming to 37C does not normalize monocyte cytokine secretion within 36  hours, whereas warming to 39C partially reverses the effects of hypothermia on monocyte function. Both miR-155 and miR-101 were suppressed after the warming episode. However, 39C had a stronger suppressive effect than 37C. The duration of hypothermia and the warming temperature seem to be critical for a full reversibility of the effects of hypothermia.CONCLUSION: Warming to normal body temperature (37C) does not restore normal monocyte function in vitro. These data suggest that hypothermic patients should be warmed to febrile range temperatures. Furthermore, febrile range temperatures should be investigated as a means to modulate the inflammatory response in patients with systemic infections." ]
[ "PURPOSE: Monocytes (Mon1-2-3) play a substantial role in low-grade inflammation associated with high cardiovascular morbidity and mortality of patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and chronic heart failure (CHF). The effect of an acute exercise bout on monocyte subsets in the setting of systemic inflammation is currently unknown. This study aims (1) to evaluate baseline distribution of monocyte subsets in CHF and CKD versus healthy subjects (HS) and (2) to evaluate the effect of an acute exercise bout. Exercise-induced IL-6 and MCP-1 release are related to the Mon1-2-3 response.METHODS: Twenty CHF patients, 20 CKD patients, and 15 HS were included. Before and after a maximal cardiopulmonary exercise test, monocyte subsets were quantified by flow cytometry: CD14(++)CD16(-)CCR2(+) (Mon1), CD14(++)CD16(+)CCR2(+) (Mon2), and CD14(+)CD16(++)CCR2(-) (Mon3). Serum levels of IL-6 and MCP-1 were determined by ELISA.RESULTS: Baseline distribution of Mon1-2-3 was comparable between the 3 groups. Following acute exercise, %Mon2 and %Mon3 increased significantly at the expense of a decrease in %Mon1 in HS and in CKD. This response was significantly attenuated in CHF (P < 0.05). In HS only, MCP-1 levels increased following exercise; IL-6 levels were unchanged. Circulatory power was a strong and independent predictor of the changes in Mon1 ( = -0.461, P < 0.001) and Mon3 ( = 0.449, P < 0.001); and baseline LVEF of the change in Mon2 ( = 0.441, P < 0.001).CONCLUSION: The response of monocytes to acute exercise is characterized by an increase in proangiogenic and proinflammatory Mon2 and Mon3 at the expense of phagocytic Mon1. This exercise-induced monocyte subset response is mainly driven by hemodynamic changes and not by preexistent low-grade inflammation.", "Fever-like hyperthermia is known to stimulate innate and adaptive immune responses. Hyperthermia-induced immune stimulation is also accompanied with, and likely conditioned by, changes in the cell metabolism and, in particular, mitochondrial metabolism is now recognized to play a pivotal role in this context, both as energy supplier and as signaling platform. In this study we asked if challenging human monocyte-derived dendritic cells with a relatively short-time thermal shock in the fever-range, typically observed in humans, caused alterations in the mitochondrial oxidative metabolism. We found that following hyperthermic stress (3h exposure at 39C) TNF--releasing dendritic cells undergo rewiring of the oxidative metabolism hallmarked by decrease of the mitochondrial respiratory activity and of the oxidative phosphorylation and increase of lactate production. Moreover, enhanced production of reactive oxygen and nitrogen species and accumulation of mitochondrial Ca2+ was consistently observed in hyperthermia-conditioned dendritic cells and exhibited a reciprocal interplay. The hyperthermia-induced impairment of the mitochondrial respiratory activity was (i) irreversible following re-conditioning of cells to normothermia, (ii) mimicked by exposing normothermic cells to the conditioned medium of the hyperthermia-challenged cells, (iii) largely prevented by antioxidant and inhibitors of the nitric oxide synthase and of the mitochondrial calcium porter, which also inhibited release of TNF-. These observations combined with gene expression analysis support a model based on a thermally induced autocrine signaling, which rewires and sets a metabolism checkpoint linked to immune activation of dendritic cells." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
frequency of streamlining for bacteremia
[ "OBJECTIVE To assess the likelihood of antimicrobial streamlining between 2 antimicrobial stewardship methods. DESIGN Retrospective cohort study. SETTING Large academic medical center. METHODS Frequency and time to antimicrobial streamlining were compared during a prior authorization and a prospective audit period. Streamlining was defined as an antimicrobial change to a narrower agent if available or to a broader agent if the isolate was resistant to empiric therapy. Patients included were ?18 years old with monomicrobial bacteremia with S. aureus, Enterococcus spp., or any aerobic Gram-negative organism. RESULTS A total of 665 cases of bacteremia met inclusion criteria. Frequency of streamlining was similar between periods for all cases of bacteremia (audit vs restriction: 60.7% vs 53.2%; P=.12), S. aureus bacteremia (73.2% vs 76.9%; P=.671), and Enterococcus bacteremia (81.6% vs 71.9%; P=.335). Compared to restriction, the audit period was associated with an increased frequency of streamlining for cases of Gram-negative bacteremia (51.4% vs 35.6%; odds ratio [OR], 1.85; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.06-3.25), those on the medical service (67.9% vs 53.1%; OR, 1.86; 95% CI, 1.09-3.16), and those admitted through the emergency department (71.6% vs 51.4%; OR, 2.32; 95% CI, 1.24-4.34). Characteristics associated with increased streamlining included: absence of -lactam allergy (P<.001), Gram-negative bacteremia (P<.001), admission through the emergency department (P=.001), and admission to a medical service (P=.011). CONCLUSIONS Compared with prior authorization, prospective audit increased antimicrobial streamlining for cases of Gram-negative bacteremia, those admitted through the emergency department, and those admitted to a medical but not surgical service. Infect Control Hosp Epidemiol 2016:1-7." ]
[ "A more effective treatment of bacteremia requires a diagnostic platform that is both sensitive, accurate and rapid. Currently, clinical laboratory techniques require growth of bacteria prior to diagnosis, take days to complete, and leave empiric therapy and broad spectrum antibiotics as the only option at the onset of treatment. In order to bypass this growth requirement, we engineered a system that purifies bacteria from blood to improve performance in a bacteriophage-based luminescence assay. To perform the purification, we used acoustophoresis in plastic microfluidic chips, enabling future development into a low cost point-of-care system. Acoustophoresis achieves differential separation on the basis of size differences between bacteria and blood cells. We show isolation of three known pathogen species, including members of both Gram-negative and positive-bacteria from blood, and show isolation at clinically relevant concentrations. Using the device as a preparation step prior to the bacteriophage-based luminescence assay, we demonstrate a 33-fold improvement in limit of detection, compared with the unpurified sample, achieving a limit of detection of 6 bacteria.", "Bacteremia is a life-threatening condition for which antibiotics must be prescribed within hours of clinical diagnosis. Since the current gold standard for bacteremia diagnosis is based on conventional methods developed in the mid-1800s-growth on agar or in broth-identification and susceptibility profiling for both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacterial species requires at least 48-72 h. Recent advancements in accelerated phenotypic antibiotic susceptibility testing have centered on the microscopic growth analysis of small bacterial populations. These approaches are still inherently limited by the bacterial growth rate. Our approach is fundamentally different. By applying environmental stress to bacteria in a microfluidic platform, we can correctly assign antibiotic susceptibility profiles of clinically relevant Gram-negative bacteria within two hours of antibiotic introduction rather than 8-24 h. The substantial expansion to include a number of clinical isolates of important Gram-negative species-Enterobacter cloacae, Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa-reported here underscores the broad utility of our approach, complementing the method's proven utility for Gram-positive bacteria. We also demonstrate that the platform is compatible with antibiotics that have varying mechanisms of action-meropenem, gentamicin, and ceftazidime-highlighting the versatility of this platform." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Is urinary creatinine excretion reflecting muscle mass a predictor of mortality and graft loss in renal transplant recipients?
[ "Insulin resistance has been implicated to underlie both excess cardiovascular disease and chronic transplant dysfunction after renal transplantation. Skeletal muscle mainly determines peripheral insulin resistance, and could therefore affect outcome. All transplant recipients at our outpatient clinic with a functioning graft more than 1 year were invited to participate between 2001 and 2003. Mortality and death censored graft loss were recorded until August 2007. We used 24 hr urine creatinine excretion as measure of muscle mass. Cox regression was used to analyze the prospective data. Six hundred four renal transplant recipients (age 51+/-12 years, 55% men) were studied. Creatinine excretion was 10.1+/-2.6 mmol/24 hr in women and 13.6+/-3.4 mmol/24 hr in men. During follow-up of 5.3 (4.7-5.7) years, 95 recipients died and 42 suffered graft loss. Determinants of creatinine excretion were weight, sex, age, height, cumulative prednisolone doses, and diabetes (r2=0.45). Creatinine excretion was associated with both mortality (3rd vs. 1st tertile Hazard ratio: 0.4 [95% confidence interval 0.2-0.7], P=0.003) and graft loss (3rd vs. 1st tertile Hazard ratio: 0.4 [95% confidence interval 0.1-0.9], P=0.03) independent of age, sex, serum creatinine, proteinuria, insulin resistance related factors, time after transplantation, and duration of dialysis" ]
[ "Chronic transplant dysfunction is characterized by a gradual decline in renal function with slowly rising serum creatinine. The underlying mechanism is thought to include inflammation and atherosclerosis. C-reactive protein (CRP) is a well-established marker of both inflammation and atherosclerosis. In this prospective study, we investigated whether CRP could be of use as a clinical marker for early identification of renal transplant recipients at increased risk of deterioration of graft function. In this prospective study, all participating patients (n = 606) visited the out-patient clinic at least once a year, and serum creatinine was assessed at every visit. Subjects with a follow-up of <1 year (n = 31) were excluded from analysis. A total of 575 patients participated at a median (interquartile range) time of 5.9 (2.6-11.3) years post-transplantation. Median time of follow-up was 3.0 (2.4-3.4) years. Changes in serum creatinine during follow-up were -0.45 (-4.83-4.76) micromol/l/year in 172 subjects with CRP <1.0 mg/l, 1.04 (-3.36-6.12) micromol/l/year in 184 subjects with CRP 1.0-3.0 mg/l and 2.34 (-3.33-9.07) micromol/l/year in 219 subjects with CRP >3.0 mg/l (P < 0.05 for comparison of the three groups). Proteinuria (P = 0.003), CMV IgG titre (P = 0.01), donor age (P = 0.01), CRP concentration (P = 0.02), recipient age (P = 0.02) and recipient gender (P = 0.047) were independently associated with change in serum creatinine during follow-up in a multivariate analysis", "High body mass constitutes a significant risk factor for morbidity and mortality in the general population, but it has been associated with an increased survival among dialysis patients. Its effects on renal transplant outcomes are controversial. The aim of our present work was to investigate the impact of high body mass and posttransplant weight gain on patient and graft outcomes. One thousand consecutive renal transplant recipients (631 men and 369 women) were included in the study. Their mean age was 42.9 years and the follow-up was at least 2 years. Basal immunosuppression was azathioprine (Aza) and steroids in 196 patients, cyclosporine (CsA) without or with antiproliferative agent in 557, and 239 were presented tacrolimus (Tac). At the time of transplantation the body mass index (BMI) was 23.7 +/- 3.9 kg/m2, namely, <18.5 kg/m2 in 6.3%; 18.5 to 25 in 61.7%; 25 to 30 in 25.4%; and >30 in 6.5%. Pretransplant obesity was associated with old age and female gender. Obese patients experienced a greater risk of delayed graft function (P < .01) and surgical wound complications (P < .01). After 1 year, 299 patients (29.9%) displayed weight gain >10% (mean 8.6% +/- 10.4% or 5.0 +/- 6.1 kg). Patients on Aza showed increased body weight by 11.9% +/- 10.9%; CsA patients by 9.5% +/- 10.3%, and Tac patients by 4.9% +/- 9.1% (P < .001). Univariate and multivariate analysis showed that pretransplant BMI had no effect on graft or patient survival either in the whole group or in the patients treated with CsA or TAC. Posttransplant weight gain above 5% or 10% did not influence graft or patient outcomes" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
how much sugar should we have a day
[ "For example, the World Health Organization recommends keeping added sugar intake to 10% of total calories. For the average 2000 calorie-diet that's a maximum of 50 grams. The American Heart Association recommends 6 teaspoons of sugar for women and 9 for men (1 teaspoon of sugar has about 4g of sugar)." ]
[ "That’s the equivalent of just 25g, or six teaspoons, a day. Currently in the UK the average person gets around 16-17 per cent of their calories from sugar, compared to 11-15 per cent in the US and 7-8 per cent in Hungary and Norway.oda If it’s not diet, the average can of fizzy drink contains up to 40g, or 10 teaspoons, of sugar. That’s more than the recommended 5 per cent in just a few slurps. Bread. For many it's a daily staple, but two slices of white bread contain around 2g, or half a teaspoon, of sugar.", "Sugar Health Concerns. Too much refined sugar in the diet is linked to many adverse health conditions. The American Heart Association tells consumers to have no more than 6 teaspoons or 24 grams (women) or 9 teaspoons or 36 grams (men) of refined sugars each day.Since many are having 4 times that amount, they are also reaping the health consequences of consuming too much sugar in drinks and other foods.ome drinks and juices have as much sugar as several Snickers candy bars and are definitely contributing to the obesity and type 2 diabetes crisis the western world is experiencing. It is estimated that the average American consumes around 150 pounds of refined sugars a year. src." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Drospirenone and non-fatal venous thromboembolism: is there a risk difference by dosage of ethinyl-estradiol?
[ "Previous studies concluded that there was an increased risk of non-fatal venous thromboembolism (VTE) with drospirenone. It is unknown whether the risk is differential by ethinyl-estradiol dosage. To assess the risk of VTE with drospirenone and to determine whether drospirenone and ethinyl-estradiol 20 μg (DRSP/EE20) has a lower VTE risk than drospirenone and ethinyl-estradiol 30 μg (DRSP/EE30). Our cohort included women aged 18-46 years taking drospirenone or levonorgestrel (LNG)-containing combined oral contraceptives (COCs) in the IMS claims database between 2001 and 2009. VTE was defined using ICD-9-CM coding and anticoagulation. The hazard ratio (HR) from Cox proportional hazards models was used to assess the VTE relative risk (RR) with drospirenone compared with levonorgestrel, adjusted by a propensity score used to control for baseline co-morbidity and stratified by EE dosage and user-type (new/current). The study included 238 683 drospirenone and 193,495 levonorgestrel users. Among new and current users, a 1.90-fold (95% CI, 1.51-2.39) increased VTE relative risk was observed for drospirenone (18.0 VTE/10,000 women-years) vs. levonorgestrel (8.9 VTE/10,000 women-years). In analysis of new users, DRSP/EE20 had a 2.35-fold (95% CI, 1.44-3.82) VTE RR versus LNG/EE20. New users of DRSP/EE30 observed an increased RR versus LNG/EE30 among women starting to use COCs between 2001 and 2006 (2.51, 95% CI, 1.12-5.64) but not between 2007 and 2009 (0.76, 95% CI, 0.42-1.39), attributable to an increased incidence rate with LNG/EE30 from 2007 to 2009. In direct comparison, DRSP/EE20 had an elevated risk of VTE compared with DRSP/EE30 (RR, 1.55; 95% CI, 0.99-2.41)" ]
[ "Venous thromboembolism and arterial ischemic events are the main deleterious diseases associated with the use of combined hormonal contraceptives (CHC). Even though their composition has been substantially improved, the vascular risk persists with the most recent CHCs use. If the vascular risk associated with CHCs containing 50ìg EE is significantly higher than with those containing less than 50ìg, there is no evidence that the CHCs containing either 30 or 20ìg of EE induce different venous risks. CHC containing gestodene, desogestrel, drospirenone or cyproterone acetate are associated with a higher risk of venous thrombosis compared with levonorgestrel-containing CHCs. CHC containing norgestimate are associated with similar venous thrombosis risk than CHC containing levonorgestrel. Venous thrombosis risk of non-oral routes of administration of CHC appears to be equivalent to the risk of CHC containing gestodene or desogestrel, but this result is based on a small number of epidemiological studies. Before prescribing a CHC, it is important to determine all vascular risk factors. Family history of ischemic arterial event or venous thromboembolism disease should be routinely sought before any CHC prescription. All CHCs are contraindicated in women with biological thrombophilia, in women with combined vascular risk factors, in women with first-degree family history of arterial or venous event (under age 50) as well as in women suffering of migraine with aura. Progestin-only contraceptives are not associated with vascular risk (arterial or venous) outside of medroxyprogesterone acetate. In women with higher vascular risk, progestin-only contraceptives (administered by oral, sous-cutaneous or intra-uterine routes) can be prescribed.", "A new combined oral contraceptive formulation has been developed consisting of a beta-cyclodextrin (betadex) clathrate formulation of ethinyl estradiol in combination with drospirenone (EE-betadex clathrate/drsp). In this novel EE-betadex clathrate/drsp preparation, betadex serves as an inert complexing agent to enhance stability and shelf-life. The study was conducted to investigate the relative bioavailability and pharmacokinetic parameters of EE and drsp after oral administration of EE-betadex clathrate/drsp. This was an open-label, randomized, single-dose, three-period, three-treatment, crossover study conducted in 18 healthy postmenopausal women aged 45-75 years. The women received single oral doses of 40 mcg EE/6 mg drsp formulated as EE-betadex clathrate/drsp or EE/drsp (EE as a free steroid) tablets, or as a microcrystalline suspension on three separate occasions. Serum samples were collected for pharmacokinetic analyses. The relative bioavailability of EE and drsp after EE-betadex clathrate/drsp tablet administration was comparable with that achieved with the EE/drsp tablet (107% and 101%, respectively). In addition, the inclusion of EE in a betadex clathrate does not affect the pharmacokinetics of either EE or drsp. There were no safety concerns with any of the medications" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Is increased arterial stiffness in inflammatory bowel diseases dependent upon inflammation and reduced by immunomodulatory drugs?
[ "Inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD) are associated with an increased cardiovascular risk that is not fully explained by traditional cardiovascular risk factors but may be due to inflammation and mediated by an increased arterial stiffness. Study 1, to investigate the relationship between inflammation and arterial stiffening; Study 2, to look whether aortic stiffening is reduced by immunomodulatory therapy in IBD. Study 1 (Cross-sectional study): pulse wave velocity (PWV) was measured in 74 IBD subjects (40 ulcerative colitis and 34 Crohn's disease) and 80 matched controls. Study 2 (Longitudinal study): the effect of therapy on PWV was measured at baseline and 3.4 ± 0.5 years later in 14 IBD subjects treated only with salicylates, 11 subjects treated with steroids and azathioprine, 7 subjects treated with anti TNF-alpha and 30 matched controls. Study 1: All parameters were comparable between subjects with ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. Compared to controls, subjects with ulcerative colitis and those with Crohn's disease have both higher carotid-femoral PWV (7.0 ± 1.1, 7.8 ± 1.7 and 8.0 ± 1.6 m/s, respectively; P < 0.001) and carotid-radial PWV (7.2 ± 0.9, 8.8 ± 1.4 and 8.8 ± 1.3 m/s, respectively; P < 0.001). In fully adjusted models carotid-femoral PWV was positively associated with disease duration whereas carotid-radial PWV was associated with C-reactive protein and history of relapse. Study 2: in fully adjusted model carotid-femoral PWV increased significantly at follow-up in IBD subjects treated with salicylates but not in those treated with steroids and azathioprine or anti TNF-alpha" ]
[ "Chronic visceral pain is a defining feature of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS patients often show alterations in innate and adaptive immune function which may contribute to symptoms. Immune mediators are known to modulate the activity of viscero-sensory afferent nerves, but the focus has been on the innate immune system. Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is primarily associated with adaptive immune responses but its effects on colo-rectal afferent function in health or disease are unknown. Myeloperoxidase (MPO) activity determined the extent of inflammation in health, acute trinitrobenzene-sulfonic acid (TNBS) colitis, and in our post-TNBS colitis model of chronic visceral hypersensitivity (CVH). The functional effects of IL-2 on high-threshold colo-rectal afferents and the expression of IL-2R and NaV 1.7 mRNA in colo-rectal dorsal root ganglia (DRG) neurons were compared between healthy and CVH mice. MPO activity was increased during acute colitis, but subsided to levels comparable to health in CVH mice. IL-2 caused direct excitation of colo-rectal afferents that was blocked by tetrodotoxin. IL-2 did not affect afferent mechanosensitivity in health or CVH. However, an increased proportion of afferents responded directly to IL-2 in CVH mice compared with controls (73% vs 33%; p < 0.05), and the abundance of IL-2R and NaV 1.7 mRNA was increased 3.5- and 2-fold (p < 0.001 for both) in colo-rectal DRG neurons", "BACKGROUND: Growing evidence indicates tissue inhibitors of matrix metalloproteinases (TIMPs) as potential players in inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), but, no prospective data are available in IBD remission/relapse.MATERIAL & METHODS: In this prospective pilot study, a cohort of IBD patients (n = 32) was enrolled and treated with monoclonal anti-TNF-á antibodies. Patients were clinically followed up for a median period of 54 weeks. Serum circulating levels of C-reactive protein (CRP), TIMP-1 and -2, matrix metalloproteinase (MMP)-9 and -8, myeloperoxidase (MPO) and neutrophil elastase (NE) were assessed by ELISA at enrolment and at the end of the treatment.RESULTS: The percentage (%) TIMP-2 reduction from baseline to end of treatment was independently associated with IBD remission at the end of treatment and follow-up as well. ROC curve analysis further confirmed the good prognostic accuracy of % TIMP-2 reduction over the treatment period. Conversely, no other change in inflammatory molecule concentrations was able to predict short- or long-term IBD remission.CONCLUSIONS: This study indicates TIMP-2 reduction during IBD treatment with monoclonal anti-TNF-á antibodies as a potential prognostic parameter of short and long term remission. To understand if TIMP-2 is an innocent biomarker or an active pathophysiological factor in IBD remains to be clarified." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what is the origin of the peav virus
[ "Abstract Coronaviruses have a wide host range and can cause a variety of diseases with varying severity in different animals. Several enteric coronaviruses have been identified that are associated with diarrhea in swine and that have caused substantial economic losses. In this study, a newly emerged porcine enteric alphacoronavirus (PEAV), PEAV-GD-CH/2017, was identified from suckling piglets with diarrhea in southern China, and a full-length genome sequence of PEAV was obtained for systematic analysis. The novel PEAV sequence was most identical to that of bat-HKU2, and the differences between them were comprehensively compared, especially the uniform features of the S protein, which was shown to have a close relationship with betacoronaviruses and to perhaps represent unrecognized betacoronaviruses. In addition, Bayesian analysis was conducted to address the origin of PEAV, and the divergence time between PEAV and bat-HKU2 was estimated at 1926, which indicates that PEAV is not newly emerged and may have circulated in swine herds for several decades since the interspecies transmission of this coronavirus from bat to swine. The evolutionary rate of coronaviruses was estimated to be 1.93 × 10−4 substitutions per site per year for the RdRp gene in our analysis. For the origin of PEAV, we suspect that it is the result of the interspecies transmission of bat-HKU2 from bat to swine. Our results provide valuable information about the uniform features, origin and evolution of the novel PEAV, which will facilitate further investigations of this newly emerged pathogen." ]
[ "Picornavirus cultures that could not be typed in neutralization assays were analyzed by VP1 reverse transcription-PCR (RT-PCR) and a virus discovery tool (VIDISCA). Human parechoviruses (HPeVs) were frequently identified, among which were the uncommon isolates HPeV-4, HPeV-5, and HPeV-6. The HPeV-5 isolate could be amplified only by VIDISCA and not by VP1 RT-PCR.", "BACKGROUND: In recent years novel human respiratory disease agents have been described for Southeast Asia and Australia. The causative pathogens were classified as pteropine orthoreoviruses with a strong phylogenetic relationship to orthoreoviruses of bat origin. RESULTS: In this report, we isolated a novel Melaka-like reovirus (named “Cangyuan virus”) from intestinal content samples of one fruit bat residing in China’s Yunnan province. Phylogenetic analysis of the whole Cangyuan virus genome sequences of segments L, M and S demonstrated the genetic diversity of the Cangyuan virus. In contrast to the L and M segments, the phylogenetic trees for the S segments of Cangyuan virus demonstrated a greater degree of heterogeneity. CONCLUSIONS: Phylogenetic analysis indicated that the Cangyuan virus was a novel orthoreovirus and substantially different from currently known members of Pteropine orthoreovirus (PRV) species group. ELECTRONIC SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL: The online version of this article (doi:10.1186/s12866-014-0293-4) contains supplementary material, which is available to authorized users." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
what is the dominant keyword
[ "For the automatic extraction of protein-protein interaction information from scientific articles, a machine learning approach is useful. The classifier is generated from training data represented using several features to decide whether a protein pair in each sentence has an interaction. Such a specific keyword that is directly related to interaction as \"bind\" or \"interact\" plays an important role for training classifiers. We call it a dominant keyword that affects the capability of the classifier. Although it is important to identify the dominant keywords, whether a keyword is dominant depends on the context in which it occurs. Therefore, we propose a method for predicting whether a keyword is dominant for each instance. In this method, a keyword that derives imbalanced classification results is tentatively assumed to be a dominant keyword initially. Then the classifiers are separately trained from the instance with and without the assumed dominant keywords. The validity of the assumed dominant keyword is evaluated based on the classification results of the generated classifiers. The assumption is updated by the evaluation result. Repeating this process increases the prediction accuracy of the dominant keyword. Our experimental results using five corpora show the effectiveness of our proposed method with dominant keyword prediction." ]
[ "The function of the left inferior frontal gyrus (L-IFG) is highly disputed. A number of language processing studies have linked the region to the processing of syntactical structure. Still, there is little agreement when it comes to defining why linguistic structures differ in their effects on the L-IFG. In a number of languages, the processing of object-initial sentences affects the L-IFG more than the processing of subject-initial ones, but frequency and distribution differences may act as confounding variables. Syntactically complex structures (like the object-initial construction in Danish) are often less frequent and only viable in certain contexts. With this confound in mind, the L-IFG activation may be sensitive to other variables than a syntax manipulation on its own. The present fMRI study investigates the effect of a pragmatically appropriate context on the processing of subject-initial and object-initial clauses with the IFG as our ROI. We find that Danish object-initial clauses yield a higher BOLD response in L-IFG, but we also find an interaction between appropriateness of context and word order. This interaction overlaps with traditional syntax areas in the IFG. For object-initial clauses, the effect of an appropriate context is bigger than for subject-initial clauses. This result is supported by an acceptability study that shows that, given appropriate contexts, object-initial clauses are considered more appropriate than subject-initial clauses. The increased L-IFG activation for processing object-initial clauses without a supportive context may be interpreted as reflecting either reinterpretation or the recipients' failure to correctly predict word order from contextual cues.", "Extant trust research champions 3 different centers of action that determine perceptions of trust: the trustor (the individual rendering trust judgments), the trustee (the party being trusted), and the trustor-trustee dyad. We refer to the centers of action as loci of trust. Thus far, researchers have investigated determinants residing within each locus independently but have not concurrently investigated all 3 loci. Thus, the relative influence of each locus on perceptions of trust is unknown. Nor is it known how the influence of each locus changes with time. Where is the dominant locus of trust? And how does it change over time? We address these questions by examining the influence of trustors, trustees, and dyads on perceived ability, benevolence, and integrity. We find that trustor influence decreases over time while trustee and dyadic influences increase. We also find that the trustor is the dominant locus for perceived ability, benevolence, and integrity initially, but over time the trustee becomes the dominant locus for perceived ability and integrity. For perceived benevolence, the trustor remains the dominant driver over time." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Does heparin inhibit oncogene induction in rabbit aorta following balloon denudation?
[ "Smooth muscle cell proliferation and migration are the predominant responses to intimal and medial injury after percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty. The in vivo inhibitory effect of heparin on these responses is well documented. To test the hypothesis that the antiproliferative effect of heparin in vivo may be related to an inhibition of proto-oncogene expression, the effects of pretreatment with heparin on the expression of the c-myc, c-fos and c-jun proto-oncogenes were examined in a rabbit model of balloon denudation. Animals were randomised 5 h before balloon denudation to receive a subcutaneous injection of unfractionated heparin (7500 IU.kg-1, n = 7) or saline (n = 6). Total RNA extracted from the aorta 1 h after balloon denudation was analysed by northern blot technique. A histological study was also performed in saline treated (n = 4) and heparin treated (n = 4) animals 28 d after balloon denudation. The histological study showed that the degree of neointimal thickening was significantly less in heparin treated animals. However, the level of expression of the proto-oncogenes we studied was similar in both groups" ]
[ "To investigate the in vivo gene expression of adenovirus-mediated human tissue factor pathway inhibitor (hTFPI) and its inhibition effects on intimal proliferation in rabbit carotid arteries after balloon injury. Rabbits underwent carotid artery balloon injuries were treated with Ad-TFPI (n = 25), Ad-LacZ (n = 25) or PBS (n = 10), respectively. Sham operated rabbits (n = 10) serve as normal controls. The expressions of human TFPI at mRNA and protein levels were detected by RT-PCR and ELISA respectively on the 3rd, 7th, 10th, 14th, 28th day after operation. Intimal proliferation was detected by angiograms and morphometric analysis. TFPI mRNA and protein expressions were detected at 3 days and peaked at the 10th and 14th day after TFPI gene transfer. The expressions were still detectable on the 28th day. There was no TFPI expression in Ad-LacZ group. The carotid angiogram results indicated that the minimal lumen diameter in TFPI group was significantly larger and the lumina stenosis percentage was significantly lower in TFPI group compared those in Ad-LacZ and PBS groups (all P < 0.05). The morphometric analysis showed that the intimal area, the ratio of the intimal/media area, the lumina stenosis percentage in TFPI group were all significantly reduced compared with those in Ad-LacZ and PBS groups (all P < 0.01)", "Neointimal development following balloon angioplasty involves many factors including smooth muscle cell (SMC) migration and proliferation and extracellular matrix (ECM) remodeling. Further, in hypercholesterolemic (HC) conditions, there is an influx of macrophage foam cells (FCs) into the restenotic lesion, which also involves degradation of the basement membrane and surrounding ECM. The ECM remodeling that occurs during restenosis has been shown to be mediated by various proteases. Here we have investigated the role of cathepsin S (CatS), a cysteine protease, in this process. We have demonstrated by Taqman quantitative PCR, Western blot, and immunohistochemistry that CatS is up-regulated in restenotic lesions of HC rabbits following balloon injury of the iliofemoral artery. CatS mRNA expression was elevated 28-fold in balloon-injured vessels relative to uninjured contralateral vessels in HC rabbits 8 weeks post-angioplasty (p<0.05). CatS protein expression was detected within 1 day post-injury, persisted throughout the entire time course evaluated (60 days post-injury), and was co-localized with SMCs, macrophages, and FCs. In contrast, cystatin C (CysC), the endogenous inhibitor of cathepsins, was only minimally up-regulated following injury. CysC mRNA expression was elevated 3.5-fold in balloon-injured vessels relative to uninjured contralateral vessels in HC rabbits 8 weeks post-angioplasty (p<0.005), and up-regulation of protein expression was not detected until days 28 and 60 post-injury. Additional biochemical studies using recombinant rabbit CatS revealed that rabbit CatS digests laminin, fibronectin, and type I collagen. Further, CatS expression was evaluated in SMCs that were induced to migrate through a matrix-coated Boyden chamber upon platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulation. The addition of a selective CatS inhibitor reduced SMC migration dose-dependently with an 80% reduction in migration at 30 nM (p<0.005). Additionally, we have shown that CatS protein expression by human macrophages was increased upon stimulation with oxidized low density lipoprotein (ox-LDL), implying augmentation of CatS production during foam cell formation" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what is pragmatic dissemination and implementation for nursing research
[ "BACKGROUND: Pragmatic dissemination and implementation (D&I) research approaches can benefit patient care because they emphasize real-world settings and populations. Nurse scientists have an opportunity to reduce the gap between science and practice by using pragmatic D&I research and sustainability strategies.PURPOSE: This article discusses pragmatic models, methods, and measures used in D&I research and their relevance for nursing research and enhancing population health.METHODS: Summary of pragmatic D&I models and related methods for designing a pragmatic studies. We discuss the RE-AIM framework and the PRECIS-2 planning aid and figure in detail. A case study is provided and application to nursing research is discussed.DISCUSSION: Successful translation of pragmatic D&I research demands an approach that addresses external validity, and customization at multiple levels including the patient, clinician, and setting. Context is critically important, and it is never too early to design for dissemination.CONCLUSIONS: Pragmatic D&I approaches are needed to speed research translation, reduce avoidable waste of funding, improve clinical care, and enhance population health. Pragmatic D&I research is an area of tremendous opportunity for the nursing science community." ]
[ "CONTEXT: Implementation science measures are rarely used by stakeholders to inform and enhance clinical program change. Little is known about what makes implementation measures pragmatic (i.e., practical) for use in community settings; thus, the present study's objective was to generate a clinical stakeholder-driven operationalization of a pragmatic measures construct.EVIDENCE ACQUISITION: The pragmatic measures construct was defined using: 1) a systematic literature review to identify dimensions of the construct using PsycINFO and PubMed databases, and 2) interviews with an international stakeholder panel (N = 7) who were asked about their perspectives of pragmatic measures.EVIDENCE SYNTHESIS: Combined results from the systematic literature review and stakeholder interviews revealed a final list of 47 short statements (e.g., feasible, low cost, brief) describing pragmatic measures, which will allow for the development of a rigorous, stakeholder-driven conceptualization of the pragmatic measures construct.CONCLUSIONS: Results revealed significant overlap between terms related to the pragmatic construct in the existing literature and stakeholder interviews. However, a number of terms were unique to each methodology. This underscores the importance of understanding stakeholder perspectives of criteria measuring the pragmatic construct. These results will be used to inform future phases of the project where stakeholders will determine the relative importance and clarity of each dimension of the pragmatic construct, as well as their priorities for the pragmatic dimensions. Taken together, these results will be incorporated into a pragmatic rating system for existing implementation science measures to support implementation science and practice.", "Researchers have always recognised the importance of disseminating the findings of their work, however, recently the need to proactively plan and drive the impact of those findings on the wider society has become a necessity. Firstly, this is because funders require evidence of return from investment and secondly and crucially because national research assessments are becoming powerful determinants of future funding. In research studies associated with nursing, impact needs to be demonstrated by showing the effect on a range of stakeholders including service users, patients, carers, the nursing workforce and commissioners. Engaging these groups is a well-known challenge influenced by lack of access to academic journals, lack of time to read long complex research papers and lack of opportunities to interact directly with the researchers. This needs to be addressed urgently to enable nursing research to increase the impact that it has on health delivery and the work of clinical practitioners. Social media is potentially a novel way of enabling research teams to both communicate about research as studies progress and to disseminate findings and research funders are increasingly using it to publicise information about research programmes and studies they fund. A search of the healthcare literature reveals that advice and guidance on the use of social media for research studies is not well understood or exploited by the research community. This paper, therefore, explores how using social networking platforms, notably Twitter offers potential new ways for communicating research findings, accessing diverse and traditionally hard-to-reach audiences, knowledge exchange at an exponential rate, and enabling new means of capturing and demonstrating research impact. The paper discusses approaches to initiate the setup of social networking platforms in research projects and considers the practical challenges of using Twitter in nursing and healthcare research. The discussion is illuminated with examples from our current research. In summary, we suggest that the use of social media micro-blogging platforms is a contemporary, fast, easy and cost effective way to augment existing ways of disseminating research which helps drive impact." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
which structure is associated with a steeper drd?
[ "Resolving tradeoffs between smaller immediate rewards and larger delayed rewards is ubiquitous in daily life and steep discounting of future rewards is associated with several psychiatric conditions. This form of decision-making is referred to as delayed reward discounting (DRD) and the features of brain structure associated with DRD are not well understood. The current study characterized the relationship between gray matter volume (GMV) and DRD in a sample of 1038 healthy adults (54.7% female) using cortical parcellation, subcortical segmentation, and voxelwise cortical surface-based group analyses. The results indicate that steeper DRD was significantly associated with lower total cortical GMV, but not subcortical GMV. In parcellation analyses, less GMV in 20 discrete cortical regions was associated with steeper DRD. Of these regions, only GMV in the middle temporal gyrus (MTG) and entorhinal cortex (EC) were uniquely associated with DRD. Voxelwise surface-based analyses corroborated these findings, again revealing significant associations between steeper DRD and less GMV in the MTG and EC. To inform the roles of MTG and EC in DRD, connectivity analysis of resting state data (N=1003) using seed regions from the structural findings was conducted. This revealed that spontaneous activity in the MTG and EC was correlated with activation in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex, posterior cingulate cortex, and inferior parietal lobule, regions associated with the default mode network, which involves prospection, self-reflective thinking and mental simulation. Furthermore, meta-analytic co-activation analysis using Neurosynth revealed a similar pattern across 11,406 task-fMRI studies. Collectively, these findings provide robust evidence that morphometric characteristics of the temporal lobe are associated with DRD preferences and suggest it may be because of their role in mental activities in common with default mode activity." ]
[ "Lens epithelium-derived growth factor (LEDGF)/p75 is the dominant binding partner of HIV-1 integrase in human cells. The crystal structure of the HIV integrase-binding domain (IBD) of LEDGF has been determined in the absence of ligand. IBD was overexpressed in Escherichia coli, purified and crystallized by sitting-drop vapour diffusion. X-ray diffraction data were collected at Diamond Light Source to a resolution of 2.05 ?. The crystals belonged to space group P21, with eight polypeptide chains in the asymmetric unit arranged as an unusual octamer composed of four domain-swapped IBD dimers. IBD exists as a mixture of monomers and dimers in concentrated solutions, but the dimers are unlikely to be biologically relevant.", "Prior to initiating any treatment, it is necessary to visualize the desired outcomes. It then becomes possible to formulate the steps required to achieve this result. Digital Smile Design (DSD) utilizes patient input and information gathered through diagnostic procedures to create an esthetic treatment scheme. In the case presented here, the NYUCD Esthetic Evaluation Form, intraoral and extraoral photographs, mounted diagnostic casts, physical examination, and radiographs were the diagnostic modalities. The gathered information served as a starting point for a wax-up and intraoral mock-up. This case report demonstrates how the DSD served as a template for crown lengthening procedures and design of the final porcelain veneer restorations." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is tendon excursion
[ "Tendon excursion takes place as the muscle contracts and the joint rotates. The amount of tendon excursion is related to the amount of the joint rotation. A pulley-type constraint keeps the tendon path close to the bone when the tendon crosses a joint.roper excursion and gliding of the tendon determine the efficiency of this function. Studies of the tendon excursion and gliding based on two simple mechanical concepts have resulted in several significant clinical implications." ]
[ "EIP to EPL Tendon Transfer Surgery. Tendon transfer surgery is a type of hand surgery that is performed in order to improve lost hand function. A functioning tendon is moved from its original attachment to a new one to restore the action that has been lost. In effect borrowing from Peter to pay Paul, but only if Peter can afford it.", "tendon reflex-A type of monosynaptic ipsilateral segmental stretch reflex action in which a muscle is made to contract by a blow upon its tendon, e.g., the patellar reflex, the Achilles tendon reflex, the biceps reflex; its absence is generally a sign of disease.endon reflex-A type of monosynaptic ipsilateral segmental stretch reflex action in which a muscle is made to contract by a blow upon its tendon, e.g., the patellar reflex, the Achilles tendon reflex, the biceps reflex; its absence is generally a sign of disease." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
korea where pcp is dominant
[ "OBJECTIVE: This study aimed to identify private clinics that have a potential to perform the role of primary care providers (PCPs) in a primary care setting in Korea where private specialists are dominant.METHODS: The 2013 National Patient Sample claim data of Health Insurance Review and Assessment Service in Korea was used. Two-step cluster analysis was performed using characteristics of private clinics, and patient and utilization characteristics of 27,797 private clinics. External validation of clusters was performed by assessing the association among clusters and outcomes of care provided by private clinics. Stability of clusters was cross-validated using discriminant analysis.RESULTS: The result classified more than a half of private clinics into a potential PCP cluster. These were private clinics with specialties considered to be those of primary care physicians and were more likely to be located in non-metropolitan areas than specialized PCPs were. Compared to specialized PCPs, they had a higher percentage of pediatric and geriatric patients, patients with greater disease severity, a higher percentage of patients with complex comorbidities or with simple or minor disease groups, a higher number of patients and visits, and the same or higher quality of primary care. The most important factor in explaining variations between PCP clusters was the number of simple or minor disease groups per patient.CONCLUSION: This study identified potential PCPs and suggested the identifying criteria for PCPs. It will provide useful information for formulation of a primary care strengthening policy to policy makers in Korea as well as other countries with similar specialist-dominant primary care settings." ]
[ "PURPOSE: To investigate exome-wide genetic variants associated with prostate cancer (PCa) in Koreans and evaluate the discriminative ability by the genetic risk score (GRS).PATIENTS AND METHODS: We prospectively recruited 1,001 PCa cases from a tertiary hospital and conducted a case-control study including 2,641 healthy men (Stage I). Participants were analyzed using HumanExome BeadChip. For the external validation, additionally enrolled 514 PCa cases and 548 controls (independent cohort) were analyzed for the identified single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) of Stage I (Stage II). The GRS was calculated as a non-weighted sum of the risk allele counts and investigated for accuracy of prediction of PCa.RESULTS: the mean age was 66.3 years, and the median level of prostate specific antigen (PSA) was 9.19 ng/ml in PCa cases. In Stage I, 4 loci containing 5 variants (rs1512268 on 8p21.2; rs1016343 and rs7837688 on 8q24.21; rs7501939 on 17q12, and rs2735839 on 19q13.33) were confirmed to reach exome-wide significance (p<8.3x10-7). In Stage II, the mean GRS was 4.23 1.44 for the controls and 4.78 1.43 for the cases. As a reference to GRS 4, GRS 6, 7 and 8 showed a statistically significant risk of PCa (OR=1.85, 2.11 and 3.34, respectively).CONCLUSIONS: The five variants were validated to associate with PCa in firstly performed exome-wide study in Koreans. The addition of individualized calculated GRS effectively enhanced the accuracy of prediction. These results need to be validated in future studies.", "Primary cutaneous plasmacytosis (PCP) is an uncommon reactive lymphoplasmacytic disorder of uncertain etiology. It has been mainly described in patients of Japanese descent, with only few reports in Caucasians and Chinese. We present a case of isolated benign PCP in a 45-year-old man, who clinically manifested with a localized ulcerated nodule overlying a hyperpigmented plaque on the upper back. To the best of our knowledge, PCP from India has not been described before." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is gmaw short circuit transfer?
[ " Short Circuit Transfer. Short circuit, commonly called “short arc” and formally called GMAW-S, is a mode of metal transfer with low heat input where the transfer of metal from the electrode to weld puddle occurs by a series of electrical shorts." ]
[ " The guaranteed minimum accumulation benefit (GMAB) is a variable annuity rider that guarantees a minimum value to the annuitant after the accumulation period or another set period, usually somewhere close to 10 years. The GMAB rider protects the value of the annuity from market fluctuations.", " The LSMW (Legacy System Migration Workbench) is a tool based on SAP software that supports single or periodic data transfer from non-SAP to SAP systems (and with restriction from SAP to SAP system). Its core functions are: Importing legacy data from PC spreadsheet tables or sequential files." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant passages that answer the question
gooaq
the cost of a college education
[ "Colleges often report a combined tuition and fees figure. According to the College Board, the average cost of tuition and fees for the 2015–2016 school year was $32,405 at private colleges, $9,410 for state residents at public colleges, and $23,893 for out-of-state residents attending public universities." ]
[ "(CBS MoneyWatch) For more than a decade, college tuition has been rising far beyond the rate of inflation at public colleges and universities. According to College Board figures, tuition and fees increased 5.4 percent annually above inflation in the decade since the 2001-2002 school year. Ouch.. Real net average tuition at state universities, which is the price after grants are deducted, rose 33.1 percent ($3,415 to $4,546). In comparison, average net tuition at private institutions has risen 21.2 percent during the same period.", "Now that you know the total cost of your college education, let's see how much your student loan payments will be. According to the figures I previously provided, your student loans would range from $920/month - $1,840/month for 10 years." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is cps in first nations
[ "BACKGROUND: There is a significant deficiency of national health information for Indigenous peoples in Canada. This manuscript describes the Community Profile Survey (CPS), a community-based, national-level survey designed to identify and describe existing healthcare delivery, funding models, and diabetes specific infrastructure and programs in Indigenous communities.METHODS: The CPS was developed collaboratively through FORGE AHEAD and the First Nations and Inuit Health Branch of Health Canada. Regional and federal engagement and partnerships were built with Indigenous organizations to establish regionally-tailored distribution of the 8-page CPS to 440 First Nations communities. Results were collected (one survey per community) and reported in strata by region, with descriptive analyses performed on all variables. Results were shared with participating communities and regional/federal partners through tailored reports.RESULTS: A total of 84 communities completed the survey (19% response rate). The majority of communities had a health centre/office to provide service to their patients with diabetes, with limited on-reserve hospitals for ambulatory or case-sensitive conditions. Few healthcare specialists were located on-site, with patients frequently travelling off-site (> 40km) for diabetes-related complications. The majority of healthcare professionals on-site were Health Directors, Community Health Nurses, and Home Care Nurses. Many communities had a diabetes registry but few reported a diabetes surveillance system. Regional variation in healthcare services, diabetes programs, and funding models were noted, with most communities engaging in some type of innovative strategy to improve care for patients with diabetes.CONCLUSIONS: The CPS is the first community-based, national-level survey of its kind in Canada. Although the response rate was low, the CPS was distributed and successfully administered across a broad range of First Nations communities, and future considerations would benefit from a governance structure and leadership that strengthens community engagement, and a longitudinal research approach to increase the representativeness of the data. This type of information is important for communities and regions to inform decision making (maintain successes, and identify areas for improvement), strengthen health service delivery and infrastructure, increase accessibility to healthcare personnel, and allocate funding and/or resources to build capacity and foster a proactive chronic disease prevention and management approach for Indigenous communities across Canada.TRIAL REGISTRATION: Current ClinicalTrial.gov protocol ID NCT02234973 . Registered: September 9, 2014." ]
[ "Indigenous First Nations people in Canada have high chronic disease morbidity resulting in part from enduring social inequities and colonialism. Obesity prevention strategies developed by and for First Nations people are crucial to improving the health status of this group. The research objective was to develop community-relevant strategies to address childhood obesity in a First Nations community. Strategies were derived from an action-based workshop based on the Analysis Grid for Environments Linked to Obesity (ANGELO) framework. Thirteen community members with wide-ranging community representation took part in the workshop. They combined personal knowledge and experience with community-specific and national research to dissect the broad array of environmental factors that influenced childhood obesity in their community. They then developed community-specific action plans focusing on healthy eating and physical activity for children and their families. Actions included increasing awareness of children's health issues among the local population and community leadership, promoting nutrition and physical activity at school, and improving recreation opportunities. Strengthening children's connection to their culture was considered paramount to improving their well-being; thus, workshop participants developed programmes that included elders as teachers and reinforced families' acquaintance with First Nations foods and activities. The research demonstrated that the ANGELO framework is a participatory way to develop community-driven health programmes. It also demonstrated that First Nations people involved in the creation of solutions to health issues in their communities may focus on decolonising approaches such as strengthening their connection to indigenous culture and traditions. External funds were not available to implement programmes and there was no formal follow-up to determine if community members implemented programmes. Future research needs to examine the extent to which community members can implement programmes on their own and whether community action plans, when implemented, lead to short- and long-term benefits in health outcomes.", "BACKGROUND: The burden of cancer among indigenous people in Canada has been understudied due to a lack of ethnic identifiers in cancer registries. We compared cancer survival among First Nations to that among non-Aboriginal adults in Canada in the first national study of its kind to date.METHODS: A population-based cohort of approximately 2 million respondents to the 1991 Canadian Long Form Census was followed for cancer diagnoses and deaths using probabilistic linkage to cancer and death registries until 2009. Excess mortality rate ratios (EMRR) and 5-year age-standardized relative survival rates were calculated for 15 cancers using age, sex, ethnicity, and calendar-time-specific life tables derived from the cohort at large.RESULTS: First Nations diagnosed with cancers of the colon and rectum, lung and bronchus, breast, prostate, oral cavity and pharynx, cervix, ovary, or with non-Hodgkin lymphoma and leukemia all had significantly poorer 5-year survival than their non-Aboriginal peers. For colorectal cancer, a significant disparity was only present between 2001 and 2009 (EMRR: 1.52; 95% CI, 1.28-1.80). For prostate cancer, a significant disparity was only present between 1992 and 2000 (EMRR: 2.76; 95% CI, 1.81-4.21). Adjusting for income and rurality had little impact on the EMRRs.CONCLUSIONS: Compared with non-Aboriginals, First Nations people had poorer survival for 14 of 15 of the most common cancers, and disparities could not be explained by income and rurality.IMPACT: The results of this study can serve as a benchmark for monitoring progress toward narrowing the gap in survival. Cancer Epidemiol Biomarkers Prev; 26(1); 145-51. 2016 AACR." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
does 3d rendering use graphics card
[ "In the case of 3D graphics, rendering may be done slowly, as in pre-rendering, or in real time. Pre-rendering is a computationally intensive process that is typically used for movie creation, while real-time rendering is often done for 3D video games which rely on the use of graphics cards with 3D hardware accelerators.he term rendering may be by analogy with an artist's rendering of a scene. Though the technical details of rendering methods vary, the general challenges to overcome in producing a 2D image from a 3D representation stored in a scene file are outlined as the graphics pipeline along a rendering device, such as a GPU." ]
[ "The Best 3D Rendering and Animation. KeyShot is everything you need to create fast, accurate and amazing visuals. Featuring a real-time workflow to see your renderings and animations take shape instantly, KeyShot reduces the time it takes to create that perfect shot.", "All computer rendering is accomplished by turning the objects in the scene to be rendered into tiny triangles and pushing them through a rendering pipeline. The rendering pipeline executes in a series of discrete steps, each of which takes some processing power to complete." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
cost of installing residential elevator
[ "More extensive home elevator installation can run from $20,000 to $30,000, and for a hydraulic elevator, multiple procedures are factored into this cost. Considered one of the safer designs for home elevators, hydraulic models need a pit and machine room created and need an exterior or interior hoistway constructed.lick Here to Get a Quote! Upkeep is a long-term cost for home elevators. Many areas require permits for home elevators to be purchased, and one may cost from $200 to $1,000. Inspections, as well, should be done yearly in many areas, and these, too, are part of the cost of owning a home elevator." ]
[ "Nearly all elevator installers and repairers learn through an apprenticeship. Currently, 35 states require workers to be licensed. Pay. The median annual wage for elevator installers and repairers was $78,890 in May 2016. Job Outlook", "Waupaca residential and commercial dumbwaiters are designed for vertical transport in multi-floor applications. Our dumbwaiters are available in powder-coated steel, or stainless steel cars. Custom car sizes allow Waupaca to build dumbwaiters to meet specific lift needs. Our winding drum drive system and heavy-" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
how much is toilet trouble
[ "1 Broken or failing parts inside the tank (like a fill valve, flapper, ball cock or tank lever) may cause a toilet to run continuously. 2 DIY replacement parts for this problem typically cost $5-$50 depending on the brand of toilet, with an average cost of less than $25. 3 This project might take 20-30 minutes or two hours." ]
[ "CostHelper readers report paying $95-$210 to have a toilet unclogged, at an average price of $164. In some cases clearing a toilet-only clog can cost $400-$650 or more depending on location, company and if it's an emergency call (evenings, weekends, holidays or immediate response).", "Cost to Replace a Toilet. Updated: August 2017. For a basic project in zip code 47474 with 1 toilet, the cost to Replace a Toilet starts at $619 - $1,018 per toilet." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
characidae is smaller than miniature
[ "Developmental heterochronies between the small-sized Moenkhausia pittieri and the miniature Paracheirodon innesi were determined by describing and comparing external morphological development in both species. Despite being classified as miniature, P. innesi was larger and more developed in the flexion and post-flexion larval stages than M. pittieri. Broader patterns within the Characidae suggest that body size reduction in P. innesi is tied to accelerated development and higher growth rate along with early maturation and precocious cessation of growth, which are characteristic of miniature species. Comments on adipose-fin loss in Characidae as a consequence of developmental truncation are included." ]
[ "Variation in animal body size is the result of a complex interplay between variation in cell number and cell size, but the latter has seldom been considered in wide-ranging comparative studies, although distinct patterns of variation have been described in the evolution of different lineages. We investigated the correlation between epidermal cell size and body size in a sample of 29 geophilomorph centipede species, representative of a wide range of body sizes, from 6mm dwarf species to gigantic species more than 200mm long, exploiting the marks of epidermal cells on the overlying cuticle in the form of micro-sculptures called scutes. We found conspicuous and significant variation in average scute area, both between suprageneric taxa and between genera, while the within-species range of variation is comparatively small. This supports the view that the average epidermal cell size is to some extent taxon specific. However, regression analyses show that neither body size nor the number of leg-bearing segments explain this variation, which suggests that cell size is not an usual target of change for body size evolution in this group of arthropods, although there is evidence of its correlation with other morphological variables, like cuticle thickness. Scute sizes of miniaturized geophilomorph species are well within the range of the lineage to which the species belong, suggesting recent evolutionary transitions to smaller body size.", "We present the first morphological study of the internal head structures of adults of the coniopterygid genus Aleuropteryx, which belong to the smallest known lacewings. The head is ventrally closed with a gula, which is unique in adult Neuroptera and otherwise developed in Megaloptera, the sister group of Neuroptera. The dorsal tentorial arms are directed posteriorly and fused, forming an arch that fulfills functions otherwise taken by the tentorial bridge. A newly found maxillary gland is present in both sexes. Several structural modifications correlated with miniaturization are recognized: a relative increase in the size of the brain, a reduction in the number of ommatidia and diameter of the facets, a countersunken cone-shaped ocular ridge, and a simplification of the tracheal system. The structure of the head differs strikingly from that of the previously studied species Coniopteryx pygmaea, indicating a greater variability in the family Coniopterygidae, which might be another effect of miniaturization." ]
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synthetic
Does [ RANKL increases on peripheral blood T lymphocytes and serum Dickkopf1 decrease in rheumatoid arthritis ]?
[ "To explore the roles of bone metabolism-related molecules in bone metabolic disturbance and disease progression of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). A total of 66 RA patients and 20 healthy controls were included, and their relevant clinical information was gathered. Electrochemiluminescence immunoassay (ECLIA) was used to detect the levels of osteocalcin N-terminal middle (OC-N-MID) and C-terminal cross-linked telopeptides of type 1 collagen (CTX) in serum. The serum levels of Wnt inhibitory factor Dickkopf1 (DKK1) and receptor activator of nuclear factor-κB ligand (RANKL) were determined by magnetic luminex assays. Flow cytometry was used to detect the RANKL level on peripheral blood T cells. Compared with healthy controls, the levels of OC-N-MID and CTX in the sera of the RA patients showed no significant difference. Level of RANKL in the sera of the RA patients was higher than that in the controls, while level of DKK1 was lower. The level of RANKL on peripheral blood T cells increased in the RA patients, especially on CD3(+) T cells" ]
[ "This study was done with aim to assess the serum sclerostin and dickkopf-1 (DKK-1) level in patients of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and to correlate their level with disease activity and bone mineral density. Fifty patients of RA and equal age and sex matched healthy controls were included in the study. Patients were evaluated clinically and investigated with routine blood tests along with rheumatoid factor (RF), anti-citrullinated protein antibody (anti-CCP2), radiographs and bone mineral density (BMD). Serum sclerostin and DKK-1 levels of both cases and controls was assayed by using enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) assay [RayBio®, Georgia, USA with coefficient of variation percent (CV %), < 10%] and compared with disease activity and bone mineral density. Disease activity was measured by Disease Activity Score 28 (DAS28) along with Modified Health Assessment Questionnaire (MHAQ) score. Mean serum sclerostin and DKK-1 was significantly higher in study group as compared to control group. Serum sclerostin showed significant correlation with disease activity scores (DAS score and MHAQ score), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) level. Serum sclerostin at level of 394 pg/mL was found to have diagnostic significance with sensitivity of 100% and specificity of 90%. DKK-1 level shows significantly positive correlation with larson score which denotes radiological progression (r value 0.468; p value 0.001). More studies with larger sample size of RA patients are needed for better determination of the role of sclerostin and DKK-1 in RA. Also, the correlation of these and other bone turn over markers will help decipher their role with disease progression in RA patients.", "We previously reported that interleukin-29 (IL-29) was highly expressed in the blood and synovium of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients and contributed to synovial inflammation by induction of proinflammatory cytokine production. Given chronic inflammation can trigger the process of bone erosion, and receptor activator of nuclear factor-κB ligand (RANKL) plays a crucial role in bone erosion of RA, we hypothesize that IL-29 mediates bone erosion in RA by regulation of RANKL expression. Here, we investigated the effect of IL-29 on RANKL expression in RA fibroblast-like synoviocytes (FLS) and the relevant signaling pathways involved in it. Primary fibroblast cells isolated from RA patients were stimulated by recombinant IL-29 in the presence or absence of anti-IL-29 antibody, and the expression levels of RANKL were assessed using real-time polymerase chain reaction and immunostaining. Furthermore, the IL-29 signaling pathway for regulation of RANKL was also examined by Western blotting assay. IL-29 upregulated RANKL expression in a dose-dependent manner, and blockade of IL-29 resulted in a significantly reduced RANKL expression in RA-FLS. Incubation RA-FLS with IL-29 (100 ng/mL) led to phosphorylation of ERK (extracellular signal-regulated kinase), p38 and JNK (c-Jun N-terminal kinase). The expression of RANKL induced by IL-29 could be completely blocked by the inhibitors of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) signal pathway, including PD98059 (ERK inhibitor), SB203580 (p38 inhibitor) and SP600125 (JNK inhibitor)" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
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define public procurement
[ "For tendering in the public service, see Civil service examination. Part of a series on. Government procurement, or public procurement, is the procurement of goods, services or constructions on behalf of a public authority, such as a government agency. With 10 to 20% of GDP, government procurement accounts for a substantial part of the global economy." ]
[ "E-procurement (electronic procurement, sometimes also known as supplier exchange) is the business-to-business or business-to-consumer or business-to-government purchase and sale of supplies, work, and services through the Internet as well as other information and networking systems, such as electronic data interchange and enterprise resource planning.", "E-procurement (electronic procurement, sometimes also known as supplier exchange) is the business-to-business or business-to-consumer or business-to-government purchase and sale of supplies, work, and services through the Internet as well as other information and networking systems, such as electronic data interchange and enterprise resource ..." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Is poor outcome in chronic schizophrenia associated with progressive loss of volume of the putamen?
[ "We have previously demonstrated that putaminal but not caudate volumes are associated with poor outcome in patients with chronic schizophrenia. Present longitudinal study was designed to investigate progressive differences in striatal volumes among chronic schizophrenia patients with different outcomes and healthy subjects. Structural MRI scans were acquired at baseline and at follow-up four years later to evaluate volumetric changes in 26 poor-outcome schizophrenia patients, 23 good-outcome patients and 16 healthy subjects. Schizophrenia patients with different outcomes entered the study with similar volumes of the caudate nucleus and putamen. The rate of decline in volumes of the putamen was greater in patients with poor outcome than in the good-outcome group, so that their putaminal but not caudate volumes were significantly smaller at the time of follow-up. There were no differences in baseline and follow-up volumes of the putamen or in the rate of their progression among patients with schizophrenia and healthy comparison subjects. The caudate volumes were lower in schizophrenia patients than healthy subjects at baseline and follow-up, but showed no differential patterns of progression between the groups" ]
[ "Although modified electroconvulsive therapy (MECT) has been employed as a treatment strategy and to resolve medication resistant symptoms in schizophrenia (SZ), its action mechanisms remain unclear. The insula has been demonstrated to associate with clinical symptoms and neuropathology in SZ. This study examined whether insular changes response to MECT outcomes in SZ. Forty-two SZ were divided into two groups according to their treatment strategies. One group (MSZ, n = 21) received 4-weeks MECT together with antipsychotics; another group (DSZ, n = 21) was treated only with antipsychotics. Twenty-three healthy controls (HC) were also included. Structural and functional MRI were scanned twice (baseline and after 4-week treatment) for SZ and once for HC. Firstly, the insula was divided into three subregions based on resting-state functional connectivity (FC). Subsequently, gray matter volume (GMV) and voxel-wise FC were assessed in each subregion. Finally, the relationship between insular changes and symptom improvements was also investigated. Compared with baseline, the DSZ group showed reduced GMV in insular subregions. In contrast, the MSZ group exhibited increased GMV in bilateral posterior insula (PIns); furthermore, the increase in the PIns was correlated with symptom improvements. Second, the decreased FC between right PIns and left orbitofrontal cortex, and left PIns and middle occipital gyrus was observed only in the MSZ group; moreover, these FC changes were associated with symptom improvements. The present study demonstrated that MECT induced insular changes, which may contribute to the mechanisms of MECT.", "Depression is common in schizophrenia and associated with negative outcomes. Previous studies have identified heterogeneity in treatment response in schizophrenia. We aimed to investigate different trajectories of depression in patients suffering from psychosis and predictors of change in depressive symptoms during antipsychotic treatment. Two hundred and twenty-six patients >18 years acutely admitted due to psychosis were consecutively included and the follow-up was 27 weeks. The Calgary Depression Scale for Schizophrenia (CDSS) sum score was the primary outcome. Latent growth curve (LGCM) and Growth Mixture Models (GMM) were conducted. Predictors were the Positive sum score of the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale for Schizophrenia (PANSS), Schizophrenia spectrum/non-spectrum psychoses, gender and being antipsychotic naive at inclusion. We found support for three depression-trajectories, including a high- (14.7%), a low depression-level (69.6%) class and a third depressed class quickly decreasing to a low level (15.7%). Change in CDSS was associated with change in PANSS positive score in all time intervals (4 weeks: b = 0.18, p < 0.001, 3 months: 0.21, p < 0.023, 6 months: 0.43, p < 0.001) and with a diagnosis within schizophrenia spectrum but not with antipsychotic naivety or gender. The schizophrenia-spectrum patients had less depressive symptoms at inclusion (-2.63, p < 0.001). In conclusion, an early responding and a treatment refractory group were identified. The treatment-refractory patients are candidates for enhanced anti-depressive treatment, for which current evidence is limited. The post-psychotic depression group was characterized by depressive symptoms in the acute phase as well. We could not identify differentiating characteristics of the depression trajectories." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
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what are examples of GMOs
[ "The top three GMO crops grown in the U.S. are soy, corn and cotton, according to the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).During the past 12 years, the percentage of acreage planted with GMO crops soared to over 80 percent for each of the top three.(See this graph at Mother Jones .).he top three GMO crops grown in the U.S. are soy, corn and cotton, according to the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA). During the past 12 years, the percentage of acreage planted with GMO crops soared to over 80 percent for each of the top three. (See this graph at Mother Jones .)." ]
[ "High-Risk Crops (in commercial production; ingredients derived from these must be tested every time prior to use in Non-GMO Project Verified products (as of December 2011):1 Alfalfa (first planting 2011). 2 Canola (approx. 90% of U.S. crop). 3 Corn (approx. 88% of U.S. crop in 2011).4 Cotton (approx. 90% of U.S. crop in 2011).igh-Risk Crops (in commercial production; ingredients derived from these must be tested every time prior to use in Non-GMO Project Verified products (as of December 2011):", "The chart below explains why each of the nine GMO crops – which are commercially available today – are genetically modified: The GM salmon was recently approved by the FDA and is the first GMO animal to be approved." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what type of field is enlarged blind spot
[ "PURPOSE: To investigate the prevalence and risk factors for visual field defect in patients with optic disc drusen (ODD).METHODS: We assessed the visual field status of patients with ODD whose diagnosis were confirmed by spectral-domain optical coherence tomography (SD-OCT). Visual field defects were classified as normal, enlarged blind spot, or other defects. ODD were classified into either type 1 (without hyperreflective border and heterogenic internal reflectance) or type 2 (with hyperreflective border and lower internal reflectance). The prevalence and risk factors for each visual field defect was analyzed using logistic regression analysis and classification and regression tree (CART) modeling.RESULTS: Of the 40 eyes with ODD, 33 (83%) eyes were categorized as type 1 and 7 (17%) eyes were categorized as type 2 ODD. Regarding the visual field defects, 19 (48%) eyes showed normal visual field, 11 (28%) eyes showed enlarged blind spot, and 9 (24%) eyes showed other defects. The latter was more frequent in type 2 ODD (P = 0.001). Logistic regression analysis revealed that the factor associated with other defects was the thinning of the average retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) (per 10 m decrease, OR = 3.436, P = 0.004), and the factor associated with enlarged blind spot was the height of ODD (per 100 m increase, OR = 3.956, P = 0.023). CART modeling revealed that the average RNFL thickness lesser than 85.5 m, and then the ODD height larger than 348 m were the best split-up factors for predicting the type of visual field defects.CONCLUSIONS: In this study, one-quarter of ODD patients showed abnormal visual field defect other than enlarged blind spot. These other visual field defects appeared to be associated with the axonal loss in the eyes with type 2 ODD." ]
[ "PURPOSE: To test the hypothesis that visual field assessment in ocular disease measured with target stimuli within or close to complete spatial summation results in larger threshold elevation compared to when measured with the standard Goldmann III target size. The hypothesis predicts a greater loss will be identified in ocular disease. Additionally, we sought to develop a theoretical framework that would allow comparisons of thresholds with disease progression when using different Goldmann targets.METHODS: The Humphrey Field Analyser (HFA) 30-2 grid was used in 13 patients with early/established optic nerve disease using the current Goldmann III target size or a combination of the three smallest stimuli (target size I, II and III). We used data from control subjects at each of the visual field locations for the different target sizes to establish the number of failed points (events) for the patients with optic nerve disease, as well as global indices for mean deviation (MD) and pattern standard deviation (PSD).RESULTS: The 30-2 visual field testing using alternate target size stimuli showed that all 13 patients displayed more defects (events) compared to the standard Goldmann III target size. The median increase for events was seven additional failed points: (range 1-26). The global indices also increased when the new testing approach was used (MD -3.47 to -6.25dB and PSD 4.32 to 6.63dB). Spatial summation mapping showed an increase in critical area (Ac) in disease and overall increase in thresholds when smaller target stimuli were used.CONCLUSIONS: When compared to the current Goldmann III paradigm, the use of alternate sized targets within the 30-2 testing protocol revealed a greater loss in patients with optic nerve disease for both event analysis and global indices (MD and PSD). We therefore provide evidence in a clinical setting that target size is important in visual field testing.", "PURPOSE: To determine how formation of an acquired myopic crescent adjacent to the optic disc affects metabolic activity in the primary visual cortex.DESIGN: Laboratory animal study.PARTICIPANTS: Three macaque monkeys.METHODS: The blind spot region in the primary visual cortex was labeled by cytochrome oxidase (CO) histochemistry analysis or [(3)H]proline autoradiography.MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Visualization of the representation of the blind spot and myopic peripapillary crescent in the visual cortex.RESULTS: In high myopia, a region resembling the myopic peripapillary crescent was visible in cortical sections processed for CO. In this region, metabolic activity was reduced in ocular dominance columns that normally would be driven by input from retina corresponding to the myopic peripapillary crescent.CONCLUSIONS: The formation of a myopic crescent is accompanied by loss of metabolic activity in the cortex supplied by the affected retina. This observation confirms that retinal tissue is damaged by the development of a myopic crescent, rather than simply translocated in a temporal direction. The cortical defect matches the myopic peripapillary crescent in size and shape, indicating that fill-in of the retinotopic map by healthy, surrounding retina does not occur." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
rubber stamp definition
[ "Freebase(0.00 / 0 votes)Rate this definition: Rubber stamp. Rubber stamping, also called stamping, is a craft in which some type of ink made of dye or pigment is applied to an image or pattern that has been carved, molded, laser engraved or vulcanized, onto a sheet of rubber." ]
[ "stamp. v. stamped, stamp·ing, stamps. v. tr. 1. To bring down (the foot) forcibly. 2. To bring the foot down onto (an object or surface) forcibly. 3. To cause to be dislodged by stomping the feet: He stamped the snow from his boots.4.tamp. 1. to strike or beat with a forcible, downward thrust of the foot. 2. to bring (the foot) down forcibly on the ground, floor, etc. 3. to crush, extinguish, etc., by or as if by striking with a forcible downward thrust of the foot (often fol. by out): to stamp out a fire; to stamp out crime.", "Jen Psaki: It doesn't mean we're giving rubber stamp approval to their other actions. Charles Grassley: There's too much at stake for Congress to be a rubber stamp on non-consensus nominees. Gamal Abdel Nasser: It's really the government that will put the policies and they will just rubber stamp it." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
K-ras status in squamous cell anal carcinoma (SCC): it's time for target-oriented treatment?
[ "Squamous cell anal carcinoma (SCC) is an uncommon disease comprising only 1-5% of all intestinal tumours. SCC is now considered the prototype for the successful application of conservative treatment as chemoradiation instead of aggressive surgery. The EGFR status and k-ras mutations in SCC of the anal canal has not been well investigated. The purpose of our evaluation was to give information about this issue. From June 1999 to December 2008, 32 patients affected by SCC were treated in our institution with chemotherapy containing Fluoropyrimidine and platinum salt concomitant with pelvic radiotherapy. Immunohistochemistry for EGFR and k-ras mutation was retrospectively evaluated. Twenty-six specimens were considered evaluable for biological objectives: K-ras mutation was performed in all cases, while EGFR in 12. In all cases of our series wild-type K-ras was observed" ]
[ "Lung adenocarcinomas (LUADs) with mutations in the K-ras oncogene display dismal prognosis. Proinflammatory and immunomodulatory events that drive development of K-ras mutant LUAD are poorly understood. Here, we develop a lung epithelial specific K-ras mutant/Stat3 conditional knockout (LR/Stat3Ä/Ä) mouse model. Epithelial Stat3 deletion results in intriguing sex-associated discrepancies; K-ras mutant tumors are decreased in female LR/Stat3Ä/Ä mice whereas tumor burdens are increased in males. RNA-sequencing and tumor microenvironment (TME) analysis demonstrate increased anti-tumor immune responses following Stat3 deletion in females and, conversely, elevated pro-tumor immune pathways in males. While IL-6 blockade in male LR/Stat3Ä/Ä mice reduces lung tumorigenesis, inhibition of estrogen receptor signaling in female mice augments K-ras mutant oncogenesis and reprograms lung TME toward a pro-tumor phenotype. Our data underscore a critical sex-specific role for epithelial Stat3 signaling in K-ras mutant LUAD, thus paving the way for developing personalized (e.g. sex-based) immunotherapeutic strategies for this fatal disease.", "BACKGROUND/OBJECTIVES: Racial disparities are known to impact cancer outcomes. The aim of this study was to assess current racial disparities in outcomes of anal squamous cell carcinoma (SCC).METHODS: The National Cancer Database was used to identify patients with anal SCC. The primary outcome was 5-year overall survival.RESULTS: There were 32 255 (88.1%) White patients and 4342 (11.9%) Black patients identified with anal SCC. Compared to White patients, Black patients were more likely to be younger, have lower median income, and be insured with Medicaid (all P < .001). The 5-year overall survival of Black and White patients for stage I disease was 71.2% and 80.6% (P < .001), for stage II disease, was 64.6% and 69.3% (P = .001), for stage III disease was 50.9% and 58.1% (P < .001), and for stage IV disease was 22.1% and 21.9% (P = .20). In a cox regression analysis, Black race was associated with significantly worse survival in stage I (HR: 1.37, 95% CI: 1.07-1.76, P = .01), stage II (HR: 1.30, 95% CI: 1.14-1.48, P < .001), and stage III disease (HR: 1.31, 95% CI: 1.16-1.47, P < .001) but not for stage IV disease (HR: 1.09, 95% CI: 0.89-1.35, P = .41).CONCLUSIONS: Black race is correlated with worse survival in patients diagnosed with anal SCC. This disparity in survival is likely multifactorial and requires further study." ]
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Ivanka Trump existed in late 1982.
[ " Ivanka Trump Ivanka Marie Trump ( -LSB- iˈvɑːŋkə -RSB- born October 30 , 1981 ) is an American businesswoman and former fashion model who is currently assistant to President Donald Trump . She is the daughter of the president and his first wife , former model Ivana Trump . Trump has been an executive vice president of her father 's company -- The Trump Organization -- as well as serving as a boardroom advisor on her father 's TV show The Apprentice . She moved to Washington , D.C in January 2017 as her husband , Jared Kushner , was appointed as a Senior Advisor to the President of the United States by her father . Starting in late March 2017 , Trump began serving in her father 's administration as assistant to the president . She assumed this official , unpaid federal government position after multiple ethics concerns were raised about her access to sensitive material while not being held to the same ethics restrictions as a federal employee . She is considered part of her father 's inner circle ." ]
[ " United States presidential election, 2016 The United States presidential election of 2016 was the 58th quadrennial American presidential election , held on Tuesday , November 8 , 2016 . The Republican ticket of businessman Donald Trump and Indiana Governor Mike Pence defeated the Democratic ticket of former Secretary of State Hillary Clinton and U.S. Senator from Virginia Tim Kaine . Trump took office as the 45th President , and Pence as the 48th Vice President , on January 20 , 2017 . Concurrent with the presidential election , Senate , House , and many gubernatorial and state and local elections were also held on November 8 . Voters selected members of the Electoral College in each state , in most cases by `` winner-takes-all '' plurality ; those state electors in turn voted for a new president and vice president on December 19 , 2016 . While Clinton received about million more votes nationwide , a margin of % , Trump won 30 states worth a total of 306 electors , or 57 % of the 538 available . He won the perennial swing states of Florida , North Carolina , Ohio , and Iowa , as well as Clinton 's `` blue wall '' states of Michigan , Pennsylvania and Wisconsin , which had been Democratic strongholds in presidential elections for decades . Leading up to the election , a Trump victory was considered unlikely by almost all media forecasts . In the Electoral College vote on December 19 , seven electors voted against their pledged candidates : two against Trump and five against Clinton . A further three electors attempted to vote against Clinton but were replaced or forced to vote again . Ultimately , Trump received 304 electoral votes and Clinton garnered 227 , while Colin Powell won three , and John Kasich , Ron Paul , Bernie Sanders , and Faith Spotted Eagle each received one . Trump is the fifth person in U.S. history to become president while losing the nationwide popular vote . He is the first president without any prior experience in public service or the military , as well as the wealthiest and the oldest at inauguration , while Clinton was the first woman to be the presidential nominee of a major party and the first woman to win the popular vote . This was the first time since the 1984 re-election of Ronald Reagan that Wisconsin voted for a Republican , and the first time since 1988 that the Republican nominee won the states of Pennsylvania and Michigan , as well as Maine 's second congressional district . It was also the first time since the 1828 election of Andrew Jackson that an electoral vote split occurred in Maine . On January 6 , 2017 , the United States government 's intelligence agencies concluded that the Russian government interfered in the 2016 United States elections . A joint U.S. intelligence review stated with high confidence that `` Russian President Vladimir Putin ordered an influence campaign in 2016 aimed at the US presidential election . Russia 's goals were to undermine public faith in the US democratic process , denigrate Secretary Clinton , and harm her electability and potential presidency . '' Investigations about potential collusion between the Trump campaign and Russian officials were started by the FBI , the Senate Intelligence Committee and the House Intelligence Committee . Donald Trump has criticized these conclusions by citing a lack of evidence , calling it a `` hoax '' and `` fake news , '' stating in a tweet : `` The Russia-Trump collusion story is a total hoax , when will this taxpayer funded charade end ? ''", " Republican Party (United States) The Republican Party , commonly referred to as the GOP ( abbreviation for Grand Old Party ) , is one of the two major contemporary political parties in the United States , the other being its historic rival , the Democratic Party . The party is named after republicanism , the dominant value during the American Revolution . Founded by anti-slavery activists , modernists , ex-Whigs , and ex-Free Soilers in 1854 , the Republicans dominated politics nationally and in the majority of northern States for most of the period between 1860 and 1932 . There have been 19 Republican presidents , the most from any one party . The first was 16th president Abraham Lincoln , who served from 1861 to 1865 , when he was assassinated , and the most recent being 45th and current president Donald Trump , who took office on January 20 , 2017 . The Republican Party 's current ideology is American conservatism , which contrasts with the Democrats ' more progressive platform ( also called modern liberalism ) . Further , its platform involves support for free market capitalism , free enterprise , fiscal conservatism , a strong national defense , deregulation , and restrictions on labor unions . In addition to advocating for conservative economic policies , the Republican Party is socially conservative , and seeks to uphold traditional values based largely on Judeo-Christian ethics . The GOP was strongly committed to protectionism and tariffs from its founding until the 1930s , when it was based in the industrial Northeast and Midwest . Since 1952 there has been a reversal against protectionism and the party 's core support since the 1990s comes chiefly from the South , the Great Plains , the Mountain States and rural districts in the North . as well as from conservative Catholics , Mormons , and Evangelicals nationwide . As of 2017 , the Republican Party is documented as being at its strongest position politically since 1928 . In addition to holding the Presidency ( via Trump and Vice President Mike Pence ) , the Republicans control the 115th United States Congress , having majorities in both the House of Representatives and the Senate . The party also holds a majority of governorships ( 33/50 ) and state legislatures ( full control of 32/50 , split control of six others ) ." ]
Given a claim, retrieve documents that support or refute the claim
fever
how can parents use physician rated sites
[ "BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE: The US public is increasingly using online rating sites to make decisions about a variety of consumer goods and services, including physicians. We sought to understand, within the context of other types of rating sites, parents' awareness, perceptions, and use of physician-rating sites for choosing primary care physicians for their children.METHODS: This cross-sectional, nationally representative survey of 3563 adults was conducted in September 2012. Participants were asked about rating Web sites in the context of finding a primary care physician for their children and about their previous experiences with such sites.RESULTS: Overall, 2137 (60%) of participants completed the survey. Among these respondents, 1619 were parents who were included in the present analysis. About three-quarters (74%) of parents were aware of physician-rating sites, and about one-quarter (28%) had used them to select a primary care physician for their children. Based on 3 vignettes for which respondents were asked if they would follow a neighbor's recommendation about a primary care physician and using multivariate analyses, respondents exposed to a neighbor's recommendation and positive online physician ratings were significantly more likely to choose the recommended physician (adjusted odds ratio: 3.0 [95% confidence interval: 2.1-4.4]) than respondents exposed to the neighbor's recommendation alone. Conversely, respondents exposed to the neighbor's recommendation and negative online ratings were significantly less likely to choose the neighbor children's physician (adjusted odds ratio: 0.09 [95% confidence interval: 0.03-0.3]).CONCLUSIONS: Parents are beginning to use online physician ratings, and these ratings have the potential to influence choices of their children's primary care physician." ]
[ "BACKGROUND: Despite regulations, insufficient information is provided to adult patients prior to their radiologic examinations. Information regarding paediatric patients has not been systematically studied.OBJECTIVE: To survey parents' experience and wishes for information in connection with their child's radiographic examination.MATERIALS AND METHODS: We provided a questionnaire to consenting parents of children younger than 12years old at a university hospital. The questionnaire asked parents about the information obtained from the referrer prior to the radiograph, the chance to discuss with the referrer and their wishes regarding future information. Forty-one parents responded to the survey. Twenty-five children were referred for radiography of extremities, the others for dental, body and skull examinations.RESULTS: Altogether 34/41 (83%, 95% confidence interval [CI] 69-91%) parents said they received adequate information on the purpose of the examination, 8/35 (23%, 95% CI 12-39%) on other options and 3/41 (7%, 95% CI 3-19%) on radiation dose. Ten of 41 parents (24%, 95% CI 12-40%) said they were aware of radiation exposure. The number of previous radiology examinations was not sufficiently discussed. The communication was scored as mean 6.5 (95% CI 5.8-7.1) on a scale from 4 (poor) to 10 (excellent). Thirty-eight of 40 (95%, 95% CI 84-99%) of parents expected information on the purpose, 35/40 (88%, 95% CI 74-95%) on radiation dose and 31/40 (78%, 95% CI 63-88%) on other options. Symbols of radiation and corresponding period of natural background radiation are preferred to convey the dose. A referrer is the preferred source of information.CONCLUSION: Parents did not feel adequately informed prior to their child's radiographic examination. Parents expect more information about the purpose, dose and alternative tests.", "INTRODUCTION: Our aim was to examine the internet health seeking behaviour of parents attending a general paediatric outpatient clinic. For this purpose, the proportion of parents going online to obtain child health information, the most commonly used online resources, and factors having an influence on internet usage were identified.METHODS: This cross-sectional observational study was conducted at a general paediatric outpatient clinic in Vienna, Austria. Data collection was done by means of an anonymous questionnaire containing 14 items. A total number of 500 questionnaires were collected.RESULTS: Among parents visiting the outpatient clinic, 94.4% use the internet to obtain child health information in general and 21% to be informed about the reason for consultation. Most commonly used online resources are Google (91.4%), websites run by doctors (84.8%), Wikipedia (84.7%), health portals (76.4%), the outpatient clinic's homepage (76.4%), as well as health forums and communities (61.9%). Younger parents (p = 0.022) and parents of younger children (p < 0.01) display a higher tendency to use the internet for child health information purposes. Mothers and fathers (p = 0.151) as well as parents with different completed educational levels (mothers: p = 0.078; fathers: p = 0.388) do not differ in this behaviour.DISCUSSION: Important reasons for high internet use might be the inexperience of young parents regarding child health as well as the frequent infections, vaccinations, and preventive check-ups which are associated with young age of children. In contrast to former findings relating to health seekers in general, internet usage of parents is independent of their sex and educational level." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
how is anemia treated?
[ "Many types of anemia can be mild, short term, and easily treated. You can even prevent some types with a healthy diet. Other types can be treated with dietary supplements. However, certain types of anemia can be severe, long lasting, and even life threatening if not diagnosed and treated." ]
[ "Iron-deficiency anemia is a common, easily treated condition that occurs if you don't have enough iron in your body. Low iron levels usually are due to blood loss, poor diet, or an inability to absorb enough iron from food. Iron-deficiency anemia is a common type of anemia. The term anemia usually refers to a condition in which your blood has a lower than normal number of red blood cells. Red blood cells carry oxygen and remove carbon dioxide (a waste product) from your body.", "Blood Clotting Factor. The best way to treat hemophilia is to replace the missing blood clotting factor so that the blood can clot properly. This is done by injecting commercially prepared clotting factor concentrates into a person’s vein." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
which president tore down the berlin wall
[ "Ronald Reagan speaking at the Brandenburg Gate on June 12, 1987. (Ronald Reagan Library) Behind me stands a wall that encircles the free sectors of this city, part of a vast system of barriers that divides the entire continent of Europe. . . . Standing before the Brandenburg Gate, every man is a German, separated from his fellow men. Every man is a Berliner, forced to look upon a scar." ]
[ "On November 15, 1938, Franklin D. Roosevelt (1882-1945), the American president, responded to Kristallnacht by reading a statement to the media in which he harshly denounced the rising tide of anti-Semitism and violence in Germany. He also recalled Hugh Wilson, his ambassador to Germany.", "The Berlin Wall (German: Berliner Mauer) separated the city of Berlin in Germany from 1961 to 1989. It separated the eastern half from the western half. Many people thought it was a symbol of the Cold War. The Berlin Wall was taken down on November 9, 1989." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Although the management practices described in this guide are fundamental to improving an organization's information security posture, they should be considered in the context of this broader spectrum of issues.
[ "Management practices are fundamental in improving an organization." ]
[ "Management practices are not really important in improving an organization." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
African girl with a small boy tied to her back by fabric.
[ "The girl has a boy on her back." ]
[ "The girl has a girl on her back." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
what is chirpp in emergency department
[ "INTRODUCTION: Although fatality and hospitalization rates for burns in Canada have declined over time, less serious cases still commonly present to the emergency department (ED).METHODS: The Canadian Hospitals Injury Reporting and Prevention Program (CHIRPP) is an injury and poisoning surveillance system administered by the Public Health Agency of Canada, operating in emergency departments of 17 hospitals.RESULTS: Overall, cases reported in 2013 were scalds and contact burns from hot objects. The leading direct causes of scalds were hot beverages and hot water. The leading causes of contact burns were stoves/ovens and fireplaces/accessories. While the overall proportion of burns was highest among females, males comprised a higher proportion of burns from all mechanisms except scalds." ]
[ "Air conducted vestibular evoked myogenic potentials (VEMP) can be elicited by various low frequency and intense sound stimuli, mainly clicks or short tone bursts (STB). Chirp stimuli are increasingly used in diagnostic audiological evaluations as an effective means to obtain acoustically evoked responses in narrowed or extended frequency ranges. We hypothesized in this study that band limited chirp stimulation, which covers the main sensitivity range of sound sensitive otolithic afferents (around 500Hz), might be useful for application in cervical and ocular VEMP to air conduction. For this purpose we designed a chirp stimulus ranging 250-1000Hz (up chirp). The chirp stimulus was delivered with a stimulus intensity of 100dB nHL in normal subjects (n=10) and patients with otolith involvement (vestibular neuritis) (n=6). Amplitudes of the designed chirp (\"CW-VEMP-chirp, 250-1000Hz\") were compared with amplitudes of VEMPs evoked by click stimuli (0.1ms) and a short tone burst (STB, 1-2-1, 8ms, 500Hz). CVEMPs and oVEMPs were detectable in 9 of 10 normal individuals. Statistical evaluation in healthy patients revealed significantly larger cVEMP and oVEMP amplitudes for CW-VEMP-chirp (250-1000Hz) stimuli. CVEMP amplitudes evoked by CW-VEMP-chirp (250-1000Hz) showed a high stability in comparison with click and STB stimulation. CW-VEMP-chirp (250-1000Hz) showed abnormal cVEMP and oVEMP amplitudes in patients with vestibular neuritis, with the same properties as click and STB stimulated VEMPs. We conclude that the designed CW-VEMP-chirp (250-1000Hz) is an effective stimulus which can be further used in VEMP diagnostic. Since a chirp stimulus can be easily varied in its properties, in particular with regard to frequency, this might be a promising tool for further investigations.", "OBJECTIVES: Emergency departments (EDs) frequently provide care for nonemergent health conditions outside of usual physician office hours. A nonprofit, fully integrated health insurer/care delivery system that enrolls socioeconomically disadvantaged adults with complex health needs partnered with an ambulance service provider to offer after-hours urgent care by specially trained and equipped paramedics in patients' residences. The Massachusetts Department of Public Health gave this initiative, the Acute Community Care Program (ACCP), a Special Project Waiver. We report results from its first 2 years of operation.STUDY DESIGN: This was an observational study.METHODS: We used descriptive methods to analyze administrative claims, financial and enrollment records from the health insurer, information from service logs submitted by ACCP paramedics, and self-reported patient perceptions from telephone surveys of ACCP recipients.RESULTS: ACCP averaged only about 1 call per day in its first year, growing to about 2 visits daily in year 2. About 15% to 20% of ACCP patients ultimately were transported to EDs and between 7.2% and 17.1% were hospitalized within 1 day of their ACCP visits. No unexpected deaths occurred within 72 hours of ACCP visits. Paramedics stayed on scene approximately 80 minutes on average. About 70% of patients thought that ACCP spared them an ED visit; 90% or more were willing to receive future ACCP care. Average costs per ACCP visit fell from $844 in year 1 to $537 in year 2 as volumes increased.CONCLUSIONS: This study using observational data provides preliminary evidence suggesting that ACCP might offer an alternative to EDs for after-hours urgent care. More rigorous evaluation is required to assess ACCP's effectiveness." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
how is deprivation index calculated in portugal
[ "INTRODUCTION: Tackling socioeconomic health inequalities is a big public health challenge and ecological deprivation indexes areessential instruments to monitor and understand them. In Portugal, no standard ecological deprivation index exists, contrasting withother countries. We aimed to describe the construction of the Portuguese version of a transnational deprivation index, EuropeanDeprivation Index.MATERIAL AND METHODS: The European Deprivation Index was developed under the Townsend theorization of deprivation. Using datafrom the European Union - Statistics on Income and Living Conditions Survey, we obtained an indicator of individual deprivation. Thisindicator became the gold-standard variable, based on what we selected the variables at aggregate level (census) to be included in theEuropean Deprivation Index, a total of eight. The European Deprivation Index was produced for the smallest area unit possible (n = 16094, mean/area = 643 inhabitants) and resulted from the weighted sum of the previous variables. It was then classified into quintiles.RESULTS: The first quintile (least deprived) comprised 20.9% national population and the fifth quintile (most deprived) 18.0%. TheEuropean Deprivation Index showed a clear geographic pattern - most deprived areas concentrated in the South and in the inner Northand Centre of the country, and the least deprived areas in the coastal areas of North and Centre and in the Algarve.DISCUSSION: The development of the European Deprivation Index was grounded on a solid theoretical framework, individual andaggregate variables, and on a longitudinal Europe-wide survey allowing its replication over the time and in any European country.CONCLUSION: Hopefully, the European Deprivation Index will start being employed by those interested in better understand healthinequalities not only in Portugal but across Europe." ]
[ "BACKGROUND: The burden of food insecurity in Portugal, and the socioeconomic and demographic factors that are related to this condition, are unknown.OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the frequency of food insecurity and to identify its associated characteristics in the Portuguese population.METHODS: Data from 3,552 heads of family respondents of the 2005/06 Portuguese National Health Survey were analyzed in a cross-sectional study. Food insecurity was evaluated with the use of the US Department of Agriculture Household Food Security Survey Module 6-Item Short Form. Chi-square tests and multivariate logistic regression models were conducted. Significance was indicated at p < .05.RESULTS: Among the respondents, 16.5% were food insecure and 3.5% had very low food security. The odds of being food insecure were highest for women (OR, 1.51; 95% CI, 1.20 to 1.91), smokers (OR, 1.56; 95% CI, 1.20 to 2.02), younger people (OR, 2.54; 95% CI, 1.69 to 3.80), unemployed people (OR, 3.04; 95% CI, 2.01 to 4.60), those with lower education (OR, 7.98; 95% CI, 4.73 to 13.49), and those with lower income (OR, 6.27; 95% CI, 4.23 to 9.30).CONCLUSIONS: The present study explored for the first time the burden of food insecurity in Portugal, revealing that it was highly prevalent, affecting one in six Portuguese citizens. Low education and low income were the main factors associated with food insecurity.", "PURPOSE: To examine the relationship of neighbourhood-level material and social deprivation with health-related quality of life, measured by the EQ-5D-5L, in the general adult population.METHODS: A sample of 11,835 adults living in Alberta, Canada was drawn from three combined annual Health Quality Council of Alberta Satisfaction and Experiences with Health Care Services surveys from 2012 to 2016. Neighbourhood-level material and social deprivation indices were derived using the Pampalon index and the 2006 Canadian census. The EQ-5D-5L dimensions, index and VAS scores were compared across the deprivation indices quintiles in the overall sample and by participants' sub-groups. Differences were tested using ANOVA or Chi-square test as appropriate. Multivariate linear regression models were conducted to examine the independent association of material and social deprivation with the EQ-5D-5L index and VAS scores, and multinomial logistic regression models with each of the EQ-5D-5L dimensions.RESULTS: Respondents in higher material or social deprivation categories had lower EQ-5D-5L index and VAS scores than those in the least deprived categories. Additionally, respondents with higher material deprivation were more likely to report problems on mobility, usual activities, and pain/discomfort; those with higher social deprivation were more likely to report problems on mobility, self-care, usual activities, and anxiety/depression.CONCLUSION: Higher neighbourhood-level material and social deprivation is significantly associated with lower health-related quality of life in the general adult population. Examining the factors leading to this inequity in health between individuals living in the least and most deprived neighbourhoods is imperative to mitigating these inequities." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
is hpps beneficial for hamsters
[ "This study aims to compare the effects of feeding haw pectin (HP), haw pectin hydrolyzates (HPH), and haw pectin pentasaccharide (HPPS) on the cholesterol metabolism of hypercholesterolemic hamsters induced by high-cholesterol diets. The animals were fed a standard diet (SD), high-cholesterol diet (HCD), or HCD plus HP, HPH, or HPPS at a dose of 300mg/kg body weight for 4weeks. Results showed that HPPS was more effective than HP and HPH in decreasing the body weight gain (by 38.2%), liver weight (by 16.4%), and plasma and hepatic total cholesterol (TC; by 23.6% and 27.3%, respectively) of hamsters. In addition, the bile acid levels in the feces were significantly higher by 39.8% and 132.8% in the HPH and HPPS groups than in the HCD group. Such changes were not noted in the HP group. However, the HP group had higher cholesterol excretion capacities than the HPH and HPPS groups by inhibiting cholesterol absorption in the diet, with a 21.7% increase in TC excretion and a 31.1% decrease in TC absorption. Thus, HPPS could be a promising anti-atherogenic dietary ingredient for the development of functional food to improve cholesterol metabolism." ]
[ "Heat shock proteins (HSPs) play an important role in cell homeostasis and protect against cell damage. They were previously identified as key players in different ataxia models. HSF1 is the main transcription factor for HSP activation. HSF1-deficient mice (HSF1-/-) are known to have deficiencies in motor control test. However, little is known about effects of HSF1-deficiency on locomotor, especially gait, coordination. Therefore, we compared HSF-deficient (HSF1-/-) mice and wildtype littermates using an automated gait analysis system for objective assessment of gait coordination. We found significant changes in gait parameters of HSF1-/- mice reminiscent of cerebellar ataxia. Immunohistochemical analyses of a cerebellum revealed co-localization of HSF1 and calbindin in Purkinje cells. Therefore, we tested the hypothesis of a potential interconnection between HSF1 and calbindin in Purkinje cells. Calbindin levels were analyzed qualitatively and quantitatively by immunohistochemistry and immunoblotting, respectively. While quantitative PCR revealed no differences in calbindin mRNA levels between HSF1+/+ and HSF1-/- mice, calbindin protein levels, however, were significantly decreased in a cerebellum of HSF1-/- mice. A pathway analysis supports the hypothesis of an interconnection between HSF1 and calbindin. In summary, the targeted deletion of HSF1 results in changes of locomotor function associated with changes in cerebellar calbindin protein levels. These findings suggest a role of HSF1 in regular Purkinje cell calcium homeostasis.", "Combination of polymer therapeutics and hyperthermia has been shown to enhance accumulation in selectively heated tumor tissue. The additional use of heat shock (HS)-targeting towards tumor tissues can further enhance accumulation and retention, and improve therapeutic outcomes. In this work, high intensity focused ultrasound (HIFU) was used to generate hyperthermia in prostate tumor tissue. Upregulation of the cell surface HS receptor glucose regulated protein 78 kDa (GRP78) was observed after treatment with HIFU hyperthermia which was then targeted by specific HS-targeting peptides. We used the peptide sequence WDLAWMFRLPVG attached to the side chains of water-soluble N-(2-hydroxypropyl)methacrylamide (HPMA) copolymers containing docetaxel (DOC) conjugated via a lysosomally degradable linker. It was shown that HIFU-mediated HS-targeted copolymer-DOC conjugates improved treatment efficacy in a murine prostate tumor xenograft model. These results show that the use of HIFU hyperthermia in combination with HS-targeted polymer-drug conjugates has potential to improve therapeutic outcomes in prostate cancer treatment." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
was hillary clinton involved with a russian interest group uranium
[ "Five Questions About the Clintons and a Uranium Company Photograph by Matt York/File/APThe Times has reported that people involved in a series of Canadian uranium-mining deals channelled money to the Clinton Foundation while the firm at the deal's center had business before the State Department. And, in one case, a Russian investment bank connected to the deals paid money to Bill Clinton personally, through a half-million-dollar speaker’s fee. There were a number of transactions involved, and corporate name changes, but, basically, a Canadian company known as Uranium One initially wanted American diplomats to defend its Kazakh uranium interests when a Russian firm, Rosatom, seemed about to make a move on them; and then, after the company decided to simply let Rosatom acquire it (through Rosatom’s alarmingly named subsidiary, ARMZ ), Uranium One needed State Department approval. (The approval was necessary because Uranium One controlled American uranium mines and exploration fields, a strategic asset. )The Times sums it up this way: As the Russians gradually assumed control of Uranium One in three separate transactions from 2009 to 2013, Canadian records show, a flow of cash made its way to the Clinton Foundation. Uranium One’s chairman used his family foundation to make four donations totaling $2.35 million … Other people with ties to the company made donations as well. The Times says that the donations were not properly disclosed—the paper confirmed them by looking at Canadian tax records. Complicating matters, Uranium One’s corporate forebear had acquired the Kazakh interests after its major shareholder, Frank Giustra, travelled with Bill Clinton to Kazakhstan in 2005 and met with the country’s leader. Giustra sold his interest in the company in 2007, according to the Times, and so was not involved in the ARMZ dealings. But Giustra has put tens of millions of dollars into the foundation’s work; the Clinton Giustra Enterprise Partnership, which bears his name, is a formal component of the Bill, Hillary, and Chelsea Clinton Foundation. And Ian Telfer, the Uranium One chairman, whose family foundation donated the $2.35 million dollars, said that it had done so because he wanted to support that coöperation: “Frank and I have been friends and business partners for almost 20 years.” He told the Wall Street Journal that he’d pledged the money in 2008, before the sale was on the table. Telfer also said that he’d never talked about uranium with Hillary Clinton. After the story came out, Giustra issued an angry statement, calling it baseless speculation and “an attempt to tear down Secretary Clinton and her presidential campaign.” He added a note of Canadian admonishment: “You are a great country. Don’t ruin it by letting those with political agendas take over your newspapers and your airwaves.”Brian Fallon, a Clinton campaign spokesman, told the Times, “To suggest the State Department, under then-Secretary Clinton, exerted undue influence in the U. S. government’s review of the sale of Uranium One is utterly baseless.” There have been reports that other companies—Boeing, for example—gave money to the foundation while Clinton was Secretary of State and they had business before the department. The Uranium One story is more troubling, and potentially damaging, because of the personal ties, the foreign interests, the opacity, and the denouement, which involves Putin allies publicly gloating over Russia’s increased dominance of the world’s uranium supplies. The Times was tipped off to the story by a forthcoming book, “Clinton Cash,” by Peter Schweizer, which a Clinton campaign spokesman has called a “smear project.” The Clinton people and others argue that Schweizer has an expressly conservative agenda, visible in his previous work, and ties to Republican candidates. The Times’ public editor, Margaret Sullivan, addressing those concerns, said that, though she was troubled by the way the Times had described its relationship with Schweizer as “exclusive,” the paper had done its own reporting, and the story addressed valid questions about a Presidential candidate. Here are five:1. Was there a quid pro quo? Based on the Times reporting, there was certainly a lot of quid (millions in donations that made it to a Clinton charity; a half-million-dollar speaker’s fee) and multiple quos (American diplomatic intervention with the Russians; approvals when the Russian firm offered a very “generous” price for Uranium One). The Clinton perspective is that, although the approvals were delivered by the State Department when Clinton led it, there is no evidence that she personally delivered them, or of the “pro” in the equation. The Clinton campaign, in its response to the Times, noted that other agencies also had a voice in the approval process, and gave the Times a statement from someone on the approvals committee saying that Clinton hadn’t “intervened.” The Clinton spokesman wouldn’t comment on whether Clinton was briefed about the matter. She was cc’d on a cable that mentioned the request for diplomatic help, but if there is a note in which she follows up with a directive—an e-mail, say—the Times doesn’t seem to have it. This speaks to some larger questions about political corruption. How do you prove it? Maybe the uranium people simply cared deeply about the undeniably good work the foundation is doing, and would have received the help and approvals anyway. In cases like this, though, how does the public maintain its trust? Doing so becomes harder when the money is less visible, which leads to the second question:2. Did the Clintons meet their disclosure requirements? The Times writes, of the $2.35 million from Telfer’s family foundation, “Those contributions were not publicly disclosed by the Clintons, despite an agreement Mrs. Clinton had struck with the Obama White House to publicly identify all donors.” This is one of the more striking details in the story, because it seems so clear-cut that the donation ought to have been disclosed. Moreover, the Times says that the foundation did not explain the lapse. I also asked the foundation to explain its reasoning. The picture one is left with is convoluted and, in the end, more troubling than if the lapse had been a simple oversight. The legalisms can be confusing, so bear with me:the Clinton Foundation has several components, including the Clinton Global Initiative and—this is the key one—the Clinton Giustra Enterprise Partnership, formerly known as the Clinton Giustra Sustainable Growth Initiative. The memorandum of understanding makes it clear that the donor-disclosure requirement applies to each part of the foundation. Craig Minassian, a Clinton Foundation spokesman, pointed out, though, that there are two legally separate but almost identically named entities: the Clinton Giustra Enterprise Partnership and the Clinton Giustra Enterprise Partnership (Canada). The second one is a Canadian charitable vehicle that Giustra set up—doing it this way helps Canadian donors get tax benefits. It also, to the foundation’s mind, obliterates the disclosure requirements. (There are also limits on what a Canadian charity is allowed to disclose.) Minassian added, “As complex as they may seem, these programs were set up to do philanthropic work with maximum impact, period. Critics will say what they want, but that doesn’t change the facts that these social enterprise programs are addressing poverty alleviation and other global challenges in innovative ways.” Minassian compared the Clinton Giustra Enterprise Partnership (Canada) to entirely independent nonprofits, like Am FAR or Malaria no More, which have their own donors and then give money to the foundation’s work. This does not make a lot of sense unless you have an instinct for the most legalistic of legalisms. Unlike Am FAR, the Clinton Giustra Enterprise Partnership (Canada) has the Clinton name on it. Money given to the Canadian entity goes exclusively to the foundation. Per an agency agreement, all of its work is done by the foundation, too. The Web site that has the C. G. E. P. name on it also has the Clinton Foundation logo and Bill Clinton’s picture; it also has a copyright notice naming the Canadian entity as the site’s owner. Anyone visiting the site would be justifiably confused. They are, in other words, effectively intermingled. And what would it mean if the Canadian explanation flew—that the Clintons could allow a foreign businessman to set up a foreign charity, bearing their name, through which people in other countries could make secret multi-million-dollar donations to their charity’s work? That structural opacity calls the Clintons’ claims about disclosure into question. If the memorandum of understanding indeed allowed for that, it was not as strong a document as the public was led to believe—it is precisely the sort of entanglement one would want to know about. (In that way, the Canadian charity presents some of the same transparency issues as a super PAC .) At the very least, it is a reckless use of the Clinton name, allowing others to trade on it.3. Did the Clintons personally profit? In most stories about dubious foundation donors, the retort from Clinton supporters is that the only beneficiaries have been the world’s poorest people. This ignores the way vanity and influence are their own currencies—but it is an argument, and the foundation does some truly great work. In this case, though, Bill Clinton also accepted a five-hundred-thousand-dollar speaking fee for an event in Moscow, paid for by a Russian investment bank that had ties to the Kremlin. That was in June, 2010, the Times reports, “the same month Rosatom struck its deal for a majority stake in Uranium One”—a deal that the Russian bank was promoting and thus could profit from. Did Bill Clinton do anything to help after taking their money? The Times doesn’t know. But there is a bigger question: Why was Bill Clinton taking any money from a bank linked to the Kremlin while his wife was Secretary of State? In a separate story, breaking down some of the hundred million dollars in speaking fees that Bill Clinton has collected, the Washington Post notes, “The multiple avenues through which the Clintons and their causes have accepted financial support have provided a variety of ways for wealthy interests in the United States and abroad to build friendly relations with a potential future president.”4. Putting aside who got rich, did this series of uranium deals damage or compromise national security? That this is even a question is one reason the story is, so to speak, radioactive. According to the Times, “the sale gave the Russians control of one-fifth of all uranium production capacity in the United States.” Pravda has said that it makes Russia stronger. What that means, practically, is something that will probably be debated as the election proceeds.5. Is this cherry-picking or low-hanging fruit? Put another way, how many more stories about the Clintons and money will there be before we make it to November, 2016? The optimistic view, if you support Hillary Clinton or are simply depressed by meretriciousness, is that the Times reporters combed the Schweizer book and that this story was the worst they found. The pessimistic view is that it was an obvious one to start with, for all the reasons above, and that some names that stand out less than Uranium One and ARMZ will lead to other stories. Are the Clintons correct in saying that there is an attack machine geared up to go after them? Of course. But why have they made it so easy? Amy Davidson Sorkin, a New Yorker staff writer, is a regular contributor to Comment for the magazine and writes a Web column, in which she covers war, sports, and everything in between. Read more »More: Bill Clinton Clinton Global Initiative Hillary Clinton New York Times Uranium Read something that means something. Try The New Yorker for a dollar a week. Subscribe now. »Sign up for Amy Davidson Sorkin’s newsletter and get the latest on war, sports, and everything in between, all delivered to your in-box. Go" ]
[ "In a nuclear claim, Donald Trump says Hillary Clinton 'gave up' one-fifth of U.S. uranium to Russia \"Says Hillary Clinton \"\"gave up 20 percent of America's uranium supply to Russia. \"\"— Donald Trump on Wednesday, September 28th, 2016 in a speech In a nuclear claim, Donald Trump says Hillary Clinton 'gave up' one-fifth of U. S. uranium to Russia By Tom Kertscher on Friday, September 30th, 2016 at 7:55 a.m. Trump claimed that Clinton \"\"gave up 20 percent of America's uranium supply to Russia.\"\" Mostly False. At a campaign rally in Waukesha, Wis., Donald Trump made a number of attacks on Hillary Clinton's tenure as secretary of state, including one involving Russia. Clinton \"\"gave up 20 percent of America's uranium supply to Russia -- to Russia,\"\" Trump said Sept. 28, 2016, two days after their first debate. \"\"You know what people do with uranium, don’t you? It’s called nuclear. Twenty percent. They could have never done it without her. \"\"That's a more narrow, and less inflammatory, version of an attack that Trump made previously. But it still has problems. The uranium deal Before we get too far ahead of ourselves -- the United States gave a fifth of its uranium to Russia? What? Uranium is used to power commercial nuclear reactors that produce electricity and to produce isotopes used for medical, industrial and defense purposes around the world. As for the transaction Trump alluded to, it involved the Russian nuclear agency and Uranium One, a Toronto-based company. As Politi Fact National has reported, Russia’s nuclear energy agency, which also builds nuclear weapons, bought a controlling stake in Uranium One. The company has mines, mills and tracts of land in Wyoming, Utah and other U. S. states equal to about 20 percent of U. S. uranium production capacity. So, to be clear, the 20 percent is capacity, not uranium that has been produced. Given that Russia doesn’t have the licenses to export uranium outside the United States, it was likely more interested in Uranium One’s assets in Kazakhstan, the world’s largest uranium producer, our colleagues said. As the New York Times has reported, the deal was made in separate transactions from 2009 to 2013. It made Russia’s atomic energy agency one of the world’s largest uranium producers and brought Russian President Vladimir Putin \"\"closer to his goal of controlling much of the global uranium supply chain.\"\"U. S. involvement So, what was Clinton’s role? Since uranium is considered a strategic asset, with implications for national security, the deal had to be approved by a committee composed of representatives from a number of United States government agencies. At the time, the United States was seeking to \"\"reset\"\" its relationship with Russia and trying to get the Kremlin on board with its Iran nuclear deal. The national security issue at stake in the Uranium One deal was not primarily about nuclear weapons proliferation, the Times reported, because the United States and Russia had for years cooperated on that front, with Russia sending enriched fuel from decommissioned warheads to be used in American nuclear power plants in return for raw uranium. Instead, it concerned American dependence on foreign uranium sources. While the United States gets one-fifth of its electrical power from nuclear plants, it produces only around 20 percent of the uranium it needs. Trump’s claims Now, back to what Trump said. Trump’s previous claim on the topic, made in June 2016, was that Clinton’s State Department \"\"approved the transfer of 20 percent of America’s uranium holdings to Russia, while nine investors in the deal funneled $145 million to the Clinton Foundation. \"\"Politi Fact National rated it Mostly False -- mainly because there is no evidence of a quid pro quo. As for Trump’s current claim, it’s overstated. The State Department did approve the Uranium One deal, but it didn’t act unilaterally. It was one of nine U. S. government agencies, plus independent federal and state nuclear regulators, that had to sign off on the deal. And as Fact Check.org noted in a related fact check, while any of the nine agencies could have objected to the deal, only President Barack Obama had the power to veto it. Even then, the president can only prohibit such transactions only with \"\"credible evidence\"\" that the \"\"foreign interest exercising control might take action that threatens to impair the national security.’Our rating Trump says Clinton \"\"gave up 20 percent of America's uranium supply to Russia. \"\"The reference is to Russia’s nuclear power agency buying a controlling interest in a Toronto-based company. That company has mines, mills and tracts of land in Wyoming, Utah and other U. S. states equal to about 20 percent of U. S. uranium production capacity (not produced uranium). Clinton was secretary of state at the time, but she didn’t have the power to approve or reject the deal. The State Department was only one of nine federal agencies that signed off on the deal, and only Obama had the power to veto it. For a statement that contains only an element of truth, our rating is Mostly False. Share The Facts Donald Trump Republican presidential nominee Says Hillary Clinton \"\"gave up 20 percent of America's uranium supply to Russia. \"\"In a speech – Wednesday, September 28, 2016Share Read More \"" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant documents that answer the query
msmarco_doc
do adults transmit rsv
[ "Health related question in topics Conditions Illness .We found some answers as below for this question Are adults contagious to RSV,you can compare them. RSV disease is very highly contagious. It is spread from respiratory secretions through close contact. ChaCha On! [ Source: http://www.chacha.com/question/are-adults-contagious-to-rsv ]." ]
[ "In this article. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is a common and highly contagious virus that infects the respiratory tract of most children before their second birthday.ut for a small percentage, infection with the RSV virus can lead to serious problems such as bronchiolitis, which is inflammation of the small airways of the lungs, or pneumonia, which can become life-threatening.", "(See Respiratory syncytial virus infection: Clinical features and diagnosis.) Children who are older than two years typically do not develop bronchiolitis but can be infected with RSV. RSV infection is common in children older than two years." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what part of the brain which links the endocrine window
[ "The hypothalamus, a collection of specialized cells that is located in the lower central part of the brain, is the primary link between the endocrine and nervous systems. Nerve cells in the hypothalamus control the pituitary gland by producing chemicals that either stimulate or suppress hormone secretions from the pituitary." ]
[ "This gland is the primary link between the nervous system and the endocrine system. Nerve cells within the hypothalamus secrete chemicals that stimulate or suppress hormone release from the pituitary gland.", "Endolymphatic system. The endolymphatic sac (ES) is a membranous structure in the inner ear located partly in the temporal bone and partly within the dura of the posterior fossa. It contains endolymph, which is similar in chemical makeup to intracellular fluid (high in K, low in Na).The endolymph in the ES is connected to that of other endolymphatic spaces of the inner ear via the endolymphatic duct (ED). The vestibular aqueduct contains both the ES and ED.ther named ducts in the endolymphatic system (blue on figure) include the cochlear duct (within the cochlea) ductus reuniens (between the saccule and cochlear duct), the utriculosaccular duct (between utricle and saccule)." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
dog diseases in switzerland
[ "BACKGROUND: Canine distemper virus (CDV) is a major pathogen of dogs and wild carnivores worldwide. In Switzerland, distemper in domestic dogs is rarely reported. In recent years, the import of dogs from Eastern Europe to Switzerland has steadily increased. In the present study, we describe a distemper outbreak in 15 rescue dogs that were imported from Hungary to Switzerland by an animal welfare organisation. The data on vaccination and medical history were recorded (14 dogs), and the samples were collected to investigate CDV and vector-borne infections (13 dogs) and canine parvovirus infection (12 dogs). The dogs were monitored for six months. RESULTS: One dog was euthanised directly after import. Thirteen dogs showed clinical signs after arrival, i.e., diarrhoea (57 %), coughing (43 %) and nasal and/or ocular discharge (21 %); radiographic findings that were compatible with bronchopneumonia were present in four dogs. CDV infection was diagnosed in 11 dogs (85 %); 10 dogs (91 %) tested PCR-positive in conjunctival swabs. Vector-borne infections (Babesia spp., Leishmania infantum, Dirofilaria immitis) were found in 4 dogs (31 %). Three dogs were hospitalized, and six dogs received ambulatory therapy for up to two months until recovery. None of the dogs developed neurological disease. CDV shedding was detected for a period of up to four months. Because dogs were put under strict quarantine until CDV shedding ceased, CDV did not spread to any other dogs. The CDV isolates showed 99 % sequence identity in the HA gene among each other and belonged to the Arctic-like lineage of CDV. CONCLUSIONS: The present study highlights the imminent risks of spreading contagious viral and vector-borne infections through the non-selective import of sick dogs and dogs with incomplete vaccination from Eastern Europe. CDV shedding was detected for several months after the cessation of clinical signs, which emphasised the roles of asymptomatic carriers in CDV epidemiology. A long-term follow-up using sensitive PCR and strict quarantine measures is of upmost importance in preventing the spread of infection. Dog owners and animal welfare organisations should be educated regarding the importance of complete vaccinations and the impact of dog imports on the spread of viral and vector-borne pathogens." ]
[ "BACKGROUND: Age and breed are considered the greatest risk factors for disease prevalence and mortality in companion dogs. Understanding the prevalence of diseases, in relation to age and breed, would support appropriate guidance for future health care strategies and provide useful information for the early diagnosis of diseases. The purpose of this study was to investigate the major medical causes for dogs visiting primary-care veterinary clinics in the Republic of Korea, stratified by age and breed. METHODS: A total of 15,531 medical records of canine patients were analyzed from 11 veterinary clinics who shared data from January 1, 2016 to December 31, 2016. An electronic medical record (EMR) system was used for data collection, which included the animal identification number, age, breed, gender, neuter status, clinical information, and diagnosis. EMR data were classified using the International Classification of Disease system from the World Health Organization; presenting signs or diagnoses were identified according to breed and life stage. RESULTS: Within the age groups, preventive medicine (16.7% confidence intervals (CI) [15.9–17.5]) was the most common cause for clinic visits for the <1 year and 1–3 year groups. Additionally, neutering surgery (6.6% CI [6.0–7.1]) and patella luxation (1.4% CI [1.8–2.7]) were frequently performed in these age groups. In the 4–6 year group, otitis externa (8.8% CI [7.8–10.0]) and dermatitis or eczema (8.5% CI [7.5–9.6]) were common medical problems. In older dogs (>10 year), the prevalences of heart disease, kidney disease, Cushing’s disease, and mammary tumors were higher than in the other age groups. Small and toy breed dogs comprised 67.7% of all dogs in this analysis. For all breeds, otitis externa, dermatitis or eczema, vomiting, and diarrhea were common medical problems. DISCUSSION: This study identified the most common medical disorders and differences in prevalences of diseases, according to age and breeds. The information from EMRs for dogs visiting primary-care veterinary clinics can provide background knowledge that is required to enable a better understanding of disease patterns and occurrence by age and breeds. The information from this study could enable the creation of strategies for preventing diseases and enable the identification of health problems for more effective disease management in companion dogs.", "Canine distemper virus is a member of the genus Morbillivirus in the family Paramyxoviridae. Canine distemper has been recorded in domestic dogs for centuries. It is now recognized as a worldwide problem of carnivores and has the second highest fatality rate of any infectious disease, after rabies, in domestic dogs. The importance of this disease in nondomestic animals has become evident with vaccine-induced infections in a variety of species and large-scale epidemics in captive and free-ranging felids. To date, canine distemper has been reported in all families of terrestrial carnivores: Canidae, Felidae, Hyaenidae, Mustelidae, Procyonidae, Ursidae, and Viverridae. Veterinarians, including those working with nondomestic carnivores, should be familiar with the clinical signs, diagnosis, and clinical management of this disease." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
Does gastroprotective activity of chloroform extract of Muntingia calabura and Melastoma malabathricum leave?
[ "Muntingia calabura L. (family Muntingiaceae) and Melastoma malabathricum L. (family Melastomaceae) are traditionally used to treat gastric ulcer. The present study determines the mechanisms of gastroprotective activity of the chloroform extract of leaves obtained from both the plants using several in vitro and in vivo assays. Phytochemical screening, HPLC analysis, and antioxidant activity of the respective extract were carried out. Gastroprotective activity was determined using ethanol-induced gastric ulcer assay while the mechanisms of gastroprotection were determined using the pyloric ligation assay. The test solutions [8% Tween-80 (vehicle), 20 mg/kg omeprazole, and different doses of extracts (50, 250, or 500 mg/kg] were administered orally once daily for 7 consecutive days before the animals were subjected to ethanol induced gastric ulcers. The chloroform-extracted M. calabura (CEMC) contains tannins, polyphenolics, triterpenes, and steroids while the chloroform-extracted M. malabathricum (CEMM) contains only triterpenes and steroids. CEMC, but not CEMM, exerted remarkably strong antioxidant activity in the 2,2-diphenyl-1-picrylhydrazyl (DPPH)- (86% versus 16%) and superoxide- (73% versus 36%) radical scavenging assays. Both extracts demonstrated significant (p < 0.05) gastroprotection with the EC50 value recorded at 192.3 or 297.7 mg/kg, respectively. In the pylorus ligation assay, CEMC and CEMM significantly (p < 0.05) reduced the total and free acidity and volume; while increased the pH of gastric juice as well as the gastric wall mucus content in comparison with the vehicle-treated group" ]
[ "BACKGROUND: 1-Deoxynojirimycin (DNJ), a component of mulberry leaf extract (MLE), reduces postprandial hyperglycemia by inhibiting intestinal a-glycosidase. The aim of this exploratory study was to investigate the effects of MLE on the glycemic indexes (GI) of common dietary carbohydrates.METHODS: This single-center, randomized, open-label, 7-cycle self-controlled crossover study enrolled 15 healthy volunteers at the National Drug Clinical Trial Institution, Second Affiliated Hospital of Tianjin University of Traditional Chinese Medicine (June 2014 to December 2014). The participants were randomized to receive glucose (3 occasions), glucose+MLE, sucrose+MLE, maltose+MLE, and maltodextrin+MLE orally during 7 visits (every 3 days). Blood glucose level was tested at 15 minutes before and at 15, 30, 45, 60, 90, and 120 minutes after carbohydrate intake. The GI of each carbohydrate relative to glucose (GI = 100) was calculated using the incremental area under the curve method. Safety was assessed at each visit.RESULTS: All participants completed the protocol. After carbohydrate ingestion, blood glucose level peaked at 30 minutes (glucose, glucose+MLE, sucrose+MLE, and maltose+MLE) or 45 minutes (maltodextrin+MLE) before returning to preprandial levels at 120 minutes. At 30 minutes, the change in blood glucose level was lower for sucrose+MLE, maltose+MLE, and maltodextrin+MLE than for glucose or glucose+MLE (P < .05). GI was lowest for sucrose+MLE (43.22 ± 17.47) and maltose+MLE (49.23 ± 22.39), intermediate for maltodextrin+MLE (75.90 ± 26.01), and higher for glucose+MLE (91.88 ± 27.24). MLE reduced the GIs for maltose, sucrose, maltodextrin, and glucose by 53.11%, 33.51%, 31.00%, and 8.12%, respectively. MLE was well tolerated.CONCLUSIONS: Coconsumption of MLE with sucrose, maltose, or maltodextrin can reduce the GI values of these carbohydrates.TRIAL REGISTRATION: Chinese Clinical Trial Registry Platform, no. ChiCTR-IPR-15006484. Registered on May 28, 2015.", "Phycobiliproteins of Arthrospira (Spirulina) maxima have attracted attention because of their potential therapeutic antioxidant properties. The aim of this study was to assess the possible antiulcerogenic activity of these phycobiliproteins (ExPhy) against ethanol-induced gastric ulcers in rats. To explore the possible mechanisms of action, we examined antioxidant defense enzymes (e.g., catalase, superoxide dismutase, and glutathione peroxidase), as well as the level of lipid peroxidation (MDA) and the histopathological changes in the gastric mucosa. Intragastric administration of ExPhy (100, 200, and 400 mg/kg body weight) significantly lowered the ulcer index value compared to the ulcer control group (p < 0.05). The greatest protection was provided by the concentration of 400 mg/kg. The histological study supported the observed gastroprotective activity of ExPhy, showing a reduced inflammatory response. Moreover, the alcohol-induced decrease in stomach antioxidant enzyme activity found in the ulcer control group was prevented by ExPhy pretreatment. Furthermore, ExPhy reversed the ethanol-induced increase in lipid peroxidation. In summary, the antiulcerogenic potential of ExPhy may be due, at least in part, to its anti-oxidant and anti-inflammatory effects." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
ochratoxin a level of ota croatia
[ "Ochratoxin A (OTA) is a toxic secondary metabolite produced by the fungi of Aspergillus and Penicillium species. Data indicate a frequent OTA contamination of cereals and cereal products, and consequently also the contamination of meat and meat products. The aim of this study was to determine a possible level of meat product consumers' exposure to OTA through the consumption of dry-cured and fermented meat products available on the Croatian market. Data showed the weekly OTA intake of 90% of male dry-cured ham consumers to be a maximum of 51.9 ngkg(-1) b.w., i.e., far below the tolerable weekly intake (TWI) of 120 ngkg(-1) b.w. weekly set out by the European Food Safety Authority (EFSA). OTA intake coming from the consumption of other meat products under study is lower and ranges from 0.1 to 42.1 ngkg(-1) b.w. weekly, dependent on the study. The study demonstrated that meat products in Croatia do not constitute a notable source of OTA in the human diet, so that the human health risk coming from the consumption of dry-cured and fermented meat products is negligible." ]
[ "This study developed and validated a method for measuring concentrations of ochratoxin A (OTA) in coffee beverages, not coffee beans. The new method involved extraction using immunoaffinity columns and ultra-performance LC (UPLC)-MS/MS using isotope-dilution techniques. The combination of a fused-core column and UPLC significantly shortened chromatographic time to 3 min compared to reported UPLC methods. The method was sensitive, with an LOD and LOQ of 0.52 and 1.73 pg/mL, respectively. Quantitative intraday (n = 4) and interday (n = 4) biases and RSD were both below 15%. The OTA levels in 40 samples of freshly brewed coffee from chain stores, 24 samples of canned ready-to-drink coffee, and 6 beverages made from instant coffee granules ranged from 1.60 to 93.2 pg/mL (90% positive), 6.00 to 131 pg/mL (100% positive), and 21.8 to 59.0 pg/mL (100% positive), respectively. Based on published tolerable daily intake, men and women in Taiwan should consume no more than 6.3 and 5.1 fifteen gram packages of instant coffee per day, respectively. Specific suggestions were not made for brewed coffee and canned coffee because of their large variation in OTA concentrations. This study should be more relevant to actual human exposure than those studying OTA in green, roasted, and ground coffee beans alone.", "Ochratoxin A (OTA), a potentially carcinogenic mycotoxin which contaminates grains, is produced by several Aspergillus species. A comparative sequence analysis of the OTA-producing Aspergillus ochraceus fc-1 strain and other Aspergillus species was performed. Two new OTA-related polyketide synthase (PKS) (AoOTApks) genes were identified. The predicted amino acid sequence of AoOTApks-1 displayed high similarity to previously identified PKSs from OTA-producing A. carbonarius ITEM 5010 (67%; [PI] No. 173482) and A. niger CBS 513.88 (62%; XP_001397313). However, the predicted amino acid sequence of AoOTApks-2 displayed lower homology with A. niger CBS 513.88 (38%) and A. carbonarius ITEM 5010 (28%). A phylogenetic analysis of the -ketosynthase and acyl-transferase domains of the AoOTApks proteins indicated that they shared a common origin with other OTA-producing species, such as A. carbonarius, A. niger, and A. westerdijkiae. A real-time reverse-transcription PCR analysis showed that the expression of AoOTApks-1 and -2 was positively correlated with the OTA concentration. The pks gene deleted mutants ?AoOTApks-1 and ?AoOTApks-2 produced nil and lesser OTA than the wild-type strain, respectively. Our study suggests that AoOTApks-1 could be involved in OTA biosynthesis, while AoOTApks-2 might be indirectly involved in OTA production." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Large crowd congregating in a busy street.
[ "large crowd congregating" ]
[ "the crowd is dispersed" ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
Legislation starting with the CFO Act of 1990 has been directed at enhancing the finance organization's responsibilities in supporting the management of federal activities.
[ "Legislation started with the CFO Act." ]
[ "Legislation started with the CFO Act in 1937." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
The arcade ends at a two-story gate called the Hozomon.
[ "The Hozomon is a two-story gate where the arcade ends." ]
[ "It is a three-story gate." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
I noticed a small red spot on my upper gum directly above the gum line of my tooth. I noticed it about a week ago while flossing . There is no sign of infection,bleeding or any discomfort etc. What might cause this and should I have my dentist check it out ?
[ "The small red spot on the upper gum can be because of the trauma secondary ti the use of floss or any tooth brush injury, or it can be because of gum infection. Consult an oral physician and get it evaluated. If it is gum infection get your teeth cleaned. If it is secondary to trauma, then you can apply chlorhexidine gel over the red area. If you have pain, then you can use topical anesthetic like lidocaine gel 2%. I hope my answer will help you, take care" ]
[ "It looks that either the wisdom tooth is erupting behind the last molar or if it is erupted then there must be some apical cyst or gum infection, which is causing this problem. Better once you should visit a dentist and get an x-ray done of that area, as it will show the source of infection. As sometimes this bony infection causes soreness of soft tissue above it,", "Welcome to Chat Doctor. I read your query. Swollen and bleeding gums can be due to various reasons. Is there plaque or calculus on teeth? Gum disease is main reason for bleeding. Or there can be tooth cavity and infection if the gum swelling is in particular area. I suggest your friend to visit a dentist and get checked. If there is gum disease, scaling will help. In case of tooth infection (confirmed with x-ray), RCT is the treatment. Dentist may also prescribe antibiotics and painkillers. Maintain good oral hygiene. Do warm saline rinses. Take healthy diet and multivitamins. Headache could be pain in tooth radiating to head. If it persists after treatment of tooth and gums, see a physician for further investigation." ]
Given a question with context from online medical forums, retrieve responses that best answer the question
dialogue
how to change password on optus webmail
[ "How to view OptusNet usernames / change passwords in My Account. 1. Log in with your My Account username, not your service or phone number. 2. Follow steps A & B as shown in the image below. 3. Select your Fixed or Mobile Broadband service then click its 'Settings' tab. 4.In the 'Settings' tab go to the 'My Optus Email Accounts' option and click 'Manage'. 5.In the 'Email Accounts' screen you can view, add or remove secondary accounts or edit your primary or secondary account passwords by following the prompts.1 If you change the primary account's password, make sure that your read the important info at the base of this article.. In the 'Email Accounts' screen you can view, add or remove secondary accounts or edit your primary or secondary account passwords by following the prompts. 1 If you change the primary account's password, make sure that your read the important info at the base of this article." ]
[ "Security Notice: To protect your privacy, Optus Business strongly encourages you to change your VoiceMail PIN from the default PIN (the last 4 digits of your phone number) to a 4-9 digit PIN of your choice.* There is an additional charge for the MMS or voice call return.ecurity Notice: To protect your privacy, Optus Business strongly encourages you to change your VoiceMail PIN from the default PIN (the last 4 digits of your phone number) to a 4-9 digit PIN of your choice.", "Step 2: Log in to mydlink with your existing mydlink account and password. Step 3: Choose the router from My Devices. Go to Settings. Step 4: Go to Basic Settings to modify your password. Click the down arrow for the wireless band you wish to change the password for in order to expand the section.Check the Show Password to display the password on your screen.tep 3: Choose the router from My Devices. Go to Settings. Step 4: Go to Basic Settings to modify your password. Click the down arrow for the wireless band you wish to change the password for in order to expand the section." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Are sequence variants on 17q21 associated with the susceptibility of asthma in the population of Lahore , Pakistan?
[ "Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) on 17q21 are known to be associated with asthma disease in multiple populations. This study was designed to know whether this region is associated with asthma in Lahore region population or not. A total of 200 asthma patients and 100 healthy controls were enrolled from different hospitals of Lahore, Pakistan. Twelve SNPs from chromosomal region 17q21 were analyzed in cases and controls by single base extension method and capillary-based genetic analyzers. Associations with asthma were checked using basic allelic model, genotypic model, and results were adjusted by logistic regression analysis using PLINK v1.9. Pair-wise linkage disequilibrium among the SNPs was analyzed by using Haploview software. SNP rs3816470 showed a strong association (p = 8.89 × 10(-5), Odd Ratio = 3.082 [1.755-5.41]) with asthma, whereas rs3859192 and rs6503525 also showed a significant association with the development of asthma, especially in the case of positive family history. In LD block1 (93 kb) consisting of six SNPs (rs12936231, rs7216389, rs7216558, rs9894164, rs1007654 and rs7212938), none of the haplotypes show any significant association with asthma except the haplotype \"CCTCAG\", which is a significant protective factor against asthma having frequency 0.051 in controls while 0.017 in cases (p = 3.56 × 10(-2), χ2 = 4.415)" ]
[ "Although corticosteroid is a powerful anti-inflammatory drug that is used widely to control asthma, still severe asthmatics can develop steroid resistance. Airway fibroblasts are quite resistant to steroids during Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) and fibrosis in asthmatic lungs is not always controlled. Th-17 regulatory cytokine which are elevated in lung tissues of asthmatics were shown to enhance the survival of various types of cells. STAT factors are central to this anti-apoptotic function. However, it is not yet clear whether these cytokines contribute to steroid hypo-responsiveness in asthma. Therefore, in this study, we investigated the ability of Th-17 regulatory cytokines, specifically IL-21, IL22 and IL23, to protect structural airway cells against dexamethasone-induced apoptosis. Primary human fibroblasts, ASM cells, and lung endothelial cells line were treated with IL-21, IL-22, and IL-23 cytokines before incubation with dexamethasone and the level of apoptosis was determined by measuring cellular Annexin-V using Flow cytometry. Our data indicated that treatment with Th-17 regulatory cytokines was effective in inhibiting induced apoptosis for both fibroblasts and endothelial cells but not ASM cells. STAT3 phosphorylation levels were also upregulated in fibroblasts and endothelial upon treatment with these cytokines. Interestingly, inhibiting STAT3 phosphorylation abrogated IL-21, IL-22, and IL-23 anti-apoptotic effect on fibroblasts and endothelial cells", "IL-18 is a unique cytokine that enhances innate immunity and both Th1- and Th2-driven immune responses. Recent murine and human genetic studies have shown its role in the pathogenesis of asthma. We conducted an association study in a Japanese population to discover variants of IL-18 that might have an effect on asthma susceptibility and/or progression and conducted functional analyses of the related variants. The IL-18 gene locus was resequenced in 48 human chromosomes. Asthma severity was determined according to the 2002 Global Initiative for Asthma Guidelines. Association and haplotype analyses were performed using 1,172 subjects. Although no polymorphisms differed significantly in frequency between the control and adult asthma groups, rs5744247 C>G was significantly associated with the severity of adult asthma (steps 1, 2 vs. steps 3, 4; P = 0.0034). We also found a positive association with a haplotype (P = 0.0026). By in vitro functional analyses, the rs5744247 variant was found to increase enhancer-reporter activity of the IL-18 gene in bronchial epithelial cells. Expression levels of IL-18 in response to LPS stimulation in monocytes were significantly greater in subjects homozygous for the susceptibility G allele at rs5744247 C>G. Furthermore, we found a significant correlation between the serum IL-18 level and the genotype of rs5744247 (P = 0.031)" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what is legal status of a cooperative
[ "The Cooperative is in fact a species of the legal form of Association (‘vereniging’), and therefore it does not have shareholders, but members. As such, it should always have at least two members upon incorporation." ]
[ "CNCS’s legal authority to enter into cooperative agreements for this competition is found at Section 198K of the. National and Community Service Act of 1990 (NCSA), Pub. L. No. 101-610, as amended (42 U.S.C. § 12653k. and in the Federal Grant and Cooperative Agreement Act (31 USC §§6301-6308).", "Self-identification, or the use of the term cooperative or co-op in the organization name, would appear to be one method of identifying cooperatives. Organizations operating on a cooperative basis often include these terms in their names. However, there are no established standards for the term’s use." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
which of the following factors does apocrine carcinoma carry?
[ "Apocrine carcinoma is categorized as a special type of breast carcinoma because of its specific morphological features. To clarify the characteristics of apocrine carcinoma from the point of view of the mitochondrial profile, we conducted a comparative study between apocrine and non-apocrine carcinomas. The expressions of mitochondrial related factors (PGC1, Nrf1, Nrf2, mtTFA and COX4) were examined in a testing set of breast cancer tissue. Apocrine carcinomas showed a clear tendency towards higher mRNA expression levels of PGC1 than non-apocrine carcinomas. The expression of the selected factor, PGC1, as well as that of p62 was further examined. The results revealed that apocrine carcinomas showed a higher immunohistochemical positivity rate for PGC1 (21.3% vs. 3.2%; P = 0.008), and that the mRNA expression level of PGC1 was significantly higher in apocrine carcinoma than in non-apocrine carcinoma (P = 0.007). The immunohistochemical positivity rate for p62 protein was also higher in apocrine carcinomas (44.7% vs. 21.0%; P = 0.015), although no significant difference in the p62 mRNA expression level was detected between the two types of carcinoma (P = 0.633). In conclusion, this study revealed that apocrine carcinoma overexpressed PGC1 contributing to mitochondrial biogenesis, and also p62 protein accumulation." ]
[ "Strong evidence exists indicating that the risk of breast cancer (BC) occurrence is influenced by complex internal environmental factors, including blood lipid and lipoprotein components. However, the roles of these components in BC development and progression remain controversial. This study examined whether serial serum lipid and lipoprotein measurements were associated with breast cancer risk and whether lipoproteins had BC prognostic properties. We compared the plasma-related parameter levels, including lipid and lipoprotein levels between 299 patients with invasive ductal breast cancer, also known as invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC), and 200 healthy donors. We performed univariate and multivariate logistic regression analyses to assess overall survival (OS) and disease-free survival (DFS). We found that the serum glucose, triacylglycerol, and low-density lipoprotein levels were significantly higher in patients with IDC than in healthy donors. However, high-density lipoprotein and apolipoprotein A1 (apoA1) levels were lower in patients with IDC than in healthy donors. Multivariate regression analysis demonstrated that elevated apoA1 levels were associated with a reduced risk of IDC, and univariate analysis showed that patients with IDC with lower apoA1 levels at diagnosis had larger tumors than patients with high apoA1 levels. Moreover, patients with IDC with lower apoA1 levels were more likely to have positive axillary lymph nodes, and were diagnosed at more advanced disease stages than patients with high apoA1 levels. We used a Cox regression model to assess the relationships between the above parameters and DFS and OS, after adjusting for tumor T and N stages, which were determined using the TNM classification system, and immunohistochemical subtypes. We found that lower apoA1 levels at diagnosis were associated with poor DFS and OS. At 60 months of follow-up, the DFS rate is 74.5% in the apoA1 L1 group, 89.9% in apoA1 L2 group, and 93.1% in apoA1 L3 group (p=0.0002). Similarly, the OS rate is 78.2% in apoA1 L1 group, 91.3% in apoA1 L2 group, and 93.7% in apoA1 L3 group (p=0.0012). In conclusion, our data indicate that low apoA1 levels are an independent predictor of the poor clinical outcomes in IDC patients.", "Molecular apocrine breast cancer (MABC) is a distinct subtype of breast cancer. The purpose of this study was to investigate the relationship between HER2 status and clinicopathologic characteristics of MABCs from Chinese Han cohort. A cohort of 90 MABC patients were enrolled. Immunohistochemical method was performed to analyze the molecular expression, and the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) amplification was verified by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH). By studying these 90 MABC cases, the majority of studied patients were premenopausal young women (median age 48 yr) with high grade tumors. We also found that MABCs had high positive expression rates of HER2, CK8, CD44, CD166, p53 and BRCA1, the elevated Ki-67 labeling index, and favorable prognosis. There was a significantly higher incidence of lymph node metastasis and lower CD166 positive rate in HER2-negative patients compared to HER2-positive patients (54.5% vs. 37.0%, P = 0.044 and 72.7% vs. 91.3%, P = 0.021, respectively). The CK5/6 and EGFR expression rates were significant higher in HER2-negative cases than in HER2-positive cases, suggesting that there is overlap between MABC with HER2-negative phenotype and basal-like breast cancer. In addition, HER2 positive was found to be significantly associated a poor overall survival in MABCs. In conclusion, HER2 are highly expressed, and HER2 positivity could be considered as a significant biomarker of poor prognosis in MABC. The results also suggest that a subtype tumor with distinct patterns of molecule expression depending on HER2 status presented in MABC." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what are the concerns of a patient in a urogynaecology clinic
[ "INTRODUCTION AND HYPOTHESIS: Understanding patients' concerns and goals is essential for providing individualised care in urogynaecology. The study objectives were to undertake a content analysis of free-text concerns and goals recorded by patients using an electronic pelvic-floor questionnaire (ePAQ-PF) and measure how these related to self-reported symptom and health-related quality-of-life (HRQOL) data also recorded using ePAQ-PF.METHODS: A total of 1996 consenting patients completed ePAQ-PF. Content analysis was undertaken of free-text responses to the item: 'Considering the issues that currently concern you the most, what do you hope to achieve from any help, advice or treatment?' Key content themes were identified by the lead researcher, and three researchers read and coded all recorded responses. Student's t test was used to compare ePAQ-PF domain scores for patients reporting concerns in the relevant domain with those who did not.RESULTS: In total, 63% of participants who completed the questionnaire, recorded at least one free-text item. Content analysis identified 1560 individual concerns coding into the 19 ePAQ-PF domains. Symptom scores were significantly higher for patients reporting free-text concerns in 18 domains (p < 0.05). Additional concerns relating specifically to body image were recorded by 11% of patients. Key areas of importance emerging for personal goals included cure/improvement, better understanding, incontinence pad use, sexual function and surgery.CONCLUSIONS: Free-text reporting in ePAQ-PF is utilised by patients and facilitates self-expression and discussion of issues impacting on HRQOL. The significant relationship between recorded free-text concerns and ePAQ-PF domain scores suggests convergent validity for the instrument. Development and psychometric testing of a domain to assess body image is proposed." ]
[ "OBJECTIVE: The aim of the study was to identify barriers in help seeking behaviors among women with urinary incontinence UI.MATERIALS AND METHODS: The study was performed using the method of diagnostic enquiry by means of questionnaire and interview among two groups of patients. The first group of women aged 47-79 years consisted of 80 members of the Association of People with Urinary Incontinence \"Uroconti\". The second group included 61 females aged 26-81 years admitted to the Urodynamic Laboratory of Gynecology and Oncology Clinic at the University Hospital in Krakow.RESULTS: Patients with stress urinary incontinence (SUI) reported to the doctor on average after 4 years, patients with urgency urinary incontinence (UUI), after 3 years, patients with a mixed form of urinary incontinence (MUI), after 6 years, and with overflow incontinence, after 10 years from the appearance of first symptoms. Anxiety shame, the conviction that symptoms of UI are a normal age related state, as well as the conviction that the symptoms are temporary significantly affected the delay in seeking medical consultation. Most of the surveyed women made the decision to undertake treatment themselves, and their main motive was the escalation of symptoms. The majority (89.4%) of women surveyed alleviated the symptoms of urinary incontinence without the help of a doctor sometimes using methods detrimental to their health.CONCLUSION: The identification of help seeking barriers and reaching out to risk groups is essential for early diagnose and effective treatment of women with urinary incontinence.", "OBJECTIVE: The aim of this study was to compare vulvar symptoms between urogynecology patients diagnosed with urinary incontinence (UI) and/or pelvic organ prolapse to women presenting for annual gynecological care.METHODS: This is a retrospective cross-sectional study. Vulvar symptoms (burning, pain, itching, dyspareunia, and discharge) were measured by asking respondents to rate the severity of each symptom from 0 (none) to 10 (most severe). Patient history, diagnoses, and the Urogenital Distress Inventory-6 (UDI-6) score were abstracted from records. Vulvar symptom results were categorized (0, none; 1-3), mild; ?4, moderate to severe). Logistic regression models explored whether UI symptoms (UDI-6) and urogynecology diagnoses were associated with each vulvar symptom (moderate to severe vs none).RESULTS: A total of 606 urogynecology patients grouped by the following urogynecology clinical diagnoses: UI (n = 230), prolapse (n = 193), UI + prolapse (n = 183), and 258 controls (general gynecology patients) were included. The mean ( SD) age (years) was 57.5 16.1, 62.4 13.9, 59.0 14.9, and 41.3 13.8 in the UI, prolapse, UI + prolapse, and control groups, respectively (p < .01). Increasing urinary symptoms were associated with all vulvar symptoms (odds ratio [OR], 1.1-1.2 for each 1 point increase in UDI-6; p < 0.05 for all). Prolapse and UI + prolapse diagnoses (compared with controls) were associated with vulvar burning (OR [95% confidence interval {CI}], 2.5 [1.2-5.0] and 2.9 [1.3-6.1] and pain (OR (95% CI), 3.6 [1.5-8.5] and 3.3 [1.4-8.2], respectively). Prolapse diagnoses were also associated with dyspareunia (OR [95% CI], 5.4 [2.2-13.3]).CONCLUSIONS: Patients with pelvic organ prolapse are more likely to report vulvar burning, pain, and dyspareunia than gynecologic control patients. Urinary symptoms were associated with all vulvar symptoms." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Is number of medications associated with outcomes in the elderly patient with metabolic syndrome?
[ "The diagnosis of metabolic syndrome indicates a clustering of metabolic imbalances which in sum have been recognized as a major predictor of cardiovascular and all-cause mortality. The aim of this study was to assess the level of under-pharmacy and poly-pharmacy and its prognostic impact in elderly patients with metabolic syndrome. Retrospective chart-review at a tertiary medical center, of 324 patients greater than 65 years of age who met the International Diabetes Foundation criteria for metabolic syndrome diagnosis [Body Mass Index (BMI) > 30 kg/m(2), diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and dyslipidemia]. There were 60 (18.5%) patients in the low (≤ 5) medication burden group, 159 (49.1%) in the medium (> 5 and ≤ 10) medication burden group, and 105 (32.4%) in the high (> 10) medication burden group. At baseline, the groups differed only by systolic blood pressure. At two years follow-up, the medium group had significantly better improvement in high density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C), low density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C), HbA1c, and systolic blood pressure compared to the low medication burden group and significantly better improvement in triglycerides, Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) and systolic blood pressure compared to the high medication group. Decrease in HDL-C was the only variable associated with strokes. High medication burden predicted hospitalization burden. The number of anti-hypertensives, history of tobacco use, low and high medication burdens and decrease in HDL-C were all associated with death" ]
[ "The previous studies regarding the association between endogenous dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) sulphate level and metabolic syndrome are inconsistent. This study aimed to investigate such relationship in elderly Taiwanese men. Five hundred and eighty-five elderly Taiwanese men (mean age 68.7 +/- 8.3 years) were enrolled as the baseline cohort population in 2000. In addition to a questionnaire, body mass index (BMI), blood pressure, fasting blood glucose, lipids, albumin and serum DHEA-S levels were measured for each participant. Metabolic syndrome was based on the definition by the America Heart Association/National Heart Lung Blood Institute. The prevalence of metabolic syndrome was 33.3%. Using multivariate logistic regression analyses with adjustments for age, smoking, alcohol, physical activities, albumin and BMI, there was a positive relationship between serum DHEA-S level and metabolic syndrome. The highest DHEA-S quartile group had increased risk for metabolic syndrome (odds ratio = 2.68, 95% confidence interval: 1.44-5.01, P < 0.01) compared with the lowest quartile group. The mean serum DHEA-S level increased with increasing number of metabolic syndrome components", "To determine whether middle-aged individuals with metabolic syndrome, both with and without type 2 diabetes, exhibit cognitive impairments, and to determine the role of each metabolic syndrome component in those associations. 143 participants were drawn from ongoing studies of normal aging. Metabolic syndrome was diagnosed in 73 participants (age: 60.4 +/- 8.4 years), who were contrasted with 70 age- and education-matched controls. Metabolic syndrome was associated with reductions in recall (p = 0.006), lower overall intellectual functioning (p = 0.013), and nearly significant reductions in learning (p = 0.066) and executive functioning (p = 0.050). These effects were only marginally attenuated when controlling for type 2 diabetes diagnosis. Of the 5 components of the metabolic syndrome, insulin resistance was the only significant predictor of variance in learning and recall. In addition, the number of metabolic syndrome criteria met was inversely associated with cognitive performance" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Toxic levels of baking soda What is the amount of baking soda that would be considered toxic for skin? I ask because there is a lot of misinformation online about using baking soda as a "natural" underarm deodorant, and how it is or is not harmful to use as such. Please clarify. Thank you for your time in advance.
[ "Baking soda is sodium hydrogencarbonate, $\\ce{NaHCO3}$, also known as sodium bicarbonate.\n\nThe only toxicological data in the GESTIS database on hazardous substances\n is a LD50 of 4220 mg/kg for the oral uptake by rats. There are no data for dermal uptake. \n\nIn water, $\\ce{NaHCO3}$ is weakly alkaline. I do not know whether it might cause skin irritations, particularly in more sensitive regions, such as armpits. \n\nIn occupational safety, I'd recommend to avoid skin contact and use personal protection equipment when handling it." ]
[ "Irritant dermatitis is the most common type. It's caused by contact with acids, alkaline materials such as soaps and detergents, fabric softeners, solvents, or other chemicals. The reaction usually looks like a burn. Other irritants may include:\nCement\nHair dyes\nLong-term exposure to wet diapers\nPesticides or weed killers\nRubber gloves\nShampoos\nAllergic contact dermatitis is caused by exposure to a substance or material to which you have become extra sensitive or allergic.\nCommon allergens include:\nAdhesives, including those used for false eyelashes or toupees\nAntibiotics such as neomycin rubbed on the surface of the skin\nBalsam of Peru (used in many personal products and cosmetics, as well as in many foods and drinks)\nFabrics and clothing\nFragrances in perfumes, cosmetics, soaps, and moisturizers\nNail polish, hair dyes, and permanent wave solutions\nNickel or other metals (found in jewelelry, watch straps, metal zips, bra hooks, buttons, pocketknives, lipstick holders, and powder compacts)\nPoison ivy, poison oak, poison sumac, and other plants\nRubber or latex gloves or shoes\nAlthough you may not have a reaction to a substance when you are first exposed to it, regular use can eventually cause sensitivity and a reaction to the product.\nSome products cause a reaction only when the skin is also exposed to sunlight (photosensitivity). These include shaving lotions, sunscreens, sulfa ointments, some perfumes, coal tar products, and oil from the skin of a lime. A few airborne allergens, such as ragweed or insecticide spray, can cause contact dermatitis.", "My vote would be for butyric acid and related short-chain fatty acids with between 3 and ~8 carbons (isobutyric acid, valeric acid, isovaleric acid, caproic acid, etc.)\n\nIn pure form these chemicals would be dangerous acids, but in dilute aqueous solution buffered at pH 5 or so, they are not very corrosive or toxic but are still pretty stinky.\n\nSkatole could be another example. See the Wikipedia article for malodorants for some more ideas." ]
Given a medical question from the stackexchange, retrieve replies that best answer the question
exchange
Does angiotensin I-converting enzyme Gln1069Arg mutation impair trafficking to the cell surface resulting in selective denaturation of the C-domain?
[ "Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE; Kininase II; CD143) hydrolyzes small peptides such as angiotensin I, bradykinin, substance P, LH-RH and several others and thus plays a key role in blood pressure regulation and vascular remodeling. Complete absence of ACE in humans leads to renal tubular dysgenesis (RTD), a severe disorder of renal tubule development characterized by persistent fetal anuria and perinatal death. Patient with RTD in Lisbon, Portugal, maintained by peritoneal dialysis since birth, was found to have a homozygous substitution of Arg for Glu at position 1069 in the C-terminal domain of ACE (Q1069R) resulting in absence of plasma ACE activity; both parents and a brother who are heterozygous carriers of this mutation had exactly half-normal plasma ACE activity compared to healthy individuals. We hypothesized that the Q1069R substitution impaired ACE trafficking to the cell surface and led to accumulation of catalytically inactive ACE in the cell cytoplasm. CHO cells expressing wild-type (WT) vs. Q1069R-ACE demonstrated the mutant accumulates intracellularly and also that it is significantly degraded by intracellular proteases. Q1069R-ACE retained catalytic and immunological characteristics of WT-ACE N domain whereas it had 10-20% of the nativity of the WT-ACE C domain. A combination of chemical (sodium butyrate) or pharmacological (ACE inhibitor) chaperones with proteasome inhibitors (MG 132 or bortezomib) significantly restored trafficking of Q1069R-ACE to the cell surface and increased ACE activity in the cell culture media 4-fold" ]
[ "The prometastatic protein NEDD9 (neural precursor cell expressed, developmentally downregulated 9) is highly expressed in many cancers and is required for mesenchymal individual cell migration and progression to the invasive stage. Nevertheless, the molecular mechanisms of NEDD9-driven migration and the downstream targets effecting metastasis are not well defined. In the current study, knockdown of NEDD9 in highly metastatic tumor cells drastically reduces their migratory capacity due to disruption of actin dynamics at the leading edge. Specifically, NEDD9 deficiency leads to a decrease in the persistence and stability of lamellipodial protrusions similar to knockdown of cortactin (CTTN). Mechanistically, it was shown that NEDD9 binds to and regulates acetylation of CTTN in an Aurora A kinase (AURKA)/HDAC6-dependent manner. The knockdown of NEDD9 or AURKA results in an increase in the amount of acetylated CTTN and a decrease in the binding of CTTN to F-actin. Overexpression of the deacetylation mimicking (9KR) mutant of CTTN is sufficient to restore actin dynamics at the leading edge and migration proficiency of the tumor cells. Inhibition of AURKA and HDAC6 activity by alisertib and Tubastatin A in xenograft models of breast cancer leads to a decrease in the number of pulmonary metastases. Collectively, these findings identify CTTN as the key downstream component of NEDD9-driven migration and metastatic phenotypes", "Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) metabolizes Ang II into Ang 1-7 thereby negatively regulating the renin-angiotensin system. However, heart disease in humans and in animal models is associated with only a partial loss of ACE2. ACE2 is an X-linked gene; and as such, we tested the clinical relevance of a partial loss of ACE2 by using female ACE2(+/+) (wildtype) and ACE2(+/-) (heterozygote) mice. Pressure overload in ACE2(+/-) mice resulted in greater LV dilation and worsening systolic and diastolic dysfunction. These changes were associated with increased myocardial fibrosis, hypertrophy, and upregulation of pathological gene expression. In response to Ang II infusion, there was increased NADPH oxidase activity and myocardial fibrosis resulting in the worsening of Ang II-induced diastolic dysfunction with a preserved systolic function. Ang II-mediated cellular effects in cultured adult ACE2(+/-) cardiomyocytes and cardiofibroblasts were exacerbated. Ang II-mediated pathological signaling worsened in ACE2(+/-) hearts characterized by an increase in the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 and JNK1/2 and STAT-3 pathways. The ACE2(+/-) mice showed an exacerbated pressor response with increased vascular fibrosis and stiffness. Vascular superoxide and nitrotyrosine levels were increased in ACE2(+/-) vessels consistent with increased vascular oxidative stress. These changes occurred with increased renal fibrosis and superoxide production. Partial heterozygote loss of ACE2 is sufficient to increase the susceptibility to heart disease secondary to pressure overload and Ang II infusion" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
My Dad said to get rid of them.
[ "My father said to get rid of them." ]
[ "My mom said to kiss them." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
is a vascular balloon more painful
[ "OBJECTIVE: The objective of this study is to investigate and compare factors associated with pain during vascular access intervention therapy.SUBJECTS AND METHODS: Fifty patients provided informed consent to participate in a survey of pain by questionnaire after receiving dialysis treatment at our hospital. Balloons for use during the procedure were chosen at random in this prospective randomized control study. A numeric rating scale (NRS) was used for pain assessment.RESULTS: A semi-compliant balloon caused significantly worse pain as compared with the other types of balloons (NRS, 7.67 1.57 vs. 6.02 1.89; p&lt;0.05). There was no correlation between maximum inflation pressure and pain, or between age and pain, and no difference between diabetic and non-diabetic patients. A comparison among vascular dilation locations, as well as a comparison of AVF with AVG also revealed no significant differences.CONCLUSIONS: The reason for severe pain with use of the semi-compliant balloon as compared with the other types might have been due to its characteristics during inflation, as increased diameter leads to an increase in pressure. Mismatching of balloon diameter to vascular diameter may also increase pain." ]
[ "AIMS: Meticulous lesion preparation prior to bioresorbable vascular scaffold (BVS) implantation has been strongly recommended. The aim of this study was to investigate if there was a benefit associated with scoring balloon use in lesion preparation in comparison to conventional balloons prior to implantation of a BVS.METHODS AND RESULTS: Of the lesions treated with BVS between May 2012 and July 2014, 155 lesions in the conventional balloon group and 29 lesions in the scoring balloon group were included. Procedures without predilatation and those which utilised cutting balloon or rotational atherectomy devices were excluded. Complex (B2/C lesion: 76.1% vs. 93.1%; p=0.028), restenotic (5.2% vs. 17.2%; p=0.036) and calcified (36.1% vs. 79.3%; p<0.001) lesions were more common in the scoring balloon group. Compared to the conventional balloon group, the scoring balloon group demonstrated better procedural IVUS outcomes with regard to both expansion index (defined as scaffold lumen area divided by final post-dilatation balloon cross-sectional area, 0.71 vs. 0.86; p<0.001) and eccentricity index (defined as minimal scaffold diameter divided by maximal scaffold diameter, 0.78 vs. 0.84; p<0.001). The occurrence of ischaemia-driven target lesion revascularisation at one year was similar (6.1% vs. 7.1%; p=0.87).CONCLUSIONS: Lesion preparation for complex lesions using a scoring balloon appeared to facilitate optimal sizing and radially concentric expansion of BVS.", "Arterio-Venous Fistulae (AVF) are regarded as the \"gold standard\" method of vascular access for patients with End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) who require haemodialysis. However, up to 60% of AVF do not mature, and hence fail, as a result of Intimal Hyperplasia (IH). Unphysiological flow and oxygen transport patterns, associated with the unnatural and often complex geometries of AVF, are believed to be implicated in the development of IH. Previous studies have investigated the effect of arterial curvature on blood flow in AVF using idealized planar AVF configurations and non-pulsatile inflow conditions. The present study takes an important step forwards by extending this work to more realistic non-planar brachiocephalic AVF configurations with pulsatile inflow conditions. Results show that forming an AVF by connecting a vein onto the outer curvature of an arterial bend does not, necessarily, suppress unsteady flow in the artery. This finding is converse to results from a previous more idealized study. However, results also show that forming an AVF by connecting a vein onto the inner curvature of an arterial bend can suppress exposure to regions of low wall shear stress and hypoxia in the artery. This finding is in agreement with results from a previous more idealized study. Finally, results show that forming an AVF by connecting a vein onto the inner curvature of an arterial bend can significantly reduce exposure to high WSS in the vein. The results are important, as they demonstrate that in realistic scenarios arterial curvature can be leveraged to reduce exposure to excessively low/high levels of WSS and regions of hypoxia in AVF. This may in turn reduce rates of IH and hence AVF failure." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
It's as if Hickman and Sunraider have an independent existence of which Ellison offers glimpses and glances in the various pieces he never assembled into a single structure.
[ "It is possible to see aspects of Hickman and Sunraider's lives in Ellison's writing." ]
[ "Ellison's book says that Hickman turned into a dog on every other tuesday night." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
how does a jms practice affect safety operations
[ "OBJECTIVE: The aim of this study was to determine whether management system practices directed at both occupational health and safety (OHS) and operations (joint management system [JMS] practices) result in better outcomes in both areas than in alternative practices.METHODS: Separate regressions were estimated for OHS and operational outcomes using data from a survey along with administrative records on injuries and illnesses.RESULTS: Organizations with JMS practices had better operational and safety outcomes than organizations without these practices. They had similar OHS outcomes as those with operations-weak practices, and in some cases, better outcomes than organizations with safety-weak practices. They had similar operational outcomes as those with safety-weak practices, and better outcomes than those with operations-weak practices.CONCLUSIONS: Safety and operations appear complementary in organizations with JMS practices in that there is no penalty for either safety or operational outcomes." ]
[ "According to social learning theory, powerful and high status individuals can significantly influence the behaviors of others. In this paper, we propose that chief executive officers (CEOs) indirectly impact frontline injuries through the collective social learning experiences and effort of different groups of organizational actors-including members of the top management team (TMT), organizational supervisors, and frontline employees. We found support for our collective social learning model using data from 2,714 frontline employees, 1,398 supervisors, and 229 members of TMTs in 54 organizations. TMT members' experiences within a CEO-driven TMT safety climate was positively related to organizational supervisors' reports of the broader organizational safety climate and their subsequent collective support for safety (reported by frontline employees). In turn, supervisory support for safety was associated with fewer employee injuries at the individual level. We discuss the theoretical and practical implications of these findings for workplace safety research and practice. (PsycINFO Database Record", "Position Statement: Emergency Incident Rehabilitation The National Association of EMS Physicians believes that: Emergency operations and training conducted while wearing protective clothing and respirators is physiologically and cognitively demanding. The heat stress and fatigue created by working in protective clothing and respirators creates additional risk of illness/injury for the public safety provider. Emergency incident rehabilitation provides a structured rest period for rehydration and correction of abnormal body core temperature following work in protective clothing and respirators. Emergency incident rehab should be conducted at incidents (e.g. fireground, hazardous materials, and heavy rescue emergencies) and trainings involving activities that may lead to exceeding safe levels of physical and mental exertion. Emergency incident rehabilitation is incident care, not fitness for duty, and meant to reduce physiologic strain and prepare the responder to return to duty at the current incident and for the remainder of the shift. EMS should play a role in emergency incident rehabilitation with providers trained to understand the physiologic response of healthy individuals to environmental, exertional, and cognitive stress and implement appropriate mitigation strategies. An appropriately qualified physician should have oversight over the creation and implementation of emergency incident rehabilitation protocols and may be separate from the roles and responsibilities of the occupational medicine physician. There are no peer-reviewed data related to cold weather rehabilitation. Future studies should address this limitation to the literature." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what does coupling mean in bacterial transcription
[ "The common thinking is that transcription–translation coupling is a means for the cell to prevent accumulation of non-functional transcripts in the cytoplasm (;), and hence that it is functionally analogous to nonsense-mediated mRNA decay that occurs in eukaryotic cells (; ;).everal co-transcriptional activities involving RNA as the substrate serve to prevent the occurrence of R-loops, and the coupling of transcription to translation in the bacteria may be seen as a special instance of such a co-transcriptional activity." ]
[ "DNA Replication in Bacteria. In general, DNA is replicated by uncoiling of the helix, strand separation by breaking of the hydrogen bonds between the complementary strands, and synthesis of two new strands by complementary base pairing.t is the actual DNA, not the DNA polymerase that moves during bacterial DNA replication. Single-strand binding proteins bind to the single-stranded regions so the two strands do not rejoin. Unwinding of the double-stranded helix generates positive supercoils ahead of the replication fork.", "This enzyme initiates transcription, joins the RNA nucleotides together, and terminates transcription. To initiate transcription in bacteria, a variety of proteins called sigma factors bind to RNA polymerases. This complex can then bind to a specific sequence of usually about 40 deoxyribonucleotide bases called the promoter (def) located along the DNA prior to the coding region of the gene." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Does transcranial magnetic stimulation reveal cortical hyperexcitability in episodic cluster headache?
[ "Evidence shows involvement of the cerebral cortex in the pathophysiology of cluster headache (CH). Here we investigated cortical excitability in episodic CH patients by using transcranial magnetic stimulation. In 25 patients with episodic CH and 13 healthy subjects we evaluated the motor cortical response to single-pulse (ie, motor threshold, input-output curves, cortical silent period) and paired-pulse (ie, intracortical facilitation, short intracortical inhibition) transcranial magnetic stimulation in both hemispheres. Thirteen patients were evaluated outside bout and the remaining 12 patients inside bout. Our results showed increased slope of the input-output curves after stimulation of both hemispheres in patients outside bout and in the hemisphere contralateral to the headache side in patients inside bout. Increased intracortical facilitation was observed in the hemisphere ipsilateral to the headache side in patients evaluated both outside and inside bout; reduced short intracortical inhibition was observed in patients inside bout ipsilateral to the side of pain. In conclusion, we provide evidence of increased cortical excitability in episodic CH both outside and inside bout, especially in the hemisphere ipsilateral to the side of headache attacks. Our results suggest that an abnormal regulation of cortical excitability could be involved in the pathophysiology of CH" ]
[ "Cognitive processing in migraine is characterized by a loss of habituation during the interval and increased latencies in an attack. No studies are available on event-related potentials (ERPs) in cluster headache or chronic paroxysmal hemicrania. To determine the involvement of cognitive processing in cluster headache and chronic paroxysmal hemicrania as measured by ERPs. Visually evoked ERPs were measured in 50 patients with episodic cluster headache, 11 patients with chronic cluster headache, and 12 patients with chronic paroxysmal hemicrania. Measurements were performed in the cluster period outside an attack with and without prophylactic medication and not in the cluster period. Latencies of the endogenous ERP components were significantly increased during the cluster period as compared with outside the cluster period and with healthy subjects. In chronic cluster headache, latencies of both endogenous and exogenous components were increased. Medication with prophylactic drugs normalized the ERP latencies in episodic cluster headache; in chronic cluster headache, ERP latencies were decreased without complete normalization. No changes of ERP latencies and amplitudes could be observed in chronic paroxysmal hemicrania. A loss of cognitive habituation as it is known in migraine could not be observed in either cluster headache or chronic paroxysmal hemicrania", "Recent developments in transcranial alternating current stimulation (tACS) provide a powerful approach to establish the functional roles of neuronal oscillatory activities in the human brain. Here, we investigated whether tACS can reach and modulate the excitability of the visual cortex in a frequency-dependent manner. We measured the cortical excitability of the visual cortex using single pulse transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) while delivering tACS to the occipital region at different frequencies (5, 10, 20 and 40 Hz). We found that tACS at 20 Hz decreased TMS-phosphene threshold (i.e., increased the excitability of the visual cortex) during the stimulation, whereas other frequencies did not affect TMS-phosphene thresholds" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
The program manager for the National Organic Program said that AMS knew that the rule would be controversial, so AMS decided to take advantage of IT's potential to facilitate the comment process, allowing comments to be provided via mail, fax, and email.
[ "The program manager knew people would be upset about the rule." ]
[ "The program manager knew people would love the rule." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
Do Xpert MTB/RIF Cycle Threshold Values Provide Information about Patient Delays for Tuberculosis Diagnosis?
[ "Early diagnosis and initiation to appropriate treatment is vital for tuberculosis (TB) control. The XpertMTB/RIF (Xpert) assay offers rapid TB diagnosis and quantitative estimation of bacterial burden through Cycle threshold (Ct) values. We assessed whether the Xpert Ct value is associated with delayed TB diagnosis as a potential monitoring tool for TB control programme performance. This analysis was nested in a prospective study under the routine TB surveillance procedures of the National TB Control Program in Manhiça district, Maputo province, Mozambique. Presumptive TB patients were tested using smear microscopy and Xpert. We explored the association between Xpert Ct values and self-reported delay of Xpert-positive TB patients as recorded at the time of diagnosis enrolment. Patients with>60 days of TB symptoms were considered to have long delays. Of 1,483 presumptive TB cases, 580 were diagnosed as TB of whom 505 (87.0%) were due to pulmonary TB and 302 (94.1%) were Xpert positive. Ct values (range, 9.7-46.4) showed a multimodal distribution. The median (IQR) delay was 30 (30-45) days. Ct values showed no correlation with delay (R2 = 0.001, p = 0.621), nor any association with long delays: adjusted odds ratios (AOR) (95% confidence interval [CI]) comparing to>28 cycles 0.99 (0.50-1.96; p = 0.987) for 23-28 cycles, 0.93 (0.50-1.74; p = 0.828) for 16-22 cycles; and 1.05 (0.47-2.36; p = 0.897) for<16 cycles. Being HIV-negative (AOR [95% CI]), 2.05 (1.19-3.51, p = 0.009) and rural residence 1.74 (1.08-2.81, p = 0.023), were independent predictors of long delays" ]
[ "In January 2017, the World Health Organisation recommended the Xpert® MTB/RIF Ultra assay (Ultra) for tuberculosis (TB) diagnosis. Ultra offers improved analytical sensitivity when compared with the initial Xpert® MTB/RIF (Xpert) assay for the detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Ultra is therefore likely to be of particular benefit for detecting paucibacillary TB. We present a case from Uganda demonstrating Ultra positivity in urine from an HIV-infected patient presenting with altered mental status and urinary incontinence, and no other signs of active pulmonary or extrapulmonary TB. This represents the first published instance of a diagnosis of extrapulmonary TB made on the basis of a positive urine Ultra assay. The use of Ultra on urine may be a useful addition to the diagnostic armamentarium for disseminated TB in persons with HIV co-infection. The diagnostic accuracy of urine Ultra should be characterised further via prospective studies.", "To understand determinants of care-seeking patterns and diagnostic delay amongst tuberculosis (TB) patients diagnosed at direct observed treatment short course (DOTS) facilities in Jogjakarta, Indonesia. Cross-sectional survey amongst newly diagnosed TB patients in 89 DOTS facilities whose history of care-seeking was reconstructed through retrospective interviews gathering data on socio-demographic determinants, onset of TB symptoms, type of health facilities visited, duration of each care-seeking action were recorded. Two hundred and fifty-three TB patients were included in the study whose median duration of patients' delay was 1 week and whose total duration of diagnostic delay was 5.4 weeks. The median number of visits was 4. Many of the patients' socio-demographic determinants were not associated with the care-seeking patterns, and no socio-demographic determinants were associated with the duration of diagnostic delay. More than 60% of TB patients started their care-seeking processes outside DOTS facilities, but the number of visits in DOTS facilities was greater during the overall care-seeking process. Surprisingly, patient's immediate visits to a DOTS facility did not correspond to shorter diagnostic delay" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
does h pylori infect liver
[ "Helicobacter pylori is a well-known causative organism of chronic gastric diseases and has been found in many hepatic carcinoma samples. To explore the expression of apoptosis-related proteins and carcinoma development in H. pylori-infected livers, we utilized BALB/cAnSlac mice to establish an H. pylori-infected model by oral inoculation and orthotopic grafts of hepatic tumors by H22 cells, respectively. We found that H. pylori colonies could not be cultured from all liver and tumor samples. However, its 16S rRNA was detectable in 85.3% of livers and 66.7% of tumors in the infected mice. Inflammatory cells were observed and thinly distributed in the lobule portions of the liver, and H. pylori mainly existed in the infected hepatic sinusoids and the necrotic areas of the infected tumors. No significant difference was found in liver to body weight ratio between the infected and uninfected. Moreover, the pathological tumor difference was unremarkable between the two. The proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) and Bcl-2-associated X protein (Bax) expression in the infected tumors was significantly higher and lower, respectively, than those of the uninfected tumors. However, no significant difference in Bcl-2 (B-cell lymphoma 2) expression existed. The results indicate that H. pylori found in the livers which were infected by H. pylori oral inoculation could contribute to the infiltration of inflammatory cells in livers. Although H. pylori has no significant impact on the liver to body weight ratio or tumor Bcl-2 expression, it may upregulate PCNA expression and downregulate Bax expression, respectively. All our findings show that H. pylori may promote proliferation and inhibit apoptosis of tumor cells." ]
[ "INTRODUCTION: The outbreak of COVID-19 is a serious health threat worldwide. Different degrees of liver injury or liver dysfunctions have been reported in patients with COVID-19 infection. However, currently, it remains unclear to what extent liver diseases should be considered as significant risk factors for the severity and mortality of COVID-19. Moreover, the mechanisms involved in liver injury in severe COVID-19 infection are not yet well understood. AREA COVERED: This review summarizes the current evidence on liver function abnormalities in COVID-19 patients and the effects of pre-existing liver disease on the disease severity. This review also illustrates the possible underlying mechanisms linking COVID-19 to liver injury, as well as provides recommendations to prevent liver damage in COVID-19 infection. EXPERT OPINION: The elevated levels of ALT, AST, GGT and bilirubin are common in more severe patients than non-severe or mild COVID-19 patients. Patients with pre-existing medical conditions including chronic hepatic diseases are at higher risk for severe illness from COVID-19 infection. The drug's effects, possible viral inclusion in liver cells, systemic inflammation and hypoxia are potential causes of liver injury in severe COVID-19. Nevertheless, further studies are needed focusing on the pre-existing hepatic diseases on prevention, treatment and outcome of COVID-19.", "COVID‐19 is highly contagious and has a variety of clinical manifestations, it can affect a number of other organs in addition to the lungs, and liver injury may occur. SARS‐CoV‐2 can cause liver injury through systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), cytokine storms, ischemia‐reperfusion injury, side effects of treatment drugs, and underlying liver disease and can attack liver cells directly via ACE2. Clinical studies have found that liver injury in COVID‐19 patients mainly manifests as abnormal liver biochemical indicators, but there have been no reports of liver failure caused by this disease. The number of COVID‐19 patients with liver injury is increasing, and the incidence of liver injury in COVID‐19 patients with severe disease are higher than in patients with mild disease. Liver injury may be a risk factor for progresses and worsens in patients with COVID‐19, and it is necessary to pay attention to the occurrence of liver injury in the diagnosis and treatment of COVID‐19. This article is protected by copyright. All rights reserved." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
can lssdna be used as a donor
[ "BACKGROUND: Recent advances in clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)/CRISPR-associated protein 9 (Cas9) genome editing have led to the use of long single-stranded DNA (lssDNA) molecules for generating conditional mutations. However, there is still limited available data on the efficiency and reliability of this method.RESULTS: We generated conditional mouse alleles using lssDNA donor templates and performed extensive characterization of the resulting mutations. We observed that the use of lssDNA molecules as donors efficiently yielded founders bearing the conditional allele, with seven out of nine projects giving rise to modified alleles. However, rearranged alleles including nucleotide changes, indels, local rearrangements and additional integrations were also frequently generated by this method. Specifically, we found that alleles containing unexpected point mutations were found in three of the nine projects analyzed. Alleles originating from illegitimate repairs or partial integration of the donor were detected in eight projects. Furthermore, additional integrations of donor molecules were identified in four out of the seven projects analyzed by copy counting. This highlighted the requirement for a thorough allele validation by polymerase chain reaction, sequencing and copy counting of the mice generated through this method. We also demonstrated the feasibility of using lssDNA donors to generate thus far problematic point mutations distant from active CRISPR cutting sites by targeting two distinct genes (Gckr and Rims1). We propose a strategy to perform extensive quality control and validation of both types of mouse models generated using lssDNA donors.CONCLUSION: lssDNA donors reproducibly generate conditional alleles and can be used to introduce point mutations away from CRISPR/Cas9 cutting sites in mice. However, our work demonstrates that thorough quality control of new models is essential prior to reliably experimenting with mice generated by this method. These advances in genome editing techniques shift the challenge of mutagenesis from generation to the validation of new mutant models." ]
[ "Fiberoptic bronchoscopy and transbronchial lung biopsy are currently the gold standard for detection of acute rejection following human lung transplantation (LTx). However, these surveillance procedures are expensive and invasive. Up to now, there are few new methods that have demonstrated clinical utility for detecting early stages of rejection following human lung transplantation. We optimized and technically validated a novel method to quantify donor-derived circulating cell free DNA (DcfDNA) that can be used as an early biomarker for lung allograft rejection. The method involves the initial development of a panel of probes in which each probe will specifically target a unique sequence of a human leukocyte antigen (HLA) allele. After transplantation, donor/recipient specific probes are chosen based on the mismatched HLA loci, followed by droplet digital PCR (ddPCR) used as a quantitative assay to accurately track the trace amount of DcfDNA in an ample excess of recipient DNA background. The average false positive rate noted was about 1 per 800,000 molecules. Serially 2-fold diluted cfDNA, representing donor fractions of cfDNA, were spiked into a constant level of cfDNA representing the recipient cfDNA. The fraction of spiked cfDNA was measured and quantitative linearity was observed across seven serially diluted cfDNA samples. We were able to measure the minor portion of cfDNA as low as 0.2% of total cfDNA. We subsequently applied the method to a pilot set of 18 LTx recipients grouped into biopsy-proven acute rejection, bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome (BOS) or stable groups. Serial plasma samples were used to identify the percentage of DcfDNA over total cfDNA. The level of DcfDNA was significantly elevated in patients diagnosed with acute rejection (10.302.80, n=18), compared to that from stable (1.710.50, n=24) or from BOS patients (2.520.62, n=20). In conclusion, we present results validating the application of digital PCR to quantify DcfDNA assay in primary clinical specimens, which demonstrate that DcfDNA can be used as an early non-invasive biomarker for acute lung allograft rejection.", "Constructing safe and effective gene delivery carriers is becoming highly desirable for gene therapy. Herein, a series of supramolecular crosslinking system were prepared through host-guest binding of adamantyl-modified low molecular weight of polyethyleneimine with L-cystine-bridged bis(-cyclodextrin)s and characterized by (1)H NMR titration, electron microscopy, zeta potential, dynamic light-scattering, gel electrophoresis, flow cytometry and confocal fluorescence microscopy. The results showed that these nanometersized supramolecular crosslinking systems exhibited higher DNA transfection efficiencies and lower cytotoxicity than the commercial DNA carrier gold standard (25 kDa bPEI) for both normal cells and cancer cells, giving a very high DNA transfection efficiency up to 54% for 293T cells. Significantly, this type of supramolecular crosslinking system possesses a number of enzyme-responsive disulfide bonds, which can be cleaved by reductive enzyme to promote the DNA release but recovered by oxidative enzyme to make the carrier renewable. These results demonstrate that these supramolecular crosslinking systems can be used as promising gene carriers." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what type of cell produces intrinsic factor
[ "Intrinsic factor (IF), also known as gastric intrinsic factor (GIF), is a glycoprotein produced by the parietal cells of the stomach.It is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) later on in the small intestine. In humans, the gastric intrinsic factor protein is encoded by the GIF gene.Haptocorrin (also known as HC, R protein, and transcobalamin I, TCN1), is a glycoprotein secreted by the salivary glands which binds to vitamin B 12.ere in the less acidic environment of the small intestine, pancreatic enzymes digest the glycoprotein carrier and vitaminB 12 can then bind to intrinsic factor. This new complex is then absorbed by the epithelial cells (enterocytes) of the ileum." ]
[ "The protein encoded by this gene is a transmembrane glycoprotein that is a member of the protein kinase superfamily. This protein is a receptor for members of the epidermal growth factor family. EGFR is a cell surface protein that binds to epidermal growth factor. Epidermal growth factor receptor mutation is associated with response to therapy in resected advanced non-small-cell lung cancer. 2 Nuclear EGFR protein expression predicts poor survival in early stage non-small cell lung cancer. 3 EGFR activating mutations are associated with brain metastases in non-small lung cancer.", "Together with factor VIIa, tissue factor forms the tissue factor or extrinsic pathway of coagulation. This is opposed to the intrinsic (amplification) pathway which involves both activated factor IX and factor VIII. Both pathways lead to the activation of factor X (the common pathway) which combines with activated factor V in the presence of calcium and phospholipid to produce thrombin (thromboplastin activity)." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is a good video editing program for windows
[ "Part 2: Best Video Editing Software for Beginners (Video Tutorial) Recommended: Wondershare Filmora (originally Wondershare Video Editor) Want an easy-to-use and feature rich editing tool for Windows XP/Vista/7/8/10? You'd better get a commercial video editing application.", "2. VirtualDub. VirtualDub is a powerful free video editing software for Windows with many amazing features, such as compression, video splitting, and the addition of audio tracks. As a free movie editing software, it has batch-processing capabilities for dealing with large numbers of files and can be extended with third-party video filters." ]
[ "If your just going to do some light editing, like cutting scenes, you might want to use a free one, such as wax 2.0, or Virtual dub. I personally use Wax 2.0 as it is easy and simple to use, allow lacks the power of a professional one, such as Vegas, of adobe.f your just going to do some light editing, like cutting scenes, you might want to use a free one, such as wax 2.0, or Virtual dub. I personally use Wax 2.0 as it is easy and simple to use, allow lacks the power of a professional one, such as Vegas, of adobe.", "Text Editing Software for Windows. The Text Editing Software category contains a wide variety of text file readers and writers from basic reminder... The Text Editing Software category contains a wide variety of text file readers and writers from basic reminder notes creator, Simple Stick Notes, to full coding editors like Sublime Text." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
which blood cells does cancer affect
[ "Myeloma is a cancer of the plasma cells. Plasma cells are white blood cells that produce disease-and infection-fighting antibodies in your body. Myeloma cells prevent the normal production of antibodies, leaving your body's immune system weakened and susceptible to infection." ]
[ "1 Leukemia affects all of your blood-forming tissues, including your bone marrow and lymphatic system. 2 Docto…. 3 The Facts About Leukemia Prevention and Screening Leukemia is a cancer of your blood or bone marrow that causes a dramatic increase of your white blood cell count.aking the world better, one answer at a time. Leukemia is a cancer of the blood and stops the production of healthy B-cells. These deranged, immature cells accumulate in the blood and within organs of the body. They are not able to carry out the normal functions of blood cells.", "Cancer cells even evade programmed cell death, despite the fact that their multiple abnormalities would normally make them prime targets for apoptosis. In the late stages of cancer, cells break through normal tissue boundaries and metastasize (spread) to new sites in the body. In normal cells, hundreds of genes intricately control the process of cell division. Normal growth requires a balance between the activity of those genes that promote cell proliferation and those that suppress it. It also relies on the activities of genes that signal when damaged cells should undergo apoptosis." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
does olympics have a cardiovascular screening
[ "OBJECTIVE: The IOC recommends periodic cardiovascular screening of athletes, but the adoption of these recommendations is unknown. The purpose of this investigation was to evaluate and compare cardiovascular screening practices of countries participating in the Rio 2016 Olympic Games.METHODS: A list of chief medical officers (CMOs) was compiled by the IOC during the 2016 Olympic Games. CMOs were requested to complete an online survey about cardiovascular screening of their countries' Olympic athletes. Comparisons of screening practices were made by categorising countries by continent, gross domestic product (GDP) per capita and size of athlete delegation.RESULTS: CMOs for 117/207 (56.5%) countries participating in the 2016 Olympic Games were identified. 94/117 countries (80.3%) completed the survey, representing 45.4% of all countries and 8805/11 358 (77.5%) of all 2016 Olympic athletes. Most of the countries surveyed (70.2%) perform annual cardiovascular screening. Among the survey respondents, all or most athletes from each country were screened at least once with the following components: personal history (86.2% of countries), family history (85.1%), physical examination (87.2%), resting ECG (74.5%), echocardiogram (31.9%) and stress test (30.8%). Athletes were more likely to be screened with ECG in countries with relatively larger athlete delegation (OR 2.05, 95% CI 1.10 to 3.80, p=0.023) and with higher GDP per capita (OR 1.69, 95% CI 1.11 to 2.57, p=0.014).CONCLUSION: Most of the responding countries perform annual cardiovascular screening of Olympic athletes, but there are differences in the components used. Athletes from countries with larger athlete delegations and higher GDP per capita were more likely to be screened with ECG." ]
[ "A sudden cardiac event or death in a young athlete is a traumatic and memorable event. These tragic events have long-lasting and widespread influences that not only affect the person's immediate family, but also have profound effects on the team, school, and entire community. Over the past several decades there has been a significant research effort in the area of sudden cardiac death (SCD) in athletes in hopes of decreasing preventable deaths. One area of research and discussion that has emerged is the use of electrocardiograms (EKGs) in preparticipation screening examinations as a tool to help identify athletes at risk for SCD. The use of an EKG in addition to a detailed history and physical examination is a controversial and frequently debated topic. To help sort through some of the controversy, this article discusses some of the pros and cons of incorporating the EKG as a screening modality in the preparticipation evaluation for clearance to participate in sports.", "UNLABELLED: In Hungary, ECG is a keystone of routine athletic screening. Its significance is based on simplicity, quickness and high informative value as well as the fact that appearance of pathological ECG signs can precede the formation of structural heart diseases. During screening of healthy athletes, we studied the incidence of athletic ECG changes and pathological ECG abnormalities.METHODS: We performed detailed analysis of 12-lead ECG recordings of asymptomatic elite, non-elite and master athletes and controls.RESULTS: 227 athletes (male: 180, age: 27.2 8.7 years) and 89 controls (male: 57, age: 28.1 6.8 years) were examined. Benign ECG signs: sinus bradycardia, early repolarization and isolated Voltage criteria of left ventricular hypertrophy were common and more often in athletes compared to controls. Potentially pathological ECG signs: ST- (6.6% vs. 1.1%, p < 0.05) and T-wave (15.0% vs. 5.6%, p < 0.05) changes and signs of pathological left ventricular hypertrophy (5.3% vs. 0%, p < 0.05) occurred more frequently in athletes compared to controls.CONCLUSIONS: Signs of pathological left ventricular hypertrophy and repolarization abnormalities are more often in athletes. No structural heart disease could be verified in the background of the disorders. However, athletes having pathological ECG should be kept under tight cardiology control. Exact definition and widespread knowledge of pathological ECG changes is essential in early recognition of high risk athletes." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
how many refugees did obama want to take in
[ "In a memo last September, President Obama said the United States would admit up to 70,000 refugees to the United States during Fiscal Year 2015, as justified by humanitarian concerns or the national interest. The number breaks down as follows: Africa................................17,000." ]
[ "But after the attacks on Sept. 11, 2001, the number of refugees allowed into the United States slowed sharply, dropping to 27,131 in 2002. The numbers have risen steadily since then and last year amounted to 69,987 — just below a cap of 70,000. Most refugees need at least a year and sometimes two to navigate the system.", "Brushing aside warnings from Republicans, President Obama announced Thursday night that he is granting temporary legal status and work permits to nearly 5 million illegal immigrants, igniting a constitutional furor that amounted to a declaration of war against the incoming Republican majorities in Congress." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
how to make deviled eggs with pickle relish
[ "Bring water to a boil and immediately remove from heat. Cover and let eggs stand in hot water for 10 to 12 minutes. Remove from hot water, cool, peel and cut lengthwise. Remove yolks from eggs. In a medium bowl, mash the yolks and mix together with mayonnaise, onion, sweet pickle relish, horseradish and mustard. With a fork or pastry bag, fill the egg halves with the yolk mixture. Garnish with paprika, salt and pepper." ]
[ "1 First hard boil the eggs. (See how to make hard boiled eggs .) Fill up a large saucepan half-way with cold water and gently add the eggs. Cover the eggs with at least an inch of water, preferably two inches. Bring the water to a rolling boil.", "Using a sharp knife, slice each egg in half, lengthwise. Gently remove the yolk halves and place in a small mixing bowl. Arrange the egg white halves on a serving platter. 3 Using a fork, mash up the yolks and add mustard, mayonnaise, onion, tabasco, and a sprinkling of salt and pepper." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
um um yeah that sounds pretty wild
[ "That sounds crazy." ]
[ "That sounds really tame." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
do lasers help back pain
[ "Laser therapy evidence unclear for low-back pain Why was this review done? Some clinicians, such as physiotherapists, use low-level laser therapy (LLLT) to treat patients with low-back pain or disability. Low-level laser therapy is a non-invasive light-source treatment that has no heat, sound or vibration. This systematic review explored whether low-level laser therapy is effective in treating patients with non-specific low-back pain. How was the review done? The reviewers searched for clinical trials of low-level laser therapy to treat low-back pain in several electronic databases. Reviewers only included trials in which patients were randomly assigned to either receive low-level laser therapy or to belong to a comparison group receiving sham (or fake) treatments, no treatment or another treatment. Seven such randomized controlled trials were included in the review, involving 384 patients with non-specific low-back pain. What did the reviewers find? There was insufficient evidence to either support or disprove the effectiveness of low-level lasers. In three studies, low-level laser therapy did show benefits in providing pain relief and improving disability in low-back pain patients compared with a sham laser treatment. However, the effects were small. Also, the types of laser, dose, frequency and number of treatments varied. In another three studies, the effect of low-level laser therapy combined with exercise was no better than exercise alone. Based on the small number of studies and differences in patient populations and laser characteristics, the evidence is considered insufficient. The reviewers do not recommend substituting low-level laser therapy for other beneficial treatments. What are some strengths and weaknesses of the review? The reviewers examined several databases that captured all randomized controlled trials looking at low-level laser therapy. However, individual studies were quite different in terms of the patient population and the laser characteristics. In addition, the sample sizes were small." ]
[ "Pinched nerve back treatment Pinched nerve back treatment Treatments Treatment Articles How to Treat a Herniated Disc Treat a Herniated Disc Stiff Neck Treatment How to Treat a Bulging Disc Treat a Bulging Disc Treat Bulging Discs How to Treat Arthritis Arthritis Back Treatment Arthritis Neck Treatment How to Treat a Pinched Nerve Pinched Nerve Back Treatment Pinched Nerve Neck Treatment How to Treat Degenerative Disc Disease Degenerative Disc Disease Treatment How to Treat Spinal Stenosis Stenosis of the Spine Treatment How to Treat Sciatica Treat Sciatica Pain Exercises Treat Sciatica Treating Sciatica How to Treat Back Pain Treat Back Pain Treat Lower Back Pain Treat Back Strain Treat Low Back Pain Treat a Back Injury Treat a Sore Back Back Muscle Treatment Back Spasms Treatment Chronic Back Pain Treatment Chronic Low Back Pain Treatment Upper Back Treatment Back & Neck Treatment Treatments Spine Treatments Spine Compression Treatment Lumbar Spine Treatment Advanced Technologies Advanced Technologies Laser Back Treatment If you are experiencing a pinched nerve in the neck or back, treatment is usually required to relieve the symptoms. In most cases, the treatment needed for pain relief can be accomplished from the comfort of home with a variety of conservative techniques. However, some cases of a pinched nerve will require spine surgery to ease the painful symptoms. Conservative pinched nerve treatment Sometimes, a pinched nerve is a result of an injury or muscle strain and only needs time to heal. However, nerve compression can also result from spine deterioration and demand a more rigorous treatment plan. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and origin of your pain, but physicians usually recommend starting with conservative options. Some of the most common conservative, nonsurgical treatments include: Exercise or stretching techniques — one of the best things you can do to overcome minor back problems is to increase the strength and flexibility of your back with a targeted exercise plan. You need to be careful not to overdo your workout, but, with the help of a trained professional, exercise and stretching can be a great way to combat pain. Heat therapy — heat reduces swelling and increases blood flow to your injury, which helps the healing process. Both hot packs and hot tub therapy can be helpful and soothing. Medication — anti-inflammatory pain medication, topical analgesics, muscle relaxants and cortisone injections can all help reduce your pain while you heal. Proper diet — reducing the stress placed on your back is a great way to lessen back pain. The lower back is responsible for supporting much of the body’s weight, so losing a few pounds can be a great way to reduce stress on the spine. Consult your physician or a nutritionist to develop a diet that works for you. Elevate your feet while you sleep — this further reduces the stress on your back, giving it time to heal. When conservative treatment is not enough In the event that these pinched nerve conservative back treatment options don’t alleviate your pain after several weeks or months, contact Laser Spine Institute to learn about our minimally invasive spine surgery. Our minimally invasive decompression and stabilization procedures are often the clinically appropriate surgical first choice compared to open neck or back surgery. These outpatient surgeries require smaller incisions, allowing our patients to avoid hospitalization and enjoy shorter recovery times. ^ Contact us today for more information and to receive a review of your MRI report or CT scan." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant documents that answer the query
msmarco_doc
what is secure messaging
[ "BACKGROUND: Secure email messaging is part of a national transformation initiative in the United States to promote new models of care that support enhanced patient-provider communication. To date, only a limited number of large-scale studies have evaluated users' experiences in using secure email messaging.OBJECTIVE: To quantitatively assess veteran patients' experiences in using secure email messaging in a large patient sample.METHODS: A cross-sectional mail-delivered paper-and-pencil survey study was conducted with a sample of respondents identified as registered for the Veteran Health Administrations' Web-based patient portal (My HealtheVet) and opted to use secure messaging. The survey collected demographic data, assessed computer and health literacy, and secure messaging use. Analyses conducted on survey data include frequencies and proportions, chi-square tests, and one-way analysis of variance.RESULTS: The majority of respondents (N=819) reported using secure messaging 6 months or longer (n=499, 60.9%). They reported secure messaging to be helpful for completing medication refills (n=546, 66.7%), managing appointments (n=343, 41.9%), looking up test results (n=350, 42.7%), and asking health-related questions (n=340, 41.5%). Notably, some respondents reported using secure messaging to address sensitive health topics (n=67, 8.2%). Survey responses indicated that younger age (P=.039) and higher levels of education (P=.025) and income (P=.003) were associated with more frequent use of secure messaging. Females were more likely to report using secure messaging more often, compared with their male counterparts (P=.098). Minorities were more likely to report using secure messaging more often, at least once a month, compared with nonminorities (P=.086). Individuals with higher levels of health literacy reported more frequent use of secure messaging (P=.007), greater satisfaction (P=.002), and indicated that secure messaging is a useful (P=.002) and easy-to-use (P?.001) communication tool, compared with individuals with lower reported health literacy. Many respondents (n=328, 40.0%) reported that they would like to receive education and/or felt other veterans would benefit from education on how to access and use the electronic patient portal and secure messaging (n=652, 79.6%).CONCLUSIONS: Survey findings validated qualitative findings found in previous research, such that veterans perceive secure email messaging as a useful tool for communicating with health care teams. To maximize sustained utilization of secure email messaging, marketing, education, skill building, and system modifications are needed. These findings can inform ongoing efforts to promote the sustained use of this electronic tool to support for patient-provider communication." ]
[ "UNLABELLED: Mobile technology use, including Short Messaging Service (SMS) text messaging, has increased in health care services. Preferences regarding the type or timing of text messages sent by healthcare providers to people with antipsychotic medication have not yet been fully investigated. This study examines the relationship between patients' demographic characteristics and the tailored messages they select. The study (\"Mobile.Net\",ISRCTN: 27704027) includes a structured analysis of a random sub-sample of participants who received messages for 12months. The data were collected in 24 sites and 45 psychiatric hospitals in Finland and analyzed with descriptive statistics and Poisson regression models. The study sample involved 562 people on antipsychotic medication, and a total of 2112 text messages (2 to 25 monthly) were analysed. Regarding message content, there was no significant variation in the proportions relating to 'medication', 'treatment appointments' or 'free time'. Monday was the most popular day to receive messages and morning was preferred to later in the day. Age was most closely associated with 'number of messages' and 'time of messages'. Older women and younger men preferred higher numbers of messages (p=0.0031). Participants preferred positive, encouraging and slightly humorous messages. The findings suggest that messages may be acceptable for difficult to access groups in follow-up. This type of intervention may be useful for various types of patients especially for younger males. To further support the evidence about factors related to message utilization and use, it is important to evaluate the effectiveness of text messages in psychiatric care.", "Sexually explicit media (SEM) have been used in HIV-prevention advertisements to engage men who have sex with men (MSM) and to communicate content. These advertisements exist within larger discourses, including a dominant heteronormative culture and a growing homonormative culture. Cognizant of these hegemonic cultures, this analysis examined the acceptable level of sexual explicitness in prevention advertisements. Seventy-nine MSM participated in 13 online focus groups, which were part of a larger study of SEM. Three macro themes-audience, location, and community representation-emerged from the analysis, as did the influence of homonormativity on the acceptability of SEM in HIV-prevention messages." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Stress immune system correlation
[ "The interrelation of stress and the human immune system is a topic of significant interest in the scientific community. Stress, which is often perceived as a psychological factor, has been found to have profound physical effects that can negatively impact the immune system. The immune system is a complex network of cells and proteins that defends the body against infection. It is a well-known fact that chronic stress can lead to a host of health problems, including a decrease in the effectiveness of the immune system. The body's response to stress involves the release of hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline. These hormones prepare the body for a 'fight or flight' response by increasing heart rate and blood pressure. However, long-term release of these hormones due to chronic stress can lead to a decrease in the effectiveness of the immune system. This can leave the body more susceptible to infections, diseases, and can slow wound healing. Several studies have shown a correlation between chronic stress and an increased likelihood of catching a cold. This is due to the reduced ability of the immune system to respond effectively. Other studies have also shown that stress can increase the time it takes for the body to recover from illness or injury. These findings highlight the importance of managing stress to maintain a healthy immune system. Techniques such as mindfulness, relaxation exercises, and adequate sleep can help manage stress levels and thereby enhance immune system function" ]
[ "The immune system and the nervous system are two complex systems that interact in various ways to maintain homeostasis in the body. The nervous system, which includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, is in charge of transmitting messages between different parts of the body. It plays a critical role in controlling bodily functions and maintaining a steady internal environment. The immune system, on the other hand, is the body's defense mechanism against infections and diseases. It is made up of a network of cells, tissues, and organs that work together to protect the body. Although the immune system and the nervous system are two distinct systems, they interact in several ways. For example, the immune system can affect the functioning of the nervous system. Certain immune cells can release chemicals that can influence the activity of nerve cells. On the other hand, the nervous system can also influence the immune response. Nerve cells can release neurotransmitters that can affect immune cells. These interactions between the nervous system and the immune system are critical for maintaining the body's health and well-being. They help to ensure that the body can respond effectively to various challenges, such as infections, injuries, and changes in the environment" ]
Given a query, Retrieve documents that provide information on the effects of stress on the immune system
synthetic
longest homer in wrigley
[ "He hit 240 home runs in his career, but never more than 29 in any given year. One personal memory of mine relates to Roberto Clemente — the home run that he hit on May 17, 1959 in Wrigley Field, which has been considered the longest home run in Wrigley Field history." ]
[ "Can Mantle's 565-foot homer be matched? Wednesday marks the 60th anniversary of one of the most famous home runs in major-league history -- one hit by Mickey Mantle off Chuck Stobbs at Griffith Stadium in Washington, D.C. Yankees publicist Red Patterson claimed the home run went 565 feet.", "Best Answer: Their really isn't one correct answer to this question, I'll try to explain. Ill start with the home run that Mickey Mantle hit at Griffith Stadium in Washington on April 17, 1953. The entire baseball world was led to believe the ball had traveled 565 feet from home plate to the point where it landed." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Is late allergic airway response to segmental bronchopulmonary provocation in allergic subjects related to peripheral blood basophil histamine release?
[ "Basophil histamine release has been found to correlate with the presence and severity of allergic disease. However, it remains to be established whether airway response to antigen is related to basophil involvement and its release of histamine. The purpose of this study was to investigate whether the intensity of airway response to an inhaled antigen challenge in allergic subjects is related to IgE-dependent peripheral blood basophil histamine release. The response to segmental bronchoprovocation with antigen was examined in 34 subjects with allergic rhinitis. Bronchoalveolar lavage samples were obtained 5 minutes (immediate response) and 48 hours (late response) after allergen challenge. Peripheral blood maximal basophil histamine release (MBHR) in response to in vitro antigen stimulation was determined in each subject before segmental bronchoprovocation. Bronchoalveolar lavage samples obtained during immediate response showed an increase in histamine, whereas the late response was noted for a marked enhancement in airway cells, particularly eosinophils. Interestingly, a significant correlation (r = 0.73, p < 0.0001, Spearman Rank test) was noted between MBHR and intensity of bronchoalveolar lavage eosinophilia at 48 hours. Furthermore, subjects with high (> or = 20%) MBHR had significantly higher total cells and eosinophils in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid 48 hours after antigen segmental bronchoprovocation when compared with subjects with low (< 20%) MBHR" ]
[ "Rhinovirus and IgE act in concert to promote asthma exacerbations. While basophils are the principal cell type in the blood that is activated by IgE, their role in virus-induced asthma episodes remains elusive. To monitor IgE responsiveness in circulating basophils of rhinovirus-infected atopic asthmatics during acute infection and convalescence. The capacity for basophils to respond to IgE was assessed by testing the effects of allergen, or cross-linking anti-FcεRI and anti-IgE antibodies, on surface TSLP receptor in 24-hour PBMC cultures. Activation profiles of basophils from atopic asthmatics challenged intranasally with human rhinovirus 16 were monitored directly ex vivo or else in 24-hour cultures, at baseline (day 0), and then at days 4 and 21 post-challenge. Basophils in atopic asthmatics, but not in non-atopic controls, upregulated TSLP receptor upon IgE receptor ligation. The magnitude of this response was correlated with the proportion of serum total IgE that was allergen-specific (r = 0.615, P < 0.05). Following rhinovirus infection, all subjects developed nasal symptoms that peaked 3-5 days after viral challenge. Basophils displayed maximal IgE responsiveness 3 weeks post-challenge as judged by TSLP receptor levels in 24-hour cultures. No significant change in total IgE or specific IgE antibodies was detected during rhinovirus infection. By contrast, levels of IgE receptor-associated spleen tyrosine kinase, Syk, were increased on day 4 (P < 0.05), and elevated levels were also detected three weeks post-challenge", "Adenosine monophosphate (AMP) may reflect airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness, but relationship between AMP and histamine (His, a conventional stimulus) bronchial provocation test (BPT) in asthma is not fully elucidated. To compare both BPTs and determine their utility in reflecting changes of asthmatic symptoms. BPTs were performed in cross-over fashion, at 2-4day intervals. Cumulative doses eliciting 20% FEV Nineteen uncontrolled, 22 partly controlled and 19 controlled asthmatic patients and 24 healthy subjects were recruited. Lower PD" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Is there a role for music in reducing anxiety in plastic surgery minor operations?
[ "It is well documented that music plays a role in reducing anxiety levels. Its role in reducing intra-operative anxiety levels in surgical patients while awake is less well known. We report the effects of music on intra-operative patient anxiety in both the elective and trauma plastic surgical setting. Two groups of patients undergoing local anaesthetic surgical procedures were identified: those where music was played in the operating theatre (Group 1) and those where it was not (Group 2). Ninety-six patients were included. Subjectively anxiety was evaluated by the patient with a visual analogue scale (VAS) and objectively by the respiratory rate (RR), both pre and post-operatively. The unpaired t-test was used to evaluate the statistical significance of differences between the groups. The mean pre-operative VAS score was similar in both groups (5.7 in Group 1 and 5.8 in Group 2). The mean pre-operative RR was 15 breaths per minute in both groups. Post-operatively, the VAS score and RR were both lower in Group 1 (VAS: 3.5 vs 4.9; p<0.01 and RR: 11 vs 13 breaths per minute; p<0.05)" ]
[ "OBJECTIVE: This study was designed to evaluate anxiety and depression disorders and investigate the prevalence and risk factors in preoperative patients who visited a cosmetic plastic surgery clinic.METHODS: The estimate of anxiety and depression in preoperative patients, who were admitted to the outpatient department of plastic surgery in a general hospital from July 2016 to July 2017, was determined by a field survey method using the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale. The demographic information of all patients was collected. All data were analyzed by SPSS statistical package.RESULTS: A total of 315 patients were enrolled, which included 15 males and 300 females, with an average age of 30 ± 8.4 years. The mean HADS score was 8.2 ± 5.13, HADS-A was 4.7 ± 3.04, and HADS-D was 3.5 ± 2.72. The HADS-A score was significantly higher than the HADS-D score (p = 0.000). There were 34 cases (10.8%) with anxiety, 15 cases (4.8%) with depression, and 6 cases (1.9%) with both anxiety and depression. We found that the education level of these patients (p = 0.001) and the development level of their residence places (p = 0.040) have a negative correlation with the score of anxiety. There was a negative correlation between education level (p = 0.000) and depression score. Education level was associated with the diagnosis of anxiety (p = 0.034). Education level (p = 0.001) and occupation (p = 0.015) were associated with the diagnosis of depression.CONCLUSION: In patients seeking cosmetic plastic surgery, the preoperative anxiety is more obvious than depression. There is a negative correlation between education level and anxiety and depressive symptoms.", "AIMS: To determine the effect of music on the management of pain and anxiety in primiparous women during labour.BACKGROUND: Music is cost-effective intervention in clinical practice to reduce pain, stress, and anxiety. However, a systematic review with meta-analysis for investigating its effects during labour is still lacking.DESIGN: A systematic review with meta-analysis.DATA SOURCES: MEDLINE, EMBASE, and CINAHL databases.REVIEW METHODS: Randomized controlled trials or quasi-experimental trials concerning the effects of music among primiparous women who were expected to give normal spontaneous delivery were searched and screened up to 31 July 2017. The recruited trials for this review were compliant with the standards of the Cochrane Handbook for Systematic Reviews of Interventions.RESULTS: A total of 392 primiparous pregnant women (197 in the music intervention group and 195 in the routine care group) from five studies were included in this review. Music as an intervention seemed to lower the pain scores for primiparous women during labour, but the effect was not statistically significant. However, there was a significant benefit of music intervention compared with routine care for primiparous women during labour. In the sensitivity analysis, music intervention showed significant effect on the improvement of pain and anxiety for primiparous women during labour.CONCLUSION: Music intervention may be an effective intervention for the management of pain and anxiety for primiparous women during labour." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Do ketolide agents HMR 3004 and HMR 3647 ( telithromycin ) inhibit the growth of Plasmodium falciparum in vitro?
[ "Malaria is on the increase due to emergence of parasite drug resistance and there is thus an urgent need for the development of new antiparasitic drugs effective at low concentrations. Ketolides antibiotics are used for treatment of various ailments and are relevant candidates to establish antiparasitic activity. The present study investigates the activity of ketolide compounds HMR 3004 and HMR 3647 (telithromycin) (0.025-12.5 µM) for activity against chloroquine-sensitive and resistant strains of Plasmodium falciparum in vitro. The antiplasmodial activity of the two ketolide agents were determined using microscopic and colorimetric [lactate dehydrogenase assay] procedures. Both HMR 3004 and HMR 3647 caused a dose-dependent inhibition of growth of both parasite strains with IC50 values 3 and 15 nM, respectively. Suppression of parasite growth was evident after 8 hours of exposure to both agents at 12.5 µM with total parasite clearance achieved at 40 hours" ]
[ "INTRODUCTION: Leishmaniasis, Chagas disease, and malaria cause morbidity globally. The drugs currently used for treatment have limitations. Activity of cinnamic acid analogs against Leishmania spp., Trypanosoma cruzi, and Plasmodium falciparum was evaluated in the interest of identifying new antiprotozoal compounds.METHODS: In vitro effects of analogs against L. braziliensis, L. infantum chagasi, T. cruzi, and P. falciparum, and hemolytic and cytotoxic activities on NCTC 929 were determined.RESULTS: Three analogs showed leishmanicidal and tripanocidal activity. No antiplasmodial, hemolytic, or cytotoxic activity was observed.CONCLUSIONS: Antiprotozoal activity of analogs against L. infantum braziliensis, L. infantum chagasi, and T. cruzi was demonstrated.", "Leishmaniasis is the generic denomination to the neglected diseases caused by more than 20 species of protozoa belonging to the genus Leishmania. The toxic and parenteral-delivered pentavalent antimonials remain to be the first-line treatment. However, all the current used drugs have restrictions. The species Aureliana fasciculata (Vell.) Sendtner var. fasciculata is a native Brazilian species parsimoniously studied on a chemical point of view. In this study, the antileishmanial activity of A. fasciculata was evaluated. Among the evaluated samples of the leaves, the dichloromethane partition (AFfDi) showed the more pronounced activity, with IC50 1.85 µg/ml against promastigotes of L. amazonensis. From AFfDi, two active withanolides were isolated, the Aurelianolides A and B, with IC50 7.61 ìM and 7.94 ìM, respectively. The withanolides also proved to be active against the clinically important form, the intracellular amastigote, with IC50 2.25 ìM and 6.43 ìM for Aurelianolides A and B, respectively. Furthermore, withanolides showed results for in silico parameters of absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion, and toxicity (ADMET) similar to miltefosine, the reference drug, and were predicted as good oral drugs, with the advantage of not being hepatotoxic. These results suggest that these compounds can be useful as scaffolds for planning drug design." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
MY 85 YR OLD GRANDFATHER HAS SUFFERED A HEART ATTACK AND APPARENTLY 3 OF HIS ARTERIES ARE 90 PERCENT CLOGGED.HE JUST FOUND OUT HE IS ALSO DIABETIC AND HAS BEEN FOR OVER A YEAR AND DIDN;T KNOW.HIS DOCTOR SAID HE IS A CANDIDATE FOR A TRIPLE BY PASS BUT HAS A 50/50 CHANCE OF SURVIVAL AND HE WOULD PROBABLY ONLY SURVIVE FOR 2YRS AFTER SURGURY. HE IS VERY SCARED OF THE RECOVERY AND OF DIEING.WHAT DO YOU THINK HIS CHANCES ARE OF SURVIVAL?
[ "Nonetheless, I think it's fair to say that without surgery; 90% arterial occlusion (depending on one which arteries are involved - there are many arteries and their location around the heart and effect in blockage varies); can indeed lead to even worse outcomes if not repaired. Unfortunately, if the physicians are describing Triple Bypass surgery as opposed to a less invasive option (catheterization), than according to medical treatment guidelines, it is very likely these are very important arteries, which must have adequate blood-flow for survival. Thus, surgery may be the only option to prevent the inevitable (a full-fledged blockage and heart attack which may lead to death). I would assume, and certainly speak to the physicians about this to assess its validity, that his chances for survival in the near future may be improved with surgery, though for an individual of your grandfathers demographic, there are great risks to surgery as well. You must weigh your options. 90% occlusion of ones triples vessels will not reverse without intervention, and are not conductive with a positive outlook for continued lifespan. I'm sorry for you and your grandfather, and trust you can all come to a decision which you believe is best and most comfortable for his comfort and well-being" ]
[ "Am sorry about your mother. A person with massive stroke with a poor prognosis/chance of recovery can survive anywhere from a week to a year (occasionally longer) if there are no further complications. More commonly 3-6 monthsKidney failure, sepsis, heart failure, overall health condition (diabetes, hypertension, coronary disease, obesity, age) before the incident all factor in. Recommendations :-Proper nutrition through a feeding tube, parenteral feeding should be given with adequate calories, proteins. - Position must be changes every two hours to prevent bed sores. -Personal hygiene maintained by a trained personnel or family member. -Passive physiotherapy of the limbs to maintain circulation and muscle tone should be done- neuroprotective Chat Doctor. The aim is to keep her as comfortable as possible", "The survival rate of 5 years is considered to be 15 to 20 %, means 20 patients among 100 patients survive 5 years. Out look is better if the lesion is in the distant part, and in the lymph nodes than in organs. And if lactose deny Chat Doctor. Besides giving treatment give him fresh juices of palatable vegetables, to have an UN explained little recovery. Wishing him good health. Thank you" ]
Given a question with context from online medical forums, retrieve responses that best answer the question
dialogue
A man in a flannel shirt is arranging a bouquet.
[ "The bouquet is being arranged by the man in the flannel shirt." ]
[ "The bouquet is being tossed at people" ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
My Girl friend had menses from 7th of Dec 2012 to 11 th of dec. We met on 12th Dec. had sex and we continued sex till 15th and she have taken unwanted 72 on 15th afternoon.But after 1 week she is bleeding slowly and heavyily randomnly and vomitting also.Kindly tell Why after menses this bleeding occurs after a week again? Do we need to take pregnancy test and if yes, Red line will come in both case means mis carriage or pregnant or only in one case if pregnent .Is it mis carriage or what?Pls tell Ad also suggest if found pregnent we want to avoid it.Pls answer asap.
[ "e. in safe period with taking unwanted 72 on 15th Dec in correct time. The bleeding occurs due to with Chat Doctor. Here pregnancy chance is almost nil. So don't be much worried and stay cool. This bleeding stops automatically and if persists for more than 5 days, then consult with gynecologist to rule out underlying pathology if any. Pregnancy test is done with urine for Chat Doctor and two pink line indicates positive test whether one pink line indicates negative result. Wait for the next coming period and if missed do pregnancy test after 1 wk. Practice safe sex in the future. Be well" ]
[ "I have gone through your query & understand your concern. You had unprotected sex 2 weeks before your periods. That falls in fertile phase of menses. You had very light bleeding during your periods at scheduled time. . . but it was scanty. Such bleeding is most likely to be implantation bleeding. So yes, such bleeding can be sign of pregnancy. Please confirm after 8 days delay in your menses", "So this intercourse does not pause any threat of pregnancy. You may have some bleeding after few days and your menstruation may be delayed by few days to a week. However, you had one more unprotected intercourse on 12th Jan was not protected at all and hence this intercourse may result in pregnancy. You are not sure of the dates of menstruation. Moreover, you have taken Progesterone pills which will delay your menses. So you cannot figure out whether you have missed your period or not. Hence, the options to detect your pregnancy status are:1. Perform Beta Chat Doctor test on the blood after 29th Jan. 2. Perform pregnancy test on overnight first morning urine sample after 10th of Feb. I hope this resolves your dilemm" ]
Given a question with context from online medical forums, retrieve responses that best answer the question
dialogue
how is the structure of hcov-hku1
[ "The newly emergent human coronavirus HKU1 (HCoV-HKU1) was first identified in Hong Kong in 2005. Infection by HCoV-HKU1 occurs worldwide and causes syndromes such as the common cold, bronchitis, and pneumonia. The CoV main protease (M(pro)), which is a key enzyme in viral replication via the proteolytic processing of the replicase polyproteins, has been recognized as an attractive target for rational drug design. In this study, we report the structure of HCoV-HKU1 M(pro) in complex with a Michael acceptor, inhibitor N3. The structure of HCoV-HKU1 provides a high-quality model for group 2A CoVs, which are distinct from group 2B CoVs such as severe acute respiratory syndrome CoV. The structure, together with activity assays, supports the relative conservation at the P1 position that was discovered by sequencing the HCoV-HKU1 genome. Combined with structural data from other CoV M(pro)s, the HCoV-HKU1 M(pro) structure reported here provides insights into both substrate preference and the design of antivirals targeting CoVs." ]
[ "We have recently read the article by Chaung et al.,(1) describing a case of SARS‐CoV‐2 and HCoV‐HKU1 coinfection. The HCoV‐HKU1 is also a member of the Betacoronavirus. This article is protected by copyright. All rights reserved.", "Culturing newly identified human lung pathogens from clinical sample isolates can represent a daunting task, with problems ranging from low levels of pathogens to the presence of growth suppressive factors in the specimens, compounded by the lack of a suitable tissue culture system. However, it is critical to develop suitable in vitro platforms to isolate and characterize the replication kinetics and pathogenesis of recently identified human pathogens. HCoV-HKU1, a human coronavirus identified in a clinical sample from a patient with severe pneumonia, has been a major challenge for successful propagation on all immortalized cells tested to date. To determine if HCoV-HKU1 could replicate in in vitro models of human ciliated airway epithelial cell cultures (HAE) that recapitulate the morphology, biochemistry, and physiology of the human airway epithelium, the apical surfaces of HAE were inoculated with a clinical sample of HCoV-HKU1 (Cean1 strain). High virus yields were found for several days postinoculation and electron micrograph, Northern blot, and immunofluorescence data confirmed that HCoV-HKU1 replicated efficiently within ciliated cells, demonstrating that this cell type is infected by all human coronaviruses identified to date. Antiserum directed against human leukocyte antigen C (HLA-C) failed to attenuate HCoV-HKU1 infection and replication in HAE, suggesting that HLA-C is not required for HCoV-HKU1 infection of the human ciliated airway epithelium. We propose that the HAE model provides a ready platform for molecular studies and characterization of HCoV-HKU1 and in general serves as a robust technology for the recovery, amplification, adaptation, and characterization of novel coronaviruses and other respiratory viruses from clinical material." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
how many days does the father get to take off for birth of child
[ "Arranging Time Off Work. About 60 percent of new fathers are able to take time off work after their baby's birth, and of those, 75 percent take off 1-4 weeks. Since most time off is unpaid (unless there is vacation time owed), it can take some serious planning to figure out how to be there for your new family and get the bills paid at the same time." ]
[ "In the meantime, though, most fathers take vacation time or sick days when their children are born, and a growing number of new dads are taking unpaid family leave from their jobs to spend more time with their newborns.", "If the parents work for the same company, the 12 weeks is then divided between the two of them and is an accumulation of both of their time (i.e., each could take 6 weeks off, or one could take 4 weeks while the other takes 8 weeks)." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Significant cost savings can be achieved for power generators and consumers through a comprehensive legislative package.
[ "Big cost savings can be obtained through legislating." ]
[ "Big cost savings can never be obtained through legislating." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
what is the meaning of my name priyanka in hindi
[ "It is a name derived from the Sanskrit word 'Priyanker' or 'Priyankar' meaning, someone or something that is amiable; lovable, or makes you happy. In its adverb form it can also mean endearing behavior, for example an act of showing kindness or happiness or excitement; or kind agree-ability.The Sanskrit word Priyankar is also used to describe the white variety of the 'Kantakari' flower (Sweta kantakari).n its adverb form it can also mean endearing behavior, for example an act of showing kindness or happiness or excitement; or kind agree-ability. The Sanskrit word Priyankar is also used to describe the white variety of the 'Kantakari' flower (Sweta kantakari)." ]
[ "Instead, we recommend that you pay a greater attention to the origin and meaning of the name Priya. Read our baby name articles for useful tips regarding baby names and naming your baby. If you are thinking of giving your baby the beautiful name Priya, spread the love and share this with your friends.he meaning of Priya has more than one different etymologies. It has same or different meanings in other countries and languages. The different meanings of the name Priya are: 1 Sanskrit meaning: Beloved. 2 Indian meaning: Beloved.", "Priya. 1. Name meaning beloved one in Sanskrit--the oldest language in the world. Believed in ancient times, that people with the name Priya, usually born in August according to indian traditions, are unique and beautiful in their own way. 2. A girl for houston, texas. Who is funny, smart, and gorgeous." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what mutation is ttf positive bronchial surface epithelium
[ "Bronchial surface epithelium (BSE)-type lung adenocarcinoma is a subtype of non-terminal respiratory unit (TRU)-type lung adenocarcinoma originating in the bronchial surface epithelium. However, there are few known cases of BSE-type adenocarcinoma with marked expression of thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1). This paper describes a very rare case of KRAS mutation-positive BSE-type adenocarcinoma that exhibited strong expression of TTF-1 that was putatively involved in oncogenesis. An 84-year-old woman, a never smoker, was referred to our hospital because of an abnormal chest radiograph. Chest computed tomography (CT) showed a solid mass lesion, 15 mm ? 10 mm, with a relatively smooth margin in the left upper lobe. The patient underwent partial resection of the left upper lobe for strongly suspected lung cancer with a clinical stage of cT1aN0M0. Histopathological findings showed continuous migration of papillary, hyperplastic, atypical columnar tumor cells originating from normal bronchial surface epithelium, leading to a diagnosis of BSE-type adenocarcinoma. TTF-1 was strongly expressed in almost 100% of the tumor cells, which tested positive for the KRAS mutation. TTF-1 has recently attracted attention as an oncogene, and it is purportedly involved in the carcinogenesis and survival of lung adenocarcinoma cells. There is typically an inverse correlation between the respective expressions of KRAS and TTF-1, but in the present study, they appeared simultaneously and were both putatively involved as oncogenic driver alterations. This case is important in that it sheds some light on the largely unknown pathogenic mechanism of BSE-type adenocarcinoma." ]
[ "Distal airway stem cells (DASCs) in the mouse lung can differentiate into bronchioles and alveoli. However, it remains unclear whether the same stem cells exist in the human lung. Here, we found that human lung epithelial (HuL) cells, derived from normal, peripheral lung tissue, in monolayer, mostly express both the N-terminally truncated isoform of p63 (?Np63), a marker for airway basal cells, and thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1), a marker for alveolar epithelial cells, even though these two molecules are usually expressed in a mutually exclusive way. Three-dimensionally cultured HuL cells differentiated to form bronchiole-like and alveolus-like organoids. We also uncovered a few bronchiolar epithelial cells expressing both ?Np63 and TTF-1 in the human lung, suggesting that these cells are the cells of origin for HuL cells. Taken together, Np63+ TTF-1+ peripheral airway epithelial cells are possibly the human counterpart of mouse DASCs and may offer potential for future regenerative medicine.", "BACKGROUND: COPD is emerging as the third largest cause of human mortality worldwide after heart disease and stroke. Tobacco smoking, the primary risk factor for the development of COPD, induces increased expression of platelet-activating factor receptor (PAFr) in the lung epithelium. Nontypeable Haemophilus influenzae (NTHi) and Streptococcus pneumoniae adhere to PAFr on the luminal surface of human respiratory tract epithelial cells.OBJECTIVE: To investigate PAFr as a potential drug target for the prevention of infections caused by the main bacterial drivers of acute exacerbations in COPD patients, NTHi and S. pneumoniae.METHODS: Human bronchial epithelial BEAS-2B cells were exposed to cigarette smoke extract (CSE). PAFr expression levels were determined using immunocytochemistry and quantitative polymerase chain reaction. The epithelial cells were challenged with either NTHi or S. pneumoniae labeled with fluorescein isothiocyanate, and bacterial adhesion was measured using immunofluorescence. The effect of a well-evaluated antagonist of PAFr, WEB-2086, on binding of the bacterial pathogens to BEAS-2B cells was then assessed. In silico studies of the tertiary structure of PAFr and the binding pocket for PAF and its antagonist WEB-2086 were undertaken.RESULTS: PAFr expression by bronchial epithelial cells was upregulated by CSE, and significantly associated with increased bacterial adhesion. WEB-2086 reduced the epithelial adhesion by both NTHi and S. pneumoniae to levels observed for non-CSE-exposed cells. Furthermore, it was nontoxic toward the bronchial epithelial cells. In silico analyses identified a binding pocket for PAF/WEB-2086 in the predicted PAFr structure.CONCLUSION: WEB-2086 represents an innovative class of candidate drugs for inhibiting PAFr-dependent lung infections caused by the main bacterial drivers of smoking-related COPD." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Does t cell-specific deletion of EFNB2 minimally affect T cell development and function?
[ "Eph kinases and their ephrin ligands (EFN) are all cell surface molecules, capable of transmitting signals in both directions (1, 2). Such bidirectional signaling is called forward (from EFNs to Ephs) and reverse (from Ephs to EFNs) signaling. Eph family kinases have 15 members, divided into A and B subfamilies. Ephrin ligands have 9 members, also classified into A and B families. Ephs and ephrins interact promiscuously, but EphAs mainly interact with EFNAs, and EphBs with EFNBs. EphB family kinases and their ephrin ligands (EFN) are expressed in the T cell compartment. In this study, using mice with T cell-specific EFNB2 gene knockout (EFNB2 KO mice), we investigated T cell development and function after EFNB2 deletion. EFNB2 KO mice presented normal thymus weight and cellularity. Their thymocyte subpopulations, such as CD4CD8 double positive cells and CD4 and CD8 single positive cells, were normally distributed, but there was a significant relative increase of CD4CD8 double negative cells. Flow cytometry analysis revealed that there was a moderate increase in the DN3 subpopulation. This augmented percentage of DN cells was further confirmed in competitive repopulation chimeras, suggesting that EFNB2 is involved in thymocyte development. The EFNB2 KO mice had normal T cell numbers and percentages in the spleen, and the T cells were able to be activated and to proliferate normally upon TCR ligation. Further, EFNB2 KO naïve CD4 cells were capable of differentiating into Th1, Th2, Th17 and Treg cells similar to WT naïve CD4 cells" ]
[ "Thymic epithelial cells (TEC) are essential for thymocyte differentiation and repertoire selection. Despite their indispensable role in generating functional T cells, the molecular mechanisms that orchestrate TEC development from endodermal progenitors in the third pharyngeal pouch (3rd PP) are not fully understood. We recently reported that the T-box transcription factor TBX1 negatively regulates TEC development. Although initially expressed throughout the 3rd PP, Tbx1 becomes downregulated in thymus-fated progenitors and when ectopically expressed impairs TEC progenitor proliferation and differentiation. Here we show that ectopic Tbx1 expression in thymus fated endoderm increases expression of Polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2) target genes in TEC. PRC2 is an epigenetic modifier that represses gene expression by catalyzing trimethylation of lysine 27 on histone H3. The increased expression of PRC2 target genes suggests that ectopic Tbx1 interferes with PRC2 activity and implicates PRC2 as an important regulator of TEC development. To test this hypothesis, we used Foxn1Cre to delete Eed, a PRC2 component required for complex stability and function in thymus fated 3rd PP endoderm. Proliferation and differentiation of fetal and newborn TEC were disrupted in the conditional knockout (EedCKO) mutants leading to severely dysplastic adult thymi. Consistent with PRC2-mediated transcriptional silencing, the majority of differentially expressed genes (DEG) were upregulated in EedCKO TEC. Moreover, a high frequency of EedCKO DEG overlapped with DEG in TEC that ectopically expressed Tbx1. These findings demonstrate that PRC2 plays a critical role in TEC development and suggest that Tbx1 expression must be downregulated in thymus fated 3rd PP endoderm to ensure optimal PRC2 function.", "Background: NF-êB1 is a master regulator of both acquired and innate responses. NFKB1 loss-of-function mutations elicit a wide clinical phenotype with asymptomatic individuals at one end of the spectrum and patients with common variable immunodeficiency, combined immunodeficiency or autoinflammation at the other. Impairment of acquired and innate immunity and disseminated Mycobacterium genavense infection expands the clinical and immunological phenotype of NF-êB1 deficiency. Objective: Functional and molecular characterization of a patient with a novel phenotype of NF-êB1 deficiency. Methods: Circulating T, B, dendritic cell subsets and innate or unconventional T-cells were quantified. The cytokine production in stimulated whole blood samples was assessed and molecular characterization by next generation sequencing and gene expression assays were also performed. Results: We report a patient presenting with features of combined immunodeficiency (CID) and disseminated Mycobacterium genavense infection. Sequencing of genomic DNA identified a novel synonymous mutation (c.705G > A) in NFKB1 gene which resulted in exon 8 skipping and haploinsufficiency of the NF-êB1 subunit p50. The susceptibility to atypical mycobacterial infection has not been previously reported and may be the result of a dendritic cell deficiency. A selective deficiency of circulating follicular helper T (cTFH) cells responsible for mediating the differentiation of naive B cells into memory and plasma cells was also present in the patient. It could affect the maturation of innate or unconventional T cells where NF-êB1 could also be involved. Conclusion: These findings showed that the role of NF-êB1 in humans could be critical for the development of acquired and innate immunity and further highlights the role of human T cells in anti-mycobacterial immunity." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
layers of the earth with lithosphere and asthenosphere
[ "Asthenosphere The asthenosphere (from Greek ἀσθενής \"\"asthenḗs\"\" 'weak' + \"\"sphere\"\") is the highly viscous, mechanically weak and ductilely deforming region of the upper mantle of the Earth. It lies below the lithosphere, at depths between approximately below the surface. The Lithosphere-Asthenosphere boundary is usually referred to as LAB. The asthenosphere is almost solid, although some of its regions could be molten (e.g., below mid-ocean ridges). The lower boundary of the asthenosphere is not well defined. The thickness of the asthenosphere depends mainly on the temperature. However, the rheology of the asthenosphere also depends on the rate of deformation, which suggests" ]
[ "only planet in our Solar System with plate tectonics. The crust is a thin shell on the outside of the Earth, accounting for less than 1% of Earth's volume. It is the top component of lithosphere: a division of Earth's layers that includes the crust and the upper part of the mantle. The lithosphere is broken into tectonic plates that move, allowing heat to escape from the interior of the Earth into space. The crust lies on top of the mantle, a configuration that is stable because the upper mantle is made of peridotite and so is significantly denser than", "The age of the oceanic crust can be used to estimate the (thermal) thickness of the lithosphere, where young oceanic crust has not had enough time to cool the mantle beneath it, while older oceanic crust has thicker mantle lithosphere beneath it. The oceanic lithosphere subducts at what are known as convergent boundaries. These boundaries can exist between oceanic lithosphere on one plate and oceanic lithosphere on another, or between oceanic lithosphere on one plate and continental lithosphere on another. In the second situation, the oceanic lithosphere always subducts because the continental lithosphere is less dense. The subduction process consumes" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
Is lymphatic vessel invasion an independent prognostic factor in patients with a primary resected tumor with esophageal squamous cell carcinoma?
[ "Little data exist about the prognostic role of a lymphatic vessel invasion (LVI) in patients with esophageal carcinoma. The objective of this study was to clarify the presence and prognostic impact of LVI in a large group of patients resected for esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) at one surgical center. Three hundred sixty-six patients, who had a primary resection for SCC, were analyzed by univariate and multivariate analysis. Follow-up was complete for 93.7% patients with a median follow-up of 8.3 years. The total rate of LVI was 39.1% (n = 143). Univariate analysis revealed a significant relation between LVI and different T classifications (P = 0.001), N classifications (P < 0.0001), M classifications (P < 0.0001), International Union Against Cancer (UICC) stages (P < 0.0001), and residual tumor (P < 0.0001). Multivariate analysis of the patients with R0-resected tumors proved LVI as an independent prognostic factor. The 2-, 5- and 10-year survival rates in patients with LVI were 28.5%, 11.1%, and 9.2% compared with 63.4%, 46.6%, and 27%, respectively, without LVI (P < 0.0001). Patients with LVI had a median survival time of 11.4 months compared with 28.6 months without LVI (P < 0.0001). Patients with R0-resected tumors without LVI had a median survival time of 54.1 months compared with 12.1 months in patients with LVI (P < 0.0001) and compared with 11.3 months in patients with R1-resected tumors P < 0.0001)" ]
[ "Treatment modalities in esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (ESCC) depend largely on lymph node metastasis (LNM) status. With suboptimal detection sensitivity of existing imaging techniques, we propose a methylation signature which identifies patients with LNM with greater accuracy. This would allow precise stratification of high-risk patients requiring more aggressive treatment from low-risk ESCC patients who can forego radical surgery. An unbiased genome-wide methylation signature for LNM detection was established from an initial in silico discovery phase. The signature was tested in independent clinical cohorts comprising of 249 ESCC patients. The prognostic potential of the methylation signature was compared to clinical variables including LNM status. A 10-probe LNM associated signature (LNAS) was developed using stringent bioinformatics analyses. The area under the curve values for LNAS risk scores were 0.81 and 0.88 in the training and validation cohorts respectively, in association with lymphatic vessel invasion and tumor stage. High LNAS risk-score was also associated with worse overall survival [HR (95% CI) 3 (1.8-4.8), p < 0.0001 training and 3.9 (1.5-10.2), p = 0.001 validation cohort]. In conclusion, our novel methylation signature is a powerful biomarker that identifies LNM status robustly and is also associated with worse prognosis in ESCC patients.", "Circulating tumor cells (CTCs) are suspected of predicting the prognosis of malignant tumor, but there are few relevant reports specific to esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (ESCC). This study investigated the clinical significance of CTCs in patients with ESCC.Sixty patients with ESCC were enrolled, from whom CTCs had been tested by our team previously. Peripheral blood samples were obtained from these patients before treatment; and CTCs were assayed by isolation by size of epithelial tumor cells (ISET). Associations between the presence of CTCs and patients' clinicopathological parameters and clinical outcomes were analyzed.CTCs were detected in 20 patients (33.3%), who experienced significantly shorter progression-free survival (PFS) than did the CTC-negative patients. Overall, PFS was negatively associated with the number of CTCs. Multivariate analyses showed that a CTC count >2 was a strong independent prognostic indicator of tumor recurrence (hazard ratio [HR] 5.63; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.77-17.89; P = .003). In the subgroup of 50 patients who underwent R0 resection and postoperative adjuvant radiotherapy or chemotherapy, CTC was a strong, independent, and prognostic indicator of tumor recurrence (HR 10.70; 95% CI, 1.40-81.91; P = .022). The number of CTCs correlated with the T stage (r = 0.26, P = .043) but not with the N or M stage. For subgroups in stages II or I-IIIB or T3 or T3 + T4, the PFS of patients with CTCs > 1 or > 2 was significantly shorter than that of the patients with CTCs ? 1 or CTCs ? 2. In the stage III or T3 + T4 groups, the PFS of patients with CTCs > 0 was significantly shorter than that of patients with CTC = 0.This is the first study to report that the CTC detected by ISET is an independent and prognostic indicator of patients' outcome in ESCC. Consideration of CTCs may improve the accuracy of preoperative staging in ESCC." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
how does adenosine relaxes detrusor muscle
[ "OBJECTIVES: To analyze the effect of adenosine on detrusor smooth muscle contraction and to assess age-related changes of adenosine function.METHODS: Sustained contractions were induced in young (10-30 days) and old (>60 days) rat detrusor muscle strips by application of 30 mmol/L K(+) and adenosine (0.1-400 mol/L), which was either applied before raising the K(+) concentration or added to the precontracted muscle strip. Quantitative polymerase chain reaction analyses were used to study adenosine receptor expression in rat and human detrusor specimens.RESULTS: Pretreatment with adenosine dose-dependently reduced subsequent K(+) -induced contraction in detrusor muscle strips from young rats (half-maximal effect = 40 mol/L). The residual depolarization-induced contraction strength in young tissue was significantly smaller than in tissue from old animals, showing a greater potency of adenosine in young detrusor samples. Likewise, the relaxing effect of adenosine on precontracted detrusor muscle was also significantly more pronounced in young compared with older detrusor. Quantitative polymerase chain reaction showed an age-related downregulation of the adenosine A2B receptor in rat detrusor tissues, which could be confirmed in human detrusor samples. Furthermore, relaxation of both K(+) -induced as well as carbachol-induced contraction by the specific A2B receptor agonist BAY 60-6583 was significantly more pronounced in young than in old rats.CONCLUSIONS: Adenosine powerfully counteracts contraction of detrusor smooth muscle, which is lost in the aging bladder. This is paralleled by an age-dependent transcriptional downregulation of the low-affinity A2B receptor. Hence, this might be pathophysiologically relevant in conditions of raised adenosine concentrations, such as hyperactive bladder contractility." ]
[ "Autonomic and somatic motor neurons that innervate the urinary bladder and urethra control the highly coordinated functions of the lower urinary tract, the storage, and the emptying of urine. ACh is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the bladder. Here, we aimed to determine whether PKA regulates neuronal ACh release and related nerve-evoked detrusor smooth muscle (DSM) contractions in the guinea pig urinary bladder. Isometric DSM tension recordings were used to measure spontaneous phasic and electrical field stimulation (EFS)- and carbachol-induced DSM contractions with a combination of pharmacological tools. The colorimetric method was used to measure ACh released by the parasympathetic nerves in DSM isolated strips. The pharmacological inhibition of PKA with H-89 (10 M) increased the spontaneous phasic contractions, whereas it attenuated the EFS-induced DSM contractions. Intriguingly, H-89 (10 M) attenuated the (primary) cholinergic component, whereas it simultaneously increased the (secondary) purinergic component of the nerve-evoked contractions in DSM isolated strips. The acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, eserine (10 M), increased EFS-induced DSM contractions, and the subsequent addition of H-89 attenuated the contractions. H-89 (10 M) significantly increased DSM phasic contractions induced by the cholinergic agonist carbachol. The inhibition of PKA decreased the neuronal release of ACh in DSM tissues. This study revealed that PKA-mediated signaling pathways differentially regulate nerve-evoked and spontaneous phasic contractions of guinea pig DSM. Constitutively active PKA in the bladder nerves controls synaptic ACh release, thus regulating the nerve-evoked DSM contractions, whereas PKA in DSM cells controls the spontaneous phasic contractility.", "Intravenous (i.v.) injections of adenosine exert marked effects on heart rate (HR) and arterial blood pressure (BP), but the role of an endogenous adenosine release by vagal stimulation has not been evaluated. In anaesthetized rats, we examined HR and BP changes induced by 1 min electrical vagal stimulation in the control condition, and then after i.v. injections of (i) atropine, (ii) propranolol, (iii) caffeine, (iv) 8 cyclopentyl-1,3-dipropylxanthine (DPCPX), or (v) dipyridamole to increase the plasma concentration of adenosine (APC). APC was measured by chromatography in the arterial blood before and at the end of vagal stimulation. The decrease in HR in the controls during vagal stimulation was markedly attenuated, but persisted after i.v. injections of atropine and propranolol. When first administered, DPCPX modestly but significantly reduced the HR response to vagal stimulation, but this disappeared after i.v. caffeine administration. Both the HR and BP responses were significantly accentuated after i.v. injection of dipyridamole. Vagal stimulation induced a significant increase in APC, proportional to the magnitude of HR decrease. Our data suggest that the inhibitory effects of electrical vagal stimulations on HR and BP were partly mediated through the activation of A1 and A2 receptors by an endogenous adenosine release. Our experimental data could help to understand the effects of ischemic preconditioning, which are partially mediated by adenosine." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Does gene transfer of c-met confer protection against D-galactosamine/lipopolysaccharide-induced acute liver failure?
[ "Acute liver failure (ALF) is characterized by impaired regeneration of hepatocytes, partially resulting from the defective signaling between elevated levels of hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) and the downregulation of its receptor, c-met. In this study, we assess the therapeutic efficacy of in vivo c-met gene transfer in ALF. We established a D: -galactosamine/lipopolysaccharide (D: -GalN/LPS)-induced ALF model in rats. The levels of HGF and c-met in D: -GalN/LPS rats were compared with vehicle-injected rats and those undergoing liver regeneration following partial hepatectomy (PH). To deliver c-met in vivo, pcDNA-c-met was constructed and transfected into the rat liver via hydrodynamic injection. Control rats were transfected with the pcDNA3.1 plasmid. The expressions of c-met in different tissues were examined by immunohistochemistry. Hepatocyte proliferation and apoptosis were determined by PCNA staining and TUNEL assay, respectively. The survival of rats in the control and c-met-expressing rats was compared by Kaplan-Meier analysis. Compared with control rats, D: -GalN/LPS or PH -treated rats had significantly higher levels of HGF (P < 0.01). D: -GalN/LPS also led to significantly lower c-met expression in the liver (P < 0.01) than PH. The in vivo c-met gene transfer led to its specific expression on hepatocytes, which was accompanied by the enhancement of hepatocyte proliferation, a reduction in apoptosis, as well as significant improvement in overall survival (P < 0.01)" ]
[ "Adeno-associated vectors (rAAV) have been used to attain long-term liver gene expression. In humans, the cellular immune response poses a serious obstacle for transgene persistence while neutralizing humoral immunity curtails re-administration. Porphobilinogen deaminase (PBGD) haploinsufficiency (acute intermittent porphyria) benefits from liver gene transfer in mouse models and clinical trials are about to begin. In this work, we sought to study in non-human primates the feasibility of repeated gene-transfer with intravenous administration of rAAV5 vectors under the effects of an intensive immunosuppressive regimen and to analyze its ability to circumvent T-cell immunity and thereby prolong transgene expression. Three female Macaca fascicularis were intravenously injected with 1 x 10(13) genome copies/kg of rAAV5 encoding the human PBGD. Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF), anti-thymocyte immunoglobulin, methylprednisolone, tacrolimus and rituximab were given in combination during 12 weeks to block T- and B-cell mediated adaptive immune responses in two macaques. Immunodeficient and immunocompetent mice were intravenously injected with 5 x 10(12) genome copies/kg of rAAV5-encoding luciferase protein. Forty days later MMF, tacrolimus and rituximab were daily administrated to ascertain whether the immunosuppressants or their metabolites could interfere with transgene expression", "Increased leukocyte-endothelial interaction (LEI) leading to hepatic microperfusion disorders is proposed as major contributor for hepatic failure during sepsis. Recently it has been demonstrated that complement inhibition by C1-inhibitor (C1-INH) is an effective treatment against microcirculatory disturbances in various diseases. The purpose of this study was to investigate the influence of C1-INH on microcirculation and LEI in the liver in a rat model of sepsis. Rats received lipopolysaccharides (LPS) from Escherichia coli intravenously. Controls received Ringer solution only. Ninety minutes after LPS infusion some animals were treated with C1-INH intravenously (LPS + C1-INH). Others (LPS + SC) and controls (Ringer + SC) received sodium chloride (SC). Hepatic LEI and mean erythrocyte velocity (MEV) were quantified by intravital microscopy (IVM) 90 min after LPS or Ringer infusion (0) and 30, 60, 90 and 120 min following treatment. VCAM-1 m-RNA in hepatic tissue, C3a, TNF-alpha and hepatic enzyme liberation in blood was analysed" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
where is your bile duct located
[ "Overview. A biliary obstruction is a blockage of the bile ducts. The bile ducts carry bile from the liver and gallbladder through the pancreas to the small intestine (the duodenum). Bile is a dark-green or yellowish-brown fluid secreted by the liver to digest fats. Much of the bile is released directly into the small intestine, but what remains is stored in the gallbladder." ]
[ "Bile duct obstruction is a blockage in the tubes that carry bile from the liver to the gallbladder and small intestine. In serious cases, the common bile duct can be surgically moved so that it empties further down the small intestine.ile duct obstruction is a blockage in the tubes that carry bile from the liver to the gallbladder and small intestine. In serious cases, the common bile duct can be surgically moved so that it empties further down the small intestine.", "Bile duct obstruction is a blockage in the tubes that carry bile from the liver to the gallbladder and small intestine.In serious cases, the common bile duct can be surgically moved so that it empties further down the small intestine.Hi: Clinical signs of bile duct obstruction include jaundice (yellow discoloration of the skin, easiest to detect in the whites of the eyes), and dark discoloration of urine.n serious cases, the common bile duct can be surgically moved so that it empties further down the small intestine. Hi: Clinical signs of bile duct obstruction include jaundice (yellow discoloration of the skin, easiest to detect in the whites of the eyes), and dark discoloration of urine." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
uh-huh uh-huh oh my husband just has to have it green has to be green it's
[ "My husband says it must be green." ]
[ "My husband says it must be yellow." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
where is biblical miletus
[ "Miletus (/maɪˈliːtəs/; Ancient Greek: μί̄λητος Mīlētos; Hittite transcription Millawanda or Milawata (exonyms); Latin: Miletus; Turkish: Milet) was an ancient Greek city on the western coast of Anatolia, near the mouth of the Maeander River in ancient Caria. Its ruins are located near the modern village of Balat in Aydın Province, Turkey. Before the Persian invasion in the middle of the 6th century BC, Miletus was considered the greatest and wealthiest of Greek cities." ]
[ "The closest we get to Biblical Israel in the Bible is a map buried in the book of Numbers in which the land spans from the Mediterranean Sea in the west to the Jordan River in the east.", "Miletus was the native city of Thales, Anaximander and Anaximenes; Colophon of Xenophanes; Ephesus of Heraclitus; Samos of Pythagoras and Melissus; Elea of Parmenides and Zeno; Sicily of Empedocles; Clazomenes of Anaxagoras; Abdera of Leucippus and Democritus. The Presocratic philosophy is a philosophy of nature." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco