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The aim of this trial is to evaluate the antiviral efficacy, clinical efficacy, and safety of nelfinavir in patients with asymptomatic and mild COVID-19. The study is designed as a multicenter, open-label, blinded outcome assessment, parallel group, investigator-initiated, exploratory, randomized (1:1 ratio) controlled clinical trial. Asymptomatic and mild COVID-19 patients will be enrolled in 10 university and teaching hospitals in Japan. The inclusion and exclusion criteria are as follows: Inclusion criteria: (1) Japanese male or female patients aged ≥ 20 years (2) SARS-CoV-2 detected from a respiratory tract specimen (e.g., nasopharyngeal swab or saliva) using PCR, LAMP, or an antigen test within 3 days before obtaining the informed consent (3) Provide informed consent Exclusion criteria: (1) Symptoms developed ≥ 8 days prior to enrolment (2) SpO<sub2</sub &lt; 96 % (room air) (3) Any of the following screening criteria: a) ALT or AST ≥ 5 × upper limit of the reference range b) Child-Pugh class B or C c) Serum creatinine ≥ 2 × upper limit of the reference range and creatinine clearance &lt; 30 mL/min (4) Poorly controlled diabetes (random blood glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL or HbA1c ≥ 7.0%, despite treatment) (5) Unsuitable serious complications based on the assessment of either the principal investigator or the sub-investigator (6) Hemophiliac or patients with a marked hemorrhagic tendency (7) Severe diarrhea (8) Hypersensitivity to the investigational drug (9) Breastfeeding or pregnancy (10) With childbearing potential and rejecting contraceptive methods during the study period from the initial administration of the investigational drug (11) Receiving rifampicin within the previous 2 weeks (12) Participated in other clinical trials and received drugs within the previous 12 weeks (13) Undergoing treatment for HIV infection (14) History of SARS-CoV-2 vaccination or wishes to be vaccinated against SARS-CoV-2 (15) Deemed inappropriate (for miscellaneous reasons) based on the assessment of either the principal investigator or the sub-investigator INTERVENTION AND COMPARATOR: Patients who meet the inclusion criteria and do not meet any of the exclusion criteria will be randomized to either the nelfinavir group or the symptomatic treatment group. The nelfinavir group will be administered 750 mg of nelfinavir orally, three times daily for 14 days (treatment period). However, if a participant tests negative on two consecutive PCR tests of saliva samples, administration of the investigational drug for that participant can be discontinued at the discretion of the investigators. The symptomatic treatment group will not be administered the investigational drug, but all other study procedures and conditions will be the same for both groups for the duration of the treatment period. After the treatment period of 14 days, each group will be followed up for 14 days (observational period). The primary endpoint is the time to negative conversion of SARS-CoV-2. During the study period from Day 1 to Day 28, two consecutive negative PCR results of saliva samples will be considered as the negative conversion of the virus. The secondary efficacy endpoints are as follows: For patients with both asymptomatic and mild disease: area under the curve of viral load, half decay period of viral load, body temperature at each time point, all-cause mortality, incidence rate of pneumonia, percentage of patients with newly developed pneumonia, rate of oxygen administration, and the percentage of patients who require oxygen administration. For asymptomatic patients: incidence of symptomatic COVID-19, incidence of fever (≥ 37.0 °C for two consecutive days), incidence of cough For patients with mild disease: incidence of defervescence (&lt; 37.0 °C), incidence of recovery from clinical symptoms, incidence of improvement of each symptom The secondary safety endpoints are adverse events and clinical examinations. Patients will be randomized to either the nelfinavir group or the symptomatic treatment group using the electric data capture system (1:1 ratio, dynamic allocation based on severity [asymptomatic], and age [&lt; 60 years]). Only the assessors of the primary outcome will be blinded (blinded outcome assessment). The sample size was determined based on our power analysis to reject the null hypothesis, S (t | z =1) = S (t | z = 0) where S is a survival function, t is time to negative conversion, and z denotes randomization group, by the log-rank test with a two-sided p value of 0.05. We estimated viral dynamic parameters by fitting a nonlinear mixed-effects model to reported viral load data, and simulated our primary endpoint from viral-load time-courses that were realized from sets of viral dynamics parameters sampled from the estimated probability distribution of the parameters (sample size: 2000; 1000 each for randomization group). From this estimation of the hazard ratio between the randomization groups for the event of negative conversion using this simulation dataset, the required number of events for rejecting our null hypothesis with a power of 0.80 felled 97.345 by plugging the estimated hazard ratio, 1.79, in Freedman's equation. Therefore, we decided the required number of randomizations to be 120 after consideration of the frequency of censoring and the anticipated rate of withdrawal caused by factors such as withdrawal of consent. Protocol version 6.0 of February 12, 2021. Recruitment started on July 22, 2020 and is anticipated to be completed by March 31, 2022. This trial was registered in Japan Registry of Clinical Trials (jRCT) ( jRCT2071200023 ) on 21 July 21, 2020. The full protocol is attached as an additional file, accessible from the Trials website (Additional file 1). In the interest in expediting dissemination of this material, the familiar formatting has been eliminated; this Letter serves as a summary of the key elements of the full protocol. The study protocol has been reported in accordance with the Standard Protocol Items: Recommendations for Clinical Interventional Trials (SPIRIT) guidelines (Additional file 2).

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Acute bilirubin encephalopathy (ABE) and the other serious complications of severe hyperbilirubinemia in the neonate occur far more frequently in low- and middle-income countries (LMIC). This is due to several factors that place babies in LMIC at greater risk for hyperbilirubinemia, including increased prevalence of hematologic disorders leading to hemolysis, increased sepsis, less prenatal or postnatal care, and a lack of resources to treat jaundiced babies. Hospitals and clinics face frequent shortages of functioning phototherapy machines and inconsistent access to electricity to run the machines. Sunlight has the potential to treat hyperbilirubinemia: it contains the wavelengths of light that are produced by phototherapy machines. However, it contains harmful ultraviolet light and infrared radiation, and prolonged exposure has the potential to lead to sunburn, skin damage, and hyperthermia or hypothermia. To evaluate the efficacy of sunlight administered alone or with filtering or amplifying devices for the prevention and treatment of clinical jaundice or laboratory-diagnosed hyperbilirubinemia in term and late preterm neonates. We used the standard search strategy of Cochrane Neonatal to search CENTRAL (2019, Issue 5), MEDLINE, Embase, and CINAHL on 2 May 2019. We also searched clinical trials databases, conference proceedings, and the reference lists of retrieved articles for randomized controlled trials (RCTs), quasi-RCTs, and cluster RCTs. We updated the searches on 1 June 2020. We included RCTs, quasi-RCTs, and cluster RCTs. We excluded crossover RCTs. Included studies must have evaluated sunlight (with or without filters or amplification) for the prevention and treatment of hyperbilirubinemia or jaundice in term or late preterm neonates. Neonates must have been enrolled in the study by one-week postnatal age. We used standard methodologic procedures expected by Cochrane. We used the GRADE approach to assess the certainty of evidence. Our primary outcomes were: use of conventional phototherapy, treatment failure requiring exchange transfusion, ABE, chronic bilirubin encephalopathy, and death. We included three RCTs (1103 infants). All three studies had small sample sizes, were unblinded, and were at high risk of bias. We planned to undertake four comparisons, but only found studies reporting on two. Sunlight with or without filters or amplification compared to no treatment for the prevention and treatment of hyperbilirubinemia in term and late preterm neonates One study of twice-daily sunlight exposure (30 to 60 minutes) compared to no treatment reported the incidence of jaundice may be reduced (risk ratio [RR] 0.61, 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.45 to 0.82; risk difference [RD] -0.14, 95% CI -0.22 to -0.06; number needed to treat for an additional beneficial outcome [NNTB] 7, 95% CI 5 to 17; 1 study, 482 infants; very low-certainty evidence) and the number of days that an infant was jaundiced may be reduced (mean difference [MD] -2.20 days, 95% CI -2.60 to -1.80; 1 study, 482 infants; very low-certainty evidence). There were no data on safety or potential harmful effects of the intervention. The study did not assess use of conventional phototherapy, treatment failure requiring exchange transfusion, ABE, and long-term consequences of hyperbilirubinemia. The study showed that sunlight therapy may reduce rehospitalization rates within seven days of discharge for treatment for hyperbilirubinemia, but the evidence was very uncertain (RR 0.55, 95% CI 0.27 to 1.11; RD -0.04, -0.08 to 0.01; 1 study, 482 infants; very low-certainty evidence). Sunlight with or without filters or amplification compared to other sources of phototherapy for the treatment of hyperbilirubinemia in infants with confirmed hyperbilirubinemia Two studies (621 infants) compared the effect of filtered-sunlight exposure to other sources of phototherapy in infants with confirmed hyperbilirubinemia. Filtered-sunlight phototherapy (FSPT) and conventional or intensive electric phototherapy led to a similar number of days of effective treatment (broadly defined as a minimal increase of total serum bilirubin in infants less than 72 hours old and a decrease in total serum bilirubin in infants more than 72 hours old on any day that at least four to five hours of sunlight therapy was available). There may be little or no difference in treatment failure requiring exchange transfusion (typical RR 1.00, 95% CI 0.06 to 15.73; typical RD 0.00, 95% CI -0.01 to 0.01; 2 studies, 621 infants; low-certainty evidence). One study reported ABE, and no infants developed this outcome (RR not estimable; RD 0.00, 95% CI -0.02 to 0.02; 1 study, 174 infants; low-certainty evidence). One study reported death as a reason for study withdrawal; no infants were withdrawn due to death (RR not estimable; typical RD 0.00, 95% CI -0.01 to 0.01; 1 study, 447 infants; low-certainty evidence). Neither study assessed long-term outcomes. Possible harms: both studies showed a probable increased risk for hyperthermia (body temperature greater than 37.5 °C) with FSPT (typical RR 4.39, 95% CI 2.98 to 6.47; typical RD 0.30, 95% CI 0.23 to 0.36; number needed to treat for an additional harmful outcome [NNTH] 3, 95% CI 2 to 4; 2 studies, 621 infants; moderate-certainty evidence). There was probably no difference in hypothermia (body temperature less than 35.5 °C) (typical RR 1.06, 95% CI 0.55 to 2.03; typical RD 0.00, 95% CI -0.03 to 0.04; 2 studies, 621 infants; moderate-certainty evidence). Sunlight may be an effective adjunct to conventional phototherapy in LMIC settings, may allow for rotational use of limited phototherapy machines, and may be preferable to families as it can allow for increased bonding. Filtration of sunlight to block harmful ultraviolet light and frequent temperature checks for babies under sunlight may be warranted for safety. Sunlight may be effective in preventing hyperbilirubinemia in some cases, but these studies have not demonstrated that sunlight alone is effective for the treatment of hyperbilirubinemia given its sporadic availability and the low or very low certainty of the evidence in these studies.

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Acute limb ischaemia usually is caused by a blood clot blocking an artery or a bypass graft. Severe acute ischaemia will lead to irreversible damage to muscles and nerves if blood flow is not restored in a few hours. Once irreversible damage occurs, amputation will be necessary and the condition can be life-threatening. Infusion of clot-busting drugs (thrombolysis) is a useful tool in the management of acute limb ischaemia. Fibrinolytic drugs are used to disperse blood clots (thrombi) to clear arterial occlusion and restore blood flow. Thrombolysis is less invasive than surgery. A variety of techniques are used to deliver fibrinolytic agents. This is an update of a review first published in 2004. To compare the effects of infusion techniques during peripheral arterial thrombolysis for treatment of patients with acute limb ischaemia. The Cochrane Vascular Information Specialist searched the Cochrane Vascular Specialised Register, CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase, and CINAHL databases and World Health Organization International Clinical Trials Registry Platform and ClinicalTrials.gov trials registries to 20 October 2020. We undertook reference checking to identify additional studies. We included all randomised controlled trials (RCTs) comparing infusion techniques for fibrinolytic agents in the treatment of acute limb ischaemia. We used standard methodological procedures as recommended by Cochrane. We assessed the risk of bias in included trials using the Cochrane 'Risk of bias' tool. We evaluated certainty of evidence using GRADE. For dichotomous outcomes, we calculated the odds ratio (OR) with the corresponding 95% confidence interval (CI). We were not able to carry out meta-analyses due to clinical heterogeneity, so we have reported the results and performed the comparisons narratively. The main outcomes of interest were amputation-free survival or limb salvage, amputation, mortality, vessel patency, duration of thrombolysis, and complications such as cerebrovascular accident and major and minor bleeding. Nine studies with a total of 671 participants are included in this update. Trials covered a variety of infusion techniques, dosage regimens, and adjunctive agents. We grouped trials according to types of techniques assessed (e.g. intravenous and intra-arterial delivery of the agent, 'high-' and 'low-dose' regimens of the agent, continuous infusion and 'forced infusion' of the agent, use of adjunctive antiplatelet agents). We assessed the certainty of evidence as very low to low due to the limited power of individual studies to deliver clinically relevant results, small and heterogeneous study populations, use of different inclusion criteria by each study in terms of severity and duration of ischaemia, considerably different outcome measures between trials, and use of different fibrinolytic agents. This heterogeneity prevented pooling of data in meta-analyses. No regimen has been shown to confer benefit in terms of amputation-free survival (at 30 days), amputation, or death. For vessel patency, complete success was more likely with intra-arterial (IA) than with intravenous (IV) infusion (odds ratio (OR) 13.22, 95% confidence interval (CI) 2.79 to 62.67; 1 study, 40 participants; low-certainty evidence); radiological failure may be more likely with IV infusion (OR 0.02, 95% CI 0.00 to 0.38; 1 study, 40 participants; low-certainty evidence). Due to the small numbers involved in each arm and design differences between arms, it is not possible to conclude whether any technique offered any advantage over another. None of the treatment strategies clearly affected complications such as cerebrovascular accident or major bleeding requiring surgery or blood transfusion. Minor bleeding complications were more frequent in systemic (intravenous) therapy compared to intra-arterial infusion (OR 0.03, 95% CI 0.00 to 0.56; 1 study, 40 participants), and in high-dose compared to low-dose therapy (OR 0.11, 95% CI 0.01 to 0.96; 1 study, 63 participants). Limited evidence from individual trials appears to indicate that high-dose and forced-infusion regimens reduce the duration of thrombolysis. In one trial, the median duration of infusion was 4 hours (range 0.25 to 46) for the high-dose group and 20 hours (range 2 to 46) for the low-dose group. In a second trial, treatment using pulse spray was continued for a median of 120 minutes (range 40 to 310) compared with low-dose infusion for a median of 25 hours (range 2 to 60). In a third trial, the median duration of therapy was reduced with pulse spray at 195 minutes (range 90 to 1260 minutes) compared to continuous infusion at 1390 minutes (range 300 to 2400 minutes). However, none of the studies individually showed improvement in limb salvage at 30 days nor benefit for the amputation rate related to the technique of drug delivery. Similarly, no studies reported a clear difference in occurrence of cerebrovascular accident or major bleeding. Although 'high-dose' and 'forced-infusion' techniques achieved vessel patency in less time than 'low-dose' infusion, more minor bleeding complications may be associated (OR 0.11, 95% CI 0.01 to 0.96; 1 study, 72 participants; and OR 0.48, 95% CI 0.17 to 1.32; 1 study, 121 participants, respectively). Use of adjunctive platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonists did not improve outcomes, and results were limited by inclusion of participants with non-limb-threatening ischaemia. There is insufficient evidence to show that any thrombolytic regimen provides a benefit over any other in terms of amputation-free survival, amputation, or 30-day mortality. The rate of CVA or major bleeding requiring surgery or blood transfusion did not clearly differ between regimens but may occur more frequently in high dose and IV regimens. This evidence was limited and of very low certainty. Minor bleeding may be more common with high-dose and IV regimens. In this context, thrombolysis may be an acceptable therapy for patients with marginally threatened limbs (Rutherford grade IIa) compared with surgery. Caution is advised for patients who do not have limb-threatening ischaemia (Rutherford grade I) because of risks of major haemorrhage, cerebrovascular accident, and death from thrombolysis.

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Parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP) plays a key role in the development and progression of many tumors. We found that in colorectal cancer (CRC) HCT116 cells, the binding of PTHrP to its receptor PTHR type 1 (PTHR1) activates events associated with an aggressive phenotype. In HCT116 cell xenografts, PTHrP modulates the expression of molecular markers linked to tumor progression. Empirical evidence suggests that the Met receptor is involved in the development and evolution of CRC. Based on these data, we hypothesized that the signaling pathway trigged by PTHrP could be involved in the transactivation of Met and consequently in the aggressive behavior of CRC cells. To elucidate the relationship among PTHR1, PTHrP, and Met in CRC models. For <iin vitro</i assays, HCT116 and Caco-2 cells derived from human CRC were incubated in the absence or presence of PTHrP (1-34) (10<sup-8</sup M). Where indicated, cells were pre-incubated with specific kinase inhibitors or dimethylsulfoxide, the vehicle of the inhibitors. The protein levels were evaluated by Western blot technique. Real-time polymerase chain reaction (RT-qPCR) was carried out to determine the changes in gene expression. Wound healing assay and morphological monitoring were performed to evaluate cell migration and changes related to the epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT), respectively. The number of viable HCT116 cells was counted by trypan blue dye exclusion test to evaluate the effects of irinotecan (CPT-11), oxaliplatin (OXA), or doxorubicin (DOXO) with or without PTHrP. For <iin vivo</i tests, HCT116 cell xenografts on 6-wk-old male N:NIH (S)_nu mice received daily intratumoral injections of PTHrP (40 μg/kg) in 100 μL phosphate-buffered saline (PBS) or the vehicle (PBS) as a control during 20 d. Humanitarian slaughter was carried out and the tumors were removed, weighed, and fixed in a 4% formaldehyde solution for subsequent treatment by immunoassays. To evaluate the expression of molecular markers in human tumor samples, we studied 23 specimens obtained from CRC patients which were treated at the Hospital Interzonal de Graves y Agudos Dr. José Penna (Bahía Blanca, Buenos Aires, Argentina) and the Hospital Provincial de Neuquén (Neuquén, Neuquén, Argentina) from January 1990 to December 2007. Seven cases with normal colorectal tissues were assigned to the control group. Tumor tissue samples and clinical histories of patients were analyzed. Paraffin-embedded blocks from primary tumors were reviewed by hematoxylin-eosin staining technique; subsequently, representative histological samples were selected from each patient. From each paraffin block, tumor sections were stained for immunohistochemical detection. The statistical significance of differences was analyzed using proper statistical analysis. The results were considered statistically significant at <iP</i &lt; 0.05. By Western blot analysis and using total Met antibody, we found that PTHrP regulated Met expression in HCT116 cells but not in Caco-2 cells. In HCT116 cells, Met protein levels increased at 30 min (<iP</i &lt; 0.01) and at 20 h (<iP</i &lt; 0.01) whereas the levels diminished at 3 min (<iP</i &lt; 0.05), 10 min (<iP</i &lt; 0.01), and 1 h to 5 h (<iP</i &lt; 0.01) of PTHrP treatment. Using an active Met antibody, we found that where the protein levels of total Met decreased (3 min, 10 min, and 60 min of PTHrP exposure), the status of phosphorylated/activated Met increased (<iP</i &lt; 0.01) at the same time, suggesting that Met undergoes proteasomal degradation after its phosphorylation/activation by PTHrP. The increment of its protein level after these decreases (at 30 min and 20 h) suggests a modulation of Met expression by PTHrP in order to improve Met levels and this idea is supported by our observation that the cytokine increased <iMet</i mRNA levels at least at 15 min in HCT116 cells as revealed by RT-qPCR analysis (<iP</i &lt; 0.05). We then proceeded to evaluate the signaling pathways that mediate the phosphorylation/ activation of Met induced by PTHrP in HCT116 cells. By Western blot technique, we observed that PP1, a specific inhibitor of the activation of the proto-oncogene protein tyrosine kinase Src, blocked the effect of PTHrP on Met phosphorylation (<iP</i &lt; 0.05). Furthermore, the selective inhibition of the ERK 1/2 mitogen-activated protein kinase (ERK 1/2 MAPK) using PD98059 and the p38 MAPK using SB203580 diminished the effect of PTHrP on Met phosphorylation/activation (<iP</i &lt; 0.05). Using SU11274, the specific inhibitor of Met activation, and trypan blue dye exclusion test, Western blot, wound healing assay, and morphological analysis with a microscope, we observed the reversal of cell events induced by PTHrP such as cell proliferation (<iP</i &lt; 0.05), migration (<iP</i &lt; 0.05), and the EMT program (<iP</i &lt; 0.01) in HCT116 cells. Also, PTHrP favored the chemoresistance to CPT-11 (<iP</i &lt; 0.001), OXA (<iP</i &lt; 0.01), and DOXO (<iP</i &lt; 0.01) through the Met pathway. Taken together, these findings suggest that Met activated by PTHrP participates in events associated with the aggressive phenotype of CRC cells. By immunohistochemical analysis, we found that PTHrP in HCT116 cell xenografts enhanced the protein expression of Met (0.190 ± 0.014) compared to tumors from control mice (0.110 ± 0.012; <iP</i &lt; 0.05) and of its own receptor (2.27 ± 0.20) compared to tumors from control mice (1.98 ± 0.14; <iP</i &lt; 0.01). Finally, assuming that the changes in the expression of PTHrP and its receptor are directly correlated, we investigated the expression of both Met and PTHR1 in biopsies of CRC patients by immunohistochemical analysis. Comparing histologically differentiated tumors with respect to those less differentiated, we found that the labeling intensity for Met and PTHR1 increased and diminished in a gradual manner, respectively (<iP</i &lt; 0.05). PTHrP acts through the Met pathway in CRC cells and regulates Met expression in a CRC animal model. More basic and clinical studies are needed to further evaluate the PTHrP/Met relationship.

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50 years ago, prosthetic replacement of the hip joint ushered in a new epoch in orthopaedics. Total hip replacement made it possible to remove a severely diseased, painful hip and restore normal function and a normal quality of life to the afflicted patient. The early results of total hip replacement are almost all spectacular and hip replacement has become the most successful type of orthopaedic surgery. These good results using an approach that was technically relatively simple resulted in a temptation to implant prosthetic hip joints with ever increasing frequency in ever younger patients. This led to the emergence of new problems, which were not so clearly recognised at the outset: it emerged that the stability of prosthetic hip joints was of limited duration. This had the following consequence: If a total hip prosthesis is implanted in an elderly person whose remaining life-expectancy is shorter than the longevity of the prosthesis, hip replacement is a life-long solution. We can therefore say that, for a patient who has only 10 to 15 years left to live, their hip problem is solved by total hip replacement. For young people, who still have a long life expectancy in front of them, it is different. They will experience failure of the artificial joint and require further surgery. The commonest and most important type of failure in total hip prostheses is aseptic loosening, which is associated with resorption of bone at the site of the prosthesis. The cause of this phenomenon has only gradually been recognised in the course of the years. Initially, the unanimous opinion was that the methacrylate cement, used to fix the components of the prosthesis in the bone, was the definitive cause of aseptic loosening because fissures and fractures of the cement were almost always found during surgical revision of loosened joints. There was talk of "cement disease" and great efforts were made to improve the quality of the cement and the cementing technique. Moreover, even today, there is no established answer to the question whether, over the course of many years, cement ages and becomes friable, a process that may have major implications for young patients. For this reason, ways of reliably fixing the prosthesis in the bone without methacrylate cement were also explored at the same time. Valuable pioneering work in this field was carried out with uncemented dental implants made of titanium and with a roughened surface. With these implants, the phenomenon of osseointegration, i.e. the deposition of bone directly on the roughened metal surface without any intervening connective tissue, was observed. This phenomenon has also been utilised successfully in hip prostheses: if artificial hips made of titanium alloy with a coarse-blasted surface and with a high primary mechanical stability are placed in the bone, osseointegration also occurs. In parallel with this development, Willert, from Göttingen, identified the most important cause of loosening of the prosthesis: he established that, when an artificial joint articulates, very fine particles of polyethylene are eroded from the prosthetic cup when the surfaces of the joint glide over one another and that these are only partially removed by the lymphatic system. A large proportion of the particles accumulates in the artificial joint and in the gap between the prosthesis and the bone, giving rise to foreign body granulomata, which resorb bone thus leading to loosening. The number of eroded particles is considerable. In 1998, Patricia Campbell, from Los Angeles, showed that 470,000 particles per step were produced from an articulation between a metal head and a polyethylene cup. This huge number gives an indication how small these particles are, since the linear erosion of the polyethylene surface only amounts to about 0.1 to 0.2 mm a year. This relatively recent recognition of "particle disease" has led to the investigation of other materials, which produce fewer erosion particles, for artificial joint articulations. Three possible options are available today, but it is not yet possible to decide for certain which of them is superior to the others: the longest experience has been with metal/metal articulation with articulatory pairings of cobalt/chromium/molybdenum alloy. In recent years, ceramic/ceramic articulations of aluminium oxide-ceramic and pairings of ceramic with highly crosslinked polyethylene have also been used. With these modern articulations, particle erosion can be reduced about 200 fold. If the erosion particles are an important cause of loosening of the prosthesis, it is reasonable to expect that, with these new joint pairings, the durability of an artificial joint can be substantially prolonged. The cone prosthesis described here has been developed on the basis of the knowledge and experience of the last 20 years. The conical anchoring of the stem, involving the placing of a conical implant in the conically reamed medullary cavity, results in continuous contact between the stem of the prosthesis and the bone, with a high degree of primary stability. The sharp longitudinal ribs on the stem, which cut a little into the bone, provide a high degree of rotational stability. In the case of conical fixation, the mechanical transmission of force varies with the diameter of the stem: the weight bearing surface of a cone in relation to its length is greater where the stem has a larger diameter than at the tip of the stem where the diameter is smaller. Therefore, for geometrical reasons, the conical fixation of the stem results in a transmission of force that is predominantly proximal and avoids proximal stress protection. The round cross-section permits free adjustment of the angle of anteversion and avoids any forced rotation as a result of bony deformity, which is very important in the case of dysplastic hips.

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Whereas the posterior lumbar interbody fusion (PLIF) technique with pedicle screw fixation has shown satisfactory clinical results, solid fusion has been reported to accelerate degenerative changes at adjacent unfused levels, especially at the cranial level. The aim of this retrospective study was to evaluate a group of patients with adjacent segment disease (ASD) developed after 360-degrees lumbar fusion for spondylolisthesis performed by PLIF with transpedicular fixation and posterolateral fusion (PLF).Radiographic examinations were focused on the origin or progression of degenerative changes at the adjacent segments after the operation, with statistical evaluation of some parameters. Clinical evaluations included back pain or neurologic symptomatology which emerged later in the post-operative period in patients with adjacent segment degeneration. The authors performed a retrospective analysis on a group of 91 patients (49 females, 42 males) with isthmic, degenerative or dysplastic spondylolisthesis at the L4-L5 level who had undergone the PLIF technique on L4/L5 or L5/S1 with transpedicular fixation surgery and PLF in the period from 1990 to 2001. Isthmic spondylolisthesis was observed in 70 patients, degenerative or dysplastic forms were found in 14 and 7 patients, respectively.The patients were operated on at 40.8 years on average, and were followed-up for an average of 6.1 years. Seven patients had isthmic, two had degenerative and one had dysplastic spondylolisthesis. The data for the patients with ASD were obtained retrospectively, based on radiographic examinations and clinical sequential follow-up examinations. The radiographs were analysed with regard to degeneration at the adjacent levels pre- operatively, immediately after surgery and at the time of the last follow-up visit. The origin or progression of L3-L4, L4-5 or L5-S1 segment degeneration was defined, as a condition giving rise to segmental instability (defined by White and Panjabi), significant disc herniation, spinal stenosis, disc narrowing or slippage (spondylolisthesis or retrolisthesis), on the basis of a comparison with the pre-operative and post-fusion lateral radiographs, those before additional surgery and at the time of the last follow-up. The following sagittal parameters were measured and compared: lumbar lordosis (L1-S1); distal lordosis (L4-S1) segmental lordosis--the slip angle (SA) at the fused and the adjacent segment, respectively; sacral slope (SS) and slippage (SLIP). The correlation and regression analyses were used for the statistical evaluation of angular characteristics. The results were statistically analysed using MINITAB statistical software. Functional disability was measured by the Oswestry disability index (ODI) questionnaire and pain was assessed using a 100-mm VAS. Of the 91 patients, symptomatic adjacent segment disease developed from a previously asymptomatic level in 10 (11%) patients. Their mean age at the time of initial surgery was 42.8 years and the mean follow-up period was 8.7 years. The mean period between the initial surgery and the onset of adjacent segment degeneration was 3.8 years. In every case fusion involved the use of autologous bone graft and, with the PLIF technique, cages were used in three, bone dowels in six and an autofibular graft in one patient The patients of this group frequently had more than one degenerative process. Four patients had signs of instability abo- ve the fusion and seven patients showed degeneration which was above the fusion in four and below it in three. The degenerative changes included spinal canal stenosis due to disc herniation and/or facet hypertrophy in four, disc narrowing in five and spondylolisthesis or retrolisthesis in five patients. Clinical deterioration was manifested as progressive back pain in three, back and leg pain in seven and lower extremity paresthesia in two patients. The mean pre- and post-operative values were 50.5% and 28.6% for ODI scores and 7.1 and 3.5 for VAS scores, respectively. At the time of ASD, the ODI value was 39% and the VAS was 5.2. The four patients with instability in the cranial adjacent segment successfully underwent additional surgery by 360-degree instrumented fusion (anterior lumbar interbody fusion--ALIF in three patients and PLIF with decompression in one patient). No statistically significant correlations were revealed by the comparison of radiological angular characteristics before surgery, after it and at the onset of ADS. On X-ray images obtained prior to surgery, signs of hypermobility in the cranial adjacent segment were present in one patient. This hypermobility affected the rigidity of fusion in the caudal segment, which accelerated the progress of instability and required further surgery. The subsequent clinical deterioration, which usually develops due to a combination of significant disc degeneration, herniation, degenerative stenosis, segmental instability, spondylolisthesis or retrolistesis at the motion segment adjacent to fusion, is in agreement with the findings presented by the authors using the same surgical technique. An increased occurrence of degenerative changes and the instability predominately at the level immediately above single-segment instrumented 360-degree fusion with clinical deterioration give support to the view that this is due to increased mechanical stress at the motion segments adjacent to fusion. However, the size of our sample was not large enough to allow us to draw generally valid conclusions from the results of radiological angular characteristics. The causes of instability in younger patients could also include spine overloading, damage to the stability of ligaments and bone structures sustained during the operation, or a combination of both. The authors recommend a permanent reduction in physical activity after lumbar or lumbosacral spinal fusion and, in cases where symptomatic instability or degeneration of the adjacent motion segment is manifested, the use of 360-degree instrumented fusion (ALIF or PLIF), dynamic or semi-rigid stabilisation or total disc replacement. A thorough examination of levels adjacent to the planned spinal fusion will prevent termination of the fusion at the potentially painful segment, with a possibility to use a fusion or combined with dynamic neutralisation at the adjacent segment.

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Accurate, rapid detection of tuberculosis (TB) and TB drug resistance is critical for improving patient care and decreasing TB transmission. Xpert® MTB/RIF assay is an automated test that can detect both TB and rifampicin resistance, generally within two hours after starting the test, with minimal hands-on technical time. The World Health Organization (WHO) issued initial recommendations on Xpert® MTB/RIF in early 2011. A Cochrane Review on the diagnostic accuracy of Xpert® MTB/RIF for pulmonary TB and rifampicin resistance was published January 2013. We performed this updated Cochrane Review as part of a WHO process to develop updated guidelines on the use of the test. To assess the diagnostic accuracy of Xpert® MTB/RIF for pulmonary TB (TB detection), where Xpert® MTB/RIF was used as both an initial test replacing microscopy and an add-on test following a negative smear microscopy result.To assess the diagnostic accuracy of Xpert® MTB/RIF for rifampicin resistance detection, where Xpert® MTB/RIF was used as the initial test replacing culture-based drug susceptibility testing (DST).The populations of interest were adults presumed to have pulmonary, rifampicin-resistant or multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB), with or without HIV infection. The settings of interest were intermediate- and peripheral-level laboratories. The latter may be associated with primary health care facilities. We searched for publications in any language up to 7 February 2013 in the following databases: Cochrane Infectious Diseases Group Specialized Register; MEDLINE; EMBASE; ISI Web of Knowledge; MEDION; LILACS; BIOSIS; and SCOPUS. We also searched the metaRegister of Controlled Trials (mRCT) and the search portal of the WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform to identify ongoing trials. We included randomized controlled trials, cross-sectional studies, and cohort studies using respiratory specimens that allowed for extraction of data evaluating Xpert® MTB/RIF against the reference standard. We excluded gastric fluid specimens. The reference standard for TB was culture and for rifampicin resistance was phenotypic culture-based DST. For each study, two review authors independently extracted data using a standardized form. When possible, we extracted data for subgroups by smear and HIV status. We assessed the quality of studies using QUADAS-2 and carried out meta-analyses to estimate pooled sensitivity and specificity of Xpert® MTB/RIF separately for TB detection and rifampicin resistance detection. For TB detection, we performed the majority of analyses using a bivariate random-effects model and compared the sensitivity of Xpert® MTB/RIF and smear microscopy against culture as reference standard. For rifampicin resistance detection, we undertook univariate meta-analyses for sensitivity and specificity separately to include studies in which no rifampicin resistance was detected. We included 27 unique studies (integrating nine new studies) involving 9557 participants. Sixteen studies (59%) were performed in low- or middle-income countries. For all QUADAS-2 domains, most studies were at low risk of bias and low concern regarding applicability.As an initial test replacing smear microscopy, Xpert® MTB/RIF pooled sensitivity was 89% [95% Credible Interval (CrI) 85% to 92%] and pooled specificity 99% (95% CrI 98% to 99%), (22 studies, 8998 participants: 2953 confirmed TB, 6045 non-TB).As an add-on test following a negative smear microscopy result, Xpert®MTB/RIF pooled sensitivity was 67% (95% CrI 60% to 74%) and pooled specificity 99% (95% CrI 98% to 99%; 21 studies, 6950 participants).For smear-positive, culture-positive TB, Xpert® MTB/RIF pooled sensitivity was 98% (95% CrI 97% to 99%; 21 studies, 1936 participants).For people with HIV infection, Xpert® MTB/RIF pooled sensitivity was 79% (95% CrI 70% to 86%; 7 studies, 1789 participants), and for people without HIV infection, it was 86% (95% CrI 76% to 92%; 7 studies, 1470 participants). Comparison with smear microscopy In comparison with smear microscopy, Xpert® MTB/RIF increased TB detection among culture-confirmed cases by 23% (95% CrI 15% to 32%; 21 studies, 8880 participants).For TB detection, if pooled sensitivity estimates for Xpert® MTB/RIF and smear microscopy are applied to a hypothetical cohort of 1000 patients where 10% of those with symptoms have TB, Xpert® MTB/RIF will diagnose 88 cases and miss 12 cases, whereas sputum microscopy will diagnose 65 cases and miss 35 cases. Rifampicin resistance For rifampicin resistance detection, Xpert® MTB/RIF pooled sensitivity was 95% (95% CrI 90% to 97%; 17 studies, 555 rifampicin resistance positives) and pooled specificity was 98% (95% CrI 97% to 99%; 24 studies, 2411 rifampicin resistance negatives). Among 180 specimens with nontuberculous mycobacteria (NTM), Xpert® MTB/RIF was positive in only one specimen that grew NTM (14 studies, 2626 participants).For rifampicin resistance detection, if the pooled accuracy estimates for Xpert® MTB/RIF are applied to a hypothetical cohort of 1000 individuals where 15% of those with symptoms are rifampicin resistant, Xpert® MTB/RIF would correctly identify 143 individuals as rifampicin resistant and miss eight cases, and correctly identify 833 individuals as rifampicin susceptible and misclassify 17 individuals as resistant. Where 5% of those with symptoms are rifampicin resistant, Xpert® MTB/RIF would correctly identify 48 individuals as rifampicin resistant and miss three cases and correctly identify 931 individuals as rifampicin susceptible and misclassify 19 individuals as resistant. In adults thought to have TB, with or without HIV infection, Xpert® MTB/RIF is sensitive and specific. Compared with smear microscopy, Xpert® MTB/RIF substantially increases TB detection among culture-confirmed cases. Xpert® MTB/RIF has higher sensitivity for TB detection in smear-positive than smear-negative patients. Nonetheless, this test may be valuable as an add-on test following smear microscopy in patients previously found to be smear-negative. For rifampicin resistance detection, Xpert® MTB/RIF provides accurate results and can allow rapid initiation of MDR-TB treatment, pending results from conventional culture and DST. The tests are expensive, so current research evaluating the use of Xpert® MTB/RIF in TB programmes in high TB burden settings will help evaluate how this investment may help start treatment promptly and improve outcomes.

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Systematic reviews may be compromised by selective inclusion and reporting of outcomes and analyses. Selective inclusion occurs when there are multiple effect estimates in a trial report that could be included in a particular meta-analysis (e.g. from multiple measurement scales and time points) and the choice of effect estimate to include in the meta-analysis is based on the results (e.g. statistical significance, magnitude or direction of effect). Selective reporting occurs when the reporting of a subset of outcomes and analyses in the systematic review is based on the results (e.g. a protocol-defined outcome is omitted from the published systematic review). To summarise the characteristics and synthesise the results of empirical studies that have investigated the prevalence of selective inclusion or reporting in systematic reviews of randomised controlled trials (RCTs), investigated the factors (e.g. statistical significance or direction of effect) associated with the prevalence and quantified the bias. We searched the Cochrane Methodology Register (to July 2012), Ovid MEDLINE, Ovid EMBASE, Ovid PsycINFO and ISI Web of Science (each up to May 2013), and the US Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) Effective Healthcare Program's Scientific Resource Center (SRC) Methods Library (to June 2013). We also searched the abstract books of the 2011 and 2012 Cochrane Colloquia and the article alerts for methodological work in research synthesis published from 2009 to 2011 and compiled in Research Synthesis Methods. We included both published and unpublished empirical studies that investigated the prevalence and factors associated with selective inclusion or reporting, or both, in systematic reviews of RCTs of healthcare interventions. We included empirical studies assessing any type of selective inclusion or reporting, such as investigations of how frequently RCT outcome data is selectively included in systematic reviews based on the results, outcomes and analyses are discrepant between protocol and published review or non-significant outcomes are partially reported in the full text or summary within systematic reviews. Two review authors independently selected empirical studies for inclusion, extracted the data and performed a risk of bias assessment. A third review author resolved any disagreements about inclusion or exclusion of empirical studies, data extraction and risk of bias. We contacted authors of included studies for additional unpublished data. Primary outcomes included overall prevalence of selective inclusion or reporting, association between selective inclusion or reporting and the statistical significance of the effect estimate, and association between selective inclusion or reporting and the direction of the effect estimate. We combined prevalence estimates and risk ratios (RRs) using a random-effects meta-analysis model. Seven studies met the inclusion criteria. No studies had investigated selective inclusion of results in systematic reviews, or discrepancies in outcomes and analyses between systematic review registry entries and published systematic reviews. Based on a meta-analysis of four studies (including 485 Cochrane Reviews), 38% (95% confidence interval (CI) 23% to 54%) of systematic reviews added, omitted, upgraded or downgraded at least one outcome between the protocol and published systematic review. The association between statistical significance and discrepant outcome reporting between protocol and published systematic review was uncertain. The meta-analytic estimate suggested an increased risk of adding or upgrading (i.e. changing a secondary outcome to primary) when the outcome was statistically significant, although the 95% CI included no association and a decreased risk as plausible estimates (RR 1.43, 95% CI 0.71 to 2.85; two studies, n = 552 meta-analyses). Also, the meta-analytic estimate suggested an increased risk of downgrading (i.e. changing a primary outcome to secondary) when the outcome was statistically significant, although the 95% CI included no association and a decreased risk as plausible estimates (RR 1.26, 95% CI 0.60 to 2.62; two studies, n = 484 meta-analyses). None of the included studies had investigated whether the association between statistical significance and adding, upgrading or downgrading of outcomes was modified by the type of comparison, direction of effect or type of outcome; or whether there is an association between direction of the effect estimate and discrepant outcome reporting.Several secondary outcomes were reported in the included studies. Two studies found that reasons for discrepant outcome reporting were infrequently reported in published systematic reviews (6% in one study and 22% in the other). One study (including 62 Cochrane Reviews) found that 32% (95% CI 21% to 45%) of systematic reviews did not report all primary outcomes in the abstract. Another study (including 64 Cochrane and 118 non-Cochrane reviews) found that statistically significant primary outcomes were more likely to be completely reported in the systematic review abstract than non-significant primary outcomes (RR 2.66, 95% CI 1.81 to 3.90). None of the studies included systematic reviews published after 2009 when reporting standards for systematic reviews (Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic reviews and Meta-Analyses (PRISMA) Statement, and Methodological Expectations of Cochrane Intervention Reviews (MECIR)) were disseminated, so the results might not be generalisable to more recent systematic reviews. Discrepant outcome reporting between the protocol and published systematic review is fairly common, although the association between statistical significance and discrepant outcome reporting is uncertain. Complete reporting of outcomes in systematic review abstracts is associated with statistical significance of the results for those outcomes. Systematic review outcomes and analysis plans should be specified prior to seeing the results of included studies to minimise post-hoc decisions that may be based on the observed results. Modifications that occur once the review has commenced, along with their justification, should be clearly reported. Effect estimates and CIs should be reported for all systematic review outcomes regardless of the results. The lack of research on selective inclusion of results in systematic reviews needs to be addressed and studies that avoid the methodological weaknesses of existing research are also needed.

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Glaucoma is an optic neuropathy that leads to vision loss and blindness. It is the second most common cause of irreversible blindness worldwide. The main treatment for glaucoma aims to reduce intraocular pressure (IOP) in order to slow or prevent further vision loss. IOP can be lowered with medications, and laser or incisional surgeries. Trabeculectomy is the most common incisional surgical procedure to treat glaucoma. Device-modified trabeculectomy is intended to improve drainage of the aqueous humor to lower IOP. Trabeculectomy-modifying devices include Ex-PRESS, Ologen, amniotic membrane, expanded polytetrafluoroethylene (E-PTFE) membrane, Gelfilm and others. However, the effectiveness and safety of these devices are uncertain. To assess the relative effectiveness, primarily with respect to IOP control and safety, of the use of different devices as adjuncts to trabeculectomy compared with standard trabeculectomy in eyes with glaucoma. We searched CENTRAL (which contains the Cochrane Eyes and Vision Trials Register) (2014, Issue 12), Ovid MEDLINE, Ovid MEDLINE In-Process and Other Non-Indexed Citations, Ovid MEDLINE Daily, Ovid OLDMEDLINE (January 1946 to December 2014), EMBASE (January 1980 to December 2014), PubMed (1948 to December 2014), Latin American and Caribbean Literature on Health Sciences (LILACS) (January 1982 to December 2014), the metaRegister of Controlled Trials (mRCT) (www.controlled-trials.com), ClinicalTrials.gov (www.clinicaltrials.gov), and the World Health Organization (WHO) International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) (www.who.int/ictrp/search/en). We did not use any date or language restrictions in the electronic search for trials. We last searched the electronic databases on 22 December 2014. We included randomized controlled trials comparing devices used during trabeculectomy with trabeculectomy alone. We also included studies where antimetabolites were used in either or both treatment groups. We used standard procedures expected by Cochrane. We found 33 studies that met our inclusion criteria, of which 30 were published as full-length journal articles and three as conference abstracts. Only five studies have been registered. The 33 studies included a total of 1542 participants with glaucoma, and compared five types of devices implanted during trabeculectomy versus trabeculectomy alone. Five studies reported the use of Ex-PRESS (386 participants), eight studies reported the use of Ologen (327 participants), 18 studies reported the use of amniotic membrane (726 participants), one study reported the use of E-PTFE (60 participants), and one study reported the use of Gelfilm (43 participants). These studies were conducted in North America, South America, Europe, Asia, and the Middle East. Planned participant follow-up periods ranged from three months to five years. The studies were reported poorly which limited our ability to judge risk of bias for many domains. Only two studies explicitly masked outcome assessment so, we rated 31 studies at high risk of detection bias.Low-quality evidence from three studies showed that use of Ex-PRESS compared with trabeculectomy alone may be associated with a slightly lower IOP at one year (mean difference (MD) -1.58 mm Hg, 95% confidence interval (CI) -2.74 to -0.42; 165 eyes). Cataract surgery and hyphema may be less frequent in the Ex-PRESS group than in the trabeculectomy-alone group (cataract surgery: risk ratio (RR) 0.32, 95% CI 0.14 to 0.74, 3 studies, low-quality evidence; hyphema: RR 0.33, 95% CI 0.12 to 0.94, 4 studies, low-quality evidence). The effect of whether Ex-PRESS prevents hypotony was uncertain (RR 0.92, 95% CI 0.63 to 1.33, 2 studies, very low-quality evidence). All these studies received funding from the device manufacturer.Very low-quality evidence from five studies suggests that use of Ologen compared with trabeculectomy alone is associated with slightly higher IOP at one year (MD 1.40 mm Hg, 95% CI -0.57 to 3.38; 177 eyes). The effect of Ologen on preventing hypotony was uncertain (RR 0.75, 95% CI 0.47 to 1.19, 5 studies, very low-quality evidence). Differences between the two treatment groups for other reported complications also were inconclusive.Low-quality evidence from nine studies suggests that use of amniotic membrane with trabeculectomy may be associated with lower IOP at one year compared with trabeculectomy alone (MD -3.92 mm Hg, 95% CI -5.41 to -2.42; 356 eyes). Low-quality evidence showed that use of amniotic membrane may prevent adverse events and complications, such as hypotony (RR 0.40, 95% CI 0.17 to 0.94, 5 studies, low-quality evidence).The report from the only E-PTFE study (60 eyes) showed no important differences for postoperative IOP at one year (MD -0.44 mm Hg, 95% CI -1.76 to 0.88) between the trabeculectomy + E-PTFE versus the trabeculectomy-alone groups. Hypotony was the only postoperative complication observed less frequently in the E-PTFE group compared to the trabeculectomy-alone group (RR 0.29, 95% CI 0.11 to 0.77).The one Gelfilm study reported uncertainty in the difference in IOP and complication rates between the two groups at one year; no further data were provided in the study report. Overall, the use of devices with standard trabeculectomy may help with greater IOP reduction at one-year follow-up than trabeculectomy alone; however, due to potential biases and imprecision in effect estimates, the quality of evidence is low. When we examined outcomes within subgroups based on the type of device used, our findings suggested that the use of an Ex-PRESS device or an amniotic membrane as an adjunct to trabeculectomy may be slightly more effective in reducing IOP at one year after surgery compared with trabeculectomy alone. The evidence that these devices are as safe as trabeculectomy alone is unclear. Due to various limitations in the design and conduct of the included studies, the applicability of this evidence synthesis to other populations or settings is uncertain. Further research is needed to determine the effectiveness and safety of other devices and in subgroup populations, such as people with different types of glaucoma, of various races and ethnicity, and with different lens types (e.g. phakic, pseudophakic).

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Patellofemoral pain syndrome (PFPS) is a painful musculoskeletal condition, which is characterised by knee pain located in the anterior aspect (front) and retropatellar region (behind) of the knee joint. Various non-operative interventions are suggested for the treatment of this condition. Knee orthoses (knee braces, sleeves, straps or bandages) are worn over the knee and are thought to help reduce knee pain. They can be used in isolation or in addition to other treatments such as exercise or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications. To assess the effects (benefits and harms) of knee orthoses (knee braces, sleeves, straps or bandages) for treating PFPS. We searched the Cochrane Bone, Joint and Muscle Trauma Group Specialised Register (11 May 2015), the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL) (The Cochrane Library 2015 Issue 5), MEDLINE (1946 to 8 May 2015), EMBASE (1980 to 2015 Week 18), SPORTDiscus (1985 to 11 May 2015), AMED (1985 to 8 May 2015), CINAHL (1937 to 11 May 2015), PEDro (1929 to June 2015), trial registries and conference proceedings. Randomised and quasi-randomised controlled clinical trials evaluating knee orthoses for treating people with PFPS. Our primary outcomes were pain and function. Two review authors independently assessed studies for eligibility, assessed study risk of bias and extracted data. We calculated mean differences (MD) or, where pooling data from different scales, standardised mean differences (SMD) with 95% confidence intervals (CI) for continuous outcomes and risk ratios (RR) with 95% CIs for binary outcomes. We pooled data using the fixed-effect model. We included five trials (one of which was quasi-randomised) that reported results for 368 people who had PFPS. Participants were recruited from health clinics in three trials and were military recruits undergoing training in the other two trials. Although no trials recruited participants who were categorised as elite or professional athletes, military training does comprise intensive exercise regimens. All five trials were at high risk of bias, including performance bias reflecting the logistical problems in these trials of blinding of participants and care providers. As assessed using the GRADE approach, the available evidence for all reported outcomes is 'very low' quality. This means that we are very uncertain about the results.The trials covered three different types of comparison: knee orthosis and exercises versus exercises alone; one type of orthosis versus another; and knee orthosis versus exercises. No trials assessed the mode of knee orthosis use, such as whether the orthosis was worn all day or only during physical activity. Two trials had two groups; two trials had three groups; and one trial had four groups.All five trials compared a knee orthosis (knee sleeve, knee brace, or patellar strap) versus a 'no treatment' control group, with all participants receiving exercises, either through a military training programme or a home-based exercise programme. There is very low quality evidence of no clinically important differences between the two groups in short-term (2 to 12 weeks follow-up) knee pain based on the visual analogue scale (0 to 10 points; higher scores mean worse pain): MD -0.46 favouring knee orthoses, 95% CI -1.16 to 0.24; P = 0.19; 234 participants, 3 trials). A similar lack of clinically important difference was found for knee function (183 participants, 2 trials). None of the trials reported on quality of life measures, resource use or participant satisfaction. Although two trials reported on the impact on sporting or occupational participation, one trial (35 participants) did not provide data split by treatment group on the resumption of sport activity and the other reported only on abandonment of military training due to knee pain (both cases were allocated a knee orthosis). One trial (59 participants, 84 affected knees) recording only adverse events in the two knee orthoses (both were knee sleeves) groups, reported 16 knees (36% of 44 knees) had discomfort or skin abrasion.Three trials provided very low quality evidence on single comparisons of different types of knee orthoses: a knee brace versus a knee sleeve (63 participants), a patella strap with a knee sleeve (31 participants), and a knee sleeve with a patellar ring versus a knee sleeve only (44 knees). None of three trials found an important difference between the two types of knee orthosis in pain. One trial found no clinically important difference in function between a knee brace and a knee sleeve. None of the three trials reported on quality of life, resource use or participant satisfaction. One trial comparing a patella strap with a knee sleeve reported that both participants quitting military training due to knee pain were allocated a knee sleeve. One poorly reported trial found three times as many knees with adverse effects (discomfort or skin abrasion) in those given knee sleeves with a patella ring than those given knee sleeves only.One trial compared a knee orthosis (knee brace) with exercise (66 participants). It found very low quality evidence of no clinically important difference between the two intervention groups in pain or knee function. The trial did not report on quality of life, impact on sporting or occupational participation, resource use, participant satisfaction or complications. Overall, this review has found a lack of evidence to inform on the use of knee orthoses for treating PFPS. There is, however, very low quality evidence from clinically heterogeneous trials using different types of knee orthoses (knee brace, sleeve and strap) that using a knee orthosis did not reduce knee pain or improve knee function in the short term (under three months) in adults who were also undergoing an exercise programme for treating PFPS. This points to the need for good-quality clinically-relevant research to inform on the use of commonly-available knee orthoses for treating PFPS.

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Many women would like to avoid pharmacological or invasive methods of pain management in labour and this may contribute to the popularity of complementary methods of pain management. This review examined currently available evidence on the use of relaxation therapies for pain management in labour. This is an update of a review first published in 2011. To examine the effects of mind-body relaxation techniques for pain management in labour on maternal and neonatal well-being during and after labour. We searched Cochrane Pregnancy and Childbirth's Trials Register (9 May 2017), the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL) (The Cochrane Library, Issue 5 2017), MEDLINE (1966 to 24 May 2017), CINAHL (1980 to 24 May 2017), the Australian New Zealand Clinical Trials Registry (18 May 2017), ClinicalTrials.gov (18 May 2017), the ISRCTN Register (18 May 2017), the WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) (18 May 2017), and reference lists of retrieved studies. Randomised controlled trials (including quasi randomised and cluster trials) comparing relaxation methods with standard care, no treatment, other non-pharmacological forms of pain management in labour or placebo. Two review authors independently assessed trials for inclusion and risk of bias, extracted data and checked them for accuracy. We attempted to contact study authors for additional information. We assessed evidence quality with GRADE methodology. This review update includes 19 studies (2519 women), 15 of which (1731 women) contribute data. Interventions examined included relaxation, yoga, music and mindfulness. Approximately half of the studies had a low risk of bias for random sequence generation and attrition bias. The majority of studies had a high risk of bias for performance and detection bias, and unclear risk of bias for, allocation concealment, reporting bias and other bias. We assessed the evidence from these studies as ranging from low to very low quality, and therefore the effects below should be interpreted with caution.RelaxationWe found that relaxation compared to usual care provided lowered the intensity of pain (measured on a scale of 0 to 10 with low scores indicating less pain) during the latent phase of labour (mean difference (MD) -1.25, 95% confidence interval (CI) -1.97 to -0.53, one trial, 40 women). Four trials reported pain intensity in the active phase; there was high heterogeneity between trials and very low-quality evidence suggested that there was no strong evidence that the effects were any different between groups for this outcome (MD -1.08, 95% CI -2.57 to 0.41, four trials, 271 women, random-effects analysis). Very low-quality evidence showed that women receiving relaxation reported greater satisfaction with pain relief during labour (risk ratio (RR) 8.00, 95% CI 1.10 to 58.19, one trial, 40 women), and showed no clear benefit for satisfaction with childbirth experience (assessed using different scales) (standard mean difference (SMD) -0.03, 95% CI -0.37 to 0.31, three trials, 1176 women). For safety outcomes there was very low-quality evidence of no clear reduction in assisted vaginal birth (average RR 0.61, 95% CI 0.20 to 1.84, four trials, 1122 women) or in caesarean section rates (average RR 0.73, 95% CI 0.26 to 2.01, four trials, 1122 women). Sense of control in labour, and breastfeeding were not reported under this comparison.YogaWhen comparing yoga to control interventions there was low-quality evidence that yoga lowered pain intensity (measured on a scale of 0 to 10) with low scores indicating less pain) (MD -6.12, 95% CI -11.77 to -0.47, one trial, 66 women), greater satisfaction with pain relief (MD 7.88, 95% CI 1.51 to 14.25, one trial, 66 women) and greater satisfaction with childbirth experience (MD 6.34, 95% CI 0.26 to 12.42 one trial, 66 women (assessed using the Maternal Comfort Scale with higher score indicating greater comfort). Sense of control in labour, breastfeeding, assisted vaginal birth, and caesarean section were not reported under this comparison.MusicWhen comparing music to control interventions there was evidence of lower pain intensity in the latent phase for women receiving music (measured on a scale of 0 to 10 with low scores indicating less pain) (MD -0.73, 95% CI -1.01 to -0.45, random-effects analysis, two trials, 192 women) and very low-quality evidence of no clear benefit in the active phase (MD -0.51, 95% CI -1.10 to 0.07, three trials, 217 women). Very low-quality evidence suggested no clear benefit in terms of reducing assisted vaginal birth (RR 0.41, 95% CI 0.08 to 2.05, one trial, 156 women) or caesarean section rate (RR 0.78, 95% CI 0.36 to 1.70, two trials, 216 women). Satisfaction with pain relief, sense of control in labour, satisfaction with childbirth experience, and breastfeeding were not reported under this comparison.Audio analgesiaOne trial evaluating audio analgesia versus control only reported one outcome and showed no evidence of benefit in satisfaction with pain relief.MindfulnessOne trial evaluating mindfulness versus usual care found an increase in sense of control for the mindfulness group (using the Childbirth Self-Efficacy Inventory) (MD 31.30, 95% CI 1.61 to 60.99, 26 women). There is no strong evidence that the effects were any different between groups for satisfaction in childbirth, or for caesarean section rate, need for assisted vaginal delivery or need for pharmacological pain relief. No other outcomes were reported in this trial. Relaxation, yoga and music may have a role with reducing pain, and increasing satisfaction with pain relief, although the quality of evidence varies between very low to low. There was insufficient evidence for the role of mindfulness and audio-analgesia. The majority of trials did not report on the safety of the interventions. Further randomised controlled trials of relaxation modalities for pain management in labour are needed. Trials should be adequately powered and include clinically relevant outcomes such as those described in this review.

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Diabetic macular oedema (DMO) is a complication of diabetic retinopathy and one of the most common causes of visual impairment in people with diabetes. Clinically significant macular oedema (CSMO) is the most severe form of DMO. Intravitreal antiangiogenic therapy is now the standard treatment for DMO involving the centre of the macula, but laser photocoagulation is still used in milder or non-central DMO. To access the efficacy and safety of laser photocoagulation as monotherapy in the treatment of diabetic macular oedema. We searched CENTRAL, which contains the Cochrane Eyes and Vision Trials Register; MEDLINE; Embase; LILACS; the ISRCTN registry; ClinicalTrials.gov and the WHO ICTRP. The date of the search was 24 July 2018. We included randomised controlled trials (RCTs) comparing any type of focal/grid macular laser photocoagulation versus another type or technique of laser treatment and no intervention. We did not compare laser versus other interventions as these are covered by other Cochrane Reviews. We used standard methodological procedures expected by Cochrane. Our primary outcomes were gain or loss of 3 lines (0.3 logMAR or 15 ETDRS letters) of best-corrected visual acuity (BCVA) at one year of follow-up (plus or minus six months) after treatment initiation. Secondary outcomes included final or mean change in BCVA, resolution of macular oedema, central retinal thickness, quality of life and adverse events, all at one year. We graded the certainty of the evidence for each outcome using the GRADE approach. We identified 24 studies (4422 eyes). The trials were conducted in Europe (nine studies), USA (seven), Asia (four) and, Africa (one), Latin America (one), Europe-Asian (one) and Oceania (one). The methodological quality of the studies was difficult to assess as they were poorly reported, so the predominant classification of bias was unclear.At one year, people with DMO receiving laser were less likely to lose BCVA compared with no intervention (risk ratio (RR) 0.42, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.20 to 0.90; 3703 eyes; 4 studies; I<sup2</sup = 71%; moderate-certainty evidence). There were also favourable effects observed at two and three years. One study (350 eyes) reported on partial or complete resolution of clinically significant DMO and found moderate-certainty evidence of a benefit at three years with photocoagulation (RR 1.55, 95% CI 1.30 to 1.86). Data on visual improvement, final BCVA, central macular thickness and quality of life were not available. One study related minor adverse effects on the central visual field and another reported one case of iatrogenic premacular fibrosis.Nine studies compared subthreshold versus standard macular photocoagulation (517 eyes). Subthreshold treatment was achieved with different methods of photocoagulation: non-visible conventional (two studies), micropulse (four) or nanopulse (one).Only one small study (29 eyes) reported on improvement or worsening of BCVA and estimates were very imprecise (improvement: RR 0.31, 95% CI 0.01 to 7.09; worsening: RR 0.93, 95% CI 0.15 to 5.76; very low-certainty evidence). All studies reported on continuous BCVA at one year; there was low-certainty evidence of no important difference between subthreshold and standard photocoagulation (mean difference (MD) in logMAR BCVA -0.02, 95% CI -0.07 to 0.03; 385 eyes; 7 studies; I<sup2</sup = 42%), and were possibly different for different techniques (P = 0.07 and I<sup2</sup = 61.5% for subgroup heterogeneity), with better results achieved with micropulse photocoagulation (MD -0.08 logMAR, 95% CI -0.16 to 0.0) as compared to the results achieved with nanopulse (MD 0.0 logMAR, 95% CI -0.06 to 0.06) and non-visible conventional (MD 0.04 logMAR, 95% CI -0.03 to 0.11), all of them compared to the standard lasers. One study reported partial to complete resolution of macular oedema at one year. There was low-certainty evidence of some benefit with standard photocoagulation, but estimates of effect were imprecise (RR 0.47, 95% CI 0.21 to 1.03; 29 eyes; 1 study). Studies also reported on the change in central macular thickness at one year and found moderate-certainty evidence of no important difference between subthreshold and standard photocoagulation (MD -9.1 μm, 95% CI -26.2 to 8.0; 385 eyes; 7 studies; I<sup2</sup = 0%). There were no important adverse effects recorded in the studies.Nine studies compared argon laser versus another type of laser (997 eyes). There was moderate-certainty evidence of a small reduction or no difference between the interventions, with respect to improvement (RR 0.87, 95% CI 0.62 to 1.22; 773 eyes; 6 studies) and worsening of BCVA (RR 0.83, 95% CI 0.57 to 1.21; 773 eyes; 6 studies). Three studies reported few cases of subretinal fibrosis and neovascularization with argon laser and one study found subretinal fibrosis in the krypton group.One study (323 eyes) compared the modified ETDRS (mETDRS) grid technique with the mild macular grid (MMG), which uses mild, widely spaced burns throughout the macula. There was low-certainty evidence of an increased chance of visual improvement with MMG, but the estimate was imprecisely measured and the CIs include an increased risk or decreased risk of visual improvement at one year (RR 1.43, 95% CI 0.56 to 3.65; visual worsening: RR 1.40, 95% CI 0.64 to 3.05; change of logMAR visual acuity: MD -0.04 logMAR, 95% CI -0.01 to 0.09). There was a more significant reduction of central macular thickness with the mETDRS compared to the MMG technique (MD -34.0 µm, -59.8 to -8.3) in the MMG group. The study did not record important adverse effects. Laser photocoagulation reduces the chances of visual loss and increases those of partial to complete resolution of DMO compared to no intervention at one to three years. Subthreshold photocoagulation, particularly the micropulse technique, may be as effective as standard photocoagulation and RCTs are ongoing to assess whether this minimally invasive technique is preferable to treat milder or non-central cases of DMO.

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Since the first U.S. infant conceived with assisted reproductive technology (ART) was born in 1981, both the use of ART and the number of fertility clinics providing ART services have increased steadily in the United States. ART includes fertility treatments in which eggs or embryos are handled in the laboratory (i.e., in vitro fertilization [IVF] and related procedures). Although the majority of infants conceived through ART are singletons, women who undergo ART procedures are more likely than women who conceive naturally to deliver multiple-birth infants. Multiple births pose substantial risks for both mothers and infants, including obstetric complications, preterm delivery (&lt;37 weeks), and low birthweight (&lt;2,500 g). This report provides state-specific information for the United States (including the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico) on ART procedures performed in 2016 and compares birth outcomes that occurred in 2016 (resulting from ART procedures performed in 2015 and 2016) with outcomes for all infants born in the United States in 2016. 2016. In 1995, CDC began collecting data on ART procedures performed in fertility clinics in the United States as mandated by the Fertility Clinic Success Rate and Certification Act of 1992 (FCSRCA) (Public Law 102-493 [October 24, 1992]). Data are collected through the National ART Surveillance System (NASS), a web-based data collection system developed by CDC. This report includes data from 52 reporting areas (the 50 states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico). In 2016, a total of 197,706 ART procedures (range: 162 in Wyoming to 24,030 in California) with the intent to transfer at least one embryo were performed in 463 U.S. fertility clinics and reported to CDC. These procedures resulted in 65,964 live-birth deliveries (range: 57 in Puerto Rico to 8,638 in California) and 76,892 infants born (range: 74 in Alaska to 9,885 in California). Nationally, the number of ART procedures performed per 1 million women of reproductive age (15-44 years), a proxy measure of the ART use rate, was 3,075. ART use rates exceeded the national rate in 14 reporting areas (Connecticut, Delaware, the District of Columbia, Hawaii, Illinois, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, Utah, and Virginia). ART use exceeded 1.5 times the national rate in nine states, including three (Illinois, Massachusetts, and New Jersey) that also had comprehensive mandated health insurance coverage for ART procedures (i.e., coverage for at least four oocyte retrievals). Nationally, among ART transfer procedures for patients using fresh embryos from their own eggs, the average number of embryos transferred increased with increasing age (1.5 among women aged &lt;35 years, 1.7 among women aged 35-37 years, and 2.2 among women aged &gt;37 years). Among women aged &lt;35 years, the national elective single-embryo transfer (eSET) rate was 42.7% (range: 8.3% in North Dakota to 83.9% in Delaware). In 2016, ART contributed to 1.8% of all infants born in the United States (range: 0.3% in Puerto Rico to 4.7% in Massachusetts). ART also contributed to 16.4% of all multiple-birth infants, including 16.2% of all twin infants and 19.4% of all triplets and higher-order infants. ART-conceived twins accounted for approximately 96.5% (21,455 of 22,233) of all ART-conceived infants born in multiple deliveries. The percentage of multiple-birth infants was higher among infants conceived with ART (31.5%) than among all infants born in the total birth population (3.4%). Approximately 30.4% of ART-conceived infants were twins and 1.1% were triplets and higher-order infants. Nationally, infants conceived with ART contributed to 5.0% of all low birthweight (&lt;2,500 g) infants. Among ART-conceived infants, 23.6% had low birthweight compared with 8.2% among all infants. ART-conceived infants contributed to 5.3% of all preterm (gestational age &lt;37 weeks) infants. The percentage of preterm births was higher among infants conceived with ART (29.9%) than among all infants born in the total birth population (9.9%). The percentage of ART-conceived infants who had low birthweight was 8.7% among singletons, 54.9% among twins, and 94.9% among triplets and higher-order multiples; the corresponding percentages among all infants born were 6.2% among singletons, 55.4% among twins, and 94.6% among triplets and higher-order multiples. The percentage of ART-conceived infants who were born preterm was 13.7% among singletons, 64.2% among twins, and 97.0% among triplets and higher-order infants; the corresponding percentages among all infants were 7.8% for singletons, 59.9% for twins, and 97.7% for triplets and higher-order infants. Multiple births from ART contributed to a substantial proportion of all twins, triplets, and higher-order infants born in the United States. For women aged &lt;35 years, who typically are considered good candidates for eSET, on average, 1.5 embryos were transferred per ART procedure, resulting in higher multiple birth rates than could be achieved with single-embryo transfers. Of the four states (Illinois, Massachusetts, New Jersey, and Rhode Island) with comprehensive mandated health insurance coverage, three (Illinois, Massachusetts, and New Jersey) had rates of ART use &gt;1.5 times the national average. Although other factors might influence ART use, insurance coverage for infertility treatments accounts for some of the difference in per capita ART use observed among states because most states do not mandate any coverage for ART treatment. Twins account for almost all of ART-conceived multiple births born in multiple deliveries. Reducing the number of embryos transferred and increasing use of eSET, when clinically appropriate, could help reduce multiple births and related adverse health consequences for both mothers and infants. Because multiple-birth infants are at increased risk for numerous adverse sequelae that cannot be ascertained from the data collected through NASS alone, long-term follow-up of ART infants through integration of existing maternal and infant health surveillance systems and registries with data available from NASS might be useful for monitoring adverse outcomes.

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Tramadol is often prescribed to treat pain and is associated physical disability in osteoarthritis (OA). Due to the pharmacologic mechanism of tramadol, it may lead to fewer associated adverse effects (i.e. gastrointestinal bleeding or renal problems) compared to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). This is an update of a Cochrane Review originally published in 2006. To determine the benefits and harms of oral tramadol or tramadol combined with acetaminophen or NSAIDs in people with osteoarthritis. We searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL), MEDLINE and Embase databases, as well as the US National Institutes of Health and World Health Organization trial registries up to February 2018. We searched the LILACS database up to August 2015. We included randomized controlled trials (RCTs) that evaluated the effect of tramadol, or tramadol in combination with acetaminophen (paracetamol) or NSAIDs versus placebo or any comparator in people with osteoarthritis. We used standard methodologic procedures expected by Cochrane. We included 22 RCTs (11 more than the previous review) of which 21 RCTs were included in meta-analyses for 3871 participants randomized to tramadol alone or tramadol in combination with another analgesic and 2625 participants randomized to placebo or active control. Seventeen studies evaluated tramadol alone and five evaluated tramadol plus acetaminophen. Thirteen studies used placebo controls and eleven studies used active controls (two trials had both placebo and active arms). The dose of tramadol ranged from 37.5 mg to 400 mg daily; all doses were pooled. Most trials were multicenter with a mean duration of two months. Participants were predominantly women with hip or knee osteoarthritis, with a mean age of 63 years and moderate to severe pain. There was a high risk of selection bias as only four trials reported both adequate sequence generation and allocation concealment. There was a low risk for performance bias as most studies blinded participants. There was a high risk of attrition bias as 10/22 trials showed incomplete outcome data. Most of the trials were funded by the pharmaceutical industry.Moderate quality evidence (downgraded due to risk of bias) indicated that tramadol alone and in combination with acetaminophen had no important benefit on pain reduction compared to placebo control (tramadol alone: 4% absolute improvement, 95% confidence interval (CI) 3% to 5%; 8 studies, 3972 participants; tramadol in combination with acetaminophen: 4% absolute improvement, 95% CI 2% to 6%; 2 studies, 614 participants).Fifteen out of 100 people in the tramadol group improved by 20% (which corresponded to a clinically important difference in pain) compared to 10/100 in the placebo group (5% absolute improvement). Twelve out of 100 people improved by 20% in the tramadol in combination with acetaminophen group compared to 7/100 in the placebo group (5% absolute improvement).Moderate quality evidence (downgraded due to risk of bias) indicated that tramadol alone and in combination with acetaminophen led to no important benefit in physical function compared to placebo (tramadol alone: 4% absolute improvement, 95% CI 2% to 6%; 5 studies, 2550 participants; tramadol in combination with acetaminophen: 4% absolute improvement, 95% CI 2% to 7%; 2 studies, 614 participants).Twenty-one out of 100 people in the tramadol group improved by 20% (which corresponded to a clinically important difference in physical function) compared to 16/100 in the placebo group (5% absolute improvement). Fifteen out of 100 people improved by 20% in the tramadol in combination with acetaminophen group compared to 10/100 in the placebo group (5% absolute improvement).Moderate quality evidence (downgraded due to risk of bias) indicated that, compared to placebo, there was a greater risk of developing adverse events with tramadol alone (risk ratio (RR) 1.34, 95% CI 1.24 to 1.46; 4 studies, 2039 participants) and tramadol in combination with acetaminophen compared to placebo (RR 1.91, 95% CI 1.32 to 2.76; 1 study, 308 participants). This corresponded to a 17% increase (95% CI 12% to 23%) with tramadol alone and 22% increase (95% CI 8% to 41%) with tramadol in combination with acetaminophen.The three most frequent adverse events were nausea, dizziness and tiredness. Moderate quality evidence (downgraded due to risk of bias) indicated that there was a greater risk of withdrawing from the study because of adverse events with tramadol alone compared to placebo (RR 2.64, 95% CI 2.17 to 3.20; 9 studies, 4533 participants), which corresponded to a 12% increase (95% CI 9% to 16%).Low quality evidence (downgraded due to risk of bias and inconsistency) indicated that there was a greater risk of withdrawing from the study because of adverse events with tramadol in combination with acetaminophen compared to placebo (RR 2.78, 95% CI 1.50 to 5.16; 2 studies, 614 participants), which corresponded to a 8% absolute improvement (95% CI 2% to 19%).Low quality evidence (downgraded due to risk of bias and imprecision) indicated that there was a greater risk of developing serious adverse events with tramadol alone compared to placebo (110/2459 participants with tramadol compared to 22/1153 participants with placebo; RR 1.78, 95% CI 1.11 to 2.84; 7 studies, 3612 participants), which corresponded to a 1% increase (95% CI 0% to 4%). There were no serious adverse events reported in one small study (15 participants) of tramadol with acetaminophen compared to placebo. Moderate quality evidence indicates that compared to placebo, tramadol alone or in combination with acetaminophen probably has no important benefit on mean pain or function in people with osteoarthritis, although slightly more people in the tramadol group report an important improvement (defined as 20% or more). Moderate quality evidence shows that adverse events probably cause substantially more participants to stop taking tramadol. The increase in serious adverse events with tramadol is less certain, due to the small number of events.

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Single-shot spinal anaesthesia (SSS) and combined spinal-epidural (CSE) anaesthesia are both commonly used for caesarean section anaesthesia. Spinals offer technical simplicity and rapid onset of nerve blockade which can be associated with hypotension. CSE anaesthesia allows for more gradual onset and also prolongation of the anaesthesia through use of a catheter. To compare the effectiveness and adverse effects of CSE anaesthesia to single-shot spinal anaesthesia for caesarean section. We searched the Cochrane Pregnancy and Childbirth's Trials Register, ClinicalTrials.gov, the WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP), and reference lists of retrieved studies (search date: 8 August 2019). We considered all published randomised controlled trials (RCTs) involving a comparison of CSE anaesthesia with single-shot spinal anaesthesia for caesarean section. We further subgrouped spinal anaesthesia as either high-dose (10 or more mg bupivacaine), or low-dose (less than 10 mg bupivacaine). Two review authors independently assessed trials for inclusion and risks of bias, extracted data and checked them for accuracy. We used standard methodological procedures expected by Cochrane. We identified 18 trials including 1272 women, but almost all comparisons for individual outcomes involved relatively small numbers of women. Two trials did not report on this review's outcomes and therefore contribute no data towards this review. Trials were conducted in national or university hospitals in Australia (1), Croatia (1), India (1), Italy (1), Singapore (3), South Korea (4), Spain (1), Sweden (1), Turkey (2), UK (1), USA (2). The trials were at a moderate risk of bias overall.CSE versus high-dose spinal anaesthesiaThere may be little or no difference between the CSE and high-dose spinal groups for the number of women requiring a repeat regional block or general anaesthetic as a result of failure to establish adequate initial blockade (risk ratio (RR) 0.32, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.05 to 1.97; 7 studies, 341 women; low-quality evidence). We are uncertain whether having CSE or spinal makes any difference in the number of women requiring supplemental intra-operative analgesia at any time after CSE or spinal anaesthetic insertion (average RR 1.25, 95% CI 0.19 to 8.43; 7 studies, 390 women; very low-quality evidence), or the number of women requiring intra-operative conversion to general anaesthesia (RR 1.00, 95% CI 0.07 to 14.95; 7 studies, 388 women; very low-quality evidence). We are also uncertain about the results for the number of women who were satisfied with anaesthesia, regardless of whether they received CSE or high-dose spinal (RR 0.93 95% CI 0.73 to 1.19; 2 studies, 72 women; very low-quality evidence). More women in the CSE group (13/21) experienced intra-operative nausea or vomiting requiring treatment than in the high-dose spinal group (6/21). There were 11 cases of post-dural puncture headache (5/56 with CSE versus 6/57 with SSS; 3 trials, 113 women) with no clear difference between groups. There was also no clear difference in intra-operative hypotension requiring treatment (46/86 with CSE versus 41/76 with SSS; 4 trials, 162 women). There were no babies with Apgar score less than seven at five minutes (4 trials, 182 babies).CSE versus low-dose spinal anaesthesiaThere may be little or no difference between the CSE and low-dose spinal groups for the number of women requiring a repeat regional block or general anaesthetic as a result of failure to establish adequate initial blockade (RR 4.81, 95% CI 0.24 to 97.90; 3 studies, 224 women; low-quality evidence). Similarly, there is probably little difference in the number of women requiring supplemental intra-operative analgesia at any time after CSE or low-dose spinal anaesthetic insertion (RR 1.75, 95% CI 0.78 to 3.92; 4 studies, 298 women; moderate-quality evidence). We are uncertain about the effect of CSE or low-dose spinal on the need for intra-operative conversion to general anaesthesia, because this was not required by any of the 222 women in the three trials (low-quality evidence). None of the studies examined whether women were satisfied with their anaesthesia.The mean time to effective anaesthesia was faster in women who received low-dose spinal compared to CSE, although it is unlikely that the magnitude of this difference is clinically meaningful (standardised mean difference (SMD) 0.85 minutes, 95% CI 0.52 to 1.18 minutes; 2 studies, 160 women).CSE appeared to reduce the incidence of intra-operative hypotension requiring treatment compared with low-dose spinal (average RR 0.59, 95% CI 0.38 to 0.93; 4 studies, 336 women). Similar numbers of women between the CSE and low-dose spinal groups experienced intra-operative nausea or vomiting requiring treatment (3/50 with CSE versus 6/50 with SSS; 1 study, 100 women), and there were no cases of post-dural puncture headache (1 study, 138 women). No infants in either group had an Apgar score of less than seven at five minutes (1 study; 60 babies). In this review, the number of studies and participants for most of our analyses were small and some of the included trials had design limitations. There was some suggestion that, compared to spinal anaesthesia, CSE could be associated with a reduction in the number of women with intra-operative hypotension, but an increase in intra-operative nausea and vomiting requiring treatment. One small study found that low-dose spinal resulted in a faster time to effective anaesthesia compared to CSE. However, these results are based on limited data and the difference is unlikely to be clinically meaningful. Consequently, there is currently insufficient evidence in support of one technique over the other and more evidence is needed in order to further evaluate the relative effectiveness and safety of CSE and spinal anaesthesia for caesarean section.More high-quality, sufficiently-powered studies in this area are needed. Such studies could consider using the outcomes listed in this review and should also consider reporting economic aspects of the different methods under investigation.

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Major depressive disorders have a significant impact on children and adolescents, including on educational and vocational outcomes, interpersonal relationships, and physical and mental health and well-being. There is an association between major depressive disorder and suicidal ideation, suicide attempts, and suicide. Antidepressant medication is used in moderate to severe depression; there is now a range of newer generations of these medications. To investigate, via network meta-analysis (NMA), the comparative effectiveness and safety of different newer generation antidepressants in children and adolescents with a diagnosed major depressive disorder (MDD) in terms of depression, functioning, suicide-related outcomes and other adverse outcomes. The impact of age, treatment duration, baseline severity, and pharmaceutical industry funding was investigated on clinician-rated depression (CDRS-R) and suicide-related outcomes. We searched the Cochrane Common Mental Disorders Specialised Register, the Cochrane Library (Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL) and Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews (CDSR)), together with Ovid Embase, MEDLINE and PsycINFO till March 2020. Randomised trials of six to 18 year olds of either sex and any ethnicity with clinically diagnosed major depressive disorder were included. Trials that compared the effectiveness of newer generation antidepressants with each other or with a placebo were included. Newer generation antidepressants included: selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors; selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs); norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors; norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitors; norepinephrine dopamine disinhibitors (NDDIs); and tetracyclic antidepressants (TeCAs). Two reviewers independently screened titles/abstracts and full texts, extracted data, and assessed risk of bias. We analysed dichotomous data as Odds Ratios (ORs), and continuous data as Mean Difference (MD) for the following outcomes: depression symptom severity (clinician rated), response or remission of depression symptoms, depression symptom severity (self-rated), functioning, suicide related outcomes and overall adverse outcomes. Random-effects network meta-analyses were conducted in a frequentist framework using multivariate meta-analysis. Certainty of evidence was assessed using Confidence in Network Meta-analysis (CINeMA). We used "informative statements" to standardise the interpretation and description of the results. Twenty-six studies were included. There were no data for the two primary outcomes (depressive disorder established via clinical diagnostic interview and suicide), therefore, the results comprise only secondary outcomes. Most antidepressants may be associated with a "small and unimportant" reduction in depression symptoms on the CDRS-R scale (range 17 to 113) compared with placebo (high certainty evidence: paroxetine: MD -1.43, 95% CI -3.90, 1.04; vilazodone: MD -0.84, 95% CI -3.03, 1.35; desvenlafaxine MD -0.07, 95% CI -3.51, 3.36; moderate certainty evidence: sertraline: MD -3.51, 95% CI -6.99, -0.04; fluoxetine: MD -2.84, 95% CI -4.12, -1.56; escitalopram: MD -2.62, 95% CI -5.29, 0.04; low certainty evidence: duloxetine: MD -2.70, 95% CI -5.03, -0.37; vortioxetine: MD 0.60, 95% CI -2.52, 3.72; very low certainty evidence for comparisons between other antidepressants and placebo). There were "small and unimportant" differences between most antidepressants in reduction of depression symptoms (high- or moderate-certainty evidence). Results were similar across other outcomes of benefit. In most studies risk of self-harm or suicide was an exclusion criterion for the study. Proportions of suicide-related outcomes were low for most included studies and 95% confidence intervals were wide for all comparisons. The evidence is very uncertain about the effects of mirtazapine (OR 0.50, 95% CI 0.03, 8.04), duloxetine (OR 1.15, 95% CI 0.72, 1.82), vilazodone (OR 1.01, 95% CI 0.68, 1.48), desvenlafaxine (OR 0.94, 95% CI 0.59, 1.52), citalopram (OR 1.72, 95% CI 0.76, 3.87) or vortioxetine (OR 1.58, 95% CI 0.29, 8.60) on suicide-related outcomes compared with placebo. There is low certainty evidence that escitalopram may "at least slightly" reduce odds of suicide-related outcomes compared with placebo (OR 0.89, 95% CI 0.43, 1.84). There is low certainty evidence that fluoxetine (OR 1.27, 95% CI 0.87, 1.86), paroxetine (OR 1.81, 95% CI 0.85, 3.86), sertraline (OR 3.03, 95% CI 0.60, 15.22), and venlafaxine (OR 13.84, 95% CI 1.79, 106.90) may "at least slightly" increase odds of suicide-related outcomes compared with placebo. There is moderate certainty evidence that venlafaxine probably results in an "at least slightly" increased odds of suicide-related outcomes compared with desvenlafaxine (OR 0.07, 95% CI 0.01, 0.56) and escitalopram (OR 0.06, 95% CI 0.01, 0.56). There was very low certainty evidence regarding other comparisons between antidepressants. Overall, methodological shortcomings of the randomised trials make it difficult to interpret the findings with regard to the efficacy and safety of newer antidepressant medications. Findings suggest that most newer antidepressants may reduce depression symptoms in a small and unimportant way compared with placebo. Furthermore, there are likely to be small and unimportant differences in the reduction of depression symptoms between the majority of antidepressants. However, our findings reflect the average effects of the antidepressants, and given depression is a heterogeneous condition, some individuals may experience a greater response. Guideline developers and others making recommendations might therefore consider whether a recommendation for the use of newer generation antidepressants is warranted for some individuals in some circumstances. Our findings suggest sertraline, escitalopram, duloxetine, as well as fluoxetine (which is currently the only treatment recommended for first-line prescribing) could be considered as a first option. Children and adolescents considered at risk of suicide were frequently excluded from trials, so that we cannot be confident about the effects of these medications for these individuals. If an antidepressant is being considered for an individual, this should be done in consultation with the child/adolescent and their family/caregivers and it remains critical to ensure close monitoring of treatment effects and suicide-related outcomes (combined suicidal ideation and suicide attempt) in those treated with newer generation antidepressants, given findings that some of these medications may be associated with greater odds of these events. Consideration of psychotherapy, particularly cognitive behavioural therapy, as per guideline recommendations, remains important.

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Sacrococcygeal pilonidal sinus disease is a common debilitating condition that predominantly affects young adults, with a profound impact on their activities of daily living. The condition is treated surgically, and in some cases the wound in the natal cleft is left open to heal by itself. Many dressings and topical agents are available to aid healing of these wounds. To assess the effects of dressings and topical agents for the management of open wounds following surgical treatment for sacrococcygeal pilonidal sinus in any care setting. In March 2021, we searched the Cochrane Wounds Specialised Register, CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase and EBSCO CINAHL Plus. We also searched clinical trials registries for ongoing and unpublished studies, and we scanned reference lists of included studies, reviews, meta-analyses and health technology reports to identify additional studies. There were no restrictions with respect to language, date of publication or study setting. We included parallel-group randomised controlled trials (RCTs) only. We included studies with participants who had undergone any type of sacrococcygeal pilonidal sinus disease surgery and were left with an open wound. We used the standard methodological procedures expected by Cochrane. We used GRADE to assess the certainty of the evidence for each outcome. We included 11 RCTs comprising 932 participants. Two studies compared topical negative pressure wound therapy (TNPWT) with conventional open wound healing, two studies compared platelet-rich plasma with sterile absorbent gauze, and the other seven studies compared various dressings and topical agents. All studies were at high risk of bias in at least one domain, whilst one study was judged to be at low risk of bias in all but one domain. All studies were conducted in secondary care. Mean participant ages were between 20 and 30 years, and nearly 80% of participants were male. No studies provided data on quality of life, cost-effectiveness, pain at first dressing change or proportion of wounds healed at 6 or 12 months, and very few adverse effects were recorded in any study. It is unclear whether TNPWT reduces time to wound healing compared with conventional open wound healing (comparison 1), as the certainty of evidence is very low. The two studies provided conflicting results, with one study showing benefit (mean difference (MD) -24.01 days, 95% confidence interval (CI) -35.65 to -12.37; 19 participants), whilst the other reported no difference. It is also unclear whether TNPWT has any effect on the proportion of wounds healed by 30 days (risk ratio (RR) 3.60, 95% CI 0.49 to 26.54; 19 participants, 1 study; very low-certainty evidence). Limited data were available for our secondary outcomes time to return to normal daily activities and recurrence rate; we do not know whether TNPWT has any effect on these outcomes. Lietofix cream may increase the proportion of wounds that heal by 30 days compared with an iodine dressing (comparison 4; RR 8.06, 95% CI 1.05 to 61.68; 205 participants, 1 study; low-certainty evidence). The study did not provide data on time to wound healing. We do not know whether hydrogel dressings reduce time to wound healing compared with wound cleaning with 10% povidone iodine (comparison 5; MD -24.54 days, 95% CI -47.72 to -1.36; 31 participants, 1 study; very low-certainty evidence). The study did not provide data on the proportion of wounds healed. It is unclear whether hydrogel dressings have any effect on adverse effects as the certainty of the evidence is very low. Platelet-rich plasma may reduce time to wound healing compared with sterile absorbent gauze (comparison 6; MD -19.63 days, 95% CI -34.69 to -4.57; 210 participants, 2 studies; low-certainty evidence). No studies provided data on the proportion of wounds healed. Platelet-rich plasma may reduce time to return to normal daily activities (MD -15.49, 95% CI -28.95 to -2.02; 210 participants, 2 studies; low-certainty evidence). Zinc oxide mesh may make little or no difference to time to wound healing compared with placebo (comparison 2; median 54 days in the zinc oxide mesh group versus 62 days in the placebo mesh group; low-certainty evidence). We do not know whether zinc oxide mesh has an effect on the proportion of wounds healed by 30 days as the certainty of the evidence is very low (RR 2.35, 95% CI 0.49 to 11.23). It is unclear whether gentamicin-impregnated collagen sponge reduces time to wound healing compared with no dressing (comparison 7; MD -1.40 days, 95% CI -5.05 to 2.25; 50 participants, 1 study; very low-certainty evidence). The study did not provide data on the proportion of wounds healed. Dialkylcarbamoyl chloride (DACC)-coated dressings may make little or no difference to time to wound healing compared with alginate dressings (comparison 8; median 69 (95% CI 62 to 72) days in the DACC group versus 71 (95% CI 69 to 85) days in the alginate group; 1 study, 246 participants; low-certainty evidence). One study compared a polyurethane foam hydrophilic dressing with an alginate dressing (comparison 3) whilst another study compared a hydrocolloid dressing with an iodine dressing (comparison 9). It is unclear whether either intervention has any effect on time to wound healing as the certainty of evidence is very low. At present, the evidence that any of the dressings or topical agents contained in this review have a benefit on time to wound healing, the proportion of wounds that heal at a specific time point or on any of the secondary outcomes of our review ranges from low certainty to very low certainty. There is low-certainty evidence on the benefit on wound healing of platelet-rich plasma from two studies and of Lietofix cream and hydrogel dressings from single studies. Further studies are required to investigate these interventions further.

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Heavy menstrual bleeding and pain are common reasons women discontinue intrauterine device (IUD) use. Copper IUD (Cu IUD) users tend to experience increased menstrual bleeding, whereas levonorgestrel IUD (LNG IUD) users tend to have irregular menstruation. Medical therapies used to reduce heavy menstrual bleeding or pain associated with Cu and LNG IUD use include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), anti-fibrinolytics and paracetamol. We analysed treatment and prevention interventions separately because the expected outcomes for treatment and prevention interventions differ. We did not combine different drug classes in the analysis as they have different mechanisms of action. This is an update of a review originally on NSAIDs. The review scope has been widened to include all interventions for treatment or prevention of heavy menstrual bleeding or pain associated with IUD use. To evaluate all randomized controlled trials (RCTs) that have assessed strategies for treatment and prevention of heavy menstrual bleeding or pain associated with IUD use, for example, pharmacotherapy and alternative therapies. We searched CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase and CINAHL to January 2021. We included RCTs in any language that tested strategies for treatment or prevention of heavy menstrual bleeding or pain associated with IUD (Cu IUD, LNG IUD or other IUD) use. The comparison could be no intervention, placebo or another active intervention. Two review authors independently assessed trials for inclusion and risk of bias, and extracted data. Primary outcomes were volume of menstrual blood loss, duration of menstruation and painful menstruation. We used a random-effects model in all meta-analyses. Review authors assessed the certainty of evidence using GRADE. This review includes 21 trials involving 3689 participants from middle- and high-income countries. Women were 18 to 45 years old and either already using an IUD or had just had one placed for contraception. The included trials examined NSAIDs and other interventions. Eleven were treatment trials, of these seven were on users of the Cu IUD, one on LNG IUD and three on an unknown type. Ten were prevention trials, six focused on Cu IUD users, and four on LNG IUD users. Sixteen trials had high risk of detection bias due to subjective assessment of pain and bleeding. Treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding Cu IUD Vitamin B1 resulted in fewer pads used per day (mean difference (MD) -7.00, 95% confidence interval (CI) -8.50 to -5.50) and fewer bleeding days (MD -2.00, 95% CI -2.38 to -1.62; 1 trial; 110 women; low-certainty evidence) compared to placebo. The evidence is very uncertain about the effect of naproxen on the volume of menstruation compared to placebo (odds ratio (OR) 0.09, 95% CI 0.00 to 1.78; 1 trial, 40 women; very low-certainty evidence). Treatment with mefenamic acid resulted in less volume of blood loss compared to tranexamic acid (MD -64.26, 95% CI -105.65 to -22.87; 1 trial, 94 women; low-certainty evidence). However, there was no difference in duration of bleeding with treatment of mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid (MD 0.08 days, 95% CI -0.27 to 0.42, 2 trials, 152 women; low-certainty evidence). LNG IUD The use of ulipristal acetate in LNG IUD may not reduce the number of bleeding days in 90 days in comparison to placebo (MD -9.30 days, 95% CI -26.76 to 8.16; 1 trial, 24 women; low-certainty evidence). Unknown IUD type Mefenamic acid may not reduce volume of bleeding compared to Vitex agnus measured by pictorial blood assessment chart (MD -2.40, 95% CI -13.77 to 8.97; 1 trial; 84 women; low-certainty evidence). Treatment of pain Cu IUD Treatment with tranexamic acid and sodium diclofenac may result in little or no difference in the occurrence of pain (OR 1.00, 95% CI 0.06 to 17.25; 1 trial, 38 women; very low-certainty evidence). Unknown IUD type Naproxen may reduce pain (MD 4.10, 95% CI 0.91 to 7.29; 1 trial, 33 women; low-certainty evidence). Prevention of heavy menstrual bleeding Cu IUD We found very low-certainty evidence that tolfenamic acid may prevent heavy bleeding compared to placebo (OR 0.54, 95% CI 0.34 to 0.85; 1 trial, 310 women). There was no difference between ibuprofen and placebo in blood volume reduction (MD -14.11, 95% CI -36.04 to 7.82) and duration of bleeding (MD -0.2 days, 95% CI -1.40 to 1.0; 1 trial, 28 women, low-certainty evidence). Aspirin may not prevent heavy bleeding in comparison to paracetamol (MD -0.30, 95% CI -26.16 to 25.56; 1 trial, 20 women; very low-certainty evidence). LNG IUD Ulipristal acetate may increase the percentage of bleeding days compared to placebo (MD 9.50, 95% CI 1.48 to 17.52; 1 trial, 118 women; low-certainty evidence). There were insufficient data for analysis in a single trial comparing mifepristone and vitamin B. There were insufficient data for analysis in the single trial comparing tranexamic acid and mefenamic acid and in another trial comparing naproxen with estradiol. Prevention of pain Cu IUD There was low-certainty evidence that tolfenamic acid may not be effective to prevent painful menstruation compared to placebo (OR 0.71, 95% CI 0.44 to 1.14; 1 trial, 310 women). Ibuprofen may not reduce menstrual cramps compared to placebo (OR 1.00, 95% CI 0.11 to 8.95; 1 trial, 20 women, low-certainty evidence). Findings from this review should be interpreted with caution due to low- and very low-certainty evidence. Included trials were limited; the majority of the evidence was derived from single trials with few participants. Further research requires larger trials and improved trial reporting. The use of vitamin B1 and mefenamic acid to treat heavy menstruation and tolfenamic acid to prevent heavy menstruation associated with Cu IUD should be investigated. More trials are needed to generate evidence for the treatment and prevention of heavy and painful menstruation associated with LNG IUD.

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Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a complex, multisystem disorder. Its major clinical features include neonatal hypotonia, developmental delay, short stature, behavioral abnormalities, childhood-onset obesity, hypothalamic hypogonadism, and characteristic appearance. The genetic basis of PWS is also complex. It is caused by absence of expression of the paternally active genes in the PWS critical region on 15q11-q13. In approximately 70% of cases this is the result of deletion of this region from the paternal chromosome 15. In approximately 28%, it is attributable to maternal uniparental disomy (UPD; inheritance of 2 copies of a chromosome from the mother and no copies from the father, as opposed to the normal 1 copy from each parent) of chromosome 15, and in &lt;2%, it is the result of a mutation, deletion, or other defect in the imprinting center. Clinical diagnostic criteria were established by consensus in 1993. Subsequently, definitive molecular genetic testing became available for laboratory diagnosis of PWS. However, identification of appropriate patients for testing remains a challenge for most practitioners because many features of the disorder are nonspecific and others can be subtle or evolve over time. For example, hypotonic infants who are still in the failure to thrive phase of the disorder often do not have sufficient features for recognition of PWS and often are not tested. Initial screening with these diagnostic criteria can increase the yield of molecular testing for older children and adults with nonspecific obesity and mental retardation. Therefore, the purpose of clinical diagnostic criteria has shifted from assisting in making the definitive diagnosis to raising diagnostic suspicion, thereby prompting testing. We conducted a retrospective review of patients with PWS confirmed with genetic testing to assess the validity and sensitivity of clinical diagnostic criteria published before the widespread availability of testing for all affected patients and recommend revised clinical criteria. Charts of all 90 patients with laboratory-confirmed PWS were reviewed. For each patient, the presence or absence of the major, minor, and supportive features listed in the published diagnostic criteria was recorded. The sensitivity of each criterion, mean of the total number of major and minor criteria, and mean total score for each patient were calculated. There were 68 patients with a deletion (del 15q11-q13), 21 with maternal UPD of chromosome 15, and 1 with a presumed imprinting defect. Age range at the time of the most recent evaluation was 5 months to 60 years (median: 14.5 years; del median: 14 years; range: 5 months-60 years; UPD median: 18 years; range: 5-42 years). The sensitivities of the major criteria ranged from 49% (characteristic facial features) to 98% (developmental delay). Global developmental delay and neonatal hypotonia were the 2 most consistently positive major criteria and were positive in &gt;97% of the patients. Feeding problems in infancy, excessive weight gain after 1 year, hypogonadism, and hyperphagia were all present in 93% or more of patients. Sensitivities of the minor criteria ranged form 37% (sleep disturbance and apneas) to 93% (speech and articulation defects). Interestingly, the sensitivities of 8 of the minor criteria were higher than the sensitivity of characteristic facial features, which is a major criterion. Fifteen out of 90 patients with molecular diagnosis did not meet the clinical diagnostic criteria retrospectively. When definitive diagnostic testing is not available, as was the case for PWS when the 1993 criteria were developed, diagnostic criteria are important to avoid overdiagnosis and to ensure that diagnostic test development is performed on appropriate samples. When diagnostic testing is available, as is now the case for PWS, diagnostic criteria should serve to raise diagnostic suspicion, ensure that all appropriate people are tested, and avoid the expense of testing unnecessarily. Our results indicate that the sensitivities of most of the published criteria are acceptable. However, 16.7% of patients with molecular diagnosis did not meet the 1993 clinical diagnostic criteria retrospectively, suggesting that the published criteria may be too exclusive. A less strict scoring system may ensure that all appropriate people are tested. Accordingly, we suggest revised clinical criteria to help identify the appropriate patients for DNA testing for PWS. The suggested age groupings are based on characteristic phases of the natural history of PWS. Some of the features (eg, neonatal hypotonia, feeding problems in infancy) serve to diagnose the syndrome in the first few years of life, whereas others (eg, excessive eating) are useful during early childhood. Similarly, hypogonadism is most useful during and after adolescence. Some of the features like neonatal hypotonia and infantile feeding problems are less likely to be missed, whereas others such as characteristic facial features and hypogonadism (especially in prepubertal females) may require more careful and/or expert examination. The issue of who should have diagnostic testing is distinct from the determination of features among confirmed patients. Based on the sensitivities of the published criteria and our experience, we suggest testing all newborns/infants with otherwise unexplained hypotonia with poor suck. For children between 2 and 6 years of age, we consider hypotonia with history of poor suck associated with global developmental delay sufficient criteria to prompt testing. Between 6 and 12 years of age, we suggest testing those with hypotonia (or history of hypotonia with poor suck), global developmental delay, and excessive eating with central obesity (if uncontrolled). At the ages of 13 years and above, we recommend testing patients with cognitive impairment, excessive eating with central obesity (if uncontrolled), and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and/or typical behavior problems (including temper tantrums and obsessive-compulsive features). Thus, we propose a lower threshold to prompt diagnostic DNA testing, leading to a higher likelihood of diagnosis of this disorder in which anticipatory guidance and intervention can significantly influence outcome.

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A comprehensive assessment of lignin configuration in transgenic and mutant plants is long overdue. This review thus undertook the systematic analysis of trends manifested through genetic and mutational manipulations of the various steps associated with monolignol biosynthesis; this included consideration of the downstream effects on organized lignin assembly in the various cell types, on vascular function/integrity, and on plant growth and development. As previously noted for dirigent protein (homologs), distinct and sophisticated monolignol forming metabolic networks were operative in various cell types, tissues and organs, and form the cell-specific guaiacyl (G) and guaiacyl-syringyl (G-S) enriched lignin biopolymers, respectively. Regardless of cell type undergoing lignification, carbon allocation to the different monolignol pools is apparently determined by a combination of phenylalanine availability and cinnamate-4-hydroxylase/"p-coumarate-3-hydroxylase" (C4H/C3H) activities, as revealed by transcriptional and metabolic profiling. Downregulation of either phenylalanine ammonia lyase or cinnamate-4-hydroxylase thus predictably results in reduced lignin levels and impaired vascular integrity, as well as affecting related (phenylpropanoid-dependent) metabolism. Depletion of C3H activity also results in reduced lignin deposition, albeit with the latter being derived only from hydroxyphenyl (H) units, due to both the guaiacyl (G) and syringyl (S) pathways being blocked. Apparently the cells affected are unable to compensate for reduced G/S levels by increasing the amounts of H-components. The downstream metabolic networks for G-lignin enriched formation in both angiosperms and gymnosperms utilize specific cinnamoyl CoA O-methyltransferase (CCOMT), 4-coumarate:CoA ligase (4CL), cinnamoyl CoA reductase (CCR) and cinnamyl alcohol dehydrogenase (CAD) isoforms: however, these steps neither affect carbon allocation nor H/G designations, this being determined by C4H/C3H activities. Such enzymes thus fulfill subsidiary processing roles, with all (except CCOMT) apparently being bifunctional for both H and G substrates. Their severe downregulation does, however, predictably result in impaired monolignol biosynthesis, reduced lignin deposition/vascular integrity, (upstream) metabolite build-up and/or shunt pathway metabolism. There was no evidence for an alternative acid/ester O-methyltransferase (AEOMT) being involved in lignin biosynthesis. The G/S lignin pathway networks are operative in specific cell types in angiosperms and employ two additional biosynthetic steps to afford the corresponding S components, i.e. through introduction of an hydroxyl group at C-5 and its subsequent O-methylation. [These enzymes were originally classified as ferulate-5-hydroxylase (F5H) and caffeate O-methyltransferase (COMT), respectively.] As before, neither step has apparently any role in carbon allocation to the pathway; hence their individual downregulation/manipulation, respectively, gives either a G enriched lignin or formation of the well-known S-deficient bm3 "lignin" mutant, with cell walls of impaired vascular integrity. In the latter case, COMT downregulation/mutation apparently results in utilization of the isoelectronic 5-hydroxyconiferyl alcohol species albeit in an unsuccessful attempt to form G-S lignin proper. However, there is apparently no effect on overall G content, thereby indicating that deposition of both G and S moieties in the G/S lignin forming cells are kept spatially, and presumably temporally, fully separate. Downregulation/mutation of further downstream steps in the G/S network [i.e. utilizing 4CL, CCR and CAD isoforms] gives predictable effects in terms of their subsidiary processing roles: while severe downregulation of 4CL gave phenotypes with impaired vascular integrity due to reduced monolignol supply, there was no evidence in support of increased growth and/or enhanced cellulose biosynthesis. CCR and CAD downregulation/mutations also established that a depletion in monolignol supply reduced both lignin contents supply reduced both lignin contents and vascular integrity, with a concomitant shift towards (upstream) metabolite build-up and/or shunting. The extraordinary claims of involvement of surrogate monomers (2-methoxybenzaldehyde, feruloyl tyramine, vanillic acid, etc.) in lignification were fully disproven and put to rest, with the investigators themselves having largely retracted former claims. Furthermore analysis of the well-known bm1 mutation, a presumed CAD disrupted system, apparently revealed that both G and S lignin components were reduced. This seems to imply that there is no monolignol specific dehydrogenase, such as the recently described sinapyl alcohol dehydrogenase (SAD) for sinapyl alcohol formation. Nevertheless, different CAD isoforms of differing homology seem to be operative in different lignifying cell types, thereby giving the G-enriched and G/S-enriched lignin biopolymers, respectively. For the G-lignin forming network, however, the CAD isoform is apparently catalytically less efficient with all three monolignols than that additionally associated with the corresponding G/S lignin forming network(s), which can more efficiently use all three monolignols. However, since CAD does not determine either H, G, or S designation, it again serves in a subsidiary role-albeit using different isoforms for different cell wall developmental and cell wall type responses. The results from this analysis contrasts further with speculations of some early investigators, who had viewed lignin assembly as resulting from non-specific oxidative coupling of monolignols and subsequent random polymerization. At that time, though, the study of the complex biological (biochemical) process of lignin assembly had begun without any of the (bio)chemical tools to either address or answer the questions posed as to how its formation might actually occur. Today, by contrast, there is growing recognition of both sophisticated and differential control of monolignol biosynthetic networks in different cell types, which serve to underscore the fact that complexity of assembly need not be confused any further with random formation. Moreover, this analysis revealed another factor which continues to cloud interpretations of lignin downregulation/mutational analyses, namely the serious technical problems associated with all aspects of lignin characterization, whether for lignin quantification, isolation of lignin-enriched preparations and/or in determining monomeric compositions. For example, in the latter analyses, some 50-90% of the lignin components still cannot be detected using current methodologies, e.g. by thioacidolysis cleavage and nitrobenzene oxidative cleavage. This deficiency in lignin characterization thus represents one of the major hurdles remaining in delineating how lignin assembly (in distinct cell types) and their configuration actually occurs.

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NTP Toxicology and Carcinogenesis studies of a-methylbenzyl alcohol (greater than 99% pure), a cosmetic ingredient and food flavoring agent, were conducted by administering the chemical in corn oil by gavage to groups of F344/N rats and B6C3F1 mice of each sex for 16 days, 13 weeks, or 2 years. Genetic toxicology studies were conducted in Salmonella typhimurium, mouse lymphoma cells, and Chinese hamster ovary (CHO) cells. a-Methylbenzyl alcohol was nominated for study by the National Cancer Institute because of the potential for widespread human exposure. Sixteen-Day and Thirteen-Week Studies: The doses used in the 16-day studies for rats and mice ranged between 125 and 2,000 mg/kg. Six of 10 rats and all mice dosed at 2,000 mg/kg died. In addition, because 7/9 mice dosed at 1,000 mg/kg died, the doses selected for the 13-week studies for mice (47-750 mg/kg) were half those used for rats (93-1,500 mg/kg). In the 13-week studies, deaths of 1/10 male and 3/10 female rats dosed at 1,500 mg/kg were compound related; none of the mice died. Body weight gain was reduced in rats at 1,500 mg/kg; there were no significant histopathologic lesions in either rats or mice. The only compound-related effects were ataxia, labored breathing, and lethargy for up to 30 minutes after dosing in rats and mice given the two highest doses and increases in liver weight to body weight ratios for male rats given the three highest doses and for female rats at all doses. Based on the pattern of mortality and the effects on body weight gain in the short-term studies, doses of 375 and 750 mg/kg a-methylbenzyl alcohol were administered in corn oil by gavage, 5 days per week for 103 weeks, to groups of 50 rats and 50 mice of each sex. Two-Year Studies: Significant reduction in body weight gain commenced at weeks 20-30 in high dose male and female rats, and body weights were 20%-30% below those of vehicle controls at study termination. In the low dose groups, body weight reduction occurred only in male rats during the last 10 weeks of the study. After 80 weeks, 60% of the high dose rats and 80%-100% of the low dose and vehicle control rats were alive; thereafter, the number of deaths in the chemically exposed groups increased sharply so that, at the end of 2 years, final survival for vehicle control, low dose, and high dose rats was 35/50; 8/50; and 1/50 for males and 34/50, 25/50, and 11/50 for females. There were a large number of gavage accidents in these studies (1, 9, and 8 for male rats and 1, 4, and 14 for female rats), but these accidents did not contribute to the increase in mortality after week 80, as all but 4 of these occurred earlier. Mortality in the last quarter of the study was thought to be due to the effects of cumulative toxicity of a-methylbenzyl alcohol on a renal excretory system already compromised by aging. Renal nephropathy that commonly occurs during aging was found in all groups of rats, but the severity was greater in male rats dosed with a-methylbenzyl alcohol. In addition, a collection of nonneoplastic lesions (parathyroid hyperplasia, calcification of the heart and glandular stomach, and fibrous osteodystrophy of bone) was found in the dosed male rats; these lesions were probably secondary to mineral imbalance arising from renal dysfunction. Since survival was poor in low and high dose male and high dose female rats, the sensitivity of the study for detecting a carcinogenic effect in these groups was reduced. Despite this limitation, there were dose-related increases in the incidences of renal tubular cell adenomas or adenocarcinomas (combined) in male rats (vehicle control, 0/50; low dose, 2/50; high dose, 5/50). In addition, transitional cell papillomas of the urinary bladder were observed in one high dose male and two high dose female rats. In mice, a reduction in body weight gain was apparent in the high dose groups of males and females. Final survival rates in mice were similar among groups (male: 39/49; 40/50; 28/50; female: 41/50; 41/50; 38/50). No neoplastic or nonneoplastic lesions were attributed to a-methylbenzyl lesions were attributed to a-methylbenzyl alcohol administration in mice of either sex. Genetic Toxicology: a-Methylbenzyl alcohol was not mutagenic in S. typhimurium strains TA98, TA100, TA1535, or TA1537 when tested in the presence or absence of exogenous metabolic activation. a-Methylbenzyl alcohol produced a positive response without activation in the mouse L5178Y/TK+/- lymphoma assay for induction of trifluorothymidine resistance; it was not tested with activation. In cytogenetic tests with CHO cells, a-methylbenzyl alcohol induced chromosomal aberrations in the presence, but not the absence, of metabolic activation; no induction of sister chromatid exchanges was observed in CHO cells after exposure to a-methylbenzyl alcohol. Conclusions: Under the conditions of these 2-year gavage studies, there was some evidence of carcinogenic activityof a-methylbenzyl alcohol for male F344/N rats, as shown by increased incidences of renal tubular cell adenomas and adenomas or adenocarcinomas (combined). There was no evidence of carcinogenic activity for female F344/N rats administered 375 or 750 mg/kg. Renal toxicity characterized by severe nephropathy and related secondary lesions was observed in the dosed rats, and excessive mortality occurred during the last quarter of the studies. Poor survival reduced the sensitivity of the studies for detecting the presence of a carcinogenic response both in chemically exposed groups of male rats and in the high dose group of female rats. There was no evidence of carcinogenic activity of a-methylbenzyl alcohol for male or female B6C3F1 mice administered 375 or 750 mg/kg for 2 years. Synonyms: styrallyl alcohol; styralyl alcohol; a-methylbenzenemethanol; phenylmethylcarbinol; 1-phenethyl alcohol

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Preparation of Reversibly Inactivated (R.I.) Phage.- If B. megatherium phage (of any type, or in any stage of purification) is suspended in dilute salt solutions at pH 5-6, it is completely inactivated; i.e., it does not form plaques, or give rise to more phage when mixed with a sensitive organism (Northrop, 1954). The inactivation occurs when the phage is added to the dilute salt solution. If a suspension of the inactive phage in pH 7 peptone is titrated to pH 5 and allowed to stand, the activity gradually returns. The inactivation is therefore reversible. Properties of R.I. Phage.- The R.I. phage is adsorbed by sensitive cells at about the same rate as the active phage. It kills the cells, but no active phage is produced. The R.I. phage therefore has the properties of phage "ghosts" (Herriott, 1951) or of colicines (Gratia, 1925), or phage inactivated by ultraviolet light (Luria, 1947). The R.I. phage is sedimented in the centrifuge at the same rate as active phage. It is therefore about the same size as the active phage. The R.I. phage is most stable in pH 7, 5 per cent peptone, and may be kept in this solution for weeks at 0 degrees C. The rate of digestion of R.I. phage by trypsin, chymotrypsin, or desoxyribonuclease is about the same as that of active phage (Northrop, 1955 a). Effect of Various Substances on the Formation of R.I. Phage.- There is an equilibrium between R.I. phage and active phage. The R.I. form is the stable one in dilute salt solution, pH 5 to 6.5 and at low temperature (&lt;20 degrees C.). At pH &gt;6.5, in dilute salt solution, the R.I. phage changes to the active form. The cycle, active right harpoon over left harpoon inactive phage, may be repeated many times at 0 degrees C. by changing the pH of the solution back and forth between pH 7 and pH 6. Irreversible inactivation is caused by distilled water, some heavy metals, concentrated urea or quanidine solutions, and by l-arginine. Reversible inactivation is prevented by all salts tested (except those causing irreversible inactivation, above). The concentration required to prevent R.I. is lower, the higher the valency of either the anion or cation. There are great differences, however, between salts of the same valency, so that the chemical nature as well as the valency is important. Peptone, urea, and the amino acids, tryptophan, leucine, isoleucine, methionine, asparagine, dl-cystine, valine, and phenylalanine, stabilize the system at pH 7, so that no change occurs if a mixture of R.I. and active phage is added to such solutions. The active phage remains active and the R.I. phage remains inactive. The R.I. phage in pH 7 peptone becomes active if the pH is changed to 5.0. This does not occur in solutions of urea or the amino acids which stabilize at pH 7.0. Kinetics of Reversible Inactivation.- The inactivation is too rapid, even at 0 degrees to allow the determination of an accurate time-inactivation curve. The rate is independent of the phage concentration and is complete in a few seconds, even in very dilute suspensions containing &lt;1 x 10(4) particles/ml. This result rules out any type of bimolecular reaction, or any precipitation or agglutination mechanism, since the minimum theoretical time for precipitation (or agglutination) of a suspension of particles in a concentration of only 1 x 10(4) per ml. would be about 300 days even though every collision were effective. Mechanism of Salt Reactivation.- Addition of varying concentrations of MgSO(4) (or many other salts) to a suspension of either active or R.I. phage in 0.01 M, pH 6 acetate buffer results in the establishment of an equilibrium ratio for active/R.I. phage. The higher the concentration of salt, the larger proportion of the phage is active. The results, with MgSO(4), are in quantitative agreement with the following reaction: See PDF for Equation Effect of Temperature.- The rate of inactivation is too rapid to be measured with any accuracy, even at 0 degrees C. The rate of reactivation in pH 5 peptone, at 0 and 10 degrees , was measured and found to have a temperature coefficient Q(10) = 1.5 corresponding to a value of E (Arrhenius' constant) of 6500 cal. mole(-1). This agrees very well with the temperature coefficient for the reactivation of denatured soy bean trypsin inhibitor (Kunitz, 1948). The equilibrium between R.I. and active phage is shifted toward the active side by lowering the temperature. The ratio R.I.P./AP is 4.7 at 15 degrees and 2.8 at 2 degrees . This corresponds to a change in free energy of -600 cal. mole(-1) and a heat of reaction of 11,000. These values are much lower than the comparative one for trypsin (Anson and Mirsky, 1934 a) or soy bean trypsin inhibitor (Kunitz, 1948). Neither the inactivation nor the reactivation reactions are affected by light. The results in general indicate that there is an equilibrium between active and R.I. phage. The R.I. phage is probably an intermediate step in the formation of inactive phage. The equilibrium is shifted to the active side by lowering the temperature, adjusting the pH to 7-8 (except in the presence of high concentrations of peptone), raising the salt concentration, or increasing the valency of the ions present. The reaction may be represented by the following: See PDF for Equation The assumption that the active/R.I. phage equilibrium represents an example of native/denatured protein equilibrium predicts all the results qualitatively. Quantitatively, however, it fails to predict the relative rate of digestion of the two forms by trypsin or chymotrypsin, and also the effect of temperature on the equilibrium.

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Interactions and overlap of social assistance programs across clients interest policymakers because such interactions affect both the clients' well-being and the programs' efficiency. This article investigates the connections between Supplemental Security Income (SSI) and Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) and TANF's predecessor, the Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC) program. Connections between receipt of TANF and SSI are widely discussed in both disability policy and poverty research literatures because many families receiving TANF report disabilities. For both states and the individuals involved, it is generally financially advantageous for adults and children with disabilities to transfer from TANF to SSI. States gain because the federal government pays for the SSI benefit, and states can then use the TANF savings for other purposes. The families gain because the SSI benefits they acquire are greater than the TANF benefits they lose. The payoff to states from transferring welfare recipients to SSI was substantially increased when Congress replaced AFDC with TANF in 1996. States retained less than half of any savings achieved through such transfers under AFDC, but they retain all of the savings under TANF. Also, the work participation requirements under TANF have obligated states to address the work support needs of adults with disabilities who remain in TANF, and states can avoid these costs if adults have disabilities that satisfy SSI eligibility requirements. The incentive for TANF recipients to apply for SSI has increased over time as inflation has caused real TANF benefits to fall relative to payments received by SSI recipients. Trends in the financial incentives for transfer to SSI have not been studied in detail, and reliable general data on the extent of the interaction between TANF and SSI are scarce. In addition, some estimates of the prevalence of TANF receipt among SSI awardees are flawed because they fail to include adults receiving benefits in TANF-related Separate State Programs (SSPs). SSPs are assistance programs that are administered by TANF agencies but are paid for wholly from state funds. When the programs are conducted in a manner consistent with federal regulations, the money states spend on SSPs counts toward federal maintenance-of-effort (MOE) requirements, under which states must sustain a certain level of contribution to the costs of TANF and approved related activities. SSPs are used for a variety of purposes, including support of families who are in the process of applying for SSI. Until very recently, families receiving cash benefits through SSPs were not subject to TANF's work participation requirements. This article contributes to analysis of the interaction between TANF and SSI by evaluating the financial consequences of TANF-to-SSI transfer and developing new estimates of both the prevalence of receipt of SSI benefits among families receiving cash assistance from TANF and the proportion of new SSI awards that go to adults and children residing in families receiving TANF or TANF-related benefits in SSPs. Using data from the Urban Institute's Welfare Rules Database, we find that by 2003 an SSI award for a child in a three-person family dependent on TANF increased family income by 103.5 percent on average across states; an award to the adult in such a family increased income by 115.4 percent. The gain from both child and adult transfers increased by about 6 percent between 1996 (the eve of the welfare reform that produced TANF) and 2003. Using data from the Department of Health and Human Services' TANF/SSP Recipient Family Characteristics Survey, we estimate that 16 percent of families receiving TANF/SSP support in federal fiscal year 2003 included an adult or child SSI recipient. This proportion has increased slightly since fiscal year 2000. The Social Security Administration's current procedures for tabulating characteristics of new SSI awardees do not recognize SSP receipt as TANF We use differences in reported TANF-to-SSI flows between states with and without Separate State Programs to estimate the understatement of the prevalence of TANF-related SSI awards in states with SSPs. The results indicate that the absolute number of awards to AFDC (and subsequently) TANF/SSP recipients has declined by 42 percent for children and 25 percent for adults since the early 1990s. This result is a product of the decline in welfare caseloads. However, the monthly incidence of such awards has gone up-from less than 1 per 1,000 child recipients in calendar years 1991-1993 to 1.3 per 1,000 in 2001-2003 and, for adult recipients, from 1.6 per 1,000 in 1991-1993 to 4 per 1,000 in 2001-2003. From these results we conclude that a significant proportion of each year's SSI awards to disabled nonelderly people go to TANF/SSP recipients, and many families that receive TANF/SSP support include adults, children, or both who receive SSI. Given the Social Security Administration's efforts to improve eligibility assessment for applicants, to ensure timely access to SSI benefits for those who qualify, and to improve prospects for eventual employment of the disabled, there is definitely a basis for working with TANF authorities both nationally and locally on service coordination and on smoothing the process of SSI eligibility assessment. The Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 reauthorized TANF through fiscal year 2010, but with some rules changes that are important in light of the analysis presented in this article. The new law substantially increases effective federal requirements for work participation by adult TANF recipients and mandates that adults in Separate State Programs be included in participation requirements beginning in fiscal year 2007. Thus SSPs will no longer provide a means for exempting from work requirements families that are in the process of applying for SSI, and the increased emphasis on work participation could result in more SSI applications from adult TANF recipients.

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Up to one percent of people in industrialised countries will suffer from a leg ulcer at some time. The majority of these leg ulcers are due to problems in the veins, resulting in an accumulation of blood in the legs. Leg ulcers arising from venous problems are called venous (or varicose or stasis) ulcers. The main treatment is the application of a firm compression garment (bandage or stocking) in order to aid venous return. There is a large number of compression garments available and it was unclear whether they are effective in treating venous ulcers and, if so, which method of compression is the most effective. To undertake a systematic review of all randomised controlled trials (RCTs) evaluating the effects on venous ulcer healing of compression bandages and stockings.Specific questions addressed by the review are:1. Does the application of compression bandages or stockings aid venous ulcer healing? 2. Which compression bandage or stocking system is the most effective? For this second update we searched: the Cochrane Wounds Group Specialised Register (31 May 2012); the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL) (The Cochrane Library Issue 5, 2012); Ovid MEDLINE (1950 to May Week 4 2012); Ovid MEDLINE (In-Process &amp; Other Non-Indexed Citations 30 May 2012); Ovid EMBASE (1980 to 2012 Week 21); and EBSCO CINAHL (1982 to 30 May 2012). No date or language restrictions were applied. RCTs recruiting people with venous leg ulceration that evaluated any type of compression bandage system or compression stockings were eligible for inclusion. Eligible comparators included no compression (e.g. primary dressing alone, non-compressive bandage) or an alternative type of compression. RCTs had to report an objective measure of ulcer healing in order to be included (primary outcome for the review). SECONDARY OUTCOMES of the review included ulcer recurrence, costs, quality of life, pain, adverse events and withdrawals. There was no restriction on date, language or publication status of RCTs. Details of eligible studies were extracted and summarised using a data extraction table. Data extraction was performed by one review author and verified independently by a second review author. Forty-eight RCTs reporting 59 comparisons were included (4321 participants in total). Most RCTs were small, and most were at unclear or high risk of bias. Duration of follow-up varied across RCTs. Risk ratio (RR) and other estimates are shown below where RCTs were pooled; otherwise findings refer to a single RCT.There was evidence from eight RCTs (unpooled) that healing outcomes (including time to healing) are better when patients receive compression compared with no compression.Single-component compression bandage systems are less effective than multi-component compression for complete healing at six months (one large RCT).A two-component system containing an elastic bandage healed more ulcers at one year than one without an elastic component (one small RCT).Three-component systems containing an elastic component healed more ulcers than those without elastic at three to four months (two RCTs pooled), RR 1.83 (95% CI 1.26 to 2.67), but another RCT showed no difference between groups at six months.An individual patient data meta-analysis of five RCTs suggested significantly faster healing with the four-layer bandage (4LB) than the short stretch bandage (SSB): median days to healing estimated at 90 and 99 respectively; hazard ratio 1.31 (95% CI 1.09 to 1.58).High-compression stockings are associated with better healing outcomes than SSB at two to four months: RR 1.62 (95% CI 1.26 to 2.10), estimate from four pooled RCTs.One RCT suggested better healing outcomes at 16 months with the addition of a tubular device plus single elastic bandage to a base system of gauze and crepe bandages when compared with two added elastic bandages. Another RCT had three arms; when one or two elastic bandages were added to a base three-component system that included an outer tubular layer, healing outcomes were better at six months for the two groups receiving elastic bandages.There is currently no evidence of a statistically significant difference for the following comparisons:⋅alternative single-component compression bandages (two RCTs, unpooled);⋅two-component bandages compared with the 4LB at three months (three RCTs pooled);⋅alternative versions of the 4LB for complete healing at times up to and including six months (three RCTs, unpooled);⋅4LB compared with paste bandage for complete healing at three months (two RCTs, pooled), six months or one year (one RCT for each time point);⋅adjustable compression boots compared with paste bandages for the outcome of change in ulcer area at three months (one small RCT);⋅adjustable compression boots compared with the 4LB with respect to complete healing at three months (one small RCT);⋅single-layer compression stocking compared with paste bandages for outcome of complete healing at four months (one small RCT) and 18 months (another small RCT);⋅low compression stocking compared with SSB for complete healing at three and six months (one small RCT);⋅compression stockings compared with a two-component bandage system and the 4LB for the outcome of complete healing at three months (one small, three-armed RCT); and,⋅tubular compression compared with SSB (one small RCT) for complete healing at three months. 4LB was more cost-effective than SSB. It was not possible to draw firm conclusions regarding other secondary outcomes including recurrence, adverse events and health-related quality of life. Compression increases ulcer healing rates compared with no compression. Multi-component systems are more effective than single-component systems. Multi-component systems containing an elastic bandage appear to be more effective than those composed mainly of inelastic constituents. Two-component bandage systems appear to perform as well as the 4LB. Patients receiving the 4LB heal faster than those allocated the SSB. More patients heal on high-compression stocking systems than with the SSB. Further data are required before the difference between high-compression stockings and the 4LB can be established.

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Partner notification (PN) is the process whereby sexual partners of an index patient are informed of their exposure to a sexually transmitted infection (STI) and the need to obtain treatment. For the person (index patient) with a curable STI, PN aims to eradicate infection and prevent re-infection. For sexual partners, PN aims to identify and treat undiagnosed STIs. At the level of sexual networks and populations, the aim of PN is to interrupt chains of STI transmission. For people with viral STI, PN aims to identify undiagnosed infections, which can facilitate access for their sexual partners to treatment and help prevent transmission. To assess the effects of different PN strategies in people with STI, including human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. We searched electronic databases (the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL), MEDLINE and EMBASE) without language restrictions. We scanned reference lists of potential studies and previous reviews and contacted experts in the field. We searched three trial registries. We conducted the most recent search on 31 August 2012. Published or unpublished randomised controlled trials (RCTs) or quasi-RCTs comparing two or more PN strategies. Four main PN strategies were included: patient referral, expedited partner therapy, provider referral and contract referral. Patient referral means that the patient notifies their sexual partners, either with (enhanced patient referral) or without (simple patient referral) additional verbal or written support. In expedited partner therapy, the patient delivers medication or a prescription for medication to their partner(s) without the need for a medical examination of the partner. In provider referral, health service personnel notify the partners. In contract referral, the index patient is encouraged to notify partner, with the understanding that the partners will be contacted if they do not visit the health service by a certain date. We analysed data according to paired partner referral strategies. We organised the comparisons first according to four main PN strategies (1. enhanced patient referral, 2. expedited partner therapy, 3. contract referral, 4. provider referral). We compared each main strategy with simple patient referral and then with each other, if trials were available. For continuous outcome measures, we calculated the mean difference (MD) with 95% confidence intervals (CI). For dichotomous variables, we calculated the risk ratio (RR) with 95% CI. We performed meta-analyses where appropriate. We performed a sensitivity analysis for the primary outcome re-infection rate of the index patient by excluding studies with attrition of greater than 20%. Two review authors independently assessed the risk of bias and extracted data. We contacted study authors for additional information. We included 26 trials (17,578 participants, 9015 women and 8563 men). Five trials were conducted in developing countries. Only two trials were conducted among HIV-positive patients. There was potential for selection bias, owing to the methods of allocation used and of performance bias, owing to the lack of blinding in most included studies. Seven trials had attrition of greater than 20%, increasing the risk of bias.The review found moderate-quality evidence that expedited partner therapy is better than simple patient referral for preventing re-infection of index patients when combining trials of STIs that caused urethritis or cervicitis (6 trials; RR 0.71, 95% CI 0.56 to 0.89, I(2) = 39%). When studies with attrition greater than 20% were excluded, the effect of expedited partner therapy was attenuated (2 trials; RR 0.8, 95% CI 0.62 to 1.04, I(2) = 0%). In trials restricted to index patients with chlamydia, the effect was attenuated (2 trials; RR 0.90, 95% CI 0.60 to 1.35, I(2) = 22%). Expedited partner therapy also increased the number of partners treated per index patient (three trials) when compared with simple patient referral in people with chlamydia or gonorrhoea (MD 0.43, 95% CI 0.28 to 0.58) or trichomonas (MD 0.51, 95% CI 0.35 to 0.67), and people with any STI syndrome (MD 0.5, 95% CI 0.34 to 0.67). Expedited partner therapy was not superior to enhanced patient referral in preventing re-infection (3 trials; RR 0.96, 95% CI 0.60 to 1.53, I(2) = 33%, low-quality evidence). Home sampling kits for partners (four trials) did not result in lower rates of re-infection in the index case (measured in one trial), or higher numbers of partners elicited (three trials), notified (two trials) or treated (one trial) when compared with simple patient referral. There was no consistent evidence for the relative effects of provider, contract or other patient referral methods. In one trial among men with non-gonococcal urethritis, more partners were treated with provider referral than with simple patient referral (MD 0.5, 95% CI 0.37 to 0.63). In one study among people with syphilis, contract referral elicited treatment of more partners than provider referral (MD 2.2, 95% CI 1.95 to 2.45), but the number of partners receiving treatment was the same in both groups. Where measured, there was no statistical evidence of differences in the incidence of adverse effects between PN strategies. The evidence assessed in this review does not identify a single optimal strategy for PN for any particular STI. When combining trials of STI causing urethritis or cervicitis, expedited partner therapy was more successful than simple patient referral for preventing re-infection of the index patient but was not superior to enhanced patient referral. Expedited partner therapy interventions should include all components that were part of the trial intervention package. There was insufficient evidence to determine the most effective components of an enhanced patient referral strategy. There are too few trials to allow consistent conclusions about the relative effects of provider, contract or other patient referral methods for different STIs. More high-quality RCTs of PN strategies for HIV and syphilis, using biological outcomes, are needed.

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Sickle cell disease is a group of disorders that affects haemoglobin, which causes distorted sickle- or crescent-shaped red blood cells. It is characterized by anaemia, increased susceptibility to infections and episodes of pain. The disease is acquired by inheriting abnormal genes from both parents, the combination giving rise to different forms of the disease. Due to increased erythropoiesis in people with sickle cell disease, it is hypothesized that they are at an increased risk for folate deficiency. For this reason, children and adults with sickle cell disease, particularly those with sickle cell anaemia, commonly take 1 mg of folic acid orally every day on the premise that this will replace depleted folate stores and reduce the symptoms of anaemia. It is thus important to evaluate the role of folate supplementation in treating sickle cell disease. To analyse the efficacy and possible adverse effects of folate supplementation (folate occurring naturally in foods, provided as fortified foods or additional supplements such as tablets) in people with sickle cell disease. We searched the Cochrane Cystic Fibrosis and Genetic Disorders Group's Haemoglobinopathies Trials Register comprising references identified from comprehensive electronic database searches and handsearches of relevant journals and abstract books of conference proceedings. We also conducted additional searches in both electronic databases and clinical trial registries.Date of last search: 07 December 2015. Randomised, placebo-controlled trials of folate supplementation for sickle cell disease. Four review authors assessed the eligibility and risk of bias of the included trials and extracted and analysed the data included in the review. We used the standard Cochrane-defined methodological procedures. One trial, undertaken in 1983, was eligible for inclusion in the review. This was a double-blind placebo-controlled quasi-randomised triaI of supplementation of folic acid in people with sickle cell disease. A total of 117 children with homozygous sickle cell (SS) disease aged six months to four years of age participated over a one-year period (analysis was restricted to 115 children).Serum folate measures, obtained after trial entry at six and 12 months, were available in 80 of 115 (70%) participants. There were significant differences between the folic acid and placebo groups with regards to serum folate values above 18 µg/l and values below 5 µg/l. In the folic acid group, values above 18 µg/l were observed in 33 of 41 (81 %) compared to six of 39 (15%) participants in the placebo (calcium lactate) group. Additionally, there were no participants in the folic acid group with serum folate levels below 5 µg/l, whereas in the placebo group, 15 of 39 (39%) participants had levels below this threshold. Haematological indices were measured in 100 of 115 (87%) participants at baseline and at one year. After adjusting for sex and age group, the investigators reported no significant differences between the trial groups with regards to total haemoglobin concentrations, either at baseline or at one year. It is important to note that none of the raw data for the outcomes listed above were available for analysis.The proportions of participants who experienced certain clinical events were analysed in all 115 participants, for which raw data were available. There were no statistically significant differences noted; however, the trial was not powered to investigate differences between the folic acid and placebo groups with regards to: minor infections, risk ratio 0.99 (95% confidence interval 0.85 to 1.15); major infections, risk ratio 0.89 (95% confidence interval 0.47 to 1.66); dactylitis, risk ratio 0.67 (95% confidence interval 0.35 to 1.27); acute splenic sequestration, risk ratio 1.07 (95% confidence interval 0.44 to 2.57); or episodes of pain, risk ratio 1.16 (95% confidence interval 0.70 to 1.92). However, the investigators reported a higher proportion of repeat dactylitis episodes in the placebo group, with two or more attacks occurring in 10 of 56 participants compared to two of 59 in the folic acid group (P &lt; 0.05).Growth, determined by height-for-age and weight-for-age, as well as height and growth velocity, was measured in 103 of the 115 participants (90%), for which raw data were not available. The investigators reported no significant differences in growth between the two groups.The trial had a high risk of bias with regards to random sequence generation and incomplete outcome data. There was an unclear risk of bias in relation to allocation concealment, outcome assessment, and selective reporting. Finally, There was a low risk of bias with regards to blinding of participants and personnel. Overall the quality of the evidence in the review was low.There were no trials identified for other eligible comparisons, namely: folate supplementation (fortified foods and physical supplementation with tablets) versus placebo; folate supplementation (naturally occurring in diet) versus placebo; folate supplementation (fortified foods and physical supplementation with tablets) versus folate supplementation (naturally occurring in diet). One doubIe-blind, placebo-controlled triaI on folic acid supplementation in children with sickle cell disease was included in the review. Overall, the trial presented mixed evidence on the review's outcomes. No trials in adults were identified. With the limited evidence provided, we conclude that, while it is possible that folic acid supplementation may increase serum folate levels, the effect of supplementation on anaemia and any symptoms of anaemia remains unclear.Further trials may add evidence regarding the efficacy of folate supplementation. Future trials should assess clinical outcomes such as folate concentration, haemoglobin concentration, adverse effects and benefits of the intervention, especially with regards to sickle cell disease-related morbidity. Trials should include people with sickle cell disease of all ages and both sexes, in any setting. To investigate the effects of folate supplementation, trials should recruit more participants and be of longer duration, with long-term follow up, than the trial currently included in this review.

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Gestational diabetes (GDM) is glucose intolerance, first recognised in pregnancy and usually resolving after birth. GDM is associated with both short- and long-term adverse effects for the mother and her infant. Lifestyle interventions are the primary therapeutic strategy for many women with GDM. To evaluate the effects of combined lifestyle interventions with or without pharmacotherapy in treating women with gestational diabetes. We searched the Pregnancy and Childbirth Group's Trials Register (14 May 2016), ClinicalTrials.gov, WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) (14th May 2016) and reference lists of retrieved studies. We included only randomised controlled trials comparing a lifestyle intervention with usual care or another intervention for the treatment of pregnant women with GDM. Quasi-randomised trials were excluded. Cross-over trials were not eligible for inclusion. Women with pre-existing type 1 or type 2 diabetes were excluded. We used standard methodological procedures expected by the Cochrane Collaboration. All selection of studies, data extraction was conducted independently by two review authors. Fifteen trials (in 45 reports) are included in this review (4501 women, 3768 infants). None of the trials were funded by a conditional grant from a pharmaceutical company. The lifestyle interventions included a wide variety of components such as education, diet, exercise and self-monitoring of blood glucose. The control group included usual antenatal care or diet alone. Using GRADE methodology, the quality of the evidence ranged from high to very low quality. The main reasons for downgrading evidence were inconsistency and risk of bias. We summarised the following data from the important outcomes of this review. Lifestyle intervention versus control groupFor the mother:There was no clear evidence of a difference between lifestyle intervention and control groups for the risk of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy (pre-eclampsia) (average risk ratio (RR) 0.70; 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.40 to 1.22; four trials, 2796 women; I<sup2</sup = 79%, Tau<sup2</sup = 0.23; low-quality evidence); caesarean section (average RR 0.90; 95% CI 0.78 to 1.05; 10 trials, 3545 women; I<sup2</sup = 48%, Tau<sup2</sup = 0.02; low-quality evidence); development of type 2 diabetes (up to a maximum of 10 years follow-up) (RR 0.98, 95% CI 0.54 to 1.76; two trials, 486 women; I<sup2</sup = 16%; low-quality evidence); perineal trauma/tearing (RR 1.04, 95% CI 0.93 to 1.18; one trial, n = 1000 women; moderate-quality evidence) or induction of labour (average RR 1.20, 95% CI 0.99 to 1.46; four trials, n = 2699 women; I<sup2</sup = 37%; high-quality evidence).More women in the lifestyle intervention group had met postpartum weight goals one year after birth than in the control group (RR 1.75, 95% CI 1.05 to 2.90; 156 women; one trial, low-quality evidence). Lifestyle interventions were associated with a decrease in the risk of postnatal depression compared with the control group (RR 0.49, 95% CI 0.31 to 0.78; one trial, n = 573 women; low-quality evidence).For the infant/child/adult:Lifestyle interventions were associated with a reduction in the risk of being born large-for-gestational age (LGA) (RR 0.60, 95% CI 0.50 to 0.71; six trials, 2994 infants; I<sup2</sup = 4%; moderate-quality evidence). Birthweight and the incidence of macrosomia were lower in the lifestyle intervention group.Exposure to the lifestyle intervention was associated with decreased neonatal fat mass compared with the control group (mean difference (MD) -37.30 g, 95% CI -63.97 to -10.63; one trial, 958 infants; low-quality evidence). In childhood, there was no clear evidence of a difference between groups for body mass index (BMI) ≥ 85th percentile (RR 0.91, 95% CI 0.75 to 1.11; three trials, 767 children; I<sup2</sup = 4%; moderate-quality evidence).There was no clear evidence of a difference between lifestyle intervention and control groups for the risk of perinatal death (RR 0.09, 95% CI 0.01 to 1.70; two trials, 1988 infants; low-quality evidence). Of 1988 infants, only five events were reported in total in the control group and there were no events in the lifestyle group. There was no clear evidence of a difference between lifestyle intervention and control groups for a composite of serious infant outcome/s (average RR 0.57, 95% CI 0.21 to 1.55; two trials, 1930 infants; I<sup2</sup = 82%, Tau<sup2</sup = 0.44; very low-quality evidence) or neonatal hypoglycaemia (average RR 0.99, 95% CI 0.65 to 1.52; six trials, 3000 infants; I<sup2</sup = 48%, Tau<sup2</sup = 0.12; moderate-quality evidence). Diabetes and adiposity in adulthood and neurosensory disability in later childhoodwere not prespecified or reported as outcomes for any of the trials included in this review. Lifestyle interventions are the primary therapeutic strategy for women with GDM. Women receiving lifestyle interventions were less likely to have postnatal depression and were more likely to achieve postpartum weight goals. Exposure to lifestyle interventions was associated with a decreased risk of the baby being born LGA and decreased neonatal adiposity. Long-term maternal and childhood/adulthood outcomes were poorly reported.The value of lifestyle interventions in low-and middle-income countries or for different ethnicities remains unclear. The longer-term benefits or harms of lifestyle interventions remains unclear due to limited reporting.The contribution of individual components of lifestyle interventions could not be assessed. Ten per cent of participants also received some form of pharmacological therapy. Lifestyle interventions are useful as the primary therapeutic strategy and most commonly include healthy eating, physical activity and self-monitoring of blood glucose concentrations.Future research could focus on which specific interventions are most useful (as the sole intervention without pharmacological treatment), which health professionals should give them and the optimal format for providing the information. Evaluation of long-term outcomes for the mother and her child should be a priority when planning future trials. There has been no in-depth exploration of the costs 'saved' from reduction in risk of LGA/macrosomia and potential longer-term risks for the infants.

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Rates of major depression among people living with HIV (PLWH) are substantially higher than those seen in the general population and this may adversely affect antiretroviral treatment outcomes. Several unique clinical and psychosocial factors may contribute to the development and persistence of depression in PLWH. Given these influences, it is unclear if antidepressant therapy is as effective for PLWH as the general population. To assess the efficacy of antidepressant therapy for treatment of depression in PLWH. We searched The Cochrane Common Mental Disorders Group's specialised register (CCMD-CTR), the Cochrane Library, PubMed, Embase and ran a cited reference search on the Web of Science for reports of all included studies. We conducted additional searches of the international trial registers including; ClinicalTrials.gov, World Health Organization Trials Portal (ICTRP), and the HIV and AIDS - Clinical trials register. We searched grey literature and reference lists to identify additional studies and contacted authors to obtain missing data. We applied no restrictions on date, language or publication status to the searches, which included studies conducted between 1 January 1980 and 18 April 2017. We included randomized controlled trials of antidepressant drug therapy compared to placebo or another antidepressant drug class. Participants eligible for inclusion had to be aged 18 years and older, from any setting, and have both HIV and depression. Depression was defined according to Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders or International Statistical Classification of Diseases criteria. Two review authors independently applied the inclusion criteria and extracted data. We presented categorical outcomes as risk ratios (RR) with 95% confidence intervals (CIs). Continuous outcomes were presented mean (MD) or standardized mean differences (SMD) with standard deviations (SD). We assessed quality of evidence using the GRADE approach. We included 10 studies with 709 participants in this review. Of the 10 studies, eight were conducted in high income countries (USA and Italy), seven were conducted prior to 2000 and seven had predominantly men. Seven studies assessed antidepressants versus placebo, two compared different antidepressant classes and one had three arms comparing two antidepressant classes with placebo.Antidepressant therapy may result in a greater improvement in depression compared to placebo. There was a moderate improvement in depression when assessed with the Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D) score as a continuous outcome (SMD 0.59, 95% CI 0.21 to 0.96; participants = 357; studies = 6; I<sup2</sup = 62%, low quality evidence). However, there was no evidence of improvement when this was assessed with HAM-D score as a dichotomized outcome (RR 1.10, 95% CI 0.89 to 1.35; participants = 434; studies = 5; I<sup2</sup = 0%, low quality evidence) or Clinical Global Impression of Improvement (CGI-I) score (RR 1.28, 95% CI 0.93 to 1.77; participants = 346; studies = 4; I<sup2</sup = 29%, low quality evidence). There was little to no difference in the proportion of study dropouts between study arms (RR 1.28, 95% CI 0.91 to 1.80; participants = 306; studies = 4; I<sup2</sup = 0%, moderate quality evidence).The methods of reporting adverse events varied substantially between studies, this resulted in very low quality evidence contributing to a pooled estimate (RR 0.88, 95% CI 0.64 to 1.21; participants = 167; studies = 2; I<sup2</sup = 34%; very low quality evidence). Based on this, we were unable to determine if there was a difference in the proportion of participants experiencing adverse events in the antidepressant versus placebo arms. However, sexual dysfunction was reported commonly in people receiving selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). People receiving tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) frequently reported anticholinergic adverse effects such as dry mouth and constipation. There were no reported grade 3 or 4 adverse events in any study group.There was no evidence of a difference in follow-up CD4 count at study termination (MD -6.31 cells/mm<sup3</sup, 95% CI -72.76 to 60.14; participants = 176; studies = 3; I<sup2</sup = 0%; low quality evidence). Only one study evaluated quality of life score (MD 3.60, 95% CI -0.38 to 7.58; participants = 87; studies = 1; very low quality evidence), due to the poor quality evidence we could not draw conclusions for this outcome.There were few studies comparing different antidepressant classes. We are uncertain if SSRIs differ from TCAs with regard to improvement in depression as evaluated by HAM-D score (MD -3.20, 95% CI -10.87 to 4.47; participants = 14; studies = 1; very low quality evidence). There was some evidence that mirtazapine resulted in a greater improvement in depression compared to an SSRI (MD 9.00, 95% CI 3.61 to 14.39; participants = 70; studies = 1; low quality evidence); however, this finding was not consistent for all measures of improvement in depression for this comparison.No studies reported on virological suppression or any other HIV specific outcomes.The studies included in this review had an overall unclear or high risk of bias due to under-reporting of study methods, high risk of attrition bias and inadequate sequence generation methods. Heterogeneity between studies and the limited number of participants, and events lead to downgrading of the quality of the evidence for several outcomes. This review demonstrates that antidepressant therapy may be more beneficial than placebo for the treatment of depression in PLWH. The low quality of the evidence contributing to this assessment and the lack of studies representing PLWH from generalized epidemics in low- to middle-income countries make the relevance of these finding in today's context limited. Future studies that evaluate the effectiveness of antidepressant therapy should be designed and conducted rigorously. Such studies should incorporate evaluation of stepped care models and health system strengthening interventions in the study design. In addition, outcomes related to HIV care and antiretroviral therapy should be reported.

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Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has been recognised as a global health concern, and one of the leading causes of morbidity and mortality worldwide. Projections of the World Health Organization (WHO) indicate that prevalence rates of COPD continue to increase, and by 2030, it will become the world's third leading cause of death. Depression is a major comorbidity amongst patients with COPD, with an estimate prevalence of up to 80% in severe stages of COPD. Prevalence studies show that patients who have COPD are four times as likely to develop depression compared to those without COPD. Regrettably, they rarely receive appropriate treatment for COPD-related depression. Available findings from trials indicate that untreated depression is associated with worse compliance with medical treatment, poor quality of life, increased mortality rates, increased hospital admissions and readmissions, prolonged length of hospital stay, and subsequently, increased costs to the healthcare system. Given the burden and high prevalence of untreated depression, it is important to evaluate and update existing experimental evidence using rigorous methodology, and to identify effective psychological therapies for patients with COPD-related depression. To assess the effectiveness of psychological therapies for the treatment of depression in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. We searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL) (2018, Issue 11), and Ovid MEDLINE, Embase and PsycINFO from June 2016 to 26 November 2018. Previously these databases were searched via the Cochrane Airways and Common Mental Disorders Groups' Specialised Trials Registers (all years to June 2016). We searched ClinicalTrials.gov, the ISRCTN registry, and the World Health Organization International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) to 26 November 2018 to identify unpublished or ongoing trials. Additionally, the grey literature databases and the reference lists of studies initially identified for full-text screening were also searched. Eligible for inclusion were randomised controlled trials that compared the use of psychological therapies with either no intervention, education, or combined with a co-intervention and compared with the same co-intervention in a population of patients with COPD whose depressive symptoms were measured before or at baseline assessment. Two review authors independently assessed the titles and abstracts identified by the search to determine which studies satisfied the inclusion criteria. We assessed two primary outcomes: depressive symptoms and adverse events; and the following secondary outcomes: quality of life, dyspnoea, forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<sub1</sub), exercise tolerance, hospital length of stay or readmission rate, and cost-effectiveness. Potentially eligible full-text articles were also independently assessed by two review authors. A PRISMA flow diagram was prepared to demonstrate the decision process in detail. We used the Cochrane 'Risk of bias' evaluation tool to examine the risk of bias, and assessed the quality of evidence using the GRADE framework. All outcomes were continuous, therefore, we calculated the pooled standardised mean difference (SMD) or mean difference (MD) with a corresponding 95% confidence interval (CI). We used a random-effects model to calculate treatment effects. The findings are based on 13 randomised controlled trials (RCTs), with a total of 1500 participants. In some of the included studies, the investigators did not recruit participants with clinically confirmed depression but applied screening criteria after randomisation. Hence, across the studies, baseline scores for depressive symptoms varied from no symptoms to severe depression. The severity of COPD across the studies was moderate to severe.Primary outcomesThere was a small effect showing the effectiveness of psychological therapies in improving depressive symptoms when compared to no intervention (SMD 0.19, 95% CI 0.05 to 0.33; P = 0.009; 6 studies, 764 participants), or to education (SMD 0.23, 95% CI 0.06 to 0.41; P = 0.010; 3 studies, 507 participants).Two studies compared psychological therapies plus a co-intervention versus the co-intervention alone (i.e. pulmonary rehabilitation (PR)). The results suggest that a psychological therapy combined with a PR programme can reduce depressive symptoms more than a PR programme alone (SMD 0.37, 95% CI -0.00 to 0.74; P = 0.05; 2 studies, 112 participants).We rated the quality of evidence as very low. Owing to the nature of psychological therapies, blinding of participants, personnel, and outcome assessment was a concern.None of the included studies measured adverse events.Secondary outcomesQuality of life was measured in four studies in the comparison with no intervention, and in three studies in the comparison with education. We found inconclusive results for improving quality of life. However, when we pooled data from two studies using the same measure, the result suggested that psychological therapy improved quality of life better than no intervention. One study measured hospital admission rates and cost-effectiveness and showed significant reductions in the intervention group compared to the education group. We rated the quality of evidence as very low for the secondary outcomes. The findings from this review indicate that psychological therapies (using a CBT-based approach) may be effective for treating COPD-related depression, but the evidence is limited. Depressive symptoms improved more in the intervention groups compared to: 1) no intervention (attention placebo or standard care), 2) educational interventions, and 3) a co-intervention (pulmonary rehabilitation). However, the effect sizes were small and quality of the evidence very low due to clinical heterogeneity and risk of bias. This means that more experimental studies with larger numbers of participants are needed, to confirm the potential beneficial effects of therapies with a CBT approach for COPD-related depression.New trials should also address the gap in knowledge related to limited data on adverse effects, and the secondary outcomes of quality of life, dyspnoea, forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV<sub1</sub), exercise tolerance, hospital length of stay and frequency of readmissions, and cost-effectiveness. Also, new research studies need to adhere to robust methodology to produce higher quality evidence.

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Frequent consumption of excess amounts of sugar-sweetened beverages (SSB) is a risk factor for obesity, type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease and dental caries. Environmental interventions, i.e. interventions that alter the physical or social environment in which individuals make beverage choices, have been advocated as a means to reduce the consumption of SSB. To assess the effects of environmental interventions (excluding taxation) on the consumption of sugar-sweetened beverages and sugar-sweetened milk, diet-related anthropometric measures and health outcomes, and on any reported unintended consequences or adverse outcomes. We searched 11 general, specialist and regional databases from inception to 24 January 2018. We also searched trial registers, reference lists and citations, scanned websites of relevant organisations, and contacted study authors. We included studies on interventions implemented at an environmental level, reporting effects on direct or indirect measures of SSB intake, diet-related anthropometric measures and health outcomes, or any reported adverse outcome. We included randomised controlled trials (RCTs), non-randomised controlled trials (NRCTs), controlled before-after (CBA) and interrupted-time-series (ITS) studies, implemented in real-world settings with a combined length of intervention and follow-up of at least 12 weeks and at least 20 individuals in each of the intervention and control groups. We excluded studies in which participants were administered SSB as part of clinical trials, and multicomponent interventions which did not report SSB-specific outcome data. We excluded studies on the taxation of SSB, as these are the subject of a separate Cochrane Review. Two review authors independently screened studies for inclusion, extracted data and assessed the risks of bias of included studies. We classified interventions according to the NOURISHING framework, and synthesised results narratively and conducted meta-analyses for two outcomes relating to two intervention types. We assessed our confidence in the certainty of effect estimates with the GRADE framework as very low, low, moderate or high, and presented 'Summary of findings' tables. We identified 14,488 unique records, and assessed 1030 in full text for eligibility. We found 58 studies meeting our inclusion criteria, including 22 RCTs, 3 NRCTs, 14 CBA studies, and 19 ITS studies, with a total of 1,180,096 participants. The median length of follow-up was 10 months. The studies included children, teenagers and adults, and were implemented in a variety of settings, including schools, retailing and food service establishments. We judged most studies to be at high or unclear risk of bias in at least one domain, and most studies used non-randomised designs. The studies examine a broad range of interventions, and we present results for these separately.Labelling interventions (8 studies): We found moderate-certainty evidence that traffic-light labelling is associated with decreasing sales of SSBs, and low-certainty evidence that nutritional rating score labelling is associated with decreasing sales of SSBs. For menu-board calorie labelling reported effects on SSB sales varied.Nutrition standards in public institutions (16 studies): We found low-certainty evidence that reduced availability of SSBs in schools is associated with decreased SSB consumption. We found very low-certainty evidence that improved availability of drinking water in schools and school fruit programmes are associated with decreased SSB consumption. Reported associations between improved availability of drinking water in schools and student body weight varied.Economic tools (7 studies): We found moderate-certainty evidence that price increases on SSBs are associated with decreasing SSB sales. For price discounts on low-calorie beverages reported effects on SSB sales varied.Whole food supply interventions (3 studies): Reported associations between voluntary industry initiatives to improve the whole food supply and SSB sales varied.Retail and food service interventions (7 studies): We found low-certainty evidence that healthier default beverages in children's menus in chain restaurants are associated with decreasing SSB sales, and moderate-certainty evidence that in-store promotion of healthier beverages in supermarkets is associated with decreasing SSB sales. We found very low-certainty evidence that urban planning restrictions on new fast-food restaurants and restrictions on the number of stores selling SSBs in remote communities are associated with decreasing SSB sales. Reported associations between promotion of healthier beverages in vending machines and SSB intake or sales varied.Intersectoral approaches (8 studies): We found moderate-certainty evidence that government food benefit programmes with restrictions on purchasing SSBs are associated with decreased SSB intake. For unrestricted food benefit programmes reported effects varied. We found moderate-certainty evidence that multicomponent community campaigns focused on SSBs are associated with decreasing SSB sales. Reported associations between trade and investment liberalisation and SSB sales varied.Home-based interventions (7 studies): We found moderate-certainty evidence that improved availability of low-calorie beverages in the home environment is associated with decreased SSB intake, and high-certainty evidence that it is associated with decreased body weight among adolescents with overweight or obesity and a high baseline consumption of SSBs.Adverse outcomes reported by studies, which may occur in some circumstances, included negative effects on revenue, compensatory SSB consumption outside school when the availability of SSBs in schools is reduced, reduced milk intake, stakeholder discontent, and increased total energy content of grocery purchases with price discounts on low-calorie beverages, among others. The certainty of evidence on adverse outcomes was low to very low for most outcomes.We analysed interventions targeting sugar-sweetened milk separately, and found low- to moderate-certainty evidence that emoticon labelling and small prizes for the selection of healthier beverages in elementary school cafeterias are associated with decreased consumption of sugar-sweetened milk. We found low-certainty evidence that improved placement of plain milk in school cafeterias is not associated with decreasing sugar-sweetened milk consumption. The evidence included in this review indicates that effective, scalable interventions addressing SSB consumption at a population level exist. Implementation should be accompanied by high-quality evaluations using appropriate study designs, with a particular focus on the long-term effects of approaches suitable for large-scale implementation.

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Tobacco use is the leading cause of preventable disease, disability, and death in the United States. Most tobacco product use begins during adolescence. In recent years, tobacco products have evolved to include various smoked, smokeless, and electronic products. 2019. The National Youth Tobacco Survey (NYTS) is an annual, cross-sectional, school-based, self-administered survey of U.S. middle school (grades 6-8) and high school (grades 9-12) students. A three-stage cluster sampling procedure is used to generate a nationally representative sample of U.S. students attending public and private schools. NYTS is the only nationally representative survey of U.S. middle and high school students that focuses exclusively on tobacco use patterns and associated factors. NYTS is designed to provide national data on tobacco product use and has been conducted periodically during 1999-2009 and annually since 2011. Data from NYTS are used to support the design, implementation, and evaluation of comprehensive tobacco use prevention and control programs and to inform tobacco regulatory activities. Since its inception in 1999 through 2018, NYTS had been conducted via paper and pencil questionnaires. In 2019, NYTS for the first time was administered in schools using electronic data collection methods. CDC's Office on Smoking and Health, in collaboration with the U.S. Food and Drug Administration's (FDA's) Center for Tobacco Products, analyzed data from the 2019 NYTS to assess tobacco product use patterns and associated factors among U.S. middle and high school students. Overall, 19,018 questionnaires were completed and weighted to represent approximately 27.0 million students. On the basis of self-reported grade level, this included 8,837 middle school questionnaires (11.9 million students) and 10,097 high school questionnaires (15.0 million students); 84 questionnaires with missing information on grade level were excluded from school-level analyses. In 2019, an estimated 53.3% of high school students (8.0 million) and 24.3% of middle school students (2.9 million) reported having ever tried a tobacco product. Current (past 30-day) use of a tobacco product (i.e., electronic cigarettes [e-cigarettes], cigarettes, cigars, smokeless tobacco, hookahs, pipe tobacco, and bidis [small brown cigarettes wrapped in a leaf]) was reported by 31.2% of high school students (4.7 million) and 12.5% of middle school students (1.5 million). E-cigarettes were the most commonly cited tobacco product currently used by 27.5% of high school students (4.1 million) and 10.5% of middle school students (1.2 million), followed in order by cigars, cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, hookahs, and pipe tobacco. Tobacco product use also varied by sex and race/ethnicity. Among current users of each tobacco product, the prevalence of frequent tobacco product use (on ≥20 days of the preceding 30 days) ranged from 16.8% of cigar smokers to 34.1% of smokeless tobacco product users. Among current users of each individual tobacco product, e-cigarettes were the most commonly used flavored tobacco product (68.8% of current e-cigarette users). Among students who reported ever having tried e-cigarettes, the three most commonly selected reasons for use were "I was curious about them" (55.3%), "friend or family member used them" (30.8%), and "they are available in flavors, such as mint, candy, fruit, or chocolate" (22.4%). Among never users of each individual tobacco product, curiosity and susceptibility (a construct that can help to identify future tobacco product experimentation or use) was highest for e-cigarettes (39.1% and 45.0%, respectively) and cigarettes (37.0% and 45.9%, respectively). Overall, 86.3% of students who reported contact with an assessed potential source of tobacco product advertisements or promotions (going to a convenience store, supermarket, or gas station; using the Internet; watching television or streaming services or going to the movies; or reading newspapers or magazines) reported exposure to marketing for any tobacco product; 69.3% reported exposure to e-cigarette marketing and 81.7% reported exposure to marketing for cigarettes or other tobacco products. Among all students, perceiving no harm or little harm from intermittent tobacco product use (use on some days but not every day) was 28.2% for e-cigarettes, 16.4% for hookahs, 11.5% for smokeless tobacco products, and 9.5% for cigarettes. Among current users of any tobacco product, 24.7% reported experiencing cravings to use tobacco products during the past 30 days and 13.7% reported wanting to use a tobacco product within 30 minutes of waking. Moreover, 57.8% of current tobacco product users reported they were seriously thinking about quitting the use of all tobacco products and 57.5% reported they had stopped using all tobacco products for ≥1 day because they were trying to quit. In 2019, approximately one in four youths (23.0%) had used a tobacco product during the past 30 days. By school level, this represented approximately three in 10 high school students (31.2%) and approximately one in eight middle school students (12.5%). Since 2014, e-cigarettes have been the most commonly used tobacco product among youths. Importantly, more than half of current youth tobacco product users reported seriously thinking about quitting all tobacco products in 2019. However, established factors of use and initiation, including the availability of flavors, exposure to tobacco product marketing, curiosity and susceptibility, and misperceptions about harm from tobacco product use, remained prevalent in 2019 and continue to promote tobacco product use among youths. The continued monitoring of all forms of youth tobacco product use and associated factors through surveillance efforts including NYTS is important to the development of public health policy and action at national, state, and community levels. Everyone, including public health professionals, health care providers, policymakers, educators, parents, and others who influence youths, can help protect youths from the harms of all tobacco products. In addition, the comprehensive and sustained implementation of evidence-based tobacco control strategies, combined with FDA's regulation of tobacco products, is important for reducing all forms of tobacco product use among U.S. youths.

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Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is associated with significant morbidity and mortality in preterm infants. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are used to prevent or treat a PDA. There are concerns regarding adverse effects of NSAIDs in preterm infants. Controversy exists on whether early targeted treatment of a hemodynamically significant (hs) PDA improves clinical outcomes. To assess the effectiveness and safety of early treatment strategies versus expectant management for an hs-PDA in reducing mortality and morbidity in preterm infants. We used the standard search strategy of Cochrane Neonatal to search the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL 2019, Issue 6) in the Cochrane Library; MEDLINE via PubMed (1966 to 31 May 2019), Embase (1980 to 31 May 2019), and CINAHL (1982 to 31 May 2019). An updated search was run on 2 October 2020 in the following databases: CENTRAL via CRS Web and MEDLINE via Ovid. We searched clinical trial databases, conference proceedings, and the reference lists of retrieved articles for randomized controlled trials (RCT) and quasi-randomized trials. We included RCTs in which early pharmacological treatment, defined as treatment initiated within the first seven days after birth, was compared to no intervention, placebo or other non-pharmacological expectant management strategies for treatment of an hs-PDA in preterm (&lt; 37 weeks' postmenstrual age) or low birth weight (&lt; 2500 grams) infants. We performed data collection and analyses in accordance with the methods of Cochrane Neonatal. Our primary outcome was all-cause mortality during hospital stay. We used the GRADE approach to assess the certainty of evidence for selected clinical outcomes. We included 14 RCTs that enrolled 910 infants. Seven RCTs compared early treatment (defined as treatment initiated by seven days of age) versus expectant management and seven RCTs compared very early treatment (defined as treatment initiated by 72 hours of age) versus expectant management. No difference was demonstrated between early treatment versus expectant management (no treatment initiated within the first seven days after birth) for an hs-PDA for the primary outcome of 'all-cause mortality' (6 studies; 500 infants; typical RR 0.80, 95% CI 0.46 to 1.39; typical RD -0.02; 95% CI -0.07 to 0.03; moderate-certainty evidence), or other important outcomes such as surgical PDA ligation (4 studies; 432 infants; typical RR 1.08, 95% CI 0.65 to 1.80; typical RD -0.03; 95% CI -0.09 to 0.03; very low-certainty evidence), chronic lung disease (CLD) (4 studies; 339 infants; typical RR 0.90, 95% CI 0.62 to 1.29; typical RD -0.03; 95% CI -0.10 to 0.03; moderate-certainty evidence), severe intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) (2 studies; 171 infants; typical RR 0.83,95% CI 0.32 to 2.16; typical RD -0.01; 95% CI -0.08 to 0.06; low-certainty evidence), and necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) (5 studies; 473 infants; typical RR 2.34,95% CI 0.86 to 6.41; typical RD 0.04; 95% CI 0.01 to 0.08; low-certainty evidence). Infants receiving early treatment in the first seven days after birth were more likely to receive any PDA pharmacotherapy compared to expectant management (2 studies; 232 infants; typical RR 2.30, 95% CI 1.86 to 2.83; typical RD 0.57; 95% CI 0.48 to 0.66; low-certainty evidence). No difference was demonstrated between very early treatment versus expectant management (no treatment initiated within the first 72 hours after birth) for an hs-PDA for the primary outcome of 'all-cause mortality' (7 studies; 384 infants; typical RR 0.94, 95% CI 0.58 to 1.53; typical RD -0.03; 95% CI -0.09 to 0.04; moderate-certainty evidence) or other important outcomes such as surgical PDA ligation (5 studies; 293 infants; typical RR 0.88, 95% CI 0.36 to 2.17; typical RD -0.01; 95% CI -0.05 to 0.02; moderate-certainty evidence), CLD (7 studies; 384 infants; typical RR 0.83, 95% CI 0.63 to 1.08; typical RD -0.05; 95% CI -0.13 to 0.04; low-certainty evidence), severe IVH (4 studies, 240 infants; typical RR 0.64, 95% CI 0.21 to 1.93; typical RD -0.02; 95% CI -0.07 to 0.04; moderate-certainty evidence), NEC (5 studies; 332 infants; typical RR 1.08, 95% CI 0.53 to 2.21; typical RD 0.01; 95% CI -0.04 to 0.06; moderate-certainty evidence) and neurodevelopmental impairment (1 study; 79 infants; RR 0.27, 95% CI 0.03 to 2.31 for moderate/severe cognitive delay at 18 to 24 months; RR 0.54, 95% CI 0.05 to 5.71 for moderate/severe motor delay at 18 to 24 months; RR 0.54, 95% CI 0.10 to 2.78 for moderate/severe language delay at 18 to 24 months; low-certainty evidence). Infants receiving very early treatment in the first 72 hours after birth were more likely to receive any PDA pharmacotherapy compared to expectant management (4 studies; 156 infants; typical RR 1.64, 95% CI 1.31 to 2.05; typical RD 0.69; 95% CI 0.60 to 0.79; very low-certainty evidence). Very early treatment, however, shortened the duration of hospitalization compared to expectant management (4 studies; 260 infants; MD -5.35 days; 95% CI -9.23 to -1.47; low-certainty evidence). Early or very early pharmacotherapeutic treatment of an hs-PDA probably does not reduce mortality in preterm infants (moderate-certainty evidence). Early pharmacotherapeutic treatment of hs-PDA may increase NSAID exposure (low-certainty evidence) without likely reducing CLD (moderate-certainty evidence), severe IVH or NEC (low-certainty evidence). We are uncertain whether very early pharmacotherapeutic treatment of hs-PDA also increases NSAID exposure (very low-certainty evidence). Very early treatment probably does not reduce surgical PDA ligation, severe IVH or NEC (moderate-certainty evidence), and may not reduce CLD or neurodevelopmental impairment (low-certainty evidence). Additional large trials that specifically include preterm infants at the highest risk of PDA-attributable morbidity, are adequately powered for patient-important outcomes and are minimally contaminated by open-label treatment are required to explore if early targeted treatment of hs-PDA improves clinical outcomes. There are currently two trials awaiting classification and two ongoing trials exploring this question.

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Studies evaluating mass drug administration (MDA) in malarious areas have shown reductions in malaria immediately following the intervention. However, these effects vary by endemicity and are not sustained. Since the 2013 version of this Cochrane Review on this topic, additional studies have been published. Primary objectives To assess the sustained effect of MDA with antimalarial drugs on: - the reduction in malaria transmission in moderate- to high-transmission settings; - the interruption of transmission in very low- to low-transmission settings. Secondary objective To summarize the risk of drug-associated adverse effects following MDA. We searched several trial registries, citation databases, conference proceedings, and reference lists for relevant articles up to 11 February 2021. We also communicated with researchers to identify additional published and unpublished studies. Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and non-randomized studies comparing MDA to no MDA with balanced co-interventions across study arms and at least two geographically distinct sites per study arm. Two review authors independently assessed trials for eligibility and extracted data. We calculated relative risk (RR) and rate ratios with corresponding 95% confidence intervals (CIs) to compare prevalence and incidence, respectively, in MDA compared to no-MDA groups. We stratified analyses by malaria transmission and by malaria species. For cluster-randomized controlled trials (cRCTs), we adjusted standard errors using the intracluster correlation coefficient. We assessed the certainty of the evidence using the GRADE approach. For non-randomized controlled before-and-after (CBA) studies, we summarized the data using difference-in-differences (DiD) analyses. Thirteen studies met our criteria for inclusion. Ten were cRCTs and three were CBAs. Cluster-randomized controlled trials Moderate- to high-endemicity areas (prevalence ≥ 10%) We included data from two studies conducted in The Gambia and Zambia.  At one to three months after MDA, the Plasmodium falciparum (hereafter, P falciparum) parasitaemia prevalence estimates may be higher compared to control but the CIs included no effect (RR 1.76, 95% CI 0.58 to 5.36; Zambia study; low-certainty evidence); parasitaemia incidence was probably lower (RR 0.61, 95% CI 0.40 to 0.92; The Gambia study; moderate-certainty evidence); and confirmed malaria illness incidence may be substantially lower,  but the CIs included no effect (rate ratio 0.41, 95% CI 0.04 to 4.42; Zambia study; low-certainty evidence).  At four to six months after MDA, MDA showed little or no effect on P falciparum parasitaemia prevalence (RR 1.18, 95% CI 0.89 to 1.56; The Gambia study; moderate-certainty evidence) and, no persisting effect was demonstrated with parasitaemia incidence (rate ratio 0.91, 95% CI 0.55 to 1.50; The Gambia study). Very low- to low-endemicity areas (prevalence &lt; 10%) Seven studies from Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar (two studies), Vietnam, Zambia, and Zanzibar evaluated the effects of multiple rounds of MDA on P falciparum. Immediately following MDA (less than one month after MDA), parasitaemia prevalence was reduced (RR 0.12, 95% CI 0.03 to 0.52; one study; low-certainty evidence). At one to three months after MDA, there was a reduction in both parasitaemia incidence (rate ratio 0.37, 95% CI 0.21 to 0.55; 1 study; moderate-certainty evidence) and prevalence (RR 0.25, 95% CI 0.15 to 0.41; 7 studies; low-certainty evidence). For confirmed malaria incidence, absolute rates were low, and it is uncertain whether MDA had an effect on this outcome (rate ratio 0.58, 95% CI 0.12 to 2.73; 2 studies; very low-certainty evidence).  For P falciparum prevalence, the relative differences declined over time, from RR 0.63 (95% CI 0.36 to 1.12; 4 studies) at four to six months after MDA, to RR 0.86 (95% CI 0.55 to 1.36; 5 studies) at 7 to 12 months after MDA. Longer-term prevalence estimates showed overall low absolute risks, and relative effect estimates of the effect of MDA on prevalence varied from RR 0.82 (95% CI 0.20 to 3.34) at 13 to 18 months after MDA, to RR 1.25 (95% CI 0.25 to 6.31) at 31 to 36 months after MDA in one study. Five studies from Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar (2 studies), and Vietnam evaluated the effect of MDA on Plasmodium vivax (hereafter, P vivax). One month following MDA, P vivax prevalence was lower (RR 0.18, 95% CI 0.08 to 0.40; 1 study; low-certainty evidence). At one to three months after MDA, there was a reduction in P vivax prevalence (RR 0.15, 95% CI 0.10 to 0.24; 5 studies; low-certainty evidence). The immediate reduction on P vivax prevalence was not sustained over time, from RR 0.78 (95% CI 0.63 to 0.95; 4 studies) at four to six months after MDA, to RR 1.12 (95% CI 0.94 to 1.32; 5 studies) at 7 to 12 months after MDA. One of the studies in Myanmar provided estimates of longer-term effects, where overall absolute risks were low, ranging from RR 0.81 (95% CI 0.44 to 1.48) at 13 to 18 months after MDA, to RR 1.20 (95% CI 0.44 to 3.29) at 31 to 36 months after MDA. Non-randomized studies Three CBA studies were conducted in moderate- to high-transmission areas in Burkina Faso, Kenya, and Nigeria. There was a reduction in P falciparum parasitaemia prevalence in MDA groups compared to control groups during MDA (DiD range: -15.8 to -61.4 percentage points), but the effect varied at one to three months after MDA (DiD range: 14.9 to -41.1 percentage points).  AUTHORS' CONCLUSIONS: In moderate- to high-transmission settings, no studies reported important effects on P falciparum parasitaemia prevalence within six months after MDA. In very low- to low-transmission settings, parasitaemia prevalence and incidence were reduced initially for up to three months for both P falciparum and P vivax; longer-term data did not demonstrate an effect after four months, but absolute risks in both intervention and control groups were low. No studies provided evidence of interruption of malaria transmission.

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The demand for residential aged care is increasing due to the ageing population. Optimising the design or adapting the physical environment of residential aged care facilities has the potential to influence quality of life, mood and function. To assess the effects of changes to the physical environment, which include alternative models of residential aged care such as a 'home-like' model of care (where residents live in small living units) on quality of life, behaviour, mood and depression and function in older people living in residential aged care. CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase, six other databases and two trial registries were searched on 11 February 2021. Reference lists and grey literature sources were also searched. Non-randomised trials, repeated measures or interrupted time series studies and controlled before-after studies with a comparison group were included. Interventions which had modified the physical design of a care home or built a care home with an alternative model of residential aged care (including design alterations) in order to enhance the environment to promote independence and well-being were included. Studies which examined quality of life or outcomes related to quality of life were included. Two reviewers independently assessed the abstracts identified in the search and the full texts of all retrieved studies. Two reviewers independently extracted data, assessed the risk of bias in each included study and evaluated the certainty of evidence according to GRADE criteria. Where possible, data were represented in forest plots and pooled. Twenty studies were included with 77,265 participants, although one large study included the majority of participants (n = 74,449). The main comparison was home-like models of care incorporating changes to the scale of the building which limit the capacity of the living units to smaller numbers of residents and encourage the participation of residents with domestic activities and a person-centred care approach, compared to traditional designs which may include larger-scale buildings with a larger number of residents, hospital-like features such as nurses' stations, traditional hierarchical organisational structures and design which prioritises safety. Six controlled before-after studies compared the home-like model and the traditional environment (75,074 participants), but one controlled before-after study included 74,449 of the participants (estimated on weighting). It is uncertain whether home-like models improve health-related quality of life, behaviour, mood and depression, function or serious adverse effects compared to traditional designs because the certainty of the evidence is very low. The certainty of the evidence was downgraded from low-certainty to very low-certainty for all outcomes due to very serious concerns due to risk of bias, and also serious concerns due to imprecision for outcomes with more than 400 participants. One controlled before-after study examined the effect of home-like models on quality of life. The author stated "No statistically significant differences were observed between the intervention and control groups." Three studies reported on global behaviour (N = 257). One study found little or no difference in global behaviour change at six months using the Neuropsychiatric Inventory where lower scores indicate fewer behavioural symptoms (mean difference (MD) -0.04 (95% confidence interval (CI) -0.13 to 0.04, n = 164)), and two additional studies (N = 93) examined global behaviour, but these were unsuitable for determining a summary effect estimate. Two controlled before-after studies examined the effect of home-like models of care compared to traditional design on depression. After 18 months, one study (n = 242) reported an increase in the rate of depressive symptoms (rate ratio 1.15 (95% CI 1.02 to 1.29)), but the effect of home-like models of care on the probability of no depressive symptoms was uncertain (odds ratio 0.36 (95% CI 0.12 to 1.07)). One study (n = 164) reported little or no difference in depressive symptoms at six months using the Revised Memory and Behaviour Problems Checklist where lower scores indicate fewer depressive symptoms (MD 0.01 (95% CI -0.12 to 0.14)). Four controlled before-after studies examined function. One study (n = 242) reported little or no difference in function over 18 months using the Activities of Daily Living long-form scale where lower scores indicate better function (MD -0.09 (95% CI -0.46 to 0.28)), and one study (n = 164) reported better function scores at six months using the Interview for the Deterioration of Daily Living activities in Dementia where lower scores indicate better function (MD -4.37 (95% CI -7.06 to -1.69)). Two additional studies measured function but could not be included in the quantitative analysis. One study examined serious adverse effects (physical restraints), and reported a slight reduction in the important outcome of physical restraint use in a home-like model of care compared to a traditional design (MD between the home-like model of care and traditional design -0.3% (95% CI -0.5% to -0.1%), estimate weighted n = 74,449 participants at enrolment).  The remaining studies examined smaller design interventions including refurbishment without changes to the scale of the building, special care units for people with dementia, group living corridors compared to a non-corridor design, lighting interventions, dining area redesign and a garden vignette. There is currently insufficient evidence on which to draw conclusions about the impact of physical environment design changes for older people living in residential aged care. Outcomes directly associated with the design of the built environment in a supported setting are difficult to isolate from other influences such as health changes of the residents, changes to care practices over time or different staff providing care across shifts. Cluster-randomised trials may be feasible for studies of refurbishment or specific design components within residential aged care. Studies which use a non-randomised design or cluster-randomised trials should consider approaches to reduce risk of bias to improve the certainty of evidence.

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General review of the taxonomy and composition of the subfamily Cillaeinae with description of Conotelini trib. nov. (type genus: Conotelus Erichson, 1843 with some necessary notes on the position and rank of some recent and fossil taxa are given. The rank of the following supraspecific taxa are changed: former subgenus Paracillaeopsis Kirejtshuk, 2001 is now regarded as a separate genus (stat. nov.) and former genus Grouvellepeplus Kirejtshuk, 2001 is considered to be a subgenus (stat. nov.) of the genus Liparopeplus Murray, 1864. There is completed a revision of all cillaeine genera and species found in Australia and some others from adjacent territories, including the genera Adocimus Murray, 1864 with new subgenus Belonotus subgen. nov. (type species: Adocimus (Belonotus) bartenevi sp. nov.), Allenipeplus Kirejtshuk et Kovalev 2016, Brachypeplus Erichson, 1842, Brittonoma Kirejtshuk et Kovalev, 2016, Caledomus Kirejtshuk et Kovalev, 2017, Cillaeopeplus, Ithyphenes Murray, 1864, Laferollaeus gen. nov. (type species: Laferollaeus angustissimus sp. nov.), Matthewsianus gen. nov. (type species: Brachypeplus olliffi Blackburn, 1902), Onicotis Murray, 1864 and Oniphenes gen. nov. (type species: Oniphenes lobanovi sp. nov.). The following new species are described: Adocimus (Belonotus) bartenevi sp. nov., Brachypeplus instriatus sp. nov. B. makarovi sp. nov., B. nypicola sp. nov., Cillaeopeplus rectinotus sp. nov., C. temporalibus sp. nov., Ithyphenes australiaensis sp. nov., I. marinae sp. nov., I. rectifrons sp. nov., Matthewsianus polinae sp. nov., Oniphenes bicoloratus sp. nov., O, lobanovi sp. nov. and O. subunicolor sp. nov. The systematic placement is re-defined for the following species: Adocimus (Belonotus) modiglianii (Grouvelle, 1897), comb. nov. (former Cillaeus Laporte, 1835), A. (B.) nitidulus (Grouvelle, 1897), comb. nov. (former Brachypeplus), Brachypeplus cascus Powell et Cline, 2021, comb. nov. (former Palaeopeplus Powell et Cline, 2021), Brittonoma mandibulare (Kirejtshuk, 2011), comb. nov. and B. pygidiatum (Kirejtshuk, 2011), comb. nov. (former Brittonema Kirejtshuk, 2011), Campsopyga xanthura (Murray, 1864), comb. nov. (former Hypodetus Murray, 1864), Cillaeopeplus rastrus (Gillogly, 1962), comb. nov. (former Cillaeus), Ithyphenes angustus (Grouvelle, 1917), comb. nov. (former Platynema Ritsema, 1885), I. breviceps (Murray, 1864), comb. nov. (former Orthogramma Murray, 1864), I. dentipes (Murray, 1864), comb. nov. (former Orthogramma), I. fissiceps (Murray, 1864), comb. nov. (former Orthogramma), I. fuscipennis (Murray, 1864), comb. nov. (former Orthogramma), I. japonicus (Hisamatsu, 1985), comb. nov. (former Platynema), I. longiceps (Murray, 1864), comb. nov. (former Orthogramma), I. olliffi (Ritsema, 1885), comb. nov. (former Platynema), I. planiceps (Murray, 1864), comb. nov. (former Orthogramma), I. puncticeps (Murray, 1864), comb. nov. (former Orthogramma), I. ritsemai (Grouvelle, 1897), comb. nov. (former Orthogramma), I. saundersii (Murray, 1864), comb. nov. (former Orthogramma) and Matthewsianus olliffi (Blackburn, 1902), comb. nov., (former Brachypeplus). The following generic and species names are considered to be junior synonyms (senior synonym listed first): Brachypeplus Erichson, 1842 = Palaeopeplus Powell et Cline, 2021, syn. nov.; Ithyphenes Murray, 1864 = Platynema Ritsema, 1885, syn. nov.; Adocimus bellus Murray, 1864 = A. nigripennis Reitter, 1880, syn. nov. and A. dimidiatus Reitter, 1877, syn. nov.; Nitidulopsis aequalis Walker, 1858 = Brachypeplus (Selis) pallidus Dasgupta et Pal, 2019, syn. nov. and B. (S.) riang Dasgupta, Pal et Hodge, 2015, syn. nov.; Brachypeplus (Brachypeplus) obesus Grouvelle, 1895 = B. (B.) arengae Kirejtshuk, 1994, syn. nov. and very probably B. (B.) registernus Dasgupta et Pal, 2019; Brachypeplus (Selis) apicalis Murray, 1864 = B. (S.) fimbriatus Reitter, 1880, syn. nov.; B. (S.) dorsalis Grouvelle, 1897 = B. (S.) decoratus Grouvelle, 1917, syn. nov. and very probably B. (S.) ornatus Grouvelle, 1914; Brachypeplus (Tasmus) basalis: Murray, 1864 = B. (T.) brevicornis Sharp, 1878, syn. nov.; Brachypeplus (Tasmus) binotatus Murray, 1864 = B. cowleyi Blackburn, 1902, syn. nov. = B. koebelei Blackburn, 1902 and B. murrayi Macleay, 1873, syn. nov.; Brachypeplus kemblensis Blackburn, 1902 = Brachypeplus mauli Gardner et Clasey, 1962, syn. nov.; Brachypeplus (Brachypeplus) macLeayi Murray, 1864 = B. inquilinus Lea 1912, syn. nov.; Brachypeplus olliffi Blackburn, 1902 = B. insignis Lea, 1925, syn. nov. Because of insufficiency of available material the synonymy of Brachypeplus (Brachypeplus) nitidulus Grouvelle, 1897 and Cillaeus modiglianii Grouvelle, 1897 (currently both in Adocimus (Belanotus subgen. nov.)) is considered preliminary. The recent studies of additional specimens make it possible to consider Brachypeplus apicalis Murray, 1864 and B. dorsalis Grouvelle, 1897 (previously synonymized by Kirejtshuk, 2005) as separate species. The lectotypes of the following species are designated: Adocimus nigripennis Reitter, 1880, Brachypeplus barronensis Blackburn, 1902, B. basalis Erichson, 1842, B. Cowleyi Blackburn, 1902, B. inquilinus Lea, 1912, B. insignis Lea, 1925, B. kemblensis Blackburn, 1902, B. Koebelei Blackburn, 1902, B. Murrayi Macleay, 1873, B. Olliffi Blackburn, 1902, B. planus Erichson, 1842, B. wattsensis Blackburn, 1902, B. xanthorrhoeae Lea, 1925, Brachypeplus (Brachypeplus) nitidulus Grouvelle, 1897, B. (B.) obesus Grouvelle, 1895, B. (Selis) apicalis Murray, 1864, B. (S.) caudalis Murray, 1864, B. (S.) dorsalis Grouvelle, 1897, B. (S.) fimbriatus Reitter, 1880, B. (Tasmus) binotatus Murray, 1864, B. (T.) blandus Murray, 1864, B. (T.) brevicornis Sharp, 1878, Cillaeus Modiglianii Grouvelle, 1897, Ithyphenes Bouchardi Grouvelle, 1907, I. Gestroi Reitter, 1880, Brachypeplus (Onicotis) auritus Murray, 1864, Orthogramma breviceps Murray, 1864, O. dentipes Murray, 1864. O. fuscipennis Murray, 1864 and Platynema Olliffi Ritsema, 1885 are designated. The composition of the genus Ithyphenes and synonymy of the names proposed for it (Orthogramma Murray, 1864, nec R.L., 1817 et Guene, 1852 and Platynema) are discussed and substantiated. The erroneous identification of Brachypeplus macleayi invasive pest of bees in U.S.A. is corrected (Sagili et al. 2016 published these data with the wrong name Brachypeplus basalis). The mature larvae of Brachypeplus aff. instriatus sp. nov. and Onicotis auritus are described. The key to genera of the cillaeine genera from Australia and adjacent territories, and also keys to Australian and Tasmanian species of the genera Brachypeplus, Ithyphenes and Oniphenes gen. nov. are presented.

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To evaluate the clinical presentation and polysomnography of prepubertal children with repetitive sleep terrors and sleepwalking, to compare them with a control group, and to evaluate the treatment of associated sleep disorders. Patients with complaint of sleep terrors with or without sleepwalking were studied retrospectively. A control group was also recruited. Each subject received a standardized evaluation, which included the following: 1) Pediatric Sleep Questionnaire; 2) interview regarding child's medical and sociofamilial history, orthodontic history, schooling, psychological difficulties, medication intake, and family history of medical and sleep disorders; 3) general pediatric physical examination and neurologic, otolaryngological, and craniofacial examination by a specialist; 4) obtaining medical history on variables relevant to early life sleep disorders; 5) polysomnography, which included electroencephalogram (EEG; C3/A2, Fp1/T1, T1/O1, O1/C3, C4/A1, Fp2/T2, T2/O2, O2/C4), chin and leg electromyelogram, right and left electro-oculogram, and electrocardiogram (modified V2 lead); respiration was monitored with a nasal cannula/pressure transducer system, mouth thermistor, chest and abdominal bands, pulse oximeter, and neck microphone; respiratory effort was monitored with calibrated esophageal manometry; variables were collected on a computerized sleep system; and 6) available family members with a positive history of sleep terrors and sleepwalking received clinical evaluations similar to those used for index cases; they also underwent ambulatory monitoring with an Edentrace system, which monitors heart rate, body position, oro-nasal flow, chest impedance, breathing noises (neck microphone), and pulse oximetry. Movements are deduced from artifact, and leg movements may be recorded on one channel if the equipment is preset for such recording. Subjects used logs to record "lights out" time, "lights on" time, nocturnal awakenings, and other events that occurred during the night. All original and follow-up recordings were rescored by 2 of 4 randomly selected specialists who were blind to subject identity. Mann-Whitney U test was used for group comparison. Nonparametric chi2 test was used to compare percentages of symptoms in symptomatic children versus control children. Eighty-four children (5 with sleep terrors and 79 with both sleep terrors and sleepwalking) and 36 normal control children formed the studied population. All subjects were Tanner stage 1 (prepubertal). None of the control children had any parasomnias. Fifty-one (61%) of 84 children with parasomnia had a diagnosis of an additional sleep disorder: 49 with sleep-disordered breathing (SDB) and 2 with restless leg syndrome (RLS). Twenty-nine of the children with both parasomnia and SDB had a positive family history of parasomnias, and 24 of the 29 also had a positive family history of SDB. Of the 51 children with associated sleep disorders, 45 were treated. Forty-three of 49 children with SDB were treated with tonsillectomy, adenoidectomy, and/or turbinate revision, and 2 of 2 children with RLS were treated with Pramipexole, a dopamine agonist, at bedtime. Treatment of the precipitating sleep disorder eliminated parasomnias in all 45 children. In all 43 children who received surgery, polysomnography performed 3 to 4 months later indicated the disappearance of SDB. The recordings also showed an absence of confusional arousals. The number of EEG arousals significantly decreased from a mean of 9 +/- 2.6 EEG arousals &gt; or =3 seconds/hour during total sleep time to 3 +/- 1.5. The number of EEG arousals &gt; or =3 seconds during the first sleep cycle of slow wave sleep (stage 3-4 non-rapid eye movement sleep) decreased from 4 +/- 1.4 to 1 +/- 0.2. In all surgically treated cases, parents also reported subsequent absence of the parasomnia. The 2 symptomatic children who were treated with Pramipexole had a complete absence of confusional arousals on the follow-up recording and reported no parasomnia since treatment. The periodic limb movemia since treatment. The periodic limb movement syndrome arousal index (number of EEG arousals associated with periodic limb movement/hour) decreased from 11 and 16 to 0 and 0.2, respectively. Parasomnia persisted in the 6 children who were untreated for SDB. Surgeons had refused to perform surgery on these children because of lack of data on the relationship between parasomnia and SDB-related tonsil and adenoid enlargement. Children with chronic parasomnias may often also present SDB or, to a lesser extent, RLS. Furthermore, the disappearance of the parasomnias after the treatment of the SDB or RLS periodic limb movement syndrome suggests that the latter may trigger the former. The high frequency of SDB in family members of children with parasomnia provided additional evidence that SDB may manifest as parasomnias in children. Children with parasomnias are not systematically monitored during sleep, although past studies have suggested that patients with sleep terrors or sleepwalking have an elevated level of brief EEG arousals. When children receive polysomnographies, discrete patterns (eg, nasal flow limitation, abnormal respiratory effort, bursts of high theta or slow alpha EEG frequencies) should be sought; apneas are rarely found in children. Children's respiration during sleep should be monitored with nasal cannula/pressure transducer system and/or esophageal manometry, which are more sensitive than the thermistors or thermocouples currently used in many laboratories. The clear, prompt improvement of severe parasomnia in children who are treated for SDB, as defined here, provides important evidence that subtle SDB can have substantial health-related significance. Also noteworthy is the report of familial presence of parasomnia. Studies of twin cohorts and families with sleep terror and sleepwalking suggest genetic involvement of parasomnias. RLS and SDB have been shown to have familial recurrence. RLS has been shown to have genetic involvement. It remains to be investigated whether a genetic factor directly influences sleep terror and sleepwalking or instead influences other disorders that fragment sleep and lead to confusional arousals. Additional studies are needed to investigate the association between SDB and non-;rapid eye movement parasomnias in the general population.

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Research interest in children's understanding of the mind goes back as far as Piaget's claim that children are cognitively egocentric (Flavell, 2000). Many years later, research on the understanding of the mind was revived in a paper that sought evidence for a theory of mind, not for children but for chimpanzees (Premack &amp; Woodruff, 1978). The researchers claimed that chimpanzees' ability to predict what a human actor will do to achieve certain goals implies that the animal attributes mental states to the actor. This seminal paper generated a flurry of studies on theory of mind in nonhuman primates. A review of this research based on several different experimental paradigms concluded that chimpanzees understand others in terms of a perception-goal psychology (i.e., they can perceive what the other's goal is but not understand the mental states associated with the goal), as opposed to a full-fledged, human-like belief-desire psychology (Call &amp; Tomasello, 2008). Around the same time, research on children's understanding of the mind was revived in a landmark paper by Wimmer and Perner (1983) and by other developmentalists (Bretherton, McNew, &amp; Beegly-Smith. 1981). In line with the research on nonhuman primates, part of the progress that has been made in recent years is a recognition that theory of mind knowledge is acquired in an extended series of developmental milestones and that this development is based on a rich set of socio-cognitive abilities that develop in infancy (Wellman, 2002). The evidence outlined in the sections of this chapter suggests that infants possess a nascent understanding of mental states that older children use in explaining and predicting human behavior. Researchers have learned a great deal about the developmental origins of naive psychology in infancy. Nevertheless, the depth of infants' understanding of human behavior is still a controversial issue. For example, a popular paradigm in naive psychology is violation of expectancy. In false-belief tasks, infants look longer at a scene.in which a protagonist searches for an object in a location she does not know than at a scene in which the protagonist searches for an object in a location where she has previously seen the object disappear. The fact that no active behavioral response is required makes many researchers doubt that an infants' looking pattern reflects a deep level of understanding. Looking pattern may simply reflect the infants' detection that something in the scene is novel (e.g., protagonist looks at a location different than the one infants last saw her look at). Indeed this interpretation may account for the conflicting results in recent studies (e.g., Poulin-Dubois et al., 2007; Onishi &amp; Baillargeon, 2005; Surian et al., 2007). Poulin-Dubois et al. (2007) recently reported that the ability to distinguish between knowledge and ignorance (true belief) is absent at 14 months of age and still fragile at 18 months in a violation-of-expectancy task depicting videotaped human actors. In contrast, false-belief attribution to a computer animated caterpillar has been reported in 13-month-old infants (Surian et al., 2007). Given that infants have had more experience with humans looking at objects than with a caterpillar's looking behavior, the current evidence for an implicit understanding of advanced mental states such as false belief should be interpreted with caution. As is the case for nonhuman primate research, infants' mind-reading success might be accounted for by a simple behavior-reading explanation. According to some researchers, primates' (and infants') successful performance in theory of mind tasks can be explained by a sophisticated form of behavior reading. Under this view, infants perform well in such tasks because they are adept at calculating the statistical likelihood that some aspects of people's observable features (e.g., gaze) will be linked to future actions (e.g., search at a location). Distinguishing between a mentalistic and rule-based account is very difficult (Povinelli &amp; Vonk, 2004). One way to address this debate would be to design training studies that provide infants with first-person experience of mental states and to use more active behavioral measures. In terms of training, there is some evidence that infants' performance on goal and visual perception attribution tasks is improved if they received training of relevant skills (e.g., wearing a blindfold, reaching with a "sticky mitten": Meltzoff &amp; Brooks, 2007: Sommerville &amp; Woodward, 2004). Furthermore, longitudinal research using more active measures revealed links between goal detection as measured with the violation of expectancy paradigm at 10 months of age and the ability to infer intended goals in an imitation task at 14 months (Olineck &amp; Poulin-Dubois, 2007b). Developmental changes in the scope of infants' concept of intentional agent also will require more attention from researchers. According to some, infants' attributions of intentional behavior are activated whenever infants recognize an object as a psychological agent, based on an evolutionary designed system which is sensitive to certain cues such as self-propulsion, contingent reactivity or equifinal variation of the action (Baron-Cohen, 1995; Gergely &amp; Csibra, 2003; Johnson, 2000; Leslie, deficient in theory of mind. One may hope that nonverbal theory of mind tasks that reliably predict later theory mind skills will be adapted for use with this population and eventually used for the early detection of autism. In sum, the numerous studies reported here show that by the end of the second year of life, infants have developed ways to predict human actions The review also makes clear that we do not yet fully understand how deep infants' insight into the mind really is. Nonetheless, there appears to be some consensus that infants, like chimpanzees, understand the goals, intentions, perception, and knowledge of others. This provides the foundations for the full-fledged adult-like naive psychology that develops gradually in early childhood.

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The combination of ibuprofen and paracetamol may confer analgesic benefits over monotherapy with either agent. In a previous study, an ibuprofen/paracetamol combination provided significantly better analgesic efficacy than comparable doses of ibuprofen or paracetamol alone in patients experiencing moderate to severe acute postoperative pain after extraction of impacted third molars. This study compared the efficacy and tolerability of 3 doses of a single-tablet fixed-dose combination (FDC) of ibuprofen and paracetamol (ibuprofen/paracetamol doses of 100 mg/250 mg, 200 mg/500 mg, and 400 mg/1000 mg) with comparable doses of ibuprofen (200 or 400 mg) monotherapy, paracetamol (500 or 1000 mg) monotherapy, and placebo in the 8 hours after surgical removal of 3 to 4 impacted third molars (stage 1) and with placebo over the next 72 hours (stage 2). This was a multicenter, 2-stage, randomized, double-blind, parallel-group, placebo-controlled, factorial study. Male or female outpatients were eligible for the study if they were aged &gt;or=16 years, were referred for surgical removal of at least 3 impacted third molars (2 of which had to be mandibular impacted molars), and gave written informed consent. In stage 1, patients were randomly assigned to ibuprofen 200 mg, ibuprofen 400 mg, paracetamol 500 mg, paracetamol 1000 mg, FDC ibuprofen 100 mg/paracetamol 250 mg, FDC ibuprofen 200 mg/paracetamol 500 mg, FDC ibuprofen 400 mg/paracetamol 1000 mg, or placebo. In stage 2, patients who had been taking FDC therapy or placebo continued the same treatment, whereas those taking monotherapy received FDC therapy, incorporating the same dose of active monotherapy from stage 1. First-line rescue medication (hydrocodone 7.5 mg and paracetamol 500 mg) was available at any time after dosing; however, in stage 1, any patient who required rescue medication within 60 minutes of receipt of study medication was considered a "dropout" from therapy, and, in stage 2, patients who required &gt;2 doses of first-line rescue medication in a 24-hour period were considered treatment failures. In stage 1, the primary efficacy end points were the sum of pain relief and pain intensity differences over an 8-hour follow-up period (SPRID8) and the pain relief and pain intensity difference scores at each time point (15, 30, 45, 60, 90, 120, 180, 240, 300, 360, 420, and 480 minutes after dosing). Several secondary variables were also measured, including the patient's global assessment of the study medication. The 2-stopwatch method was used for measures of perceptible and meaningful pain relief. In stage 2, the primary efficacy end point was the number of completed 24-hour periods (as 0, 1, 2, or 3) in which the patient required no more than one dose of rescue medication and rated the treatment as "good," "very good," or "excellent." The tolerability of study medications was assessed in relation to the frequency, nature, and severity of adverse events (AEs), as well as their relationship to study medication; vital signs were also measured. AEs were assessed at 8 hours after dosing in stage 1, at 72 hours after dosing in stage 2, and at the follow-up visit (7-10 days after surgery); in addition, patients were instructed to report any AE that occurred between scheduled assessments. Of 735 patients randomly assigned in stage 1, a total of 715 (97.3%) entered and 678 (92.2%) completed stage 2. Most patients were female (62.6% [460/735]) and white (91.3% [671/735]); the mean (SD) age was 20.3 (3.5) years and the mean weight was 69.7 (15.7) kg. The mean total impaction score was 11.1 (1.4), and the mean baseline pain score on the visual analog scale was 76.9 (12.0). Overall, 422 of 735 patients (57.4%) reported severe pain at baseline and 313 of 735 (42.6%) reported moderate pain. For the primary efficacy end point (SPRID8), FDC ibuprofen 400 mg/paracetamol 1000 mg was significantly more effective than ibuprofen 400 mg (P = 0.02) and paracetamol 1000 mg (P &lt; 0.001) in the immediate postoperative period (stage 1), and FDC ibuprofen 200 mg/paracetamol 500 mg was significantly more effective than ibuprofen 200 mg (P &lt; 0.001) and paracetamol 500 mg (P &lt; 0.001). The FDC ibuprofen 200 mg/paracetamol 500 mg was also significantly more effective than paracetamol 1000 mg (P &lt; 0.001), but failed to reach statistical significance in comparison with ibuprofen 400 mg. Continued postoperative therapy with all 3 FDCs on an as-needed basis was significantly more effective than placebo during the subsequent 72 hours (all, P &lt; 0.001). During stage 1, rescue medication was required by 53 of 73 (72.6%), 29 of 75 (38.7%), 21 of 74 (28.4%), 56 of 76 (73.7%), and 51 of 74 (68.9%) patients in the placebo group and the ibuprofen 200-mg, ibuprofen 400-mg, paracetamol 500-mg, and paracetamol 1000-mg treatment groups, respectively. In the FDC treatment groups, the need for rescue medication included 27 of 71 (38.0%), 40 of 143 (28.0%), and 32 of 149 (21.5%) patients in the ibuprofen 100-mg/paracetamol 250-mg, ibuprofen 200-mg/paracetamol 500-mg, and ibuprofen 400-mg/paracetamol 1000-mg groups, respectively. The rates of treatment-related AEs between the first and second doses of study medication were significantly lower for FDC ibuprofen 400 mg/paracetamol 1000 mg (8/149 patients [5.4%]) than for placebo (14/73 [19.2%]; P &lt; 0.01) and paracetamol 1000 mg (10/74 [13.5%]; P &lt; 0.05); and also lower for FDC ibuprofen 200 mg/paracetamol 500 mg (9/143 [6.3%]) compared with ibuprofen 200 mg (12/75 [16.0%]; P &lt; 0.05) and paracetamol 500 mg (17/76 [22.4%]; P &lt; 0.001). FDC ibuprofen 200 mg/paracetamol 500 mg and ibuprofen 400 mg/paracetamol 1000 mg were significantly more effective in this population than were comparable doses of ibuprofen or paracetamol alone in moderate to severe acute dental pain and were significantly more effective than placebo in providing sustained pain relief.

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The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends treating all school children at regular intervals with deworming drugs in areas where helminth infection is common. The WHO state this will improve nutritional status, haemoglobin, and cognition and thus will improve health, intellect, and school attendance. Consequently, it is claimed that school performance will improve, child mortality will decline, and economic productivity will increase. Given the important health and societal benefits attributed to this intervention, we sought to determine whether they are based on reliable evidence. To summarize the effects of giving deworming drugs to children to treat soil-transmitted intestinal worms (nematode geohelminths) on weight, haemoglobin, and cognition; and the evidence of impact on physical well being, school attendance, school performance, and mortality. In February 2012, we searched the Cochrane Infectious Diseases Group Specialized Register, MEDLINE, EMBASE, LILACS, mRCT, and reference lists, and registers of ongoing and completed trials. We selected randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and quasi-RCTs comparing deworming drugs for geohelminth worms with placebo or no treatment in children aged 16 years or less, reporting on weight, haemoglobin, and formal test of intellectual development. In cluster-RCTs treating communities or schools, we also sought data on school attendance, school performance, and mortality. We included trials that included health education with deworming. At least two authors independently assessed the trials, evaluated risk of bias, and extracted data. Continuous data were analysed using the mean difference (MD) with 95% confidence intervals (CI). Where data were missing, we contacted trial authors. We used GRADE to assess evidence quality, and this is reflected in the wording we used: high quality ("deworming improves...."); moderate quality ("deworming probably improves..."); low quality ("deworming may improve...."); and very low quality ("we don't know if deworming improves...."). We identified 42 trials, including eight cluster trials, that met the inclusion criteria. Excluding one trial where data are awaited, the 41 trials include 65,168 participants.Screening then treatingFor children known to be infected with worms (by screening), a single dose of deworming drugs may increase weight (0.58 kg, 95% CI 0.40 to 0.76, three trials, 139 participants; low quality evidence) and may increase haemoglobin (0.37 g/dL, 95% CI 0.1 to 0.64, two trials, 108 participants; low quality evidence), but we do not know if there is an effect on cognitive functioning (two trials, very low quality evidence).Single dose deworming for all childrenIn trials treating all children, a single dose of deworming drugs gave mixed effects on weight, with no effects evident in seven trials, but large effects in two (nine trials, 3058 participants, very low quality evidence). The two trials with a positive effect were from the same very high prevalence setting and may not be easily generalised elsewhere. Single dose deworming probably made little or no effect on haemoglobin (mean difference (MD) 0.06 g/dL, 95% CI -0.06 to 0.17, three trials, 1005 participants; moderate evidence), and may have little or no effect on cognition (two trials, low quality evidence).Mulitple dose deworming for all childrenOver the first year of follow up, multiple doses of deworming drugs given to all children may have little or no effect on weight (MD 0.06 kg, 95% CI -0.17 to 0.30; seven trials, 2460 participants; low quality evidence); haemoglobin, (mean 0.01 g/dL lower; 95% CI 0.14 lower to 0.13 higher; four trials, 807 participants; low quality evidence); cognition (three trials, 30,571 participants, low quality evidence); or school attendance (4% higher attendance; 95% CI -6 to 14; two trials, 30,243 participants; low quality evidence);For time periods beyond a year, there were five trials with weight measures. One cluster-RCT of 3712 children in a low prevalence area showed a large effect (average gain of 0.98 kg), whilst the other four trials did not show an effect, including a cluster-RCT of 27,995 children in a moderate prevalence area (five trials, 37,306 participants; low quality evidence). For height, we are uncertain whether there is an effect of deworming (-0.26 cm; 95% CI -0.84 to 0.31, three trials, 6652 participants; very low quality evidence). Deworming may have little or no effect on haemoglobin (0.00 g/dL, 95%CI -0.08 to 0.08, two trials, 1365 participants, low quality evidence); cognition (two trials, 3720 participants; moderate quality evidence). For school attendance, we are uncertain if there is an effect (mean attendance 5% higher, 95% CI -0.5 to 10.5, approximately 20,000 participants, very low quality evidence).Stratified analysis to seek subgroup effects into low, medium and high helminth endemicity areas did not demonstrate any pattern of effect. In a sensitivity analysis that only included trials with adequate allocation concealment, we detected no significant effects for any primary outcomes.One million children were randomized in a deworming trial from India with mortality as the primary outcome. This was completed in 2005 but the authors have not published the results. Screening children for intestinal helminths and then treating infected children appears promising, but the evidence base is small. Routine deworming drugs given to school children has been more extensively investigated, and has not shown benefit on weight in most studies, except for substantial weight changes in three trials conducted 15 years ago or more. Two of these trials were carried out in the same high prevalence setting. For haemoglobin and cognition, community deworming seems to have little or no effect, and the evidence in relation to school attendance, and school performance is generally poor, with no obvious or consistent effect. Our interpretation of this data is that it is probably misleading to justify contemporary deworming programmes based on evidence of consistent benefit on nutrition, haemoglobin, school attendance or school performance as there is simply insufficient reliable information to know whether this is so.

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Sexual offending is a legal construct that overlaps, but is not entirely congruent with, clinical constructs of disorders of sexual preference. Sexual offending is both a social and a public health issue. Victim surveys illustrate high incidence and prevalence levels, and it is commonly accepted that there is considerable hidden sexual victimisation. There are significant levels of psychiatric morbidity in survivors of sexual offences.Psychological interventions are generally based on behavioural or psychodynamic theories.Behavioural interventions fall into two main groups: those based on traditional classical conditioning and/or operant learning theory and those based on cognitive behavioural approaches. Approaches may overlap. Interventions associated with traditional classical and operant learning theory are referred to as behaviour modification or behaviour therapy, and focus explicitly on changing behaviour by administering a stimulus and measuring its effect on overt behaviour. Within sex offender treatment, examples include aversion therapy, covert sensitisation or olfactory conditioning. Cognitive behavioural therapies are intended to change internal processes - thoughts, beliefs, emotions, physiological arousal - alongside changing overt behaviour, such as social skills or coping behaviours. They may involve establishing links between offenders' thoughts, feelings and actions about offending behaviour; correction of offenders' misperceptions, irrational beliefs and reasoning biases associated with their offending; teaching offenders to monitor their own thoughts, feelings and behaviours associated with offending; and promoting alternative ways of coping with deviant sexual thoughts and desires.Psychodynamic interventions share a common root in psychoanalytic theory. This posits that sexual offending arises through an imbalance of the three components of mind: the id, the ego and the superego, with sexual offenders having temperamental imbalance of a powerful id (increased sexual impulses and libido) and a weak superego (a low level of moral probation), which are also impacted by early environment.This updates a previous Cochrane review but is based on a new protocol. To assess the effects of psychological interventions on those who have sexually offended or are at risk of offending. In September 2010 we searched: CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Allied and Complementary Medicine (AMED), Applied Social Sciences Index and Abstracts (ASSIA), Biosis Previews, CINAHL, COPAC, Dissertation Abstracts, EMBASE, International Bibliography of the Social Sciences (IBSS), ISI Proceedings, Science Citation Index Expanded (SCI), Social Sciences Citation Index (SSCI), National Criminal Justice Reference Service Abstracts Database, PsycINFO, OpenSIGLE, Social Care Online, Sociological Abstracts, UK Clinical Research Network Portfolio Database and ZETOC. We contacted numerous experts in the field. Randomised trials comparing psychological intervention with standard care or another psychological therapy given to adults treated in institutional or community settings for sexual behaviours that have resulted in conviction or caution for sexual offences, or who are seeking treatment voluntarily for behaviours classified as illegal. At least two authors, working independently, selected studies, extracted data and assessed the studies' risk of bias. We contacted study authors for additional information including details of methods and outcome data. We included ten studies involving data from 944 adults, all male.Five trials involved primarily cognitive behavioural interventions (CBT) (n = 664). Of these, four compared CBT with no treatment or wait list control, and one compared CBT with standard care. Only one study collected data on the primary outcome. The largest study (n = 484) involved the most complex intervention versus no treatment. Long-term outcome data are reported for groups in which the mean years 'at risk' in the community are similar (8.3 years for treatment (n = 259) compared to 8.4 in the control group (n = 225)). There was no difference between these groups in terms of the risk of reoffending as measured by reconviction for sexual offences (risk ratio (RR) 1.10; 95% CI 0.78 to 1.56).Four trials (n = 70) compared one behavioural programme with an alternative behavioural programme or with wait list control. No meta-analysis was possible for this comparison. For two studies (both cross-over, n = 29) no disaggregated data were available. The remaining two behavioural studies compared imaginal desensitisation with either covert sensitisation or as part of adjunctive drug therapy (n = 20 and 21, respectively). In these two studies, results for the primary outcome (being 'charged with anomalous behaviour') were encouraging, with only one new charge for the treated groups over one year in the former study, and in the latter study, only one new charge (in the drug-only group) over two years.One study compared psychodynamic intervention with probation. Results for this study (n = 231) indicate a slight trend in favour of the control group (probation) over the intervention (group therapy) in terms of sexual offending as measured by rearrest (RR 1.87; 95% CI 0.78 to 4.47) at 10-year follow-up.Data for adverse events, 'sexually anomalous urges' and for secondary outcomes thought to be 'dynamic' risk factors for reoffending, including anger and cognitive distortions, were limited. The inescapable conclusion of this review is the need for further randomised controlled trials. While we recognise that randomisation is considered by some to be unethical or politically unacceptable (both of which are based on the faulty premise that the experimental treatment is superior to the control - this being the point of the trial to begin with), without such evidence, the area will fail to progress. Not only could this result in the continued use of ineffective (and potentially harmful) interventions, but it also means that society is lured into a false sense of security in the belief that once the individual has been treated, their risk of reoffending is reduced. Current available evidence does not support this belief. Future trials should concentrate on minimising risk of bias, maximising quality of reporting and including follow-up for a minimum of five years 'at risk' in the community.

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To study the effects of the panthenol-glutamine on intestinal damage and motor function of intestine in rats with burn injury as well as its dose-effect relationship. (1) Experiment 1. Ninety SD rats were divided into groups A-I according to the random number table, with 10 rats in each group. Rats in groups A-I were inflicted with 30% TBSA full-thickness burn and fed by gavage with panthenol and glutamine at post injury hour (PIH) 4, in the whole dosage of 1.00 and 4, 0.50 and 4, 0.25 and 4, 1.00 and 2, 0.50 and 2, 0.25 and 2, 1.00 and 1, 0.50 and 1, 0.25 and 1 g·kg(-1)·d(-1). The feeding was carried out twice a day to achieve the total dosage in 7 days. On drug withdrawal day, blood and intestinal tissue were harvested to detect the intestinal propulsion index, diamine oxidase (DAO) activity in serum, and the content of acetylcholine and intestinal mucosa protein. The best proportion of panthenol and glutamine was screened. (2) Experiment 2. Seventy SD rats were divided into normal control (NC), burn (B), burn+panthenol (B+P), burn+glutamine (B+G), and burn+low, moderate, or high dose of panthenol-glutamine (B+LPG, B+MPG, B+HPG) groups according to the random number table, with 10 rats in each group. Rats in the latter 6 groups were inflicted with 30% TBSA full-thickness burn. Rats in the latter 5 groups were fed by gavage with panthenol and (or) glutamine at PIH 4. Rats in group B+P were fed with panthenol for 1 g·kg(-1)·d(-1), rats in group B+G with glutamine for 4 g·kg(-1)·d(-1), rats in groups B+LPG, B+MPG, and B+HPG with panthenol and glutamine in the dosage of 0.50 and 2, 1.00 and 4, 2.00 and 8 g·kg(-1)·d(-1). The feeding was carried out twice a day to achieve the total dosage for 7 days. The indexes and time point for observation were the same as those of experiment 1. Meanwhile, the pathological change in intestine was observed. The same process was carried out in the rats of group NC. Data were processed with factorial designed analysis of variance (ANOVA), one-way ANOVA and Fisher's exact probability test. LSD was applied for paired comparison. (1) The values of intestinal propulsion index and intestinal mucosa protein content in groups A and B were close (with P values all above 0.05), and were significantly higher than those of the other 7 groups (with P values all below 0.01). Content of acetylcholine in group A was significantly higher than that of the other 8 groups (with P values all below 0.01). DAO activity in groups A, D, and E was close in value (with P values all above 0.05), and all of the values were significantly lower than those of the other 6 groups (with P values all below 0.01). The best proportion of panthenol and glutamine was 1.00 and 4 g·kg(-1)·d(-1). (2) Compared with those of group NC, the intestinal propulsion index, the contents of acetylcholine and intestinal mucosa protein were decreased significantly, while the DAO activity obviously increased in group B (with P values all below 0.01); the intestinal propulsion index was decreased significantly in group B+P (P &lt; 0.01); the intestinal propulsion index and content of acetylcholine were decreased significantly in group B+G (with P values all below 0.01); the intestinal propulsion index was decreased significantly in group B+LPG (P &lt; 0.01); no obvious change was observed in groups B+MPG and B+HPG (with P values all above 0.05). Compared with those of group B [0.50 ± 0.07, (69 ± 10) µg/mL, (26 ± 11) µg/g, (0.672 ± 0.145) U/mL], the contents of acetylcholine and intestinal mucosa protein were increased significantly, DAO activity decreased significantly in group B+P (with P values all below 0.01); the contents of intestinal mucosa protein was increased significantly, DAO activity decreased significantly in group B+G (with P values all below 0.01); the contents of acetylcholine and intestinal mucosa protein were increased significantly in group B+LPG (with P values all below 0.01); the intestinal propulsion index, the contents of acetylcholine and intestinal mucosa protein were increased significantly, while the DAO activity obviously decreased in groups B+MPG and B+HPG [0.66 ± 0.07, 0.68 ± 0.05; (163 ± 24), (168 ± 15) µg/mL; (57 ± 7), (57 ± 7) µg/g; (0.203 ± 0.070), (0.193 ± 0.068) U/mL, with P values all below 0.01]. The levels of the four indexes in groups B+MPG and B+HPG were close or the same in values (with P values all above 0.05). Compared with those of group B, the numbers of rats with irregularly arranged villi in group B+P were decreased significantly (P &lt; 0.05); the numbers of rats with villi decreased in height, irregularly arranged villi, and neutrophil infiltration in group B+G were decreased significantly (with P values all below 0.05); the numbers of rats with villi decreased in height, irregularly arranged villi, degeneration and necrosis of cells, and neutrophil infiltration in group B+LPG were decreased significantly (with P values all below 0.05); the numbers of rats with villi decreased in height and number, irregularly arranged villi, degeneration and necrosis of cells, and neutrophil infiltration in groups B+MPG and B+HPG were decreased significantly (with P values all below 0.05). There was no statistically significant difference between group B+HPG and group B+MPG for the former mentioned five indexes (with P values all above 0.05). Combined application of panthenol and glutamine can obviously reduce intestinal mucosa damage and promote gastrointestinal motility of rats with burn injury, and they show curative effect superior to exclusive use of either of the two drugs. The best proportion of panthenol and glutamine is 1.00 and 4 g·kg(-1)·d(-1).

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Many people diagnosed with haematological malignancies experience anaemia, and red blood cell (RBC) transfusion plays an essential supportive role in their management. Different strategies have been developed for RBC transfusions. A restrictive transfusion strategy seeks to maintain a lower haemoglobin level (usually between 70 g/L to 90 g/L) with a trigger for transfusion when the haemoglobin drops below 70 g/L), whereas a liberal transfusion strategy aims to maintain a higher haemoglobin (usually between 100 g/L to 120 g/L, with a threshold for transfusion when haemoglobin drops below 100 g/L). In people undergoing surgery or who have been admitted to intensive care a restrictive transfusion strategy has been shown to be safe and in some cases safer than a liberal transfusion strategy. However, it is not known whether it is safe in people with haematological malignancies. To determine the efficacy and safety of restrictive versus liberal RBC transfusion strategies for people diagnosed with haematological malignancies treated with intensive chemotherapy or radiotherapy, or both, with or without a haematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). We searched for randomised controlled trials (RCTs) and non-randomised trials (NRS) in MEDLINE (from 1946), Embase (from 1974), CINAHL (from 1982), Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL) (the Cochrane Library 2016, Issue 6), and 10 other databases (including four trial registries) to 15 June 2016. We also searched grey literature and contacted experts in transfusion for additional trials. There was no restriction on language, date or publication status. We included RCTs and prospective NRS that evaluated a restrictive compared with a liberal RBC transfusion strategy in children or adults with malignant haematological disorders or undergoing HSCT. We used the standard methodological procedures expected by Cochrane. We identified six studies eligible for inclusion in this review; five RCTs and one NRS. Three completed RCTs (156 participants), one completed NRS (84 participants), and two ongoing RCTs. We identified one additional RCT awaiting classification. The completed studies were conducted between 1997 and 2015 and had a mean follow-up from 31 days to 2 years. One study included children receiving a HSCT (six participants), the other three studies only included adults: 218 participants with acute leukaemia receiving chemotherapy, and 16 with a haematological malignancy receiving a HSCT. The restrictive strategies varied from 70 g/L to 90 g/L. The liberal strategies also varied from 80 g/L to 120 g/L.Based on the GRADE rating methodology the overall quality of the included studies was very low to low across different outcomes. None of the included studies were free from bias for all 'Risk of bias' domains. One of the three RCTs was discontinued early for safety concerns after recruiting only six children, all three participants in the liberal group developed veno-occlusive disease (VOD). Evidence from RCTsA restrictive RBC transfusion policy may make little or no difference to: the number of participants who died within 100 days (two trials, 95 participants (RR: 0.25, 95% CI 0.02 to 2.69, low-quality evidence); the number of participants who experienced any bleeding (two studies, 149 participants; RR:0.93, 95% CI 0.73 to 1.18, low-quality evidence), or clinically significant bleeding (two studies, 149 participants, RR: 1.03, 95% CI 0.75 to 1.43, low-quality evidence); the number of participants who required RBC transfusions (three trials; 155 participants: RR: 0.97, 95% CI 0.90 to 1.05, low-quality evidence); or the length of hospital stay (restrictive median 35.5 days (interquartile range (IQR): 31.2 to 43.8); liberal 36 days (IQR: 29.2 to 44), low-quality evidence).We are uncertain whether the restrictive RBC transfusion strategy: decreases quality of life (one trial, 89 participants, fatigue score: restrictive median 4.8 (IQR 4 to 5.2); liberal median 4.5 (IQR 3.6 to 5) (very low-quality evidence); or reduces the risk of developing any serious infection (one study, 89 participants, RR: 1.23, 95% CI 0.74 to 2.04, very low-quality evidence).A restrictive RBC transfusion policy may reduce the number of RBC transfusions per participant (two trials; 95 participants; mean difference (MD) -3.58, 95% CI -5.66 to -1.49, low-quality evidence). Evidence from NRSWe are uncertain whether the restrictive RBC transfusion strategy: reduces the risk of death within 100 days (one study, 84 participants, restrictive 1 death; liberal 1 death; very low-quality evidence); decreases the risk of clinically significant bleeding (one study, 84 participants, restrictive 3; liberal 8; very low-quality evidence); or decreases the number of RBC transfusions (adjusted for age, sex and acute myeloid leukaemia type geometric mean 1.25; 95% CI 1.07 to 1.47 - data analysis performed by the study authors)No NRS were found that looked at: quality of life; number of participants with any bleeding; serious infection; or length of hospital stay.No studies were found that looked at: adverse transfusion reactions; arterial or venous thromboembolic events; length of intensive care admission; or readmission to hospital. Findings from this review were based on four studies and 240 participants.There is low-quality evidence that a restrictive RBC transfusion policy reduces the number of RBC transfusions per participant. There is low-quality evidence that a restrictive RBC transfusion policy has little or no effect on: mortality at 30 to 100 days, bleeding, or hospital stay. This evidence is mainly based on adults with acute leukaemia who are having chemotherapy. Although, the two ongoing studies (530 participants) are due to be completed by January 2018 and will provide additional information for adults with haematological malignancies, we will not be able to answer this review's primary outcome. If we assume a mortality rate of 3% within 100 days we would need 1492 participants to have a 80% chance of detecting, as significant at the 5% level, an increase in all-cause mortality from 3% to 6%. Further RCTs are required in children.

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The inability to have children affects 10% to 15% of couples worldwide. A male factor is estimated to account for up to half of the infertility cases with between 25% to 87% of male subfertility considered to be due to the effect of oxidative stress. Oral supplementation with antioxidants is thought to improve sperm quality by reducing oxidative damage. Antioxidants are widely available and inexpensive when compared to other fertility treatments, however most antioxidants are uncontrolled by regulation and the evidence for their effectiveness is uncertain. We compared the benefits and risks of different antioxidants used for male subfertility. This review did not examine the use of antioxidants in normospermic men. To evaluate the effectiveness and safety of supplementary oral antioxidants in subfertile men. The Cochrane Gynaecology and Fertility (CGF) Group trials register, CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and two trials registers were searched on 1 February 2018, together with reference checking and contact with study authors and experts in the field to identify additional trials. We included randomised controlled trials (RCTs) that compared any type, dose or combination of oral antioxidant supplement with placebo, no treatment or treatment with another antioxidant, among subfertile men of a couple attending a reproductive clinic. We excluded studies comparing antioxidants with fertility drugs alone and studies that included fertile men attending a fertility clinic because of female partner infertility. We used standard methodological procedures recommended by Cochrane. The primary review outcome was live birth. Clinical pregnancy, adverse events and sperm parameters were secondary outcomes. We included 61 studies with a total population of 6264 subfertile men, aged between 18 and 65 years, part of a couple who had been referred to a fertility clinic and some of whom were undergoing assisted reproductive techniques (ART). Investigators compared and combined 18 different oral antioxidants. The evidence was of 'low' to 'very low' quality: the main limitation was that out of the 44 included studies in the meta-analysis only 12 studies reported on live birth or clinical pregnancy. The evidence is current up to February 2018.Live birth: antioxidants may lead to increased live birth rates (OR 1.79, 95% CI 1.20 to 2.67, P = 0.005, 7 RCTs, 750 men, I<sup2</sup = 40%, low-quality evidence). Results suggest that if in the studies contributing to the analysis of live birth rate, the baseline chance of live birth following placebo or no treatment is assumed to be 12%, the chance following the use of antioxidants is estimated to be between 14% and 26%. However, this result was based on only 124 live births from 750 couples in seven relatively small studies. When studies at high risk of bias were removed from the analysis, there was no evidence of increased live birth (Peto OR 1.38, 95% CI 0.89 to 2.16; participants = 540 men, 5 RCTs, P = 0.15, I<sup2</sup = 0%).Clinical pregnancy rate: antioxidants may lead to increased clinical pregnancy rates (OR 2.97, 95% CI 1.91 to 4.63, P &lt; 0.0001, 11 RCTs, 786 men, I<sup2</sup = 0%, low-quality evidence) compared to placebo or no treatment. This suggests that if in the studies contributing to the analysis of clinical pregnancy, the baseline chance of clinical pregnancy following placebo or no treatment is assumed to be 7%, the chance following the use of antioxidants is estimated to be between 12% and 26%. This result was based on 105 clinical pregnancies from 786 couples in 11 small studies.Adverse eventsMiscarriage: only three studies reported on this outcome and the event rate was very low. There was no difference in miscarriage rate between the antioxidant and placebo or no treatment group (OR 1.74, 95% CI 0.40 to 7.60, P = 0.46, 3 RCTs, 247 men, I<sup2</sup = 0%, very low-quality evidence). The findings suggest that in a population of subfertile men with an expected miscarriage rate of 2%, the chance following the use of an antioxidant would result in the risk of a miscarriage between 1% and 13%.Gastrointestinal: antioxidants may lead to an increase in mild gastrointestinal upsets when compared to placebo or no treatment (OR 2.51, 95% CI 1.25 to 5.03, P = 0.010, 11 RCTs, 948 men, I<sup2</sup = 50%, very low-quality evidence). This suggests that if the chance of gastrointestinal upsets following placebo or no treatment is assumed to be 2%, the chance following the use of antioxidants is estimated to be between 2% and 9%. However, this result was based on a low event rate of 35 out of 948 men in 10 small or medium-sized studies, and the quality of the evidence was rated very low and was high in heterogeneity.We were unable to draw any conclusions from the antioxidant versus antioxidant comparison as insufficient studies compared the same interventions. In this review, there is low-quality evidence from seven small randomised controlled trials suggesting that antioxidant supplementation in subfertile males may improve live birth rates for couples attending fertility clinics. Low-quality evidence suggests that clinical pregnancy rates may also increase. Overall, there is no evidence of increased risk of miscarriage, however antioxidants may give more mild gastrointestinal upsets but the evidence is of very low quality. Subfertilte couples should be advised that overall, the current evidence is inconclusive based on serious risk of bias due to poor reporting of methods of randomisation, failure to report on the clinical outcomes live birth rate and clinical pregnancy, often unclear or even high attrition, and also imprecision due to often low event rates and small overall sample sizes. Further large well-designed randomised placebo-controlled trials reporting on pregnancy and live births are still required to clarify the exact role of antioxidants.

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Epidemiological evidence has suggested a link between beta<sub2</sub-agonists and increases in asthma mortality. There has been much debate about whether regular (daily) long-acting beta<sub2</sub-agonists (LABA) are safe when used in combination with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS). This updated Cochrane Review includes results from two large trials that recruited 23,422 adolescents and adults mandated by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA). To assess the risk of mortality and non-fatal serious adverse events (SAEs) in trials that randomly assign participants with chronic asthma to regular formoterol and inhaled corticosteroids versus the same dose of inhaled corticosteroid alone. We identified randomised trials using the Cochrane Airways Group Specialised Register of trials. We checked websites of clinical trial registers for unpublished trial data as well as FDA submissions in relation to formoterol. The date of the most recent search was February 2019. We included randomised clinical trials (RCTs) with a parallel design involving adults, children, or both with asthma of any severity who received regular formoterol and ICS (separate or combined) treatment versus the same dose of ICS for at least 12 weeks. We used standard methodological procedures expected by Cochrane. We obtained unpublished data on mortality and SAEs from the sponsors of the studies. We assessed our confidence in the evidence using GRADE recommendations. The primary outcomes were all-cause mortality and all-cause non-fatal serious adverse events. We found 42 studies eligible for inclusion and included 39 studies in the analyses: 29 studies included 35,751 adults, and 10 studies included 4035 children and adolescents. Inhaled corticosteroids included beclomethasone (daily metered dosage 200 to 800 µg), budesonide (200 to 1600 µg), fluticasone (200 to 250 µg), and mometasone (200 to 800 µg). Formoterol metered dosage ranged from 12 to 48 µg daily. Fixed combination ICS was used in most of the studies. We judged the risk of selection bias, performance bias, and attrition bias as low, however most studies did not report independent assessment of causation of SAEs.DeathsSeventeen of 18,645 adults taking formoterol and ICS and 13 of 17,106 adults taking regular ICS died of any cause. The pooled Peto odds ratio (OR) was 1.25 (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.61 to 2.56, moderate-certainty evidence), which equated to one death occurring for every 1000 adults treated with ICS alone for 26 weeks; the corresponding risk amongst adults taking formoterol and ICS was also one death (95% CI 0 to 2 deaths). No deaths were reported in the trials on children and adolescents (4035 participants) (low-certainty evidence).In terms of asthma-related deaths, no children and adolescents died from asthma, but three of 12,777 adults in the formoterol and ICS treatment group died of asthma (both low-certainty evidence).Non-fatal serious adverse eventsA total of 401 adults experienced a non-fatal SAE of any cause on formoterol with ICS, compared to 369 adults who received regular ICS. The pooled Peto OR was 1.00 (95% CI 0.87 to 1.16, high-certainty evidence, 29 studies, 35,751 adults). For every 1000 adults treated with ICS alone for 26 weeks, 22 adults had an SAE; the corresponding risk for those on formoterol and ICS was also 22 adults (95% CI 19 to 25).Thirty of 2491 children and adolescents experienced an SAE of any cause when receiving formoterol with ICS, compared to 13 of 1544 children and adolescents receiving ICS alone. The pooled Peto OR was 1.33 (95% CI 0.71 to 2.49, moderate-certainty evidence, 10 studies, 4035 children and adolescents). For every 1000 children and adolescents treated with ICS alone for 12.5 weeks, 8 had an non-fatal SAE; the corresponding risk amongst those on formoterol and ICS was 11 children and adolescents (95% CI 6 to 21).Asthma-related serious adverse eventsNinety adults experienced an asthma-related non-fatal SAE with formoterol and ICS, compared to 102 with ICS alone. The pooled Peto OR was 0.86 (95% CI 0.64 to 1.14, moderate-certainty evidence, 28 studies, 35,158 adults). For every 1000 adults treated with ICS alone for 26 weeks, 6 adults had an asthma-related non-fatal SAE; the corresponding risk for those on formoterol and ICS was 5 adults (95% CI 4 to 7).Amongst children and adolescents, 9 experienced an asthma-related non-fatal SAE with formoterol and ICS, compared to 5 on ICS alone. The pooled Peto OR was 1.18 (95% CI 0.40 to 3.51, very low-certainty evidence, 10 studies, 4035 children and adolescents). For every 1000 children and adolescents treated with ICS alone for 12.5 weeks, 3 had an asthma-related non-fatal SAE; the corresponding risk on formoterol and ICS was 4 (95% CI 1 to 11). We did not find a difference in the risk of death (all-cause or asthma-related) in adults taking combined formoterol and ICS versus ICS alone (moderate- to low-certainty evidence). No deaths were reported in children and adolescents. The risk of dying when taking either treatment was very low, but we cannot be certain if there is a difference in mortality when taking additional formoterol to ICS (low-certainty evidence).We did not find a difference in the risk of non-fatal SAEs of any cause in adults (high-certainty evidence). A previous version of the review had shown a lower risk of asthma-related SAEs in adults taking combined formoterol and ICS; however, inclusion of new studies no longer shows a difference between treatments (moderate-certainty evidence).The reported number of children and adolescents with SAEs was small, so uncertainty remains in this age group.We included results from large studies mandated by the FDA. Clinical decisions and information provided to patients regarding regular use of formoterol and ICS need to take into account the balance between known symptomatic benefits of formoterol and ICS versus the remaining degree of uncertainty associated with its potential harmful effects.

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Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is caused by a homozygous deletion of the survival motor neuron 1 (SMN1) gene on chromosome 5, or a heterozygous deletion in combination with a (point) mutation in the second SMN1 allele. This results in degeneration of anterior horn cells, which leads to progressive muscle weakness. Children with SMA type II do not develop the ability to walk without support and have a shortened life expectancy, whereas children with SMA type III develop the ability to walk and have a normal life expectancy. This is an update of a review first published in 2009 and previously updated in 2011. To evaluate if drug treatment is able to slow or arrest the disease progression of SMA types II and III, and to assess if such therapy can be given safely. We searched the Cochrane Neuromuscular Specialised Register, CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase, and ISI Web of Science conference proceedings in October 2018. In October 2018, we also searched two trials registries to identify unpublished trials. We sought all randomised or quasi-randomised trials that examined the efficacy of drug treatment for SMA types II and III. Participants had to fulfil the clinical criteria and have a homozygous deletion or hemizygous deletion in combination with a point mutation in the second allele of the SMN1 gene (5q11.2-13.2) confirmed by genetic analysis. The primary outcome measure was change in disability score within one year after the onset of treatment. Secondary outcome measures within one year after the onset of treatment were change in muscle strength, ability to stand or walk, change in quality of life, time from the start of treatment until death or full-time ventilation and adverse events attributable to treatment during the trial period. Treatment strategies involving SMN1-replacement with viral vectors are out of the scope of this review, but a summary is given in Appendix 1. Drug treatment for SMA type I is the topic of a separate Cochrane Review. We followed standard Cochrane methodology. The review authors found 10 randomised, placebo-controlled trials of treatments for SMA types II and III for inclusion in this review, with 717 participants. We added four of the trials at this update. The trials investigated creatine (55 participants), gabapentin (84 participants), hydroxyurea (57 participants), nusinersen (126 participants), olesoxime (165 participants), phenylbutyrate (107 participants), somatotropin (20 participants), thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) (nine participants), valproic acid (33 participants), and combination therapy with valproic acid and acetyl-L-carnitine (ALC) (61 participants). Treatment duration was from three to 24 months. None of the studies investigated the same treatment and none was completely free of bias. All studies had adequate blinding, sequence generation and reporting of primary outcomes. Based on moderate-certainty evidence, intrathecal nusinersen improved motor function (disability) in children with SMA type II, with a 3.7-point improvement in the nusinersen group on the Hammersmith Functional Motor Scale Expanded (HFMSE; range of possible scores 0 to 66), compared to a 1.9-point decline on the HFMSE in the sham procedure group (P &lt; 0.01; n = 126). On all motor function scales used, higher scores indicate better function. Based on moderate-certainty evidence from two studies, the following interventions had no clinically important effect on motor function scores in SMA types II or III (or both) in comparison to placebo: creatine (median change 1 higher, 95% confidence interval (CI) -1 to 2; on the Gross Motor Function Measure (GMFM), scale 0 to 264; n = 40); and combination therapy with valproic acid and carnitine (mean difference (MD) 0.64, 95% CI -1.1 to 2.38; on the Modified Hammersmith Functional Motor Scale (MHFMS), scale 0 to 40; n = 61). Based on low-certainty evidence from other single studies, the following interventions had no clinically important effect on motor function scores in SMA types II or III (or both) in comparison to placebo: gabapentin (median change 0 in the gabapentin group and -2 in the placebo group on the SMA Functional Rating Scale (SMAFRS), scale 0 to 50; n = 66); hydroxyurea (MD -1.88, 95% CI -3.89 to 0.13 on the GMFM, scale 0 to 264; n = 57), phenylbutyrate (MD -0.13, 95% CI -0.84 to 0.58 on the Hammersmith Functional Motor Scale (HFMS) scale 0 to 40; n = 90) and monotherapy of valproic acid (MD 0.06, 95% CI -1.32 to 1.44 on SMAFRS, scale 0 to 50; n = 31). Very low-certainty evidence suggested that the following interventions had little or no effect on motor function: olesoxime (MD 2, 95% -0.25 to 4.25 on the Motor Function Measure (MFM) D1 + D2, scale 0 to 75; n = 160) and somatotropin (median change at 3 months 0.25 higher, 95% CI -1 to 2.5 on the HFMSE, scale 0 to 66; n = 19). One small TRH trial did not report effects on motor function and the certainty of evidence for other outcomes from this trial were low or very low. Results of nine completed trials investigating 4-aminopyridine, acetyl-L-carnitine, CK-2127107, hydroxyurea, pyridostigmine, riluzole, RO6885247/RG7800, salbutamol and valproic acid were awaited and not available for analysis at the time of writing. Various trials and studies investigating treatment strategies other than nusinersen (e.g. SMN2-augmentation by small molecules), are currently ongoing. Nusinersen improves motor function in SMA type II, based on moderate-certainty evidence. Creatine, gabapentin, hydroxyurea, phenylbutyrate, valproic acid and the combination of valproic acid and ALC probably have no clinically important effect on motor function in SMA types II or III (or both) based on low-certainty evidence, and olesoxime and somatropin may also have little to no clinically important effect but evidence was of very low-certainty. One trial of TRH did not measure motor function.

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How do elastic matrisome components change during the lifetime of the human ovary? The deposition and remodeling of mechanical matrisome components (collagen, elastin, elastin microfibril interface-located protein 1 (EMILIN-1), fibrillin-1 and glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)) that play key roles in signaling pathways related to follicle activation and development evolve in an age- and follicle stage-related manner. The mechanobiology of the human ovary and dynamic reciprocity that exists between ovarian cells and their microenvironment is of high importance. Indeed, while the localization of primordial follicles in the collagen-rich ovarian cortex offers a rigid physical environment that supports follicle architecture and probably plays a role in their survival, ovarian extracellular matrix (ECM) stiffness limits follicle expansion and hence oocyte maturation, maintaining follicles in their quiescent state. As growing follicles migrate to the medulla of the ovary, they encounter a softer, more pliant ECM, allowing expansion and development. Thus, changes in the rigidity of the ovarian ECM have a direct effect on follicle behavior. Evidence supporting a role for the physical environment in follicle activation was provided in clinical practice by ovarian tissue fragmentation, which promoted actin polymerization and disrupted ovarian Hippo signaling, leading to increased expression of downstream growth factors, promotion of follicle growth and generation of mature oocytes. We investigated quantitative spatiotemporal changes in collagen, elastin, EMILIN-1, fibrillin-1 and GAGs from prepuberty to menopause, before conducting a closer analysis of the ECM surrounding follicles, from primordial to secondary stages, in both prepubertal and tissue from women of reproductive age. The study included ovarian tissue (cortex) from 68 patients of different ages: prepubertal (n = 16; mean age [±SD]=8 ± 2 years); reproductive (n = 21; mean age [±SD]=27 ± 4 years); menopausal with estrogen-based HRT (n = 7; mean age [±SD]=58 ± 4 years); and menopausal without HRT (n = 24; mean age [±SD]=61 ± 5 years). Quantitative investigations of collagen and GAG deposition in ovarian tissue throughout a woman's lifetime were conducted by analyzing brightfield images. Characteristic features of collagen fiber content were based on polarized light microscopy, since polarized light changes with fiber thickness. To evaluate the deposition and distribution of elastin, fibrillin-1 and EMILIN-1, multiplex immunofluorescence was used on at least three sections from each patient. Image processing and tailored bioinformatic analysis were applied to enable spatiotemporal quantitative evaluation of elastic system component deposition in the human ovary over its lifetime. While collagen levels increased with age, fibrillin-1 and EMILIN-1 declined. Interestingly, collagen and elastin reached their peak in reproductive-age women compared to prepubertal (P &lt; 0.01; P = 0.262) and menopausal subjects with (P = 0.706; P &lt; 0.01) and without (P = 0.987; P = 0.610) HRT, indicating a positive impact of secreted estrogen and hormone treatment on collagen and elastin preservation. Interestingly, HRT appears to affect elastin presence in ovarian tissue, since a significantly higher (P &lt; 0.05) proportion of elastin was detected in biopsies from menopausal women taking HRT compared to those not. Higher GAG levels were found in adult ovaries compared to prepubertal ovaries (P &lt; 0.05), suggesting changes in tissue ultrastructure and elasticity with age. In this context, elevated GAG values are suspected to participate in hampering formation of the fibrillin-1 network (r = -0.2475; P = 0.04687), which explains its decline over time. This decline partially accounts for the decrease in EMILIN-1 (r = 0.4149; P = 0.00059). Closer examination of the ECM surrounding follicles from the primordial to the secondary stage, both before and after puberty, points to high levels of mechanical stress placed on prepubertal follicles compared to the more compliant ECM around reproductive-age follicles, as suggested by the higher collagen levels and lower elastin content detected mainly around primordial (P &lt; 0.0001; P &lt; 0.0001, respectively) and primary (P &lt; 0.0001; P &lt; 0.001, respectively) follicles. Such a stiff niche is nonpermissive to prepubertal follicle activation and growth, and is more inclined to quiescence. Not applicable. The duration and form of administered HRT were not considered when studying the menopausal patient group undergoing treatment. Moreover, we cannot exclude interference from other nongynecological medications taken by the study patients on ovarian ECM properties since there is no information in the literature describing the impact of each medication on the ECM. Finally, since the ECM is by definition a very heterogeneous meshwork of proteins, the use of two-dimensional histology could be a limitation. Single time points on fixed tissues could also present limitations, since following ovary dynamics from prepuberty to menopause in the same patient is not feasible. From a biomechanical perspective, our study revealed important changes to ECM properties dictating the mechanical features of ovarian tissue, in line with the existing literature. Our findings pave the way for possible therapeutic targets at the ECM level in the context of female fertility and ovarian rejuvenation, such as mechanical stimulation, antifibrotic treatments, and prevention or reversion of elastic ECM degradation. Our study also sheds light on the follicle-specific ECM composition that is dependent on follicle stage and age. These data will prove very useful in designing biomimetic scaffolds and tissue-engineered models like the artificial ovary. Indeed, they emphasize the importance of encapsulating each type of isolated follicle in an appropriate biomaterial that must replicate the corresponding functional perifollicular ECM and respect ovarian tissue heterogeneity in order to guarantee its biomimicry. This study was supported by grants from the Fonds National de la Recherche Scientifique de Belgique (FNRS) (C.A.A. is an FRS-FNRS research associate; grant 5/4/150/5 awarded to M.M.D.) and the Université Catholique de Louvain (PhD grant 'Coopération au développement' awarded to E.O.). None of the authors have any competing interests to declare.

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Hyperkalaemia is a common electrolyte abnormality caused by reduced renal potassium excretion in patients with chronic kidney diseases (CKD). Potassium binders, such as sodium polystyrene sulfonate and calcium polystyrene sulfonate, are widely used but may lead to constipation and other adverse gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms, reducing their tolerability. Patiromer and sodium zirconium cyclosilicate are newer ion exchange resins for treatment of hyperkalaemia which may cause fewer GI side-effects. Although more recent studies are focusing on clinically-relevant endpoints such as cardiac complications or death, the evidence on safety is still limited. Given the recent expansion in the available treatment options, it is appropriate to review the evidence of effectiveness and tolerability of all potassium exchange resins among people with CKD, with the aim to provide guidance to consumers, practitioners, and policy-makers. To assess the benefits and harms of potassium binders for treating chronic hyperkalaemia among adults and children with CKD. We searched the Cochrane Kidney and Transplant Register of Studies up to 10 March 2020 through contact with the Information Specialist using search terms relevant to this review. Studies in the Register are identified through searches of CENTRAL, MEDLINE, and EMBASE, conference proceedings, the International Clinical Trials Register (ICTRP) Search Portal and ClinicalTrials.gov. Randomised controlled trials (RCTs) and quasi-randomised controlled studies (quasi-RCTs) evaluating potassium binders for chronic hyperkalaemia administered in adults and children with CKD. Two authors independently assessed risks of bias and extracted data. Treatment estimates were summarised by random effects meta-analysis and expressed as relative risk (RR) or mean difference (MD), with 95% confidence interval (CI). Evidence certainty was assessed using GRADE processes. Fifteen studies, randomising 1849 adult participants were eligible for inclusion. Twelve studies involved participants with CKD (stages 1 to 5) not requiring dialysis and three studies were among participants treated with haemodialysis. Potassium binders included calcium polystyrene sulfonate, sodium polystyrene sulfonate, patiromer, and sodium zirconium cyclosilicate. A range of routes, doses, and timing of drug administration were used. Study duration varied from 12 hours to 52 weeks (median 4 weeks). Three were cross-over studies. The mean study age ranged from 53.1 years to 73 years. No studies evaluated treatment in children. Some studies had methodological domains that were at high or unclear risks of bias, leading to low certainty in the results. Studies were not designed to measure treatment effects on cardiac arrhythmias or major GI symptoms. Ten studies (1367 randomised participants) compared a potassium binder to placebo. The certainty of the evidence was low for all outcomes. We categorised treatments in newer agents (patiromer or sodium zirconium cyclosilicate) and older agents (calcium polystyrene sulfonate and sodium polystyrene sulfonate). Patiromer or sodium zirconium cyclosilicate may make little or no difference to death (any cause) (4 studies, 688 participants: RR 0.69, 95% CI 0.11, 4.32; I<sup2</sup = 0%; low certainty evidence) in CKD. The treatment effect of older potassium binders on death (any cause) was unknown. One cardiovascular death was reported with potassium binder in one study, showing that there was no difference between patiromer or sodium zirconium cyclosilicate and placebo for cardiovascular death in CKD and HD. There was no evidence of a difference between patiromer or sodium zirconium cyclosilicate and placebo for health-related quality of life (HRQoL) at the end of treatment (one study) in CKD or HD. Potassium binders had uncertain effects on nausea (3 studies, 229 participants: RR 2.10, 95% CI 0.65, 6.78; I<sup2</sup = 0%; low certainty evidence), diarrhoea (5 studies, 720 participants: RR 0.84, 95% CI 0.47, 1.48; I<sup2</sup = 0%; low certainty evidence), and vomiting (2 studies, 122 participants: RR 1.72, 95% CI 0.35 to 8.51; I<sup2</sup = 0%; low certainty evidence) in CKD. Potassium binders may lower serum potassium levels (at the end of treatment) (3 studies, 277 participants: MD -0.62 mEq/L, 95% CI -0.97, -0.27; I<sup2</sup = 92%; low certainty evidence) in CKD and HD. Potassium binders had uncertain effects on constipation (4 studies, 425 participants: RR 1.58, 95% CI 0.71, 3.52; I<sup2</sup = 0%; low certainty evidence) in CKD. Potassium binders may decrease systolic blood pressure (BP) (2 studies, 369 participants: MD -3.73 mmHg, 95%CI -6.64 to -0.83; I<sup2</sup = 79%; low certainty evidence) and diastolic BP (one study) at the end of the treatment. No study reported outcome data for cardiac arrhythmias or major GI events. Calcium polystyrene sulfonate may make little or no difference to serum potassium levels at end of treatment, compared to sodium polystyrene sulfonate (2 studies, 117 participants: MD 0.38 mEq/L, 95% CI -0.03 to 0.79; I<sup2</sup = 42%, low certainty evidence). There was no evidence of a difference in systolic BP (one study), diastolic BP (one study), or constipation (one study) between calcium polystyrene sulfonate and sodium polystyrene sulfonate. There was no difference between high-dose and low-dose patiromer for death (sudden death) (one study), stroke (one study), myocardial infarction (one study), or constipation (one study). The comparative effects whether potassium binders were administered with or without food, laxatives, or sorbitol, were very uncertain with insufficient data to perform meta-analysis. Evidence supporting clinical decision-making for different potassium binders to treat chronic hyperkalaemia in adults with CKD is of low certainty; no studies were identified in children. Available studies have not been designed to measure treatment effects on clinical outcomes such as cardiac arrhythmias or major GI symptoms. This review suggests the need for a large, adequately powered study of potassium binders versus placebo that assesses clinical outcomes of relevance to patients, clinicians and policy-makers. This data could be used to assess cost-effectiveness, given the lack of definitive studies and the clinical importance of potassium binders for chronic hyperkalaemia in people with CKD.

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The physiological roles of the cornea are to conduct external light into the eye, focus it, together with the lens, onto the retina, and to provide rigidity to the entire eyeball. Good vision thus requires maintenance of the transparency and proper refractive shape of the cornea. Although the cornea appears to be a relatively static structure, dynamic processes operate within and around the cornea at the tissue, cell, and molecular level. In this article, I review the mechanisms responsible for maintenance of corneal homeostasis as well as the development of new modes of treatment for various corneal diseases. I. The static cornea: structure and physiological functions. The cornea is derived from ectoderm, so that it can be considered as transparent skin. It is devoid of blood vessels and manifests the highest sensitivity in the entire body. The surface of the cornea is covered by tear fluid, which serves both as a lubricant and as a conduit for regulatory molecules. The cornea is also supplied with oxygen and various nutrients by the aqueous humor and a loop vascular system in addition to tear fluid. The cornea interacts with its surrounding tissues directly as well as indirectly through tear fluid or aqueous humor, with such interactions playing an important role in the regulation of corneal structure and functions. The resident cells of the cornea-epithelial cells, fibroblasts (keratocytes), and endothelial cells--also engage in mutual interactions through network systems. These interactions as well as those with infiltrated cells and regulation by nerves contribute to the maintenance of the normal structure and functions of the cornea as well as to the repair of corneal injuries. II. The dynamic cornea: maintenance of structure and functions by network systems. Developments in laser and computer technology have allowed observation of the cells and collagen fibers within the cornea. Furthermore, progress in cell and molecular biology has allowed characterization of dynamic network systems-including cell-cell and cell-extracellular matrix interactions as well as cytokines and neural factors-that contribute to the maintenance of corneal transparency and shape. III. Disruption of network systems: persistent corneal epithelial defects and corneal ulcer. Selection of the appropriate treatment for pathologic lesions of the cornea and the accompanying decrease in visual acuity requires localization of the lesion with regard to the epithelium, stroma, or endothelium of the cornea. In certain instances, however, it is not possible to determine the cause of the problem within the cornea. In such cases, the cause of the pathologic lesion and the target for treatment may lie in the surrounding tissues or environment. For example, corneal epithelial wound healing may be delayed, leading to the development of persistent epithelial defects, as a result of disruption of intercellular junctions between epithelial cells, an abnormality of the corneal basement membrane, altered concentrations of various cytokines in tear fluid, a lowered corneal sensation, or allergic reactions in the lid conjunctiva. Loss of corneal epithelial barrier function can further allow inflammatory cytokines present in tear fluid, together with infiltrated cells, to activate keratocytes and elicit excessive degradation of collagen in the stroma, thereby giving rise to corneal ulcer. IV. Development of new drugs for corneal diseases. We have attempted to apply the results of basic scientific research to the development of new drugs for corneal diseases that remain difficult to treat. The process of authorization for new drugs from the Ministry of Health, Labor, and Welfare takes more than two decades, however. The path from the bench to clinical practice is thus a long one. 1. Development of eyedrops for treatment of persistent corneal epithelial defects. We demonstrated the clinical efficacy of fibronectin eyedrops for the treatment of persistent epithelial defects of the cornea. However, the possibility of blood-borne infections has interfered with the development of serum-derived fibronectin as a drug. An automated machine for the preparation of autologous fibronectin eyedrops has therefore recently been developed. Furthermore, in seeking an alternative to fibronectin eyedrops, we are investigating the effects of a peptide corresponding to the second cell-binding domain of fibronectin on corneal epithelial wound healing. Considering that urokinase-type plasminogen activator may be expressed at the site of corneal epithelial defects and facilitates epithelial migration, the potential clinical application of annexin V, which stimulates the secretion of urokinase-type plasminogen activator for the treatment of persistent corneal epithelial defects is also now under investigation in Japan. 2. Development of eyedrops for treatment of neurotrophic keratopathy. Substance P, a neurotransmitter, stimulates corneal epithelial migration in a synergistic manner with insulin-like growth factor (IGF)--1. We have shown that eyedrops containing both the substance P-derived peptide FGLM-amide and the IGF-1--derived peptide SSSR are effective for the treatment of persistent corneal epithelial defects in individuals with diabetic keratopathy or neurotrophic keratopathy, both of which are associated with a reduction in corneal sensation. 3. Development of drugs for corneal ulcer. Treatment of corneal infection with antibiotics does not necessarily halt the process of corneal ulceration, which is characterized by excessive degradation of stromal collagen, or resolve persistent corneal epithelial defects. In addition to eyedrops for the treatment of persistent corneal epithelial defects, we have therefore also been working on the development of new drugs for the treatment of corneal ulcer. To this end, we have established an experimental system in which corneal fibroblasts are cultured in a three-dimensional collagen gel. With this system, we have shown that triptolide and steroids inhibit collagen degradation by corneal fibroblasts. Triptolide or its derivatives are thus potential drugs for the treatment of corneal ulcer and would work by acting directly on corneal fibroblasts rather than by inhibiting the secreted enzymes(matrix metalloproteinases) responsible for collagen degradation.

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Formamide is used as a softener for paper, gums, and animal glues; as an ionizing solvent; and in the manufacture of formic esters and hydrocyanic acid. Formamide was nominated for reproductive and genetic toxicity evaluation by the Environmental Defense Fund and for carcinogenicity evaluation by the National Cancer Institute because of the potential for human exposure associated with its widespread industrial use, the absence of data adequately characterizing its potential for reproductive and genetic toxicity, and the fact that acetamide, a compound structurally related to form-amide, is hepatocarcinogenic in rats when administered in feed. Male and female F344/N rats and B6C3F1 mice were administered formamide (approximately 100% pure) in deionized water by gavage for 2 weeks, 3 months, or 2 years. Genetic toxicology studies were conducted in Salmonella typhimurium and Escherichia coli, Drosophila melanogaster, and mouse peripheral blood erythrocytes. 3-MONTH STUDY IN RATS: Groups of 10 male and 10 female rats were administered 0, 10, 20, 40, 80, or 160 mg formamide/kg body weight in deionized water by gavage, 5 days per week for 14 weeks. Additional groups of 10 male and 10 female rats (clinical pathology study) and five male and five female rats (plasma concentration study) were administered the same doses, 5 days per week for up to 14 weeks. All core study rats survived to the end of the study. Mean body weights of females in the 40 mg/kg group and males and females in the 80 and 160 mg/kg groups were significantly less than those of the vehicle controls. On day 23 and at week 14, there was a dose-related increase in the erythron, evidenced by increases in hematocrit values, hemoglobin concentrations, and erythrocyte counts. The incidences of degeneration of the germinal epithelium of the testes and epididymis were significantly increased in 160 mg/kg males. 3-MONTH STUDY IN MICE: Groups of 10 male and 10 female mice were administered 0, 10, 20, 40, 80, or 160 mg formamide/kg body weight in deionized water by gavage, 5 days per week for 14 weeks. Additional groups of five male and five female mice (plasma concentration study) were administered the same doses, 5 days per week for 14 weeks. All mice survived to the end of the study. Final mean body weights of the 80 and 160 mg/kg males and mean body weight gains of 40, 80, and 160 mg/kg males were significantly less than those of the vehicle controls. Dosed females differed significantly from vehicle controls in the relative amount of time spent in the estrous stages. All 160 mg/kg males had abnormal residual bodies in the testes. 2-YEAR STUDY IN RATS: Groups of 50 male and 50 female rats were administered 0, 20, 40, or 80 mg formamide/kg body weight, 5 days per week for 104 to 105 weeks in deionized water by gavage. Survival of all dosed groups of rats was similar to that of the vehicle controls. Mean body weights of 80 mg/kg males were less than those of the vehicle controls throughout most of the study. Mean body weights of 40 and 80 mg/kg females were somewhat less than those of the vehicle controls during the second year of the study. A significant increase in the incidence of bone marrow hyperplasia occurred in 80 mg/kg males. No neoplasms were attributed to exposure to formamide. 2-YEAR STUDY IN MICE: Groups of 50 male and 50 female mice were administered 0, 20, 40, or 80 mg formamide/kg body weight, 5 days per week for 104 to 105 weeks in deionized water by gavage. Survival of all dosed groups of mice was similar to that of the vehicle controls. Mean body weights of 80 mg/kg males and females were generally less than those of the vehicle controls throughout the study; mean body weights of 40 mg/kg females were generally less after week 13 of the study. The incidences of hemangiosarcoma of the liver occurred with a positive trend in males, and the incidences were significantly increased in the 40 and 80 mg/kg groups. The incidence of hepatocellular adenoma or carcinoma (combined) in 80 mg/kg females was significantly increased. The incidences of mineralization of the testicular arteries and testicular tunic were significantly increased in 80 mg/kg males. The incidence of hematopoietic cell proliferation of the spleen was significantly increased in 80 mg/kg males. Formamide gave no evidence for mutagenicity in a series of short-term assays. In three independent Ames assays, formamide was not mutagenic in any of several strains of S. typhimurium tested with and without rat or hamster liver S9 activation enzymes or in E. coli strain WP uvrA pKM101 tested with and without 10% rat liver S9. Negative results were obtained in a test for induction of sex-linked recessive lethal mutations in germ cells of male D. melanogaster treated with formamide either by feeding or injection. Formamide did not induce increases in micronucleated erythrocytes in male or female mice treated by gavage for 3 months. Under the conditions of these 2-year gavage studies, there was no evidence of carcinogenic activity of form-amide in male or female F344/N rats administered 20, 40, or 80 mg/kg. There was clear evidence of carcinogenic activity of formamide in male B6C3F1 mice based on increased incidences of hemangiosarcoma of the liver. There was equivocal evidence of carcinogenic activity of formamide in female B6C3F1 mice based on increased incidences of hepatocellular adenoma or carcinoma (combined). An increased incidence of bone marrow hyperplasia occurred in male rats. Mineralization of the testicular arteries and tunic and hematopoietic cell proliferation of the spleen in male mice were also associated with administration of formamide.

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The foregoing and earlier data taken together demonstrate that an active immunity lasting several years can be produced in guinea-pigs, by the injection of toxin-antitoxin mixtures which have no recognizable harmful effect either immediate or remote. They also show, what might have been anticipated, that under the same conditions mixtures which produce local lesions and which, therefore, contain an excess of toxin produce a much higher degree of immunity than the neutral mixtures, and that an excess of antitoxin reduces the possibility of producing an active immunity, and may extinguish it altogether. There is, therefore, a certain definite relation between the components of the mixture and the degree of immunity producible. Furthermore, toxin-antitoxin mixtures do not change materially within five days at room temperature. They are apparently more efficacious at the end of forty-eight hours than immediately after preparation. The experiments finally prove that a relatively high degree of active immunity can be induced by a harmless procedure, whereas the use of toxin alone leading to very severe local lesions is incapable of producing more than an insignificant protection. The method, therefore, invites further tests in regard to its ultimate applicability to the human being. Unless the subcutis of the guinea-pig reacts to toxin-antitoxin mixtures in a manner peculiar to itself, a practical, easily controlled method for active immunization can be worked out which should afford a larger protection than the serum alone and avoid the complications associated with horse serum. That proportion of toxin and antitoxin which would produce the highest desirable immunity consistent with the least discomfort would have to be carefully worked out for the human subject. From the nature of the immunity induced it is obvious, however, that such a method of immunization cannot take the place of a large dose of antitoxin in exposed individuals who must be protected at once. It would be applicable only as a general protective measure without reference to any immediate danger, since it would take several weeks, perhaps longer, to perfect the attainable immunity. Passing to the theoretical aspects of the facts observed, we find no publications bearing directly upon the subject before us. Madsen has, however, approached it very closely in his experiments on the immunization of animals with mixtures not fully balanced, or, in other words, in which the "toxones" were still free. He found that the injection of such mixtures in rabbits, goats and horses produces an active immunity. He makes the significant remark that perhaps in the immunizing capacity we may possess the keenest reagent for a poison which is not able to exert any toxic action in the body. This is fully borne out by the experiments described, for in these we pass beyond the visible spectrum, so to speak, of the toxin-antitoxin effects, and we are able to recognize toxic action only by the lasting immunizing effects. Another publication which touches upon some phases of the same problem is that of Morgenroth on the union between toxin and antitoxin. Morgenroth brought out the fact that a given toxin-antitoxin mixture is more toxic when injected directly into the circulation than when injected under the skin. Thus, an L(+) dose of 0.78 c.c. toxin + one unit antitoxin applied subcutaneously was of the same toxicity as 0.68 c.c. toxin + one unit antitoxin injected into the circulation. When the mixture had stood twenty-four hours this (L(+)) dose was still 0.78 c.c. subcutaneously, but it had risen to 0.74 c.c. when introduced by the intracardiac route. The author makes two deductions from these results. He assumes that the velocity of reaction between toxin and antitoxin is slow, and that the union is not completed until the mixture has stood twenty-four hours. Hence, the L(+) dose of toxin injected into the blood is higher after twenty-four hours than immediately after mixing the toxin and antitoxin. He furthermore explains the fact that the subcutaneous L(+) dose remains the same whether the mixture is injected at once or after twenty-four hours, by assuming that in the subcutis of the guinea-pig there is a catalytic acceleration of the union of toxin and antitoxin. In view of the writer's results it seems that not only immediately, but four to five days after the preparation of the mixture of toxin and antitoxin, there are still toxic substances available for the production of immunity in the body of the guinea-pig, when the dose of toxin in the mixture is far below the L(0) or neutral level. These toxins may be free, either because uncombined in vitro, or else because the mixture is partially dissociated in vivo, or there may be a third possibility. It is obvious that Morgenroth's investigations, however extensive and thorough, have not exhausted the subject, for both these inferences are incompatible with his. Perhaps his recent important studies on the recovery of toxin from its combination with antitoxin with weak acids may throw more light on this subject. The only conclusion which we may safely draw at this time is that the toxin-antitoxin mixture produces two sets of effects, essentially identical, however. One is visible, as injury (oedema, loss of hair, superficial and deep necrosis of skin, paralysis and death), and corresponds to the toxin spectrum of Ehrlich. The other is invisible and manifests itself only in degrees of active immunity. At what ratio of toxin to antitoxin in the mixture active immunity is no longer produced will vary somewhat with the guinea-pig used, but it is evident that traces of immunity are still transmitted to the young when the amount of toxin approaches half the L(0) dose.

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The specific tissue changes which follow the deprivation of fat-soluble vitamin A in albino white rats and in the human concerns epithelial tissues. This effect is the substitution of stratified keratinizing epithelium for normal epithelium in various parts of the respiratory tract, alimentary tract, eyes, and paraocular glands and the genitourinary tract. We have described the morphological sequences which clearly show that the replacement of epithelium arises from focal proliferation of cells arising from the original epithelium and not by differentiation or change of preexisting cells. Young rats respond to the deficiency more promptly than adults. Growth activity of epithelium is not diminished. On the contrary, there is convincing evidence that it is greatly augmented. In a few of our animals the behavior of the replacing epithelium in respect to numbers of mitotic figures and response on the part of connective tissue and blood vessels suggests the acquisition of neoplastic properties. While the epitheliums which are the seats of these changes are largely of covering types, glandular epithelium is involved, specifically in the paraocular glands and salivary glands. It is highly probable also that the epithelium of gland ducts, respiratory mucosa, and genitourinary tract have secretory functions so that we conclude that the deficiency results in loss of specific (chemical) functions of the epitheliums concerned, while the power of growth becomes augmented. Explanation for the substitution of a chemically inactive (nonsecretory) epithelium, common in type for all locations, remains a matter of speculation. We can only speculate also in regard to the absence of change in the epithelium of such organ as the liver, parenchyma of the kidney, stomach, and intestines. The significance of the order or sequence in which different organs exhibit this change has not been determined. In general the respiratory mucosa in nares, trachea, and bronchi respond first, then the salivary glands, eye, genitourinary tract, then paraocular glands and pancreas, although as has been noted there are exceptions to this order. Our studies show that the mitochondrial apparatus is not primarily affected. Study of individual cells indicates that the first morphological evidence of avitaminosis will be found in the nucleus. We have not devoted sufficient study to be certain, but an increase of chromatin and in some instances in size of nucleoli are early morphological manifestations. Other important effects of fat-soluble A deficiency are atrophy of glandular organs, emaciation, localized edema of testes, submaxillary gland, and connective tissue structures of the lungs and focal myocardial lesions. From our own limited experience with rats fed on a water-soluble B deficient diet and from work by Cramer, Drew, and Mottram, the loss of fat in water-soluble B deficiency is as great, if not greater than in vitamin A deuciency, so that tor tne present we assume that this is not a specific manifestation of any one avitaminosis. The same applies to glandular atrophy. Both of these effects probably concern the nutrition as a whole and may be ascribed to inanition. The occurrence of transient edema in testes and salivary gland coinciding with a period of maximum atrophic change, suggests the hypothesis that this edema is the result of failure of epithelium to utilize transported material, which leads further to the hypothesis that the capillaries of these organs are differentiated in regard to permeability to the respective materials utilized by the cells. It would seem that in the case of the testis we have a unique instance of complete atrophy producible at will without impairment of circulation and supporting tissues. This phenomenon may possibly be followed with advantage in the study of the mechanism of edema. Vascularization of the cornea, as we have shown it to be independent of infection, must be a physiological response to the increased demands of the rapidly growing epithelium which has replaced the corneal epithelium. We have assumed throughout this work that the diet on which we kept our animals was deficient in respect to a single substance or group of substances having similar physiological properties, designated by the term fat-soluble vitamin A. Whether or not more than one so called vitamin or accessory substance was missing in the diet we employed does not affect the theoretical importance of the morphological results. Work by Evans and Bishop would indicate that other factors affecting fertility in addition to the so called antixerophthalmic or vitamin A factor may have been missing. Our own experience leads us to believe the specific effects we have described upon epithelial tissues were in all probability due to withdrawal of a single factor. We have shown how these effects, that is the replacement of uterine epithelium by keratinizing epithelium can account for sterility in the female. Whether or not the atrophy of the testis is due to the same factor remains to be proved, but presumptive evidence is strong that this is the case. The study of the reverse changes that follow in the rapid amelioration when the rats are restored to an adequate diet has been begun and will be reported later. We have shown that the substitution of keratinizing epithelium in all locations is not secondary to infections, and presumably is a primary effect of the withdrawal of factors essential for the chemical activities or maintenance of differentiation of the epitheliums concerned. It is, of course, possible that the phenomenon is produced in a roundabout way in that it may be secondary to the effects of the avitaminosis upon the metabolism of tissue-sustaining substances. This possibility is supported by the cessation of growth of the skeleton and teeth, although we know that other avitaminoses produce retardation of growth.

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Schizophrenia often presents in adolescence, but current treatment guidelines are based largely on studies of adults with psychosis. Over the past decade, the number of studies on treatment of adolescent-onset psychosis has increased. The current systematic review collates and critiques evidence obtained on the use of various atypical antipsychotic medications for adolescents with psychosis. To investigate the effects of atypical antipsychotic medications in adolescents with psychosis. We reviewed in separate analyses various comparisons of atypical antipsychotic medications with placebo or a typical antipsychotic medication or another atypical antipsychotic medication or the same atypical antipsychotic medication but at a lower dose. We searched the Cochrane Schizophrenia Group Register (October 2011), which is based on regular searches of BIOSIS, CENTRAL, CINAHL, EMBASE, MEDLINE and PsycINFO. We inspected references of all identified studies and contacted study authors and relevant pharmaceutical companies to ask for more information. We included all relevant randomised controlled trials (RCTs) that compared atypical antipsychotic medication with placebo or another pharmacological intervention or with psychosocial interventions, standard psychiatric treatment or no intervention in children and young people aged 13 to 18 years with a diagnosis of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, acute and transient psychoses or unspecified psychosis. We included studies published in English and in other languages that were available in standardised databases. Review authors AK and SSD selected the studies, rated the quality of the studies and performed data extraction. For dichotomous data, we estimated risk ratios (RRs) with 95% confidence intervals (CIs) using a fixed-effect model. When possible, for binary data presented in the 'Summary of findings' table, we calculated illustrative comparative risks. We summated continuous data using the mean difference (MD). Risk of bias was assessed for included studies. We included 13 RCTs, with a total of 1112 participants. We found no data on service utilisation, economic outcomes, behaviour or cognitive response. Trials were classified into the following groups. 1. Atypical antipsychotics versus placebo: Only two studies compared one atypical antipsychotic medication with placebo. In one study, the number of non-responders treated with olanzapine was not different from the number treated with placebo (1 RCT, n = 107, RR 0.84, 95% CI 0.65 to 1.10); however, significantly more (57% vs 32%) people left the study early (1 RCT, n = 107, RR 0.56, 95% CI 0.36 to 0.87) from the placebo group compared with the olanzapine group. With regard to adverse effects, young people treated with aripiprazole had significantly lower serum cholesterol compared with those given placebo (1 RCT, n = 302, RR 3.77, 95% CI 1.88 to 7.58). 2. Atypical antipsychotics versus typical antipsychotics: When the findings of all five trials comparing atypical antipsychotic medications with a typical antipsychotic medication were collated, no difference in the mean end point Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) score was noted between the two arms (5 RCTs, n = 236, MD -1.08, 95% CI -3.08 to 0.93). With regard to adverse effects, the mean end point serum prolactin concentration was much higher than the reference range for treatment with risperidone, olanzapine and molindone in one of the studies. However, fewer adolescents who were receiving atypical antipsychotic medications left the study because of adverse effects (3 RCTs, n = 187, RR 0.65, 95% CI 0.36 to 1.15) or for any reason (3 RCTs, n = 187, RR 0.62, 95% CI 0.39 to 0.97).3. One atypical antipsychotic versus another atypical antipsychotic: The mean end point BPRS score was not significantly different for people who received risperidone compared with those who received olanzapine; however, the above data were highly skewed. Overall no difference was noted in the number of people leaving the studies early because of any adverse effects between each study arm in the three studies comparing olanzapine and risperidone (3 RCTs, n = 130, RR 1.15, 95% CI 0.44 to 3.04). Specific adverse events were not reported uniformly across the six different studies included in this section of the review; therefore it was difficult to do a head-to-head comparison of adverse events for different atypical antipsychotic medications.4. Lower-dose atypical antipsychotic versus standard/higher-dose atypical antipsychotic: Three studies reported comparisons of lower doses of the atypical antipsychotic medication with standard/higher doses of the same medication. One study reported better symptom reduction with a standard dose of risperidone as compared with a low dose (1 RCT, n = 257, RR -8.00, 95% CI -13.75 to -2.25). In another study, no difference was reported in the number of participants not achieving remission between the group receiving 10 mg/d and those who received 30 mg/d of aripiprazole (1 RCT, n = 196, RR 0.84, 95% CI 0.48 to 1.48). Similarly in the other study, authors reported no statistically significant difference in clinical response between the two groups receiving lower-dose (80 mg/d) and higher-dose (160 mg/d) ziprasidone, as reflected by the mean end point BPRS score (1 RCT, n = 17, MD -4.40, 95% CI -19.20 to 10.40). No convincing evidence suggests that atypical antipsychotic medications are superior to typical medications for the treatment of adolescents with psychosis. However, atypical antipsychotic medications may be more acceptable to young people because fewer symptomatic adverse effects are seen in the short term. Little evidence is available to support the superiority of one atypical antipsychotic medication over another, but side effect profiles are different for different medications. Treatment with olanzapine, risperidone and clozapine is often associated with weight gain. Aripiprazole is not associated with increased prolactin or with dyslipidaemia. Adolescents may respond better to standard-dose as opposed to lower-dose risperidone, but for aripiprazole and ziprasidone, lower doses may be equally effective. Future trials should ensure uniform ways of reporting.

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Lumbar spinal stenosis is a common cause of back pain that can also give rise to pain in the buttock, thigh or leg, particularly when walking. Several possible treatments are available, of which surgery appears to be best at restoring function and reducing pain. Surgical outcome is not ideal, and a sizeable proportion of patients do not regain good function. No accepted evidence-based approach to postoperative care is known-a fact thathas prompted this review. To determine whether active rehabilitation programmes following primary surgery for lumbar spinal stenosis have an impact on functional outcomes and whether such programmes are superior to 'usual postoperative care'. We searched the following databases from their first issues to March 2013: CENTRAL (The Cochrane Library, most recent issue), the Cochrane Back Review Group Trials Register, MEDLINE, EMBASE, CINAHL and PEDro. We considered randomised controlled trials (RCTs) that compared the effectiveness of active rehabilitation versus usual care in adults (&gt; 18 years of age) with confirmed lumbar spinal stenosis who had undergone spinal decompressive surgery (with or without fusion) for the first time. Two review authors independently extracted data from the included trials by using a predeveloped form. We contacted authors of original trials to request additional unpublished data as required. We recorded baseline characteristics of participants, interventions, comparisons, follow-up and outcome measures to enable assessment of clinical homogeneity. Clinical relevance was independently assessed by using the five questions recommended by the Cochrane Back Review Group (CBRG), and risk of bias within studies was determined by using CBRG criteria.We pooled individual study results in a meta-analysis when appropriate. For continuous outcomes, we calculated the mean difference (MD) when the same measurement scales were used in all studies and the standardised mean difference (SMD) when different measurement scales were used. Whenreported means and standard deviations of the outcomes showed that outcome data were skewed, we log-transformed data for all studies in the comparison and performed a meta-analysis on the log-scale. Results of analyses performed on the log-scale were converted back to the original scale. We used a fixed-effect inverse variance model to measure treatment effect when no substantial evidence of statistical heterogeneity was found. When we detected substantial statistical heterogeneity, we used a random-effects inverse variance model.The primary outcome measure was functional status as measured by a back-specific functional scale. Secondary outcomes included measures of leg pain, low back pain and global improvement/general health. We considered statistical significance and clinical relevance of outcomes. We used the GRADE approach to assess the overall quality of evidence for each outcome on the basis of five criteria, for which evidence was ranked from high to very low quality, depending on the number of criteria met. Our searches yielded 1,726 results, and a total of three studies (N = 373 participants) were included in the review and meta-analysis. All studies were deemed to have low risk of bias; no study had unacceptably high dropout rates. Also, no unacceptably unbalanced dropout rates, unacceptably low adherence rates or non-adherence to the protocol or clearly significant unbalanced baseline differences were noted for the primary outcome. Outcomes in the short term (within six months postoperative)Evidence of moderate quality from three RCTs (N = 340) shows that active rehabilitation is more effective than usual care for functional status (log SMD -0.22, 95% confidence interval (CI) -0.44 to 0.00, corresponding to an average percentage improvement (reduction in standardised functional score) of 20%, 95% CI 0% to 36%) and for reported low back pain (log MD -0.18, 95% CI-0.35 to -0.02, corresponding to an average percentage improvement (reduction in VAS score) of 16%, 95% CI 2% to 30%). In contrast, evidence of low quality suggests that rehabilitation is no more effective than usual care for leg pain (log MD -0.17, 95% CI -0.52 to 0.19, corresponding to an average percentage improvement (reduction in VAS score) of 16%, 95% CI 21% worsening to 41% improvement). Low-quality evidence from two RCTs (N = 238) indicates that rehabilitation has no additional benefit on general health status as compared to usual care (MD 1.30, 95% CI -4.45 to 7.06). Outcomes in the long term (at 12 months postoperative)Evidence of moderate quality from three RCTs (N = 373) shows that rehabilitation is more effective than usual care for functional status (log SMD -0.26, 95% CI -0.46 to -0.05, corresponding to an average percentage improvement (reduction in standardised functional score) of 23%, 95% CI 5% to 37%), for reported low back pain (log MD -0.20, 95% CI -0.36 to -0.05, corresponding to an average percentage improvement (reduction in VAS score) of 18%, 95% CI 5% to 30%]. Evidence of moderate quality (N = 373) and for leg pain (log MD -0.24, 95% CI -0.47 to -0.01, corresponding to an average percentage improvement (reduction in VAS score) of 21%, 95% CI 1% to 37%). In contrast, evidence of low quality from two studies (N = 273) suggests that rehabilitation is no more effective than usual care with respect to improvement in general health (MD -0.48, 95% CI -6.41 to 5.4).None of the included papers reported any relevant adverse events. Evidence suggests that active rehabilitation is more effective than usual care in improving both short- and long-term (back-related) functional status. Similar findings were noted for secondary outcomes, including short-term improvement in low back pain and long-term improvement in both low back pain and leg pain, although limited impact was observed in relation to improvements in general health status. The clinical relevance of these effects is medium to small. Our evaluation is limited by the small number of relevant studies identified, and further research is required.

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Randomized controlled trials have yielded conflicting results regarding the ability of beta-blockers to influence perioperative cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Thus routine prescription of these drugs in unselected patients remains a controversial issue. The objective of this review was to systematically analyse the effects of perioperatively administered beta-blockers for prevention of surgery-related mortality and morbidity in patients undergoing any type of surgery while under general anaesthesia. We identified trials by searching the following databases from the date of their inception until June 2013: MEDLINE, EMBASE, the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL), Biosis Previews, CAB Abstracts, Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature (CINAHL), Derwent Drug File, Science Citation Index Expanded, Life Sciences Collection, Global Health and PASCAL. In addition, we searched online resources to identify grey literature. We included randomized controlled trials if participants were randomly assigned to a beta-blocker group or a control group (standard care or placebo). Surgery (any type) had to be performed with all or at least a significant proportion of participants under general anaesthesia. Two review authors independently extracted data from all studies. In cases of disagreement, we reassessed the respective studies to reach consensus. We computed summary estimates in the absence of significant clinical heterogeneity. Risk ratios (RRs) were used for dichotomous outcomes, and mean differences (MDs) were used for continuous outcomes. We performed subgroup analyses for various potential effect modifiers. We included 89 randomized controlled trials with 19,211 participants. Six studies (7%) met the highest methodological quality criteria (studies with overall low risk of bias: adequate sequence generation, adequate allocation concealment, double/triple-blinded design with a placebo group, intention-to-treat analysis), whereas in the remaining trials, some form of bias was present or could not be definitively excluded (studies with overall unclear or high risk of bias). Outcomes were evaluated separately for cardiac and non-cardiac surgery. CARDIAC SURGERY (53 trials)We found no clear evidence of an effect of beta-blockers on the following outcomes.• All-cause mortality: RR 0.73, 95% CI 0.35 to 1.52, 3783 participants, moderate quality of evidence.• Acute myocardial infarction (AMI): RR 1.04, 95% CI 0.71 to 1.51, 3553 participants, moderate quality of evidence.• Myocardial ischaemia: RR 0.51, 95% CI 0.25 to 1.05, 166 participants, low quality of evidence.• Cerebrovascular events: RR 1.52, 95% CI 0.58 to 4.02, 1400 participants, low quality of evidence.• Hypotension: RR 1.54, 95% CI 0.67 to 3.51, 558 participants, low quality of evidence.• Bradycardia: RR 1.61, 95% CI 0.97 to 2.66, 660 participants, low quality of evidence.• Congestive heart failure: RR 0.22, 95% CI 0.04 to 1.34, 311 participants, low quality of evidence.Beta-blockers significantly reduced the occurrence of the following endpoints.• Ventricular arrhythmias: RR 0.37, 95% CI 0.24 to 0.58, number needed to treat for an additional beneficial outcome (NNTB) 29, 2292 participants, moderate quality of evidence.• Supraventricular arrhythmias: RR 0.44, 95% CI 0.36 to 0.53, NNTB six, 6420 participants, high quality of evidence.• On average, beta-blockers reduced length of hospital stay by 0.54 days (95% CI -0.90 to -0.19, 2450 participants, low quality of evidence). NON-CARDIAC SURGERY (36 trials)We found a potential increase in the occurrence of the following outcomes with the use of beta-blockers.• All-cause mortality: RR 1.24, 95% CI 0.99 to 1.54, 11,463 participants, low quality of evidence.Whereas no clear evidence of an effect was noted when all studies were analysed, restricting the meta-analysis to low risk of bias studies revealed a significant increase in all-cause mortality with the use of beta-blockers: RR 1.27, 95% CI 1.01 to 1.59, number needed to treat for an additional harmful outcome (NNTH) 189, 10,845 participants.• Cerebrovascular events: RR 1.59, 95% CI 0.93 to 2.71, 9150 participants, low quality of evidence.Whereas no clear evidence of an effect was found when all studies were analysed, restricting the meta-analysis to low risk of bias studies revealed a significant increase in cerebrovascular events with the use of beta-blockers: RR 2.09, 95% CI 1.14 to 3.82, NNTH 255, 8648 participants.Beta-blockers significantly reduced the occurrence of the following endpoints.• AMI: RR 0.73, 95% CI 0.61 to 0.87, NNTB 72, 10,958 participants, high quality of evidence.• Myocardial ischaemia: RR 0.43, 95% CI 0.27 to 0.70, NNTB seven, 1028 participants, moderate quality of evidence.• Supraventricular arrhythmias: RR 0.72, 95% CI 0.56 to 0.92, NNTB 111, 8794 participants, high quality of evidence.Beta-blockers significantly increased the occurrence of the following adverse events.• Hypotension: RR 1.50, 95% CI 1.38 to 1.64, NNTH 15, 10,947 participants, high quality of evidence.• Bradycardia: RR 2.24, 95% CI 1.49 to 3.35, NNTH 18, 11,083 participants, moderate quality of evidence.We found no clear evidence of an effect of beta-blockers on the following outcomes.• Ventricular arrhythmias: RR 0.64, 95% CI 0.30 to 1.33, 526 participants, moderate quality of evidence.• Congestive heart failure: RR 1.17, 95% CI 0.93 to 1.47, 9223 participants, moderate quality of evidence.• Length of hospital stay: mean difference -0.27 days, 95% CI -1.29 to 0.75, 601 participants, low quality of evidence. According to our findings, perioperative application of beta-blockers still plays a pivotal role in cardiac surgery , as they can substantially reduce the high burden of supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias in the aftermath of surgery. Their influence on mortality, AMI, stroke, congestive heart failure, hypotension and bradycardia in this setting remains unclear.In non-cardiac surgery, evidence from low risk of bias trials shows an increase in all-cause mortality and stroke with the use of beta-blockers. As the quality of evidence is still low to moderate, more evidence is needed before a definitive conclusion can be drawn. The substantial reduction in supraventricular arrhythmias and AMI in this setting seems to be offset by the potential increase in mortality and stroke.

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Electronic cigarettes (ECs) are electronic devices that heat a liquid - usually comprising propylene glycol and glycerol, with or without nicotine and flavours, stored in disposable or refillable cartridges or a reservoir - into an aerosol for inhalation. Since ECs appeared on the market in 2006 there has been a steady growth in sales. Smokers report using ECs to reduce risks of smoking, but some healthcare organisations have been reluctant to encourage smokers to switch to ECs, citing lack of evidence of efficacy and safety. Smokers, healthcare providers and regulators are interested to know if these devices can reduce the harms associated with smoking. In particular, healthcare providers have an urgent need to know what advice they should give to smokers enquiring about ECs. To examine the efficacy of ECs in helping people who smoke to achieve long-term abstinence; to examine the efficacy of ECs in helping people reduce cigarette consumption by at least 50% of baseline levels; and to assess the occurrence of adverse events associated with EC use. We searched the Cochrane Tobacco Addiction Groups Trials Register, the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL), MEDLINE, Embase, and two other databases for relevant records from 2004 to July 2014, together with reference checking and contact with study authors. We included randomized controlled trials (RCTs) in which current smokers (motivated or unmotivated to quit) were randomized to EC or a control condition, and which measured abstinence rates or changes in cigarette consumption at six months or longer. As the field of EC research is new, we also included cohort follow-up studies with at least six months follow-up. We included randomized cross-over trials and cohort follow-up studies that included at least one week of EC use for assessment of adverse events. One review author extracted data from the included studies and another checked them. Our main outcome measure was abstinence from smoking after at least six months follow-up, and we used the most rigorous definition available (continuous, biochemically validated, longest follow-up). For reduction we used a dichotomous approach (no change/reduction &lt; 50% versus reduction by 50% or more of baseline cigarette consumption). We used a fixed-effect Mantel-Haenszel model to calculate the risk ratio (RR) with a 95% confidence interval (CI) for each study, and where appropriate we pooled data from these studies in meta-analyses. Our search identified almost 600 records, from which we include 29 representing 13 completed studies (two RCTs, 11 cohort). We identified nine ongoing trials. Two RCTs compared EC with placebo (non-nicotine) EC, with a combined sample size of 662 participants. One trial included minimal telephone support and one recruited smokers not intending to quit, and both used early EC models with low nicotine content. We judged the RCTs to be at low risk of bias, but under the GRADE system the overall quality of the evidence for our outcomes was rated 'low' or 'very low' because of imprecision due to the small number of trials. A 'low' grade means that further research is very likely to have an important impact on our confidence in the estimate of effect and is likely to change the estimate. A 'very low' grade means we are very uncertain about the estimate. Participants using an EC were more likely to have abstained from smoking for at least six months compared with participants using placebo EC (RR 2.29, 95% CI 1.05 to 4.96; placebo 4% versus EC 9%; 2 studies; GRADE: low). The one study that compared EC to nicotine patch found no significant difference in six-month abstinence rates, but the confidence intervals do not rule out a clinically important difference (RR 1.26, 95% CI: 0.68 to 2.34; GRADE: very low). A higher number of people were able to reduce cigarette consumption by at least half with ECs compared with placebo ECs (RR 1.31, 95% CI 1.02 to 1.68, 2 studies; placebo: 27% versus EC: 36%; GRADE: low) and compared with patch (RR 1.41, 95% CI 1.20 to 1.67, 1 study; patch: 44% versus EC: 61%; GRADE: very low). Unlike smoking cessation outcomes, reduction results were not biochemically verified.None of the RCTs or cohort studies reported any serious adverse events (SAEs) that were considered to be plausibly related to EC use. One RCT provided data on the proportion of participants experiencing any adverse events. Although the proportion of participants in the study arms experiencing adverse events was similar, the confidence intervals are wide (ECs vs placebo EC RR 0.97, 95% CI 0.71 to 1.34; ECs vs patch RR 0.99, 95% CI 0.81 to 1.22). The other RCT reported no statistically significant difference in the frequency of AEs at three- or 12-month follow-up between the EC and placebo EC groups, and showed that in all groups the frequency of AEs (with the exception of throat irritation) decreased significantly over time. There is evidence from two trials that ECs help smokers to stop smoking long-term compared with placebo ECs. However, the small number of trials, low event rates and wide confidence intervals around the estimates mean that our confidence in the result is rated 'low' by GRADE standards. The lack of difference between the effect of ECs compared with nicotine patches found in one trial is uncertain for similar reasons. ECs appear to help smokers unable to stop smoking altogether to reduce their cigarette consumption when compared with placebo ECs and nicotine patches, but the above limitations also affect certainty in this finding. In addition, lack of biochemical assessment of the actual reduction in smoke intake further limits this evidence. No evidence emerged that short-term EC use is associated with health risk.

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Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), is an uncommon but severe condition in which there is a developmental defect in the fetal diaphragm, resulting in liver and bowel migrating to the chest cavity and impairing lung development and function for the neonate. This condition can be diagnosed during pregnancy and as such, is potentially amenable to in-utero prenatal intervention. Neonatal surgical repair is possible, but even with early surgical repair and improving neonatal management, neonatal morbidity and mortality is high. Prenatal interventions described to date have included maternal antenatal corticosteroid administration and fetal tracheal occlusion, with both methods aiming to improve lung growth and maturity. However surgical procedures have potential maternal complications, as the uterus and amniotic sac are breached in order to gain access to the fetus. To compare the effects of prenatal versus postnatal interventions for CDH on perinatal mortality and morbidity, longer-term infant outcomes and maternal morbidity, and to compare the effects of different prenatal interventions with each other. We searched the Cochrane Pregnancy and Childbirth Group's Trials Register (31 August 2015) and reference lists of retrieved studies. All published (including those published in abstract form), unpublished, and ongoing randomised controlled trials comparing prenatal and postnatal interventions for fetuses with CDH. Quasi-RCTs were eligible for inclusion but none were identified. Trials using a cross-over design are not eligible for inclusion. Two review authors evaluated trials for inclusion and methodological quality without consideration of their results according to the stated eligibility criteria and extracted data independently. Data were checked for accuracy. We identified 11 studies for potential inclusion. Of those, we included three studies involving 97 women. Two additional studies are ongoing.Two trials examined in-utero fetal tracheal occlusion with standard (postnatal) care in fetuses with severe diaphragmatic hernia. Whilst the trials utilised fetal interventions that were similar, there were important differences in how access was gained to the fetus and in the timing and mode of delivery. Therefore, we did not combine these trials in meta-analysis and the results are examined in separate comparisons. One trial examined the effect of antenatal corticosteroids versus placebo. Overall, the methodological quality of the trials was variable and no data were available for a number of this review's secondary outcomes. In-utero fetal occlusion by maternal laparotomy versus standard postnatal management (one trial, 24 women)For the primary infant outcome (perinatal mortality), there were no data suitable for inclusion in the analysis. There was no difference between groups in terms of long-term infant survival (risk ratio (RR) 1.06, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.66 to 1.69). In-utero fetal occlusion by minimally invasive fetoscopy versus standard postnatal management (one trial, 41 women)The primary infant outcome (perinatal mortality) was not reported. Minimally invasive fetoscopy was associated with a small reduction in the mean gestational age at birth (mean difference (MD) -1.80 weeks, 95% CI -3.13 to -0.47), but there was no clear difference in the risk of preterm birth before 37 weeks (RR 1.75, 95% CI 0.78 to 3.92). Long-term infant survival (three to six months) (RR 10.50, 95% CI 1.48 to 74.71) was increased with the intervention when compared with standard management, and there was a corresponding reduction in pulmonary hypertension (RR 0.58, 95% CI 0.36 to 0.93) associated with the intervention. There was no difference between groups in terms of preterm ruptured membranes (&lt; 37 weeks) (RR 1.47, 95% CI 0.56 to 3.88) or maternal infectious morbidity (RR 3.14, 95% CI 0.14 to 72.92), and there were no maternal blood transfusions. Antenatal corticosteroids versus placebo (one trial, 32 women)We also included one trial (involving 32 women) examining the effect of antenatal corticosteroids versus placebo. There was no clear difference in the incidence of perinatal mortality (our primary infant outcome) between the group of women who received antenatal corticosteroids and the placebo control (RR 1.24, 95% CI 0.50 to 3.08). Data (mean only) were reported for two of our secondary outcomes (mechanical ventilation and days of hospital admission) but standard deviations (SDs) were not provided. For the purposes of this review and to permit further analysis we have estimated the SDs based on the reported P values reported in the trial report, although our estimation does assume that the SD is the same in both the intervention and control groups. There were no differences between the antenatal corticosteroid group and the placebo control in terms of days of mechanical ventilation (MD 18.00 days, 95% CI -14.77 to 50.77) or days of hospital admission (MD 17.00 days, 95% CI -13.93 to 47.93) . There is currently insufficient evidence to recommend in-utero intervention for fetuses with CDH as a part of routine clinical practice. We identified three small studies, with only one study adequately reporting on the primary outcome of this review - perinatal mortality, and there were few data pertaining to many of this review's secondary outcomes.WIth regard to the administration of antenatal corticosteroids, there remains a gap in current research, and a large multicentre trial with adequate statistical power should be undertaken to answer this unresolved question. More studies are needed to further examine the effect of in-utero fetal tracheal occlusion on important neonatal outcomes and long-term infant survival and health. Long-term follow-up is of particular importance, and should include morbidity and mortality measures. Further studies should examine the benefits of an in-utero intervention on subgroups with moderate and severe congenital diaphragmatic hernia. Indeed, there are three ongoing studies, being conducted by European, North and South American fetal medicine centres, which will contribute to this gap. Ongoing research and any implementation into clinical practice should include standardisation of the procedure, inclusion criteria and long-term childhood follow-up.

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1. Histological analyses were made of imaginal discs and histoblasts during the larval development ofDrosophila melanogaster to determine the number of cells, the patterns of cell division and the growth dynamics in these adult primordia. Histological studies were also made of the imaginal rings which are the primordia of the adult salivary gland, fore-and hindgut, the anlage cells of the midgut and several larval and embryonic tissues. 2. In the newly-hatched larva, the immature eye-antenna, wing, haltere, leg and genital discs contain about 70, 38, 20, 36-45 and 64 cells respectively. These numbers include cells destined to form cuticular elements as well as peripodial, tracheal and nerve cells and probably the progenitors of adepithelial cells. The number of cells counted in the various imaginal disc anlagen is 1.5 to 4 times higher than the numbers deduced from genetic mosaic analyses by other investigators and reasons for these differences are given. 3. About 12 h after fertilization, mitosis ceases in all tissues of the embryo except the nervous system. After the larva hatches, mitosis resumes in most of the imaginal anlagen and in some larval tissues. The time of resumption of mitosis in the imaginal anlagen was determined after treating the larvae with colchicine for 2 h. 4. Among the imaginal discs, the eye disc is the first to begin cell division, at about 13-15 h after the hatching of the larva (first instar) followed by the wing (15-17 h), the haltere (18-20 h), the antenna, leg, and genitalia (24-26 h, early second instar), and finally the labial and dorsal prothoracic discs (52-54 h, early third instar). The cell doubling time for various discs was calculated from cell counts and the times agree closely with the doubling times deduced from clonal analyses by other workers: e.g., 7.5 h for the cells of the wing disc. 5. The imaginal ring of the hindgut first shows cell division early in the second instar. The imaginal rings of the foregut and salivary glands, the anlage cells of the midgut and the cells of the segmental lateral tracheal branches begin to divide early in the third instar. 6. The histoblasts which are the anlagen of the integument of the adult abdomen do not increase in number from the time of larval hatching until about 5 h after pupation when they begin to divide. Their behaviour contrasts with that of the histoblasts of the other dipterans such asCalliphora, Musca andDacus, which begin to divide during the second instar. 7. The histoblasts are an integral part of the larval abdominal epidermis and, unlike imaginal disc cells, secrete cuticle during larval life. Each hemisegment consists of an anterior dorsal, a posterior dorsal, and a ventral histoblast nest containing about 13, 6 and 12 cells respectively. The 62 histoblasts in each larval segment represent about 7-8% of the total number of cells that form the integument of that segment. 8. The number of cells in a particular type of histoblast nest was constant for both male and female larvae and among the different abdominal segments, except that the anterior dorsal group of the first and the seventh segments contains fewer cells than those of the other segments. Although the male and female adultDrosophila lack the first abdominal sternite and the male lacks the seventh abdominal tergite and sternite, the ventral histoblast nests of the first and the dorsal and ventral nests of the seventh abdominal segments are present in the larval stages as well as in the prepupa and have the same morphology and cell number as similar nests in the rest of the abdominal segments. 9. The cells of the imaginal discs increase in volume about six-fold and their nuclei increase in volume three-fold between the time of hatching and the initiation of mitosis. The histoblasts increase in volume about 60-fold and their nuclei increase in volume about 25-fold between larval hatching and pupariation. 10. Prior to each cell division, the nuclei of the columnar cells of the disc epithelium and of the histoblasts appear to migrate toward the apical surface of the epithelium. The cells round up and shift toward the apical region where mitosis occurs. After cytokinesis, the daughter cells move back to deeper positions in the epithelium. Because the nuclei of the non-dividing cells continue to lie deep in the epithelium, this intermitotic migration of nuclei gives these epithelia a pseudostratified appearance. 11. Analyses of the growth of larval cells and of organs confirmed the observations of earlier investigators that cell division occurs only in a few larval tissues, whereas growth in the rest of the larval tissues is by cell enlargement and polyteny. During larval life, cell division was detected only in the central nervous system, gonads, prothoracic glands, lymph glands and haemocytes. Each tissue began mitosis at a characteristic stage in larval life. The larval cells that did not divide, grew enormously, e.g., epidermal cells increased in volume 150-fold and their nuclei increased in volume 80-fold. 12. The adepithelial cells, which give rise to some of the imaginal muscles, were first identified between the thick side of the imaginal dise epithelium and the basement membrane at the beginning of the third larval instar (50-52 h). The origin of these precursors of mesodermal structures was analysed and evidence is presented that the adepithelial cells come from the disc epithelium. The question of the origin of the mesoderm of cyclorrhaphan Diptera is reviewed and it is suggested that the imaginal disc ectoderm may become segregated from the rest of the embryo before gastrulation has occurred, that is before the mesoderm has been established.

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Millions of people worldwide suffer from hepatitis C, which can lead to severe liver disease, liver cancer, and death. Direct-acting antivirals (DAAs) are relatively new and expensive interventions for chronic hepatitis C, and preliminary results suggest that DAAs may eradicate hepatitis C virus (HCV) from the blood (sustained virological response). However, it is still questionable if eradication of hepatitis C virus in the blood eliminates hepatitis C in the body, and improves survival and leads to fewer complications. To assess the benefits and harms of DAAs in people with chronic HCV. We searched for all published and unpublished trials in The Cochrane Hepato-Biliary Group Controlled Trials Register, CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase, Science Citation Index Expanded, LILACS, and BIOSIS; the Chinese Biomedical Literature Database (CBM), China Network Knowledge Information (CNKI), the Chinese Science Journal Database (VIP), Google Scholar, The Turning Research into Practice (TRIP) Database, ClinicalTrials.gov, European Medicines Agency (EMA) (www.ema.europa.eu/ema/), WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (www.who.int/ictrp), the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) (www.fda.gov), and pharmaceutical company sources for ongoing or unpublished trials. Searches were last run in October 2016. Randomised clinical trials comparing DAAs versus no intervention or placebo, alone or with co-interventions, in adults with chronic HCV. We included trials irrespective of publication type, publication status, and language. We used standard methodological procedures expected by Cochrane. Our primary outcomes were hepatitis C-related morbidity, serious adverse events, and quality of life. Our secondary outcomes were all-cause mortality, ascites, variceal bleeding, hepato-renal syndrome, hepatic encephalopathy, hepatocellular carcinoma, non-serious adverse events (each reported separately), and sustained virological response. We systematically assessed risks of bias, performed Trial Sequential Analysis, and followed an eight-step procedure to assess thresholds for statistical and clinical significance. The overall quality of the evidence was evaluated using GRADE. We included a total of 138 trials randomising a total of 25,232 participants. The 138 trials assessed the effects of 51 different DAAs. Of these, 128 trials employed matching placebo in the control group. All included trials were at high risk of bias. Eighty-four trials involved DAAs on the market or under development (13,466 participants). Fifty-seven trials administered withdrawn or discontinued DAAs. Trial participants were treatment-naive (95 trials), treatment-experienced (17 trials), or both treatment-naive and treatment-experienced (24 trials). The HCV genotypes were genotype 1 (119 trials), genotype 2 (eight trials), genotype 3 (six trials), genotype 4 (nine trials), and genotype 6 (one trial). We identified two ongoing trials.Meta-analysis of the effects of all DAAs on the market or under development showed no evidence of a difference when assessing hepatitis C-related morbidity or all-cause mortality (OR 3.72, 95% CI 0.53 to 26.18, P = 0.19, I² = 0%, 2,996 participants, 11 trials, very low-quality evidence). As there were no data on hepatitis C-related morbidity and very few data on mortality (DAA 15/2377 (0.63%) versus control 1/617 (0.16%)), it was not possible to perform Trial Sequential Analysis on hepatitis C-related morbidity or all-cause mortality.Meta-analysis of all DAAs on the market or under development showed no evidence of a difference when assessing serious adverse events (OR 0.93, 95% CI 0.75 to 1.15, P = 0.52, I² = 0%, 15,817 participants, 43 trials, very low-quality evidence). The Trial Sequential Analysis showed that the cumulative Z-score crossed the trial sequential boundary for futility, showing that there was sufficient information to rule out that DAAs compared with placebo reduced the relative risk of a serious adverse event by 20%. The only DAA that showed a significant difference on risk of serious adverse events when meta-analysed separately was simeprevir (OR 0.62, 95% CI 0.45 to 0.86). However, Trial Sequential Analysis showed that there was not enough information to confirm or reject a relative risk reduction of 20%, and when one trial with an extreme result was excluded, then the meta-analysis result showed no evidence of a difference.DAAs on the market or under development seemed to reduce the risk of no sustained virological response (RR 0.44, 95% CI 0.37 to 0.52, P &lt; 0.00001, I² = 77%, 6886 participants, 32 trials, very low-quality evidence) and Trial Sequential Analysis confirmed this meta-analysis result.Only 1/84 trials on the market or under development assessed the effects of DAAs on health-related quality of life (SF-36 mental score and SF-36 physical score).Withdrawn or discontinued DAAs had no evidence of a difference when assessing hepatitis C-related morbidity and all-cause mortality (OR 0.64, 95% CI 0.23 to 1.79, P = 0.40, I² = 0%; 5 trials, very low-quality evidence). However, withdrawn DAAs seemed to increase the risk of serious adverse events (OR 1.45, 95% CI 1.22 to 1.73, P = 0.001, I² = 0%, 29 trials, very low-quality evidence), and Trial Sequential Analysis confirmed this meta-analysis result.Most of all outcome results were short-term results; therefore, we could neither confirm nor reject any long-term effects of DAAs. None of the 138 trials provided useful data to assess the effects of DAAs on the remaining secondary outcomes (ascites, variceal bleeding, hepato-renal syndrome, hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatocellular carcinoma). Overall, DAAs on the market or under development do not seem to have any effects on risk of serious adverse events. Simeprevir may have beneficial effects on risk of serious adverse event. In all remaining analyses, we could neither confirm nor reject that DAAs had any clinical effects. DAAs seemed to reduce the risk of no sustained virological response. The clinical relevance of the effects of DAAs on no sustained virological response is questionable, as it is a non-validated surrogate outcome. All trials and outcome results were at high risk of bias, so our results presumably overestimate benefit and underestimate harm. The quality of the evidence was very low.

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Lone parents in high-income countries have high rates of poverty (including in-work poverty) and poor health. Employment requirements for these parents are increasingly common. 'Welfare-to-work' (WtW) interventions involving financial sanctions and incentives, training, childcare subsidies and lifetime limits on benefit receipt have been used to support or mandate employment among lone parents. These and other interventions that affect employment and income may also affect people's health, and it is important to understand the available evidence on these effects in lone parents. To assess the effects of WtW interventions on mental and physical health in lone parents and their children living in high-income countries. The secondary objective is to assess the effects of welfare-to-work interventions on employment and income. We searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL), MEDLINE Ovid, Embase Ovid, PsycINFO EBSCO, ERIC EBSCO, SocINDEX EBSCO, CINAHL EBSCO, Econlit EBSCO, Web of Science ISI, Applied Social Sciences Index and Abstracts (ASSIA) via Proquest, International Bibliography of the Social Sciences (IBSS) via ProQuest, Social Services Abstracts via Proquest, Sociological Abstracts via Proquest, Campbell Library, NHS Economic Evaluation Database (NHS EED) (CRD York), Turning Research into Practice (TRIP), OpenGrey and Planex. We also searched bibliographies of included publications and relevant reviews, in addition to many relevant websites. We identified many included publications by handsearching. We performed the searches in 2011, 2013 and April 2016. Randomised controlled trials (RCTs) of mandatory or voluntary WtW interventions for lone parents in high-income countries, reporting impacts on parental mental health, parental physical health, child mental health or child physical health. One review author extracted data using a standardised extraction form, and another checked them. Two authors independently assessed risk of bias and the quality of the evidence. We contacted study authors to obtain measures of variance and conducted meta-analyses where possible. We synthesised data at three time points: 18 to 24 months (T1), 25 to 48 months (T2) and 49 to 72 months (T3). Twelve studies involving 27,482 participants met the inclusion criteria. Interventions were either mandatory or voluntary and included up to 10 discrete components in varying combinations. All but one study took place in North America. Although we searched for parental health outcomes, the vast majority of the sample in all included studies were female. Therefore, we describe adult health outcomes as 'maternal' throughout the results section. We downgraded the quality of all evidence at least one level because outcome assessors were not blinded. Follow-up ranged from 18 months to six years. The effects of welfare-to-work interventions on health were generally positive but of a magnitude unlikely to have any tangible effects.At T1 there was moderate-quality evidence of a very small negative impact on maternal mental health (standardised mean difference (SMD) 0.07, 95% Confidence Interval (CI) 0.00 to 0.14; N = 3352; studies = 2)); at T2, moderate-quality evidence of no effect (SMD 0.00, 95% CI 0.05 to 0.05; N = 7091; studies = 3); and at T3, low-quality evidence of a very small positive effect (SMD -0.07, 95% CI -0.15 to 0.00; N = 8873; studies = 4). There was evidence of very small positive effects on maternal physical health at T1 (risk ratio (RR) 0.85, 95% CI 0.54 to 1.36; N = 311; 1 study, low quality) and T2 (RR 1.06, 95% CI 0.95 to 1.18; N = 2551; 2 studies, moderate quality), and of a very small negative effect at T3 (RR 0.97, 95% CI 0.91 to 1.04; N = 1854; 1 study, low quality).At T1, there was moderate-quality evidence of a very small negative impact on child mental health (SMD 0.01, 95% CI -0.06 to 0.09; N = 2762; studies = 1); at T2, of a very small positive effect (SMD -0.04, 95% CI -0.08 to 0.01; N = 7560; studies = 5), and at T3, there was low-quality evidence of a very small positive effect (SMD -0.05, 95% CI -0.16 to 0.05; N = 3643; studies = 3). Moderate-quality evidence for effects on child physical health showed a very small negative effect at T1 (SMD -0.05, 95% CI -0.12 to 0.03; N = 2762; studies = 1), a very small positive effect at T2 (SMD 0.07, 95% CI 0.01 to 0.12; N = 7195; studies = 3), and a very small positive effect at T3 (SMD 0.01, 95% CI -0.04 to 0.06; N = 8083; studies = 5). There was some evidence of larger negative effects on health, but this was of low or very low quality.There were small positive effects on employment and income at 18 to 48 months (moderate-quality evidence), but these were largely absent at 49 to 72 months (very low to moderate-quality evidence), often due to control group members moving into work independently. Since the majority of the studies were conducted in North America before the year 2000, generalisabilty may be limited. However, all study sites were similar in that they were high-income countries with developed social welfare systems. The effects of WtW on health are largely of a magnitude that is unlikely to have tangible impacts. Since income and employment are hypothesised to mediate effects on health, it is possible that these negligible health impacts result from the small effects on economic outcomes. Even where employment and income were higher for the lone parents in WtW, poverty was still high for the majority of the lone parents in many of the studies. Perhaps because of this, depression also remained very high for lone parents whether they were in WtW or not. There is a lack of robust evidence on the health effects of WtW for lone parents outside North America.

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Surgeons who perform laparotomy have a number of decisions to make regarding abdominal closure. Material and size of potential suture types varies widely. In addition, surgeons can choose to close the incision in anatomic layers or mass ('en masse'), as well as using either a continuous or interrupted suturing technique, of which there are different styles of each. There is ongoing debate as to which suturing techniques and suture materials are best for achieving definitive wound closure while minimising the risk of short- and long-term complications. The objectives of this review were to identify the best available suture techniques and suture materials for closure of the fascia following laparotomy incisions, by assessing the following comparisons: absorbable versus non-absorbable sutures; mass versus layered closure; continuous versus interrupted closure techniques; monofilament versus multifilament sutures; and slow absorbable versus fast absorbable sutures. Our objective was not to determine the single best combination of suture material and techniques, but to compare the individual components of abdominal closure. On 8 February 2017 we searched CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase, two trials registries, and Science Citation Index. There were no limitations based on language or date of publication. We searched the reference lists of all included studies to identify trials that our searches may have missed. We included randomised controlled trials (RCTs) that compared suture materials or closure techniques, or both, for fascial closure of laparotomy incisions. We excluded trials that compared only types of skin closures, peritoneal closures or use of retention sutures. We abstracted data and assessed the risk of bias for each trial. We calculated a summary risk ratio (RR) for the outcomes assessed in the review, all of which were dichotomous. We used random-effects modelling, based on the heterogeneity seen throughout the studies and analyses. We completed subgroup analysis planned a priori for each outcome, excluding studies where interventions being compared differed by more than one component, making it impossible to determine which variable impacted on the outcome, or the possibility of a synergistic effect. We completed sensitivity analysis, excluding trials with at least one trait with high risk of bias. We assessed the quality of evidence using the GRADEpro guidelines. Fifty-five RCTs with a total of 19,174 participants met the inclusion criteria and were included in the meta-analysis. Included studies were heterogeneous in the type of sutures used, methods of closure and patient population. Many of the included studies reported multiple comparisons.For our primary outcome, the proportion of participants who developed incisional hernia at one year or more of follow-up, we did not find evidence that suture absorption (absorbable versus non-absorbable sutures, RR 1.07, 95% CI 0.86 to 1.32, moderate-quality evidence; or slow versus fast absorbable sutures, RR 0.81, 95% CI 0.63 to 1.06, moderate-quality evidence), closure method (mass versus layered, RR 1.92, 95% CI 0.58 to 6.35, very low-quality evidence) or closure technique (continuous versus interrupted, RR 1.01, 95% CI 0.76 to 1.35, moderate-quality evidence) resulted in a difference in the risk of incisional hernia. We did, however, find evidence to suggest that monofilament sutures reduced the risk of incisional hernia when compared with multifilament sutures (RR 0.76, 95% CI 0.59 to 0.98, I<sup2</sup = 30%, moderate-quality evidence).For our secondary outcomes, we found that none of the interventions reduced the risk of wound infection, whether based on suture absorption (absorbable versus non-absorbable sutures, RR 0.99, 95% CI 0.84 to 1.17, moderate-quality evidence; or slow versus fast absorbable sutures, RR 1.16, 95% CI 0.85 to 1.57, moderate-quality evidence), closure method (mass versus layered, RR 0.93, 95% CI 0.67 to 1.30, low-quality evidence) or closure technique (continuous versus interrupted, RR 1.13, 95% CI 0.96 to 1.34, moderate-quality evidence).Similarily, none of the interventions reduced the risk of wound dehiscence whether based on suture absorption (absorbable versus non-absorbable sutures, RR 0.78, 95% CI 0.55 to 1.10, moderate-quality evidence; or slow versus fast absorbable sutures, RR 1.55, 95% CI 0.92 to 2.61, moderate-quality evidence), closure method (mass versus layered, RR 0.69, 95% CI 0.31 to 1.52, moderate-quality evidence) or closure technique (continuous versus interrupted, RR 1.21, 95% CI 0.90 to 1.64, moderate-quality evidence).Absorbable sutures, compared with non-absorbable sutures (RR 0.49, 95% CI 0.26 to 0.94, low-quality evidence) reduced the risk of sinus or fistula tract formation. None of the other comparisons showed a difference (slow versus fast absorbable sutures, RR 0.88, 95% CI 0.05 to 16.05, very low-quality evidence; mass versus layered, RR 0.49, 95% CI 0.15 to 1.62, low-quality evidence; continuous versus interrupted, RR 1.51, 95% CI 0.64 to 3.61, very low-quality evidence). Based on this moderate-quality body of evidence, monofilament sutures may reduce the risk of incisional hernia. Absorbable sutures may also reduce the risk of sinus or fistula tract formation, but this finding is based on low-quality evidence.We had serious concerns about the design or reporting of several of the 55 included trials. The comparator arms in many trials differed by more than one component, making it impossible to attribute differences between groups to any one component. In addition, the patient population included in many of the studies was very heterogeneous. Trials included both emergency and elective cases, different types of disease pathology (e.g. colon surgery, hepatobiliary surgery, etc.) or different types of incisions (e.g. midline, paramedian, subcostal).Consequently, larger, high-quality trials to further address this clinical challenge are warranted. Future studies should ensure that proper randomisation and allocation techniques are performed, wound assessors are blinded, and that the duration of follow-up is adequate. It is important that only one type of intervention is compared between groups. In addition, a homogeneous patient population would allow for a more accurate assessment of the interventions.

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The 8-aminoquinoline (8AQ) drugs act on Plasmodium falciparum gametocytes, which transmit malaria from infected people to mosquitoes. In 2012, the World Health Organization (WHO) recommended a single dose of 0.25 mg/kg primaquine (PQ) be added to malaria treatment schedules in low-transmission areas or those with artemisinin resistance. This replaced the previous recommendation of 0.75 mg/kg, aiming to reduce haemolysis risk in people with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, common in people living in malarious areas. Whether this approach, and at this dose, is effective in reducing transmission is not clear. To assess the effects of single dose or short-course PQ (or an alternative 8AQ) alongside treatment for people with P. falciparum malaria. We searched the Cochrane Infectious Diseases Group Specialized Register; the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL), published in the Cochrane Library; and the WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICRTP) portal using 'malaria*', 'falciparum', 'primaquine', '8-aminoquinoline', and eight 8AQ drug names as search terms. We checked reference lists of included trials, and contacted researchers and organizations. Date of last search: 21 July 2017. Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) or quasi-RCTs in children or adults, adding PQ (or alternative 8AQ) as a single dose or short course alongside treatment for P. falciparum malaria. Two authors screened abstracts, applied inclusion criteria, and extracted data. We sought evidence on transmission (community incidence), infectiousness (people infectious and mosquitoes infected), and potential infectiousness (gametocyte measures assessed by microscopy or polymerase chain reaction [PCR]). We grouped trials into artemisinin and non-artemisinin treatments, and stratified by PQ dose (low, 0.2 to 0.25 mg/kg; moderate, 0.4 to 0.5 mg/kg; high, 0.75 mg/kg). We used GRADE, and absolute effects of infectiousness using trial control groups. We included 24 RCTs and one quasi-RCT, comprising 43 arms. Fourteen trials evaluated artemisinin treatments (23 arms), nine trials evaluated non-artemisinin treatments (13 arms), and two trials included both artemisinin and non-artemisinin arms (three and two arms, respectively). Two trial arms used bulaquine. Seven PQ arms used low dose (six with artemisinin), 11 arms used moderate dose (seven with artemisinin), and the remaining arms used high dose. Fifteen trials tested for G6PD status: 11 excluded participants with G6PD deficiency, one included only those with G6PD deficiency, and three included all, irrespective of status. The remaining 10 trials either did not test or did not report on testing.No cluster trials evaluating community effects on malaria transmission met the inclusion criteria.With artemisinin treatmentLow dose PQInfectiousness (participants infectious to mosquitoes) was reduced (day 3 or 4: RR 0.12, 95% CI 0.02 to 0.88, 3 trials, 105 participants; day 8: RR 0.34, 95% CI 0.07 to 1.58, 4 trials, 243 participants; low certainty evidence). This translates to a reduction in percentage of people infectious on day 3 or 4 from 14% to 2%, and, for day 8, from 4% to 1%; the waning infectiousness in the control group by day 8 making the absolute effect smaller by day 8. For gametocytes detected by PCR, there was little or no effect of PQ at day 3 or 4 (RR 1.02, 95% CI 0.87 to 1.21; 3 trials, 414 participants; moderate certainty evidence); with reduction at day 8 (RR 0.52, 95% CI 0.41 to 0.65; 4 trials, 532 participants; high certainty evidence). Severe haemolysis was infrequent, with or without PQ, in these groups with few G6PD-deficient individuals (RR 0.98, 95% CI 0.69 to 1.39; 4 trials, 752 participants, moderate certainty evidence).Moderate dose PQInfectiousness was reduced (day 3 or 4: RR 0.13, 95% CI 0.02 to 0.94; 3 trials, 109 participants; day 8 RR 0.33, 95% CI 0.07 to 1.57; 4 trials, 246 participants; low certainty evidence). Illustrative risk estimates for moderate dose were the same as low dose. The pattern and level of certainty of evidence with gametocytes detected by PCR was the same as low dose, and severe haemolysis was infrequent in both groups.High dose PQInfectiousness was reduced (day 4: RR 0.2, 95% CI 0.02 to 1.68, 1 trial, 101 participants; day 8: RR 0.18, 95% CI 0.02 to 1.41, 2 trials, 181 participants, low certainty evidence). The effects on gametocyte prevalence showed a similar pattern to moderate and low dose PQ. Trials did not systematically report evidence of haemolysis.With non-artemisinin treatmentTrials with non-artemisinin treatment have been conducted only for moderate and high dose PQ. With high dose, infectiousness appeared markedly reduced on day 5 (RR 0.09, 95% CI 0.01 to 0.62; 30 participants, very low certainty evidence), with similar reductions at day 8. For both moderate dose (two trials with 221 people) and high dose (two trials with 30 people), reduction in gametocytes (detected by microscopy) showed similar patterns as for artemisinin treatments, with little or no effect at day 4 or 5, and larger effects by day 8. No trials with non-artemisinin partner drugs systematically sought evidence of severe haemolysis.Two trials comparing bulaquine with PQ suggest bulaquine may have larger effects on gametocytes by microscopy on day 8 (RR 0.41, 95% CI 0.26 to 0.66; 2 trials, 112 participants). A single low dose of PQ (0.25 mg/kg) added to artemisinin-based combination therapy for malaria reduces infectiousness of people to mosquitoes at day 3-4 and day 8, and appears as effective as higher doses. The absolute effect is greater at day 3 or 4, and smaller at day 8, in part because of the lower infectiousness in the control group. There was no evidence of increased haemolysis at 0.25 mg/kg, but few G6PD-deficient individuals were included in the trials. The effect on infectiousness precedes the effect of PQ on gametocyte prevalence. We do not know whether single dose PQ could reduce malaria transmission at community level.

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Lone parents in high-income countries have high rates of poverty (including in-work poverty) and poor health. Employment requirements for these parents are increasingly common. 'Welfare-to-work' (WtW) interventions involving financial sanctions and incentives, training, childcare subsidies and lifetime limits on benefit receipt have been used to support or mandate employment among lone parents. These and other interventions that affect employment and income may also affect people's health, and it is important to understand the available evidence on these effects in lone parents. To assess the effects of WtW interventions on mental and physical health in lone parents and their children living in high-income countries. The secondary objective is to assess the effects of welfare-to-work interventions on employment and income. We searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL), MEDLINE Ovid, Embase Ovid, PsycINFO EBSCO, ERIC EBSCO, SocINDEX EBSCO, CINAHL EBSCO, Econlit EBSCO, Web of Science ISI, Applied Social Sciences Index and Abstracts (ASSIA) via Proquest, International Bibliography of the Social Sciences (IBSS) via ProQuest, Social Services Abstracts via Proquest, Sociological Abstracts via Proquest, Campbell Library, NHS Economic Evaluation Database (NHS EED) (CRD York), Turning Research into Practice (TRIP), OpenGrey and Planex. We also searched bibliographies of included publications and relevant reviews, in addition to many relevant websites. We identified many included publications by handsearching. We performed the searches in 2011, 2013 and April 2016. Randomised controlled trials (RCTs) of mandatory or voluntary WtW interventions for lone parents in high-income countries, reporting impacts on parental mental health, parental physical health, child mental health or child physical health. One review author extracted data using a standardised extraction form, and another checked them. Two authors independently assessed risk of bias and the quality of the evidence. We contacted study authors to obtain measures of variance and conducted meta-analyses where possible. We synthesised data at three time points: 18 to 24 months (T1), 25 to 48 months (T2) and 49 to 72 months (T3). Twelve studies involving 27,482 participants met the inclusion criteria. Interventions were either mandatory or voluntary and included up to 10 discrete components in varying combinations. All but one study took place in North America. Although we searched for parental health outcomes, the vast majority of the sample in all included studies were female. Therefore, we describe adult health outcomes as 'maternal' throughout the results section. We downgraded the quality of all evidence at least one level because outcome assessors were not blinded. Follow-up ranged from 18 months to six years. The effects of welfare-to-work interventions on health were generally positive but of a magnitude unlikely to have any tangible effects.At T1 there was moderate-quality evidence of a very small negative impact on maternal mental health (standardised mean difference (SMD) 0.07, 95% Confidence Interval (CI) 0.00 to 0.14; N = 3352; studies = 2)); at T2, moderate-quality evidence of no effect (SMD 0.00, 95% CI 0.05 to 0.05; N = 7091; studies = 3); and at T3, low-quality evidence of a very small positive effect (SMD -0.07, 95% CI -0.15 to 0.00; N = 8873; studies = 4). There was evidence of very small positive effects on maternal physical health at T1 (risk ratio (RR) 0.85, 95% CI 0.54 to 1.36; N = 311; 1 study, low quality) and T2 (RR 1.06, 95% CI 0.95 to 1.18; N = 2551; 2 studies, moderate quality), and of a very small negative effect at T3 (RR 0.97, 95% CI 0.91 to 1.04; N = 1854; 1 study, low quality).At T1, there was moderate-quality evidence of a very small negative impact on child mental health (SMD 0.01, 95% CI -0.06 to 0.09; N = 2762; studies = 1); at T2, of a very small positive effect (SMD -0.04, 95% CI -0.08 to 0.01; N = 7560; studies = 5), and at T3, there was low-quality evidence of a very small positive effect (SMD -0.05, 95% CI -0.16 to 0.05; N = 3643; studies = 3). Moderate-quality evidence for effects on child physical health showed a very small negative effect at T1 (SMD -0.05, 95% CI -0.12 to 0.03; N = 2762; studies = 1), a very small positive effect at T2 (SMD 0.07, 95% CI 0.01 to 0.12; N = 7195; studies = 3), and a very small positive effect at T3 (SMD 0.01, 95% CI -0.04 to 0.06; N = 8083; studies = 5). There was some evidence of larger negative effects on health, but this was of low or very low quality.There were small positive effects on employment and income at 18 to 48 months (moderate-quality evidence), but these were largely absent at 49 to 72 months (very low to moderate-quality evidence), often due to control group members moving into work independently. Since the majority of the studies were conducted in North America before the year 2000, generalisabilty may be limited. However, all study sites were similar in that they were high-income countries with developed social welfare systems. The effects of WtW on health are largely of a magnitude that is unlikely to have tangible impacts. Since income and employment are hypothesised to mediate effects on health, it is possible that these negligible health impacts result from the small effects on economic outcomes. Even where employment and income were higher for the lone parents in WtW, poverty was still high for the majority of the lone parents in many of the studies. Perhaps because of this, depression also remained very high for lone parents whether they were in WtW or not. There is a lack of robust evidence on the health effects of WtW for lone parents outside North America.

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Dear Editor, Eczema is an inflammatory dermatitis mediated by cellular immunity, with an etiology in which environmental, immunological, and genetic factors are involved. Skin inflammation through proinflammatory cytokines creates a favorable environment for microbial antigens and optimal conditions for infection (1). In case of underlying immunosuppression, inflammatory features of dermatitis and superimposed infections are more severe. The presence of minor trauma of the skin in the form of fissures can favor both easier inoculation of some bacterial germs, leading to a dermatitis superinfection, and/or the transcutaneous inoculation of atypical mycobacteria, with a possibility of developing localized types of tuberculous lymphadenitis (TLA). TLA, the localized type of systemic tuberculosis (TB) infection, is the most common form of extra-pulmonary TB in developing countries (2), while lymphadenitis due to atypical mycobacteria is a localized disease, more frequently seen in developed countries (3,4). In tuberculosis, the transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is airborne, while in atypical mycobacterium lymphadenitis transmission can be both airborne or by ingestion or inoculation (5). In both forms of TB, lymphadenopathy evolves towards abscess and presents fibrotic scars or calcifications upon healing (6). A positive diagnosis involves a clinical and epidemiological investigation, a purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test, ultrasound, and CT / MRI of lymph node masses. A lymph node biopsy is used to confirm the diagnosis of TB and PCR, while positive culture confirms the etiology of TB lymphadenitis. The differential diagnosis of TLA is difficult: neoplastic, bacterial, or viral and fungal infections, sarcoidosis, Castleman's disease, drug reactions, etc. (5). TB-induced immunosuppression may favor the development of fungal and bacterial infections, sometimes severe and poorly responsive to treatment. On the other hand, immunosuppressive conditions increase the risk of extra-pulmonary TB (2). A 40-year old woman who had experienced recurrent episodes of dermatitis over the previous 7 years was hospitalized with fever, malaise, and a disseminated erythematous and crusted, exudative, and flexural itching rash (Figure 1). There were fetid, purulent secretions at the conjunctival, auricular, genital, and umbilical areas. The clinical exam also revealed lymphadenopathy syndrome (large, painful submandibular, cervical, and axillar bilateral lymph nodes; an indurated, painful, and adherent left inguinal lymph node of 5-6 cm). Microbial cultures isolated multiple multi-drug-resistant bacteria (SAH-MRSA, Acinetobacter baumannii, Enterococcus faecalis, E. coli, Enterobacter) and Candida albicans in the oral cavity and conjunctival, auricular, nasal, umbilical, and genital areas. The skin biopsy confirmed the diagnosis of dermatitis. PPD skin test was 21 mm. Other tests (HIV and syphilis serology, blood culture, chest X-ray) were negative. Systemic treatment with vancomycin, metronidazole, fluconazole, local antiseptic compresses, and topical corticosteroid ointments was initiated. 2 days after starting the treatment with vancomycin, Redman syndrome occurred (headache, dyspnea, colicky pains, myalgia, rush, fever (39 °C), hypotension (80/40 mmHg), and tachycardia (100 bpm)). This syndrome resolved upon discontinuation of Vancomycin. Further treatment with imipenem/cilastatinand linezolid for 14 days lead to a favorable response with amelioration of the symptoms. Biopsy of the submandibular lymph node raised the suspicion of Castleman's disease; however, due to the overall incomplete clinical picture (no night sweats, no weight reduction, lack of hepatosplenomegaly and peripheral neuropathy), we decided to perform a biopsy of an inguinal lymph node. The histopathological aspect suggested TLA (lymphoid hyperplasia predominantly diffuse, reactive, presenting tuberculous follicles with central caseous necrosis) (Figure 2). A combination of specific antituberculous drugs (isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol) for 6 months resolved the lymphadenopathy syndrome with no further recurrence of eczema and skin infections. Certain delayed hypersensitivity mechanisms are involved both in dermatitis and in TB. CD4 lymphocytes are the primary mediators of anti-TB immunity, while proinflammatory cytokines mediate the activation of macrophages involved in controlling bacillary growth (1). In cases of superinfected dermatitis, microbial exotoxins penetrate the skin barrier more easily due to inflammation. Released cytokines (IL-1, TNF, and IL12) favor the expression of E-selectin on endothelial vascular growth factor and on skin lymphocyte antigen expression, with amplification of initial skin inflammation and creating favorable conditions for microbial colonization and infection (7). The common denominator in dermatitis and TB are the circulating immune complexes (up to 56% of TB cases), which are formed by the interaction between an antibody and bacterial antigen (8), which was in this case evidenced by increased levels of IgA and IgG. In our case, the frequent recurrences of infected dermatitis with multiple multi-drug-resistant germs that were poorly responsive to treatment and displayed a severe evolution towards generalization as well as the lymphadenopathy and the persistence of a biological inflammatory syndrome indicated that another immunosuppressive cause could be involved. Isolated bacterial and fungal germs changed the immune status of the patient. The risk of mycobacterium infection was increased by the environment they created and the patient's underlying skin inflammation. The diagnosis of TB lymphadenitis was established by the histopathologist, but in the absence of PCR we could not determine whether the TB infection was caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis or by atypical mycobacteria. Given that there was no evidence of other sites of TB infection, we conjectured that inoculation of mycobacterium took place at the skin lesion and that an atypical mycobacterium might have contributed to the etiology of the TLA. In our case, the anti-tuberculous drugs and skin infection treatment with follow-up of the side-effects led to complete remission of mycobacterium lymphadenitis, dermatitis, and infectious processes, without relapses. In conclusion, in the present case chronic dermatitis alongside infection with multi-drug-resistant germs led to an immunosuppressive status which, when associated with the presence of multiple skin ports of entry, allowed a mycobacterial infection at the inguinal lymph node level. Inguinal TLA induced severe dermatitis and difficulties in diagnosis and treatment.

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One nutritional intervention advocated to prevent malnutrition among children is lipid-based nutrient supplements (LNS). LNS provide a range of vitamins and minerals, but unlike most other micronutrient supplements, LNS also provide energy, protein and essential fatty acids. Alternative recipes and formulations to LNS include fortified blended foods (FBF), which are foods fortified with vitamins and minerals, and micronutrient powders (MNP), which are a combination of vitamins and minerals, OBJECTIVES: To assess the effects and safety of preventive LNS given with complementary foods on health, nutrition and developmental outcomes of non-hospitalised infants and children six to 23 months of age, and whether or not they are more effective than other foods (including FBF or MNP).This review did not assess the effects of LNS as supplementary foods or therapeutic foods in the management of moderate and severe acute malnutrition. In October 2018, we searched CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase, 21 other databases and two trials registers for relevant studies. We also checked the reference lists of included studies and relevant reviews and contacted the authors of studies and other experts in the area for any ongoing and unpublished studies. Randomised controlled trials (RCTs) and quasi-RCTs that evaluated the impact of LNS plus complementary foods given at point-of-use (for any dose, frequency, duration) to non-hospitalised infants and young children aged six to 23 months in stable or emergency settings and compared to no intervention, other supplementary foods (i.e. FBF), nutrition counselling or multiple micronutrient supplements or powders for point-of-use fortification of complementary foods. Two review authors independently screened studies for relevance and, for those studies included in the review, extracted data, assessed risk of bias and rated the quality of the evidence using the GRADE approach. We carried out statistical analysis using Review Manager software. We used a random-effects meta-analysis for combining data as the interventions differed significantly. We set out the main findings of the review in 'Summary of findings' tables,. Our search identified a total of 8124 records, from which we included 17 studies (54 papers) with 23,200 children in the review. The included studies reported on one or more of the pre-specified primary outcomes, and five studies included multiple comparison groups.Overall, the majority of trials were at low risk of bias for random sequence generation, allocation concealment, blinding of outcome assessment, incomplete outcome data, selective reporting and other sources of bias, but at high risk of bias for blinding of participants and personnel due to the nature of the intervention. Using the GRADE approach, we judged the quality of the evidence for most outcomes as low or moderate.LNS+complementary feeding compared with no intervention Thirteen studies compared LNS plus complementary feeding with no intervention. LNS plus complementary feeding reduced the prevalence of moderate stunting by 7% (risk ratio (RR) 0.93, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.88 to 0.98; nine studies, 13,372 participants; moderate-quality evidence), severe stunting by 15% (RR 0.85, 95% CI 0.74 to 0.98; five studies, 6151 participants; moderate-quality evidence), moderate wasting by 18% (RR 0.82, 95% CI 0.74 to 0.91; eight studies; 13,172 participants; moderate-quality evidence), moderate underweight by 15% (RR 0.85, 95% CI 0.80 to 0.91; eight studies, 13,073 participants; moderate-quality evidence), and anaemia by 21% (RR 0.79, 95% CI 0.69 to 0.90; five studies, 2332 participants; low-quality evidence). There was no impact of LNS plus complementary feeding on severe wasting (RR 1.27, 95% CI 0.66 to 2.46; three studies, 2329 participants) and severe underweight (RR 0.78, 95%CI 0.54 to 1.13; two studies, 1729 participants). Adverse effects did not differ between the groups (RR 0.86, 95% CI 0.74 to 1.01; three studies, 3382 participants).LNS+complementary feeding compared with FBF Five studies compared LNS plus complementary feeding with other FBF, including corn soy blend and UNIMIX. We pooled four of the five studies in meta-analyses and found that, when compared to other FBF, LNS plus complementary feeding significantly reduced the prevalence of moderate stunting (RR 0.89, 95% CI 0.82 to 0.97; three studies, 2828 participants; moderate-quality evidence), moderate wasting (RR 0.79, 95% CI 0.65 to 0.97; two studies, 2290 participants; moderate-quality evidence), and moderate underweight (RR 0.81, 95% CI 0.73 to 0.91; two studies, 2280 participants; moderate-quality evidence). We found no difference between LNS plus complementary feeding and FBF for severe stunting (RR 0.41, 95% CI 0.12 to 1.42; two studies, 729 participants; low-quality evidence), severe wasting (RR 0.64, 95% CI 0.19 to 2.81; two studies, 735 participants; moderate-quality evidence), and severe underweight (RR 1.23, 95% CI 0.67 to 2.25; one study, 173 participants; low-quality evidence).LNS+complementary feeding compared with MNP Four studies compared LNS plus complementary feeding with MNP. We pooled data from three of the four studies in meta-analyses and found that compared to MNP, LNS plus complementary feeding significantly reduced the prevalence of moderate underweight (RR 0.88, 95% CI 0.78 to 0.99; two studies, 2004 participants; moderate-quality evidence) and anaemia (RR 0.38, 95% CI 0.21 to 0.68; two studies, 557 participants; low-quality evidence). There was no difference between LNS plus complementary feeding and MNP for moderate stunting (RR 0.92, 95% CI 0.82 to 1.02; three studies, 2365 participants) and moderate wasting (RR 0.97, 95% CI 0.77 to 1.23; two studies, 2004 participants). The findings of this review suggest that LNS plus complementary feeding compared to no intervention is effective at improving growth outcomes and anaemia without adverse effects among children aged six to 23 months in low- and middle-income countries (LMIC) in Asia and Africa, and more effective if provided over a longer duration of time (over 12 months). Limited evidence also suggests that LNS plus complementary feeding is more effective than FBF and MNP at improving growth outcomes.

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Rice fortification with vitamins and minerals has the potential to increase the nutrition in rice-consuming countries where micronutrient deficiencies exist. Globally, 490 million metric tonnes of rice are consumed annually. It is the dominant staple food crop of around three billion people. To determine the benefits and harms of rice fortification with vitamins and minerals (iron, vitamin A, zinc or folic acid) on micronutrient status and health-related outcomes in the general population. We searched CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase, CINAHL, and 16 other databases all up to 10 December 2018. We searched ClinicalTrials.gov, and World Health Organization International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) on 10 December 2018. We included randomised and quasi-randomised trials (with either individual or cluster randomisation) and controlled before-and-after studies. Participants were populations older than two years of age (including pregnant women) from any country. The intervention was rice fortified with at least one micronutrient or a combination of several micronutrients (iron, folic acid, zinc, vitamin A or other vitamins and minerals) compared with unfortified rice or no intervention. We used standard methodological procedures expected by Cochrane. Two review authors independently screened studies and extracted data. We included 17 studies (10,483 participants) and identified two ongoing studies. Twelve included studies were randomised-controlled trials (RCTs), with 2238 participants after adjusting for clustering in two cluster-RCTs, and five were non-randomised studies (NRS) with four controlled before-and-after studies and one cross-sectional study with a control (8245 participants). Four studies were conducted in India, three in Thailand, two in the Philippines, two in Brazil, one each in Bangladesh, Burundi, Cambodia, Indonesia, Mexico and the USA. Two studies involved non-pregnant, non-lactating women and 10 involved pre-school or school-age children. All 17 studies reported fortification with iron. Of these, six studies fortified rice with iron only; 11 studies had other micronutrients added (iron, zinc and vitamin A, and folic acid). One study had one arm each with vitamin A alone and carotenoid alone. Elemental iron content ranged from 0.2 to 112.8 mg/100 g uncooked rice given for a period varying from two weeks to 48 months. Thirteen studies did not clearly describe either sequence generation or allocation concealment. Eleven studies had a low attrition rate. There was no indication of selective reporting in the studies. We considered two RCTs at low overall risk of bias and 10 at high overall risk of bias. One RCT was at high or unclear risk of bias for most of the domains. All controlled before-and-after studies had a high risk or unclear risk of bias in most domains. The included studies were funded by Government, private and non-governmental organisations, along with other academic institutions. The source of funding does not appear to have altered the results. We used the NRS in the qualitative synthesis but we excluded them from the quantitative analysis and review conclusions since they provided mostly contextual information and limited quantitative information. Rice fortified with iron alone or in combination with other micronutrients versus unfortified rice (no micronutrients added) Fortification of rice with iron (alone or in combination with other micronutrients) may make little or no difference in the risk of having anaemia (risk ratio (RR) 0.72, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.54 to 0.97; I<sup2</sup = 74%; 7 studies, 1634 participants; low-certainty evidence) and may reduce the risk of iron deficiency (RR 0.66, 95% CI 0.51 to 0.84; 8 studies, 1733 participants; low-certainty evidence). Rice fortification may increase mean haemoglobin (mean difference (MD) 1.83, 95% CI 0.66 to 3.00; I<sup2</sup = 54%; 11 studies, 2163 participants; low-certainty evidence) and it may make little or no difference to vitamin A deficiency (with vitamin A as one of the micronutrients in the fortification arm) (RR 0.68, 95% CI 0.36 to 1.29; I<sup2</sup = 37%; 4 studies, 927 participants; low-certainty evidence). One study reported that fortification of rice (with folic acid as one of the micronutrients) may improve serum or plasma folate (nmol/L) (MD 4.30, 95% CI 2.00 to 6.60; 215 participants; low-certainty evidence). One study reported that fortification of rice with iron alone or with other micronutrients may slightly increase hookworm infection (RR 1.78, 95% CI 1.18 to 2.70; 785 participants; low-certainty evidence). We are uncertain about the effect of fortified rice on diarrhoea (RR 3.52, 95% CI 0.18 to 67.39; 1 study, 258 participants; very low-certainty evidence). Rice fortified with vitamin A alone or in combination with other micronutrients versus unfortified rice (no micronutrients added) One study had one arm providing fortified rice with vitamin A only versus unfortified rice. Fortification of rice with vitamin A (in combination with other micronutrients) may increase mean haemoglobin (MD 10.00, 95% CI 8.79 to 11.21; 1 study, 74 participants; low-certainty evidence). Rice fortified with vitamin A may slightly improve serum retinol concentration (MD 0.17, 95% CI 0.13 to 0.21; 1 study, 74 participants; low-certainty evidence). No studies contributed data to the comparisons of rice fortification versus no intervention. The studies involving folic acid and zinc also involved iron in the fortification arms and hence we reported them as part of the first comparison. Fortification of rice with iron alone or in combination with other micronutrients may make little or no difference in the risk of having anaemia or presenting iron deficiency and we are uncertain about an increase in mean haemoglobin concentrations in the general population older than 2 years of age. Fortification of rice with iron and other micronutrients such as vitamin A or folic acid may make little or no difference in the risk of having vitamin A deficiency or on the serum folate concentration. There is limited evidence on any adverse effects of rice fortification.

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The World Health Organization (WHO) and the International Labour Organization (ILO) are developing joint estimates of the work-related burden of disease and injury (WHO/ILO Joint Estimates), with contributions from a large network of individual experts. Evidence from mechanistic data and prior studies suggests that exposure to long working hours may cause stroke. In this paper, we present a systematic review and meta-analysis of parameters for estimating the number of deaths and disability-adjusted life years from stroke that are attributable to exposure to long working hours, for the development of the WHO/ILO Joint Estimates. We aimed to systematically review and meta-analyse estimates of the effect of exposure to long working hours (three categories: 41-48, 49-54 and ≥55 h/week), compared with exposure to standard working hours (35-40 h/week), on stroke (three outcomes: prevalence, incidence, and mortality). A protocol was developed and published, applying the Navigation Guide to systematic reviews as an organizing framework where feasible. We searched electronic databases for potentially relevant records from published and unpublished studies, including Ovid MEDLINE, PubMed, EMBASE, Scopus, Web of Science, CISDOC, PsycINFO, and WHO ICTRP. We also searched grey literature databases, Internet search engines, and organizational websites; hand-searched reference lists of previous systematic reviews; and consulted additional experts. We included working-age (≥15 years) individuals in the formal and informal economy in any WHO and/or ILO Member State but excluded children (aged &lt; 15 years) and unpaid domestic workers. We included randomized controlled trials, cohort studies, case-control studies and other non-randomized intervention studies with an estimate of the effect of exposure to long working hours (41-48, 49-54 and ≥55 h/week), compared with exposure to standard working hours (35-40 h/week), on stroke (prevalence, incidence or mortality). At least two review authors independently screened titles and abstracts against the eligibility criteria at a first review stage and full texts of potentially eligible records at a second stage, followed by extraction of data from qualifying studies. Missing data were requested from principal study authors. We combined relative risks using random-effects meta-analysis. Two or more review authors assessed the risk of bias, quality of evidence and strength of evidence, using the Navigation Guide and GRADE tools and approaches adapted to this project. Twenty-two studies (20 cohort studies, 2 case-control studies) met the inclusion criteria, comprising a total of 839,680 participants (364,616 females) in eight countries from three WHO regions (Americas, Europe, and Western Pacific). The exposure was measured using self-reports in all studies, and the outcome was assessed with administrative health records (13 studies), self-reported physician diagnosis (7 studies), direct diagnosis by a physician (1 study) or during a medical interview (1 study). The outcome was defined as an incident non-fatal stroke event in nine studies (7 cohort studies, 2 case-control studies), incident fatal stroke event in one cohort study and incident non-fatal or fatal ("mixed") event in 12 studies (all cohort studies). Cohort studies were judged to have a relatively low risk of bias; therefore, we prioritized evidence from these studies, but synthesised evidence from case-control studies as supporting evidence. For the bodies of evidence for both outcomes with any eligible studies (i.e. stroke incidence and mortality), we did not have serious concerns for risk of bias (at least for the cohort studies). Eligible studies were found on the effects of long working hours on stroke incidence and mortality, but not prevalence. Compared with working 35-40 h/week, we were uncertain about the effect on incidence of stroke due to working 41-48 h/week (relative risk (RR) 1.04, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.94-1.14, 18 studies, 277,202 participants, I<sup2</sup 0%, low quality of evidence). There may have been an increased risk for acquiring stroke when working 49-54 h/week compared with 35-40 h/week (RR 1.13, 95% CI 1.00-1.28, 17 studies, 275,181participants, I<sup2</sup 0%, p 0.04, moderate quality of evidence). Compared with working 35-40 h/week, working ≥55 h/week may have led to a moderate, clinically meaningful increase in the risk of acquiring stroke, when followed up between one year and 20 years (RR 1.35, 95% CI 1.13 to 1.61, 7 studies, 162,644 participants, I<sup2</sup 3%, moderate quality of evidence). Compared with working 35-40 h/week, we were very uncertain about the effect on dying (mortality) of stroke due to working 41-48 h/week (RR 1.01, 95% CI 0.91-1.12, 12 studies, 265,937 participants, I<sup2</sup 0%, low quality of evidence), 49-54 h/week (RR 1.13, 95% CI 0.99-1.29, 11 studies, 256,129 participants, I<sup2</sup 0%, low quality of evidence) and 55 h/week (RR 1.08, 95% CI 0.89-1.31, 10 studies, 664,647 participants, I<sup2</sup 20%, low quality of evidence). Subgroup analyses found no evidence for differences by WHO region, age, sex, socioeconomic status and type of stroke. Sensitivity analyses found no differences by outcome definition (exclusively non-fatal or fatal versus "mixed") except for the comparison working ≥55 h/week versus 35-40 h/week for stroke incidence (p for subgroup differences: 0.05), risk of bias ("high"/"probably high" ratings in any domain versus "low"/"probably low" in all domains), effect estimate measures (risk versus hazard versus odds ratios) and comparator (exact versus approximate definition). We judged the existing bodies of evidence for human evidence as "inadequate evidence for harmfulness" for all exposure categories for stroke prevalence and mortality and for exposure to 41-48 h/week for stroke incidence. Evidence on exposure to 48-54 h/week and ≥55 h/week was judged as "limited evidence for harmfulness" and "sufficient evidence for harmfulness" for stroke incidence, respectively. Producing estimates for the burden of stroke attributable to exposures to working 48-54 and ≥55 h/week appears evidence-based, and the pooled effect estimates presented in this systematic review could be used as input data for the WHO/ILO Joint Estimates. PROTOCOL IDENTIFIER: https://doi.org/10.1016/j.envint.2018.06.016. CRD42017060124.

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Asthma is an illness that commonly affects adults and children, and it serves as a common reason for children to attend emergency departments. An asthma exacerbation is characterised by acute or subacute worsening of shortness of breath, cough, wheezing, and chest tightness and may be triggered by viral respiratory infection, poor compliance with usual medication, a change in the weather, or exposure to allergens or irritants. Most children with asthma have mild or moderate exacerbations and respond well to first-line therapy (inhaled short-acting beta-agonists and systemic corticosteroids). However, the best treatment for the small proportion of seriously ill children who do not respond to first-line therapy is not well understood. Currently, a large number of treatment options are available and there is wide variation in management. Main objective - To summarise Cochrane Reviews with or without meta-analyses of randomised controlled trials on the efficacy and safety of second-line treatment for children with acute exacerbations of asthma (i.e. after first-line treatments, titrated oxygen delivery, and administration of intermittent inhaled short-acting beta<sub2</sub-agonists and oral corticosteroids have been tried and have failed) Secondary objectives - To identify gaps in the current evidence base that will inform recommendations for future research and subsequent Cochrane Reviews - To categorise information on reported outcome measures used in trials of escalation of treatment for acute exacerbations of asthma in children, and to make recommendations for development and reporting of standard outcomes in future trials and reviews - To identify relevant randomised controlled trials that have been published since the date of publication of each included review METHODS: We included Cochrane Reviews assessing interventions for children with acute exacerbations of asthma. We searched the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews. The search is current to 28 December 2019. We also identified trials that were potentially eligible for, but were not currently included in, published reviews. We assessed the quality of included reviews using the ROBIS criteria (tool used to assess risk of bias in systematic reviews). We presented an evidence synthesis of data from reviews alongside an evidence map of clinical trials. Primary outcomes were length of stay, hospital admission, intensive care unit admission, and adverse effects. We summarised all findings in the text and reported data for each outcome in 'Additional tables'. We identified 17 potentially eligible Cochrane Reviews but extracted data from, and rated the quality of, 13 reviews that reported results for children alone. We excluded four reviews as one did not include any randomised controlled trials (RCTs), one did not provide subgroup data for children, and the last two had been updated and replaced by subsequent reviews. The 13 reviews included 67 trials; the number of trials in each review ranged from a single trial up to 27 trials. The vast majority of comparisons included between one and three trials, involving fewer than 100 participants. The total number of participants included in reviews ranged from 40 to 2630. All studies included children; 16 (24%) included children younger than two years of age. Most of the reviews reported search dates older than four years. We have summarised the published evidence as outlined in Cochrane Reviews. Key findings, in terms of our primary outcomes, are that (1) intravenous magnesium sulfate was the only intervention shown to reduce hospital length of stay (high-certainty evidence); (2) no evidence suggested that any intervention reduced the risk of intensive care admission (low- to very low-certainty evidence); (3) the risk of hospital admission was reduced by the addition of inhaled anticholinergic agents to inhaled beta<sub2</sub-agonists (moderate-certainty evidence), the use of intravenous magnesium sulfate (high-certainty evidence), and the use of inhaled heliox (low-certainty evidence); (4) the addition of inhaled magnesium sulfate to usual bronchodilator therapy appears to reduce serious adverse events during hospital admission (moderate-certainty evidence); (5) aminophylline increased vomiting compared to placebo (moderate-certainty evidence) and increased nausea and nausea/vomiting compared to intravenous beta<sub2</sub-agonists (low-certainty evidence); and (6) the addition of anticholinergic therapy to short-acting beta<sub2</sub-agonists appeared to reduce the risk of nausea (high-certainty evidence) and tremor (moderate-certainty evidence) but not vomiting (low-certainty evidence). We considered 4 of the 13 reviews to be at high risk of bias based on the ROBIS framework. In all cases, this was due to concerns regarding identification and selection of studies. The certainty of evidence varied widely (by review and also by outcome) and ranged from very low to high. This overview provides the most up-to-date evidence on interventions for escalation of therapy for acute exacerbations of asthma in children from Cochrane Reviews of randomised controlled trials. A vast majority of comparisons involved between one and three trials and fewer than 100 participants, making it difficult to assess the balance between benefits and potential harms. Due to the lack of comparative studies between various treatment options, we are unable to make firm practice recommendations. Intravenous magnesium sulfate appears to reduce both hospital length of stay and the risk of hospital admission. Hospital admission is also reduced with the addition of inhaled anticholinergic agents to inhaled beta<sub2</sub-agonists. However, further research is required to determine which patients are most likely to benefit from these therapies. Due to the relatively rare incidence of acute severe paediatric asthma, multi-centre research will be required to generate high-quality evidence. A number of existing Cochrane Reviews should be updated, and we recommend that a new review be conducted on the use of high-flow nasal oxygen therapy. Important priorities include development of an internationally agreed core outcome set for future trials in acute severe asthma exacerbations and determination of clinically important differences in these outcomes, which can then inform adequately powered future trials.

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Every year, at least one million children become ill with tuberculosis and around 200,000 children die. Xpert MTB/RIF and Xpert Ultra are World Health Organization (WHO)-recommended rapid molecular tests that simultaneously detect tuberculosis and rifampicin resistance in adults and children with signs and symptoms of tuberculosis, at lower health system levels. To inform updated WHO guidelines on molecular assays, we performed a systematic review on the diagnostic accuracy of these tests in children presumed to have active tuberculosis. Primary objectives • To determine the diagnostic accuracy of Xpert MTB/RIF and Xpert Ultra for (a) pulmonary tuberculosis in children presumed to have tuberculosis; (b) tuberculous meningitis in children presumed to have tuberculosis; (c) lymph node tuberculosis in children presumed to have tuberculosis; and (d) rifampicin resistance in children presumed to have tuberculosis - For tuberculosis detection, index tests were used as the initial test, replacing standard practice (i.e. smear microscopy or culture) - For detection of rifampicin resistance, index tests replaced culture-based drug susceptibility testing as the initial test Secondary objectives • To compare the accuracy of Xpert MTB/RIF and Xpert Ultra for each of the four target conditions • To investigate potential sources of heterogeneity in accuracy estimates - For tuberculosis detection, we considered age, disease severity, smear-test status, HIV status, clinical setting, specimen type, high tuberculosis burden, and high tuberculosis/HIV burden - For detection of rifampicin resistance, we considered multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis burden • To compare multiple Xpert MTB/RIF or Xpert Ultra results (repeated testing) with the initial Xpert MTB/RIF or Xpert Ultra result SEARCH METHODS: We searched the Cochrane Infectious Diseases Group Specialized Register, MEDLINE, Embase, Science Citation Index, the Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature (CINAHL), Scopus, the WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform, ClinicalTrials.gov, and the International Standard Randomized Controlled Trials Number (ISRCTN) Registry up to 29 April 2019, without language restrictions. Randomized trials, cross-sectional trials, and cohort studies evaluating Xpert MTB/RIF or Xpert Ultra in HIV-positive and HIV-negative children younger than 15 years. Reference standards comprised culture or a composite reference standard for tuberculosis and drug susceptibility testing or MTBDRplus (molecular assay for detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and drug resistance) for rifampicin resistance. We included studies evaluating sputum, gastric aspirate, stool, nasopharyngeal or bronchial lavage specimens (pulmonary tuberculosis), cerebrospinal fluid (tuberculous meningitis), fine needle aspirates, or surgical biopsy tissue (lymph node tuberculosis). Two review authors independently extracted data and assessed study quality using the Quality Assessment of Studies of Diagnostic Accuracy - Revised (QUADAS-2). For each target condition, we used the bivariate model to estimate pooled sensitivity and specificity with 95% confidence intervals (CIs). We stratified all analyses by type of reference standard. We assessed certainty of evidence using the GRADE approach. For pulmonary tuberculosis, 299 data sets (68,544 participants) were available for analysis; for tuberculous meningitis, 10 data sets (423 participants) were available; for lymph node tuberculosis, 10 data sets (318 participants) were available; and for rifampicin resistance, 14 data sets (326 participants) were available. Thirty-nine studies (80%) took place in countries with high tuberculosis burden. Risk of bias was low except for the reference standard domain, for which risk of bias was unclear because many studies collected only one specimen for culture. Detection of pulmonary tuberculosis For sputum specimens, Xpert MTB/RIF pooled sensitivity (95% CI) and specificity (95% CI) verified by culture were 64.6% (55.3% to 72.9%) (23 studies, 493 participants; moderate-certainty evidence) and 99.0% (98.1% to 99.5%) (23 studies, 6119 participants; moderate-certainty evidence). For other specimen types (nasopharyngeal aspirate, 4 studies; gastric aspirate, 14 studies; stool, 11 studies), Xpert MTB/RIF pooled sensitivity ranged between 45.7% and 73.0%, and pooled specificity ranged between 98.1% and 99.6%. For sputum specimens, Xpert Ultra pooled sensitivity (95% CI) and specificity (95% CI) verified by culture were 72.8% (64.7% to 79.6%) (3 studies, 136 participants; low-certainty evidence) and 97.5% (95.8% to 98.5%) (3 studies, 551 participants; high-certainty evidence). For nasopharyngeal specimens, Xpert Ultra sensitivity (95% CI) and specificity (95% CI) were 45.7% (28.9% to 63.3%) and 97.5% (93.7% to 99.3%) (1 study, 195 participants). For all specimen types, Xpert MTB/RIF and Xpert Ultra sensitivity were lower against a composite reference standard than against culture. Detection of tuberculous meningitis For cerebrospinal fluid, Xpert MTB/RIF pooled sensitivity and specificity, verified by culture, were 54.0% (95% CI 27.8% to 78.2%) (6 studies, 28 participants; very low-certainty evidence) and 93.8% (95% CI 84.5% to 97.6%) (6 studies, 213 participants; low-certainty evidence). Detection of lymph node tuberculosis For lymph node aspirates or biopsies, Xpert MTB/RIF pooled sensitivity and specificity, verified by culture, were 90.4% (95% CI 55.7% to 98.6%) (6 studies, 68 participants; very low-certainty evidence) and 89.8% (95% CI 71.5% to 96.8%) (6 studies, 142 participants; low-certainty evidence). Detection of rifampicin resistance Xpert MTB/RIF pooled sensitivity and specificity were 90.0% (67.6% to 97.5%) (6 studies, 20 participants; low-certainty evidence) and 98.3% (87.7% to 99.8%) (6 studies, 203 participants; moderate-certainty evidence). We found Xpert MTB/RIF sensitivity to vary by specimen type, with gastric aspirate specimens having the highest sensitivity followed by sputum and stool, and nasopharyngeal specimens the lowest; specificity in all specimens was &gt; 98%. Compared with Xpert MTB/RIF, Xpert Ultra sensitivity in sputum was higher and specificity slightly lower. Xpert MTB/RIF was accurate for detection of rifampicin resistance. Xpert MTB/RIF was sensitive for diagnosing lymph node tuberculosis. For children with presumed tuberculous meningitis, treatment decisions should be based on the entirety of clinical information and treatment should not be withheld based solely on an Xpert MTB/RIF result. The small numbers of studies and participants, particularly for Xpert Ultra, limits our confidence in the precision of these estimates.

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Concerning levels of burnout have been reported among orthopaedic surgeons and residents. Defined as emotional exhaustion and depersonalization, physician burnout is associated with decreased productivity, increased medical errors, and increased risk of suicidal ideation. At the center of burnout research, person-centered approaches focusing on individual characteristics and coping strategies have largely been ineffective in solving this critical issue. They have failed to capture and address important institutional and organizational factors contributing to physician burnout. Similarly, little is known about the relationship between burnout and the working environments in which orthopaedic physicians practice, and on how orthopaedic surgeons at different career stages experience and perceive factors relevant to burnout. (1) How does burnout differ among orthopaedic attending surgeons, fellows, and residents? (2) What specific areas of work life are problematic at each of these career stages? (3) What specific areas of work life correlate most strongly with burnout at each of these career stages? Two hundred orthopaedic surgeons (residents, fellows, and attending physicians) at a single institution were invited to complete an electronic survey. Seventy-four percent (148 of 200) of them responded; specifically, 43 of 46 residents evenly distributed among training years, 18 of 36 fellows, and 87 of 118 attending physicians. Eighty-three percent (123 of 148) were men and 17% (25 of 148) were women. Two validated questionnaires were used. The Maslach Burnout Inventory was used to assess burnout, measuring emotional exhaustion and depersonalization. The Areas of Worklife Survey was used to measure congruency between participants and their work environment in six domains: workload, control, reward, community, fairness, and values. Participants were invited to openly share their experiences and suggest ways to improve burnout and specific work life domains. The main outcome measures were Maslach Burnout Inventory subdomains of emotional exhaustion and depersonalization, and Areas of Worklife Survey subdomains of workload, control, reward, community, fairness and values. We compared outcome measures of burnout and work life between groups. Simple linear regression models were used to report correlations between subscales. Stratified analyses were used to identify which group demonstrated higher correlations. All open comments were analyzed and coded to fully understand which areas of work life were problematic and how they were perceived in our population. Nine percent (7 of 80) of attending surgeons, 6% (1 of 16) of fellows, and 34% (14 of 41) of residents reported high levels of depersonalization on the Maslach Burnout Inventory (p &lt; 0.001). Mean depersonalization scores were higher (worse) in residents followed by attending surgeons, then fellows (10 ± 6, 5 ± 5, 4 ± 4 respectively; p &lt; 0.001). Sixteen percent (13 of 80) of attending surgeons, 31% (5 of 16) of fellows, and 34% (14 of 41) of residents reported high levels of emotional exhaustion (p = 0.07). Mean emotional exhaustion scores were highest (worse) in residents followed by attending surgeons then fellows (21 ± 12, 17 ± 10, 16 ± 14 respectively; p = 0.11). Workload was the most problematic work life area across all stages of orthopaedic career. Scores in the Areas of Worklife Survey were the lowest (worse) in the workload domain for all subgroups: residents (2.6 ± 0.4), fellows (3.0 ± 0.6), and attending surgeons (2.8 ± 0.7); p = 0.08. Five problematic work life categories were found through open comment analysis: workload, resources, interactions, environment, and self-care. Workload was similarly the most concerning to participants. Specific workload issues identified included administrative load (limited job control, excessive tasks and expectations), technology (electronic medical platform, email overload), workflow (operating room time, patient load distribution), and conflicts between personal, clinical, and academic roles. Overall, worsening emotional exhaustion and depersonalization were most strongly associated with increasing workload (r = - 0.50; p &lt; 0.001; and r = - 0.32; p &lt; 0.001, respectively) and decreasing job control (r = - 0.50; p &lt; 0.001, and r = - 0.41; p &lt; 0.001, respectively). Specifically, in residents, worsening emotional exhaustion and depersonalization most strongly correlated with increasing workload (r = - 0.65; p &lt; 0.001; and r = - 0.53; p &lt; 0.001, respectively) and decreasing job control (r = - 0.49; p = 0.001; and r = - 0.51; p = 0.001, respectively). In attending surgeons, worsening emotional exhaustion was most strongly correlated with increasing workload (r = - 0.50; p &lt; 0.001), and decreasing job control (r = - 0.44; p &lt; 0.001). Among attending surgeons, worsening depersonalization was only correlated with increasing workload (r = - 0.23; p = 0.04). Among orthopaedic fellows, worsening emotional exhaustion and depersonalization were most strongly correlated with decreasing sense of fairness (r = - 0.76; p = 0.001; and r = - 0.87; p &lt; 0.001, respectively), and poorer sense of community (r = - 0.72; p = 0.002; and r = - 0.65; p = 0.01, respectively). We found higher levels of burnout among orthopaedic residents compared to attending surgeons and fellows. We detected strong distinct correlations between emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and areas of work life across stages of orthopaedic career. Burnout was most strongly associated with workload and job control in orthopaedic residents and attending surgeons and with fairness and community in orthopaedic fellows. Institutions wishing to better understand burnout may use this approach to identify specific work life drivers of burnout, and determine possible interventions targeted to orthopaedic surgeons at each stage of career. Based on our institutional experience, leadership should investigate strategies to decrease workload by increasing administrative support and improving workflow; improve sense of autonomy by consulting physicians in decision-making; and seek to improve the sense of control in residents and sense of community in fellows.

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The Birmingham Hip Resurfacing (BHR) prosthesis is the most commonly used metal-on-metal hip resurfacing arthroplasty device. The current manufacturer-recommended target demographic for the BHR is male patients, younger than 65 years requiring a femoral head size of ≥ 50 mm. Female patients, older patients, and individuals with smaller femoral-head diameter (≤ 50 mm) are known to have higher revision rates. Prior studies suggest that the survivorship of the BHR when used in the target demographic is comparable with that of primary conventional THA, but comparing survivorship of the most durable hip resurfacing arthroplasty device to the survivorship of all conventional THA prostheses is not ideal because the THA group comprises a large number of different types of prostheses that have considerable variation in prosthesis survival. A more informative comparison would be with the THA implants with the best survivorship, as this might help address the question of whether survivorship in the BHR target population can be improved by using a well-performing conventional THA. We compared the difference in cumulative percent revision, reasons for revision and types of revision for procedures reported to the Australian Orthopaedic Association National Joint Replacement Registry (AOANJRR) using the BHR prosthesis (femoral-head size &gt; 50 mm) and three conventional THA prostheses identified as having the lowest 10-year cumulative percent revision in the currently recommended BHR target population to ask: (1) Does the BHR have a lower cumulative revision rate than the group of three conventional THA prostheses? (2) Is there a difference in the revision diagnosis between the BHR and the three best conventional THA prostheses? (3) What is the difference in the components used for a revision of a BHR compared with the three best conventional THA prostheses? Data reported to the AOANJRR between September 1, 1999 and December 31, 2018 was used for this analysis. This study period includes almost the entire use of the BHR in Australia. The AOANJRR is a large national joint registry with almost 100% completeness, high accuracy, rigorous validation, and little to no loss to follow-up. The study population included males younger than 65 years that had received one hip replacement procedure for osteoarthritis. All patients with bilateral procedures, no matter the time interval between hips, were excluded. Only BHR prostheses with a femoral-head size ≥ 50 mm and conventional THA prostheses with femoral head sizes ≥ 32 mm and either ceramic-on-ceramic or metal, ceramic, ceramicized metal-on-crosslinked polyethylene (XLPE) bearings were included. These femoral head sizes and bearings were selected because they reflect modern conventional THA practice. There is no difference in the revision rate of these bearings in the AOANJRR. There were 4790 BHR procedures and 2696 conventional THA procedures in the study group. The mean (± SD) age for BHR procedures was 52 ± 7.8 years and 56 ± 7.1 years for conventional THA procedures. All comparative analyses were adjusted for age. Other demographics data including American Society Anesthesiologists (ASA) score and BMI were only included in AOANJRR data collection since 2012 and 2015, respectively, and have not been included in this analysis because of the low use of BHR in Australia since that time. The maximum follow-up was 18.7 years for both groups and mean follow-up of 11.9 years for the BHR and 9.3 years for the conventional THA group. Revision rates were determined using Kaplan-Meier estimates of survivorship to describe the time to the first revision, with censoring at the time of death or closure of the database at the time of analysis. A revision was defined as removal, replacement or addition of any component of a joint replacement. Revisions can be further classified as major revisions (removal of a component articulating with bone-usually the stem and/or the shell) or minor revisions (removal of other components-usually the head and/or the liner). The unadjusted cumulative percent revision after the primary arthroplasty (with 95% confidence intervals) was calculated and compared using Cox proportional hazard models adjusted for age. The BHR prosthesis had a statistically higher rate of all-cause revision at 17 years than the selected conventional THA prostheses (HR 2.77 [95% CI 1.78 to 4.32]; p &lt; 0.001). The revision diagnoses differed between the groups, with the BHR demonstrating a higher revision rate for loosening after 2 years than the conventional THA protheses (HR 4.64 [95% CI 1.66 to 12.97]; p = 0.003), as well as a higher fracture rate during the entire period (HR 2.57 [95% CI 1.24 to 5.33]; p = 0.01). There was a lower revision rate for infection for the BHR compared with the THA group in the first 5 years, with no difference between the two groups after this time. All revisions of the BHR were major revisions (such as, removal or exchange of the femoral and/or acetabular components) and this occurred in 4.5% of the primary BHR procedures. Major revision was the most common type of revision for primary THA accounting for 1.7% of all primary THA procedures. Minor revisions (head, inset or both) were undertaken in a further 0.6% of primary THA procedures. Given the increasing revision risk of the BHR compared with better-performing conventional THA prostheses in the target population, we recommend that patients be counseled about this risk. We suggest that a THA with proven low revision rates might be the better choice, particularly for patients who are concerned about implant durability. Well-controlled prospective studies that show appreciable clinically important differences in patient-reported outcomes and functional results favoring the BHR over conventional THA prostheses using modern bearings are needed to justify the use of the BHR in view of this revision risk. Level III, therapeutic study.

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Caries is one of the most prevalent and preventable conditions worldwide. If identified early enough then non-invasive techniques can be applied, and therefore this review focusses on early caries involving the enamel surface of the tooth. The cornerstone of caries detection is a visual and tactile dental examination, however alternative methods of detection are available, and these include fluorescence-based devices. There are three categories of fluorescence-based device each primarily defined by the different wavelengths they exploit; we have labelled these groups as red, blue, and green fluorescence. These devices could support the visual examination for the detection and diagnosis of caries at an early stage of decay. Our primary objectives were to estimate the diagnostic test accuracy of fluorescence-based devices for the detection and diagnosis of enamel caries in children or adults. We planned to investigate the following potential sources of heterogeneity: tooth surface (occlusal, proximal, smooth surface or adjacent to a restoration); single point measurement devices versus imaging or surface assessment devices; and the prevalence of more severe disease in each study sample, at the level of caries into dentine. Cochrane Oral Health's Information Specialist undertook a search of the following databases: MEDLINE Ovid (1946 to 30 May 2019); Embase Ovid (1980 to 30 May 2019); US National Institutes of Health Ongoing Trials Register (ClinicalTrials.gov, to 30 May 2019); and the World Health Organization International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (to 30 May 2019). We studied reference lists as well as published systematic review articles. We included diagnostic accuracy study designs that compared a fluorescence-based device with a reference standard. This included prospective studies that evaluated the diagnostic accuracy of single index tests and studies that directly compared two or more index tests. Studies that explicitly recruited participants with caries into dentine or frank cavitation were excluded. Two review authors extracted data independently using a piloted study data extraction form based on the Quality Assessment of Diagnostic Accuracy Studies 2 (QUADAS-2). Sensitivity and specificity with 95% confidence intervals (CIs) were reported for each study. This information has been displayed as coupled forest plots and summary receiver operating characteristic (SROC) plots, displaying the sensitivity-specificity points for each study. We estimated diagnostic accuracy using hierarchical summary receiver operating characteristic (HSROC) methods. We reported sensitivities at fixed values of specificity (median 0.78, upper quartile 0.90). We included a total of 133 studies, 55 did not report data in the 2 x 2 format and could not be included in the meta-analysis. 79 studies which provided 114 datasets and evaluated 21,283 tooth surfaces were included in the meta-analysis. There was a high risk of bias for the participant selection domain. The index test, reference standard, and flow and timing domains all showed a high proportion of studies to be at low risk of bias. Concerns regarding the applicability of the evidence were high or unclear for all domains, the highest proportion being seen in participant selection. Selective participant recruitment, poorly defined diagnostic thresholds, and in vitro studies being non-generalisable to the clinical scenario of a routine dental examination were the main reasons for these findings. The dominance of in vitro studies also means that the information on how the results of these devices are used to support diagnosis, as opposed to pure detection, was extremely limited. There was substantial variability in the results which could not be explained by the different devices or dentition or other sources of heterogeneity that we investigated. The diagnostic odds ratio (DOR) was 14.12 (95% CI 11.17 to 17.84). The estimated sensitivity, at a fixed median specificity of 0.78, was 0.70 (95% CI 0.64 to 0.75). In a hypothetical cohort of 1000 tooth sites or surfaces, with a prevalence of enamel caries of 57%, obtained from the included studies, the estimated sensitivity of 0.70 and specificity of 0.78 would result in 171 missed tooth sites or surfaces with enamel caries (false negatives) and 95 incorrectly classed as having early caries (false positives). We used meta-regression to compare the accuracy of the different devices for red fluorescence (84 datasets, 14,514 tooth sites), blue fluorescence (21 datasets, 3429 tooth sites), and green fluorescence (9 datasets, 3340 tooth sites) devices. Initially, we allowed threshold, shape, and accuracy to vary according to device type by including covariates in the model. Allowing consistency of shape, removal of the covariates for accuracy had only a negligible effect (Chi<sup2</sup = 3.91, degrees of freedom (df) = 2, P = 0.14). Despite the relatively large volume of evidence we rated the certainty of the evidence as low, downgraded two levels in total, for risk of bias due to limitations in the design and conduct of the included studies, indirectness arising from the high number of in vitro studies, and inconsistency due to the substantial variability of results. There is considerable variation in the performance of these fluorescence-based devices that could not be explained by the different wavelengths of the devices assessed, participant, or study characteristics. Blue and green fluorescence-based devices appeared to outperform red fluorescence-based devices but this difference was not supported by the results of a formal statistical comparison. The evidence base was considerable, but we were only able to include 79 studies out of 133 in the meta-analysis as estimates of sensitivity or specificity values or both could not be extracted or derived. In terms of applicability, any future studies should be carried out in a clinical setting, where difficulties of caries assessment within the oral cavity include plaque, staining, and restorations. Other considerations include the potential of fluorescence devices to be used in combination with other technologies and comparative diagnostic accuracy studies.

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Interstitial lung disease (ILD) is characterised by reduced functional capacity, dyspnoea and exercise-induced hypoxia. Pulmonary rehabilitation is often used to improve symptoms, health-related quality of life and functional status in other chronic lung conditions. There is accumulating evidence for comparable effects of pulmonary rehabilitation in people with ILD. However, further information is needed to clarify the long-term benefit and to strengthen the rationale for pulmonary rehabilitation to be incorporated into standard clinical management of people with ILD. This review updates the results reported in 2014. To determine whether pulmonary rehabilitation in people with ILD has beneficial effects on exercise capacity, symptoms, quality of life and survival compared with no pulmonary rehabilitation in people with ILD. To assess the safety of pulmonary rehabilitation in people with ILD. We searched CENTRAL, MEDLINE (Ovid), Embase (Ovid), CINAHL (EBSCO) and PEDro from inception to April 2020. We searched the reference lists of relevant studies, international clinical trial registries and respiratory conference abstracts to look for qualifying studies. We included randomised controlled trials and quasi-randomised controlled trials in which pulmonary rehabilitation was compared with no pulmonary rehabilitation or with other therapy in people with ILD of any origin. Two review authors independently selected trials for inclusion, extracted data and assessed risk of bias. We contacted study authors to request missing data and information regarding adverse effects. We specified a priori subgroup analyses for participants with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) and participants with severe lung disease (low diffusing capacity or desaturation during exercise). There were insufficient data to perform the prespecified subgroup analysis for type of exercise training modality. For this update, we included an additional 12 studies resulting in a total of 21 studies. We included 16 studies in the meta-analysis (356 participants undertook pulmonary rehabilitation and 319 were control participants). The mean age of participants ranged from 36 to 72 years and included people with ILD of varying aetiology, sarcoidosis or IPF (with mean transfer factor of carbon dioxide (TLCO) % predicted ranging from 37% to 63%). Most pulmonary rehabilitation programmes were conducted in an outpatient setting, with a small number conducted in home-based, inpatient or tele-rehabilitation settings. The duration of pulmonary rehabilitation ranged from three to 48 weeks. There was a moderate risk of bias due to the absence of outcome assessor blinding and intention-to-treat analyses and the inadequate reporting of randomisation and allocation procedures in 60% of the studies. Pulmonary rehabilitation probably improves the six-minute walk distance (6MWD) with mean difference (MD) of 40.07 metres, 95% confidence interval (CI) 32.70 to 47.44; 585 participants; moderate-certainty evidence). There may be improvements in peak workload (MD 9.04 watts, 95% CI 6.07 to 12.0; 159 participants; low-certainty evidence), peak oxygen consumption (MD 1.28 mL/kg/minute, 95% CI 0.51 to 2.05; 94 participants; low-certainty evidence) and maximum ventilation (MD 7.21 L/minute, 95% CI 4.10 to 10.32; 94 participants; low-certainty evidence). In the subgroup of participants with IPF, there were comparable improvements in 6MWD (MD 37.25 metres, 95% CI 26.16 to 48.33; 278 participants; moderate-certainty evidence), peak workload (MD 9.94 watts, 95% CI 6.39 to 13.49; low-certainty evidence), VO<sub2</sub (oxygen uptake) peak (MD 1.45 mL/kg/minute, 95% CI 0.51 to 2.40; low-certainty evidence) and maximum ventilation (MD 9.80 L/minute, 95% CI 6.06 to 13.53; 62 participants; low-certainty evidence). The effect of pulmonary rehabilitation on maximum heart rate was uncertain. Pulmonary rehabilitation may reduce dyspnoea in participants with ILD (standardised mean difference (SMD) -0.36, 95% CI -0.58 to -0.14; 348 participants; low-certainty evidence) and in the IPF subgroup (SMD -0.41, 95% CI -0.74 to -0.09; 155 participants; low-certainty evidence). Pulmonary rehabilitation probably improves health-related quality of life: there were improvements in all four domains of the Chronic Respiratory Disease Questionnaire (CRQ) and the St George's Respiratory Questionnaire (SGRQ) for participants with ILD and for the subgroup of people with IPF. The improvement in SGRQ Total score was -9.29 for participants with ILD (95% CI -11.06 to -7.52; 478 participants; moderate-certainty evidence) and -7.91 for participants with IPF (95% CI -10.55 to -5.26; 194 participants; moderate-certainty evidence). Five studies reported longer-term outcomes, with improvements in exercise capacity, dyspnoea and health-related quality of life still evident six to 12 months following the intervention period (6MWD: MD 32.43, 95% CI 15.58 to 49.28; 297 participants; moderate-certainty evidence; dyspnoea: MD -0.29, 95% CI -0.49 to -0.10; 335 participants; SGRQ Total score: MD -4.93, 95% CI -7.81 to -2.06; 240 participants; low-certainty evidence). In the subgroup of participants with IPF, there were improvements at six to 12 months following the intervention for dyspnoea and SGRQ Impact score. The effect of pulmonary rehabilitation on survival at long-term follow-up is uncertain. There were insufficient data to allow examination of the impact of disease severity or exercise training modality. Ten studies provided information on adverse events; however, there were no adverse events reported during rehabilitation. Four studies reported the death of one pulmonary rehabilitation participant; however, all four studies indicated this death was unrelated to the intervention received. Pulmonary rehabilitation can be performed safely in people with ILD. Pulmonary rehabilitation probably improves functional exercise capacity, dyspnoea and quality of life in the short term, with benefits also probable in IPF. Improvements in functional exercise capacity, dyspnoea and quality of life were sustained longer term. Dyspnoea and quality of life may be sustained in people with IPF. The certainty of evidence was low to moderate, due to inadequate reporting of methods, the lack of outcome assessment blinding and heterogeneity in some results. Further well-designed randomised trials are needed to determine the optimal exercise prescription, and to investigate ways to promote longer-lasting improvements, particularly for people with IPF.

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Heated tobacco products (HTPs) are designed to heat tobacco to a high enough temperature to release aerosol, without burning it or producing smoke. They differ from e-cigarettes because they heat tobacco leaf/sheet rather than a liquid. Companies who make HTPs claim they produce fewer harmful chemicals than conventional cigarettes. Some people report stopping smoking cigarettes entirely by switching to using HTPs, so clinicians need to know whether they are effective for this purpose and relatively safe. Also, to regulate HTPs appropriately, policymakers should understand their impact on health and on cigarette smoking prevalence. To evaluate the effectiveness and safety of HTPs for smoking cessation and the impact of HTPs on smoking prevalence.  SEARCH METHODS: We searched the Cochrane Tobacco Addiction Group's Specialised Register, CENTRAL, MEDLINE, and six other databases for relevant records to January 2021, together with reference-checking and contact with study authors and relevant groups. We included randomised controlled trials (RCTs) in which people who smoked cigarettes were randomised to switch to exclusive HTP use or a control condition. Eligible outcomes were smoking cessation, adverse events, and selected biomarkers.  RCTs conducted in clinic or in an ambulatory setting were deemed eligible when assessing safety, including those randomising participants to exclusively use HTPs, smoke cigarettes, or attempt abstinence from all tobacco. Time-series studies were also eligible for inclusion if they examined the population-level impact of heated tobacco on smoking prevalence or cigarette sales as an indirect measure. We followed standard Cochrane methods for screening and data extraction. Our primary outcome measures were abstinence from smoking at the longest follow-up point available, adverse events, serious adverse events, and changes in smoking prevalence or cigarette sales. Other outcomes included biomarkers of harm and exposure to toxicants/carcinogens (e.g. NNAL and carboxyhaemoglobin (COHb)). We used a random-effects Mantel-Haenszel model to calculate risk ratios (RR) with 95% confidence intervals (CIs) for dichotomous outcomes. For continuous outcomes, we calculated mean differences on the log-transformed scale (LMD) with 95% CIs. We pooled data across studies using meta-analysis where possible. We included 13 completed studies, of which 11 were RCTs assessing safety (2666 participants) and two were time-series studies. We judged eight RCTs to be at unclear risk of bias and three at high risk. All RCTs were funded by tobacco companies. Median length of follow-up was 13 weeks. No studies reported smoking cessation outcomes.  There was insufficient evidence for a difference in risk of adverse events between smokers randomised to switch to heated tobacco or continue smoking cigarettes, limited by imprecision and risk of bias (RR 1.03, 95% CI 0.92 to 1.15; I<sup2</sup = 0%; 6 studies, 1713 participants). There was insufficient evidence to determine whether risk of serious adverse events differed between groups due to very serious imprecision and risk of bias (RR 0.79, 95% CI 0.33 to 1.94; I<sup2</sup = 0%; 4 studies, 1472 participants). There was moderate-certainty evidence for lower NNAL and COHb at follow-up in heated tobacco than cigarette smoking groups, limited by risk of bias (NNAL: LMD -0.81, 95% CI -1.07 to -0.55; I<sup2</sup = 92%; 10 studies, 1959 participants; COHb: LMD -0.74, 95% CI -0.92 to -0.52; I<sup2</sup = 96%; 9 studies, 1807 participants). Evidence for additional biomarkers of exposure are reported in the main body of the review. There was insufficient evidence for a difference in risk of adverse events in smokers randomised to switch to heated tobacco or attempt abstinence from all tobacco, limited by risk of bias and imprecision (RR 1.12, 95% CI 0.86 to 1.46; I<sup2</sup = 0%; 2 studies, 237 participants). Five studies reported that no serious adverse events occurred in either group (533 participants). There was moderate-certainty evidence, limited by risk of bias, that urine concentrations of NNAL at follow-up were higher in the heated tobacco use compared with abstinence group (LMD 0.50, 95% CI 0.34 to 0.66; I<sup2</sup = 0%; 5 studies, 382 participants). In addition, there was very low-certainty evidence, limited by risk of bias, inconsistency, and imprecision, for higher COHb in the heated tobacco use compared with abstinence group for intention-to-treat analyses (LMD 0.69, 95% CI 0.07 to 1.31; 3 studies, 212 participants), but lower COHb in per-protocol analyses (LMD -0.32, 95% CI -1.04 to 0.39; 2 studies, 170 participants). Evidence concerning additional biomarkers is reported in the main body of the review. Data from two time-series studies showed that the rate of decline in cigarette sales accelerated following the introduction of heated tobacco to market in Japan. This evidence was of very low-certainty as there was risk of bias, including possible confounding, and cigarette sales are an indirect measure of smoking prevalence. No studies reported on cigarette smoking cessation, so the effectiveness of heated tobacco for this purpose remains uncertain. There was insufficient evidence for differences in risk of adverse or serious adverse events between people randomised to switch to heated tobacco, smoke cigarettes, or attempt tobacco abstinence in the short-term. There was moderate-certainty evidence that heated tobacco users have lower exposure to toxicants/carcinogens than cigarette smokers and very low- to moderate-certainty evidence of higher exposure than those attempting abstinence from  all tobacco. Independently funded research on the effectiveness and safety of HTPs is needed.  The rate of decline in cigarette sales accelerated after the introduction of heated tobacco to market in Japan but, as data were observational, it is possible other factors caused these changes. Moreover, falls in cigarette sales may not translate to declining smoking prevalence, and changes in Japan may not generalise elsewhere. To clarify the impact of rising heated tobacco use on smoking prevalence, there is a need for time-series studies that examine this association.

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The purpose of this analysis was to determine the impact on specific forms of neonatal morbidity and mortality by allowing women to opt for delivery by elective cesarean section at 39 weeks of gestation (EGA). According to the National Vital Statistics Reports, over 70% of deliveries in the U.S. annually are at gestational ages&gt;or=39 weeks EGA. Estimating that over 4 million deliveries occur annually in the United States, this would yield approximately 3 million pregnancies wherein the woman may exercise her choice for either primary or repeat cesarean section at 39 weeks EGA or at the point when labor is established. A search was conducted using Ovid Medline spanning the past 10 years using the following key words: fetal trauma, shoulder dystocia, brachial plexus palsy, neonatal skull fracture, obstetrical trauma, traumatic delivery, intrauterine fetal demise, stillbirth, fetal demise, and neonatal encephalopathy. Using this search technique, over 2100 articles were identified. The abstracts were reviewed and pertinent articles were chosen for further consideration. The identified articles and their applicable references were obtained for inclusion in this review. Preference was given to publications on or after the year 2000 with the exception of classical or sentinel articles, which were included without regard to year of publication. Four major categories of neonatal morbidity and mortality are discussed: Shoulder dystocia: Accepting that we do not have a successful method for the prediction or prevention of shoulder dystocia, the question becomes, "What is the chance that a baby will sustain a permanent brachial plexus injury at delivery?" Additionally, is there a significant protective effect of cesarean section in reducing the risk of such injury? Currently, the occurrence rate of brachial plexus palsy at the time of vaginal delivery ranges from 0.047% to 0.6% and for cesarean section from 0.0042% to 0.095%. Using a composite estimate of the risk of 0.15% for vaginal deliveries and applying it to the 3 million deliveries&gt;or=39 weeks EGA, approximately 4500 cases of brachial plexus palsy would occur. If only 15% of these injuries were permanent, 675 permanent brachial plexus palsies would occur annually. If the risk of permanent injury is 1 in 10,000 as reported by Chauhan, 300 permanent brachial plexus palsies would occur annually in the United States. The range then for permanent brachial plexus injury that could be avoided with cesarean section on request would appear to vary between 1 in 5000 and 1 in 10,000 vaginal births. Fetal trauma: The incidence of significant birth trauma varies from 0.2 to 1 to 2 per 1000 births. The use of sequential instruments, for example, vacuum followed by forceps or vice versa, is specifically associated with an unacceptably high injury rate. Intrapartum-related neonatal deaths of vertex singleton fetuses with birthweights&gt;2500 g from traumatic cranial or cervical spine injury secondary to vacuum- or forceps-assisted vaginal delivery are still occurring. Overall, the frequency of significant fetal injury is significantly greater with vaginal delivery, especially operative vaginal delivery, than with cesarean section for the nonlaboring woman at 39 weeks EGA or near term when early labor has been established. Neonatal encephalopathy: The prevalence of moderate to severe neonatal encephalopathy is 3.8/1000 term live births with a neonatal fatality rate of 9.1%. In 4% to 10% of cases, the etiology appears to be pure intrapartum hypoxia. Intrapartum hypoxia superimposed on antepartum risk factors may account for up to 25% of the moderate to severe encephalopathies, according to one cohort. A paradox in the data thus far is that infants born to nonlaboring women delivered by cesarean section had an 83% reduction in the occurrence of moderate or severe encephalopathy. Considering a prevalence of moderate or severe neonatal encephalopathy of 0.38% and applying it to the 3 million deliveries occurring at &gt;or=39 weeks EGA in the United States annually, 11,400 cases of moderate to severe encephalopathy would occur. The rate of encephalopathy observed in infants delivered by cesarean section would yield approximately 1938 cases. This net difference in moderate to severe encephalopathy would represent 9462 cases annually in the United States that could be prevented with elective cesarean section. Although cesarean delivery may be protective for the development of neonatal encephalopathy, to date it has not proven to be protective of long-term neurologic injury in the form of cerebral palsy with or without mental retardation and/or seizure disorders. Intrauterine fetal demise: Copper reported that the rate of stillbirth is consistent from 23 to 40 weeks EGA with about 5% of all stillbirths occurring at each week of gestation. Yudkin reported a rate of 0.6 stillbirths per 1000 live births from 33 to 39 weeks EGA. After 39 weeks EGA, a significant increase in the stillbirth rate was reported (1.9 per 1000 live births). Fretts reported on fetal deaths per 1000 live births from 37 to 41 weeks of gestational age, showing that the rate progressively increased from 1.3 to 4.6 with each week of gestation. It can be estimated that delivery at 39 weeks EGA would prevent 2 fetal deaths per 1000 living fetuses. This would translate into the prevention of as many as 6000 intrauterine fetal demises in the United States annually-an impact that far exceeds any other strategy implemented for stillbirth reduction thus far. It is reasonable to inform the pregnant woman of the risk of each of the above categories, in addition to counseling her regarding the potential risks of a cesarean section for the current and any subsequent pregnancies. The clinician's role should be to provide the best evidence-based counseling possible to the pregnant woman and to respect her autonomy and decision-making capabilities when considering route of delivery.

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Satraplatin [BMS 182751, BMY 45594, JM 216] belongs to a series of orally-active platinum compounds with anticancer activity. It was jointly originated by Bristol-Myers Squibb, Johnson Matthey and the Institute of Cancer Research in the UK; however, Johnson Matthey has since ceased involvement with drug development. Subsequently, the agent has been licensed to and is under development with GPC Biotech, Pharmion and Spectrum Pharmaceuticals. Clinical trials are underway to evaluate satraplatin among patients with different tumour types, including prostate, breast, cervical and lung cancers. The compound is under regulatory review with the US FDA for the treatment of hormone-refractory prostate cancer. NeoTherapeutics (now Spectrum Pharmaceuticals) granted GPC Biotech an exclusive worldwide licence to develop and market satraplatin in October 2002. Under the terms of the agreement, GPC Biotech is fully funding development costs and commercialisation requirements for the drug. The deal also involves GPC Biotech paying a signing fee, milestone and royalty payments. Spectrum is a member of a joint development committee headed by GPC Biotech to govern development of satraplatin. Previously in October 2001, NeoOncoRx (Spectrum Pharmaceuticals) gained the rights to develop and market the compound worldwide. In December 2005, GPC Biotech and Pharmion Corporation entered into a co-development and license agreement for satraplatin. Under the agreement terms, Pharmion has exclusive commercialisation rights for Europe, Turkey, the Middle East, Australia and New Zealand, while GPC Biotech retains rights to North America and all other territories. Pharmion made an upfront payment of $US37.1 million to GPC Biotech, which included reimbursement for past clinical development costs plus funding for ongoing and certain clinical development activities to be jointly conducted by the companies. In addition, both parties will pursue a joint development plan for satraplatin in a variety of tumour types and will share global development costs, for which Pharmion has made an additional commitment of $US22.2 million. GPC Biotech could also receive up to $US270 million in milestone payments and royalties on sales. Both companies will manage regulatory and commercial activities in their respective territories. A registrational phase III study is ongoing among 950 patients with HRPC. This global, multicentre, randomised study, called SPARC (Satraplatin and Prednisone Against Refractory Cancer), is assessing satraplatin plus prednisone versus prednisone alone as second-line therapy in HRPC patients. Top-line results from the trial showed that patients who received satraplatin plus prednisone had a 40% reduction in the risk of progression compared with patients who received prednisone plus placebo. In accordance with the recommendation of the independent Data Monitoring Board for the SPARC trial, patients who have not progressed will continue to be treated and all patients will be followed for overall survival. The company expects to have final overall survival results in the fall of 2007. The company intends to complete the NDA filing with the FDA before the end of 2006. In February 2006, GPC Biotech raised euro36.2 million from a private placement of shares; the funds will be used in the commercialisation of satraplatin in the US. GBC Biotech received a Scientific Advice letter from the EMEA in January 2004, enabling the company to use the SPARC trial for registrational plans in both Europe and the US. Data from the pivotal phase III trial are expected in the second half of 2006. If positive, the findings will form the basis of a MAA filing with the EMEA for satraplatin as a second-line therapy of HRPC. The EMEA has confirmed that it would accept the final analysis for progression-free survival (PFS) from the SPARC trial and the available overall survival data as the basis for the MAA submission expected in the first quarter of 2007. In December 2005, enrolment started for a phase II study of satraplatin plus paclitaxel as a first-line treatment for unresectable advanced NSCLC. This open-label study is enrolling up to 40 patients at sites in the US. In addition, GPC Biotech and Spectrum have initiated a phase I/II trial of satraplatin plus radiation therapy among patients with NSCLC. The study is expected to enrol up to 30 patients in the phase I portion to determine dose-limiting toxicities and maximum tolerated doses. Once these are established, the phase II portion will enrol patients to evaluate efficacy and safety. This trial is expected to be closely followed by phase I/II trials of satraplatin in combination with docetaxel and paclitaxel. GPC Biotech initiated a phase I trial in July 2005 investigating satraplatin plus docetaxel among patients with advanced solid tumours in the US. The study is primarily focused on establishing the toxicity and maximum tolerated doses of combination therapy to determine suitable dosages for phase II trials. Enrolment is ongoing for the open-label, single-centre study with a target of up to 48 patients. A phase I study is evaluating satraplatin in combination with gemcitabine in patients with advanced solid tumours. Previously, Bristol-Myers Squibb initiated phase III development of satraplatin in Europe and the US in 1996. The trials were being conducted in patients with ovarian, non-small cell lung and small-cell lung cancers. However, the company closed all ongoing trials of satraplatin in 1999. Satraplatin is protected by a number of patents issued in the US, EU, Japan, Canada and Australia. The patents have been assigned to Johnson Matthey, a multinational chemical company in the UK, which has exclusively sub-licensed these to GPC Biotech under a co-development and licensing agreement with Spectrum Pharmaceuticals. The patents cover the composition of matter and anticancer uses of various platinum-based compounds, including satraplatin. Two of the US patents will expire in 2008 and 2010, respectively, while patents in most other countries will expire in 2009.

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The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends treating all school children at regular intervals with deworming drugs in areas where helminth infection is common. The WHO state this will improve nutritional status, haemoglobin, and cognition and thus will improve health, intellect, and school attendance. Consequently, it is claimed that school performance will improve, child mortality will decline, and economic productivity will increase. Given the important health and societal benefits attributed to this intervention, we sought to determine whether they are based on reliable evidence. To summarize the effects of giving deworming drugs to children to treat soil-transmitted intestinal worms (nematode geohelminths) on weight, haemoglobin, and cognition; and the evidence of impact on physical well being, school attendance, school performance, and mortality. In February 2012, we searched the Cochrane Infectious Diseases Group Specialized Register, MEDLINE, EMBASE, LILACS, mRCT, and reference lists, and registers of ongoing and completed trials. We selected randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and quasi-RCTs comparing deworming drugs for geohelminth worms with placebo or no treatment in children aged 16 years or less, reporting on weight, haemoglobin, and formal test of intellectual development. In cluster-RCTs treating communities or schools, we also sought data on school attendance, school performance, and mortality. We included trials that included health education with deworming. At least two authors independently assessed the trials, evaluated risk of bias, and extracted data. Continuous data were analysed using the mean difference (MD) with 95% confidence intervals (CI). Where data were missing, we contacted trial authors. We used GRADE to assess evidence quality, and this is reflected in the wording we used: high quality ("deworming improves...."); moderate quality ("deworming probably improves..."); low quality ("deworming may improve...."); and very low quality ("we don't know if deworming improves...."). We identified 42 trials, including eight cluster trials, that met the inclusion criteria. Excluding one trial where data are awaited, the 41 trials include 65,168 participants.For programmes that treat only children detected as infected (by screening), a single dose of deworming drugs probably increased weight (0.58 kg, 95% CI 0.40 to 0.76, three trials, 139 participants; moderate quality evidence) and may have increased haemoglobin (0.37 g/dL, 95% CI 0.1 to 0.64, two trials, 108 participants; low quality evidence), but we do not know if there is an effect on cognitive functioning (two trials, very low quality evidence).For a single dose of deworming drugs given to all children in endemic areas, there were mixed effects on weight, with no effects evident in seven trials, but large effects in two. Overall our analysis indicated that we are uncertain whether there was an effect on weight (nine trials, 3058 participants; very low quality evidence). For haemoglobin, deworming made little or no difference (0.02 g/dL, 95% CI -0.05 to 0.09, four trials, 1992 participants; low quality evidence), and we don't know if it improves cognition (one trial, very low quality evidence).For multiple doses of deworming drugs with follow up for up to one year given to all children in endemic areas, we are uncertain if there is an effect on weight (0.06 kg, 95% CI -0.17 to 0.30; seven trials, 2460 participants; very low quality evidence); cognition (three trials, very low quality evidence); or school attendance (4% higher attendance; 95% CI -6 to 14; two trials, 75 clusters and 143 individually randomized participants, very low quality evidence). For haemoglobin, the intervention may have little or no effect (mean 0.01 g/dL lower; 95% CI 0.14 lower to 0.13 higher; four trials, 807 participants; low quality evidence).For multiple doses of deworming drugs with follow up beyond one year given to all children in endemic areas there were five trials with weight measures. One cluster-RCT of 3712 children in a low prevalence area showed a large effect (average gain of 0.98kg), whilst the other four trials did not show an effect, including a cluster-RCT of 27,995 children in a moderate prevalence area. Overall, we are uncertain if there is an effect for weight (five trials, 302 clusters and 1045 individually randomized participants; very low quality evidence). For other outcomes, we are uncertain whether deworming affects height (-0.26 cm; 95%CI -0.84 to 0.31, three trials, 1219 participants); haemoglobin (0.02 g/dL, 95%CI 0.3 to 0.27, two trials, 1365 participants); cognition (two trials), or school attendance (mean attendance 5% higher, 95% CI -0.5 to 10.5, one trial, 50 clusters).Stratified analysis to seek subgroup effects into low, medium and high helminth endemicity areas did not demonstrate any pattern of effect. We did not detect any significant effects for any primary outcomes in a sensitivity analysis only including trials with adequate allocation concealment.One million children were randomized in a deworming trial from India with mortality as the primary outcome. This was completed in 2005 but the authors have not published the results. Screening children for intestinal helminths and then treating infected children appears promising, but the evidence base is small. Routine deworming drugs given to school children has been more extensively investigated, and has not shown benefit on weight in most studies, except for substantial weight changes in three trials conducted 15 years ago or more. Two of these trials were carried out in the same high prevalence setting. For haemoglobin, community deworming seems to have little or no effect, and the evidence in relation to cognition, school attendance, and school performance is generally poor, with no obvious or consistent effect. Our interpretation of this data is that it is probably misleading to justify contemporary deworming programmes based on evidence of consistent benefit on nutrition, haemoglobin, school attendance or school performance as there is simply insufficient reliable information to know whether this is so.

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Moderate acute malnutrition, also called moderate wasting, affects around 10% of children under five years of age in low- and middle-income countries. There are different approaches to addressing malnutrition with prepared foods in these settings; for example, providing lipid-based nutrient supplements or blended foods, either a full daily dose or in a low dose as a complement to the usual diet. There is no definitive consensus on the most effective way to treat children with moderate acute malnutrition. To evaluate the safety and effectiveness of different types of specially formulated foods for children with moderate acute malnutrition in low- and middle-income countries, and to assess whether foods complying or not complying with specific nutritional compositions, such as the WHO technical specifications, are safe and effective. In October 2012, we searched CENTRAL, MEDLINE, LILACS, CINAHL, BIBLIOMAP, POPLINE, ZETOC, ICTRP, mRCT, and ClinicalTrials.gov. In August 2012, we searched Embase. We also searched the reference lists of relevant papers and contacted nutrition-related organisations and researchers in this field.     We planned to included any relevant randomised controlled trials (RCTs), controlled clinical trials (CCTs), controlled before-and-after studies (CBAs), and interrupted time series (ITS) that evaluated specially formulated foods for the treatment of moderate acute malnutrition in children aged between six months and five years in low- and middle-income countries. Two authors assessed trial eligibility and risk of bias, and extracted and analysed the data. We summarised dichotomous outcomes using risk ratios (RR) and continuous outcomes using mean differences (MD) with 95% confidence intervals (CI). Where appropriate, we combined data in meta-analyses using the random-effects model and assessed heterogeneity. The quality of evidence was assessed using GRADE methods. Eight randomised controlled trials, enrolling 10,037 children, met our inclusion criteria. Seven of the trials were conducted in Africa. In general, the included studies were at a low risk of bias. There may have been a risk of performance bias as trial participants were aware which intervention group they were in, but we did not consider this likely to have biased the outcome measurement. We were unable to assess the risk of reporting bias in half of the trials and two trials were at high risk of attrition bias. Any specially formulated food versus standard care - the provision of food increased the recovery rate by 29% (RR 1.29, 95% CI 1.20 to 1.38; 2152 children, two trials; moderate quality evidence), decreased the number dropping out by 70% (RR 0.30, 95% CI 0.22 to 0.39; 1974 children, one trial; moderate quality evidence), and improved weight-for-height (MD 0.20 z-score, 95% CI 0.03 to 0.37; 1546 children, two trials; moderate quality evidence). The reduction in mortality did not reach statistical significance (RR 0.44; 95% CI 0.14 to 1.36; 1974 children, one trial; low quality evidence). Lipid-based nutrient supplements versus any blended foods (dry food mixtures, without high lipid content), at full doses - there was no significant difference in mortality (RR 0.93, 95% CI 0.54 to 1.62; 6367 children, five trials; moderate quality evidence), progression to severe malnutrition (RR 0.88, 95% CI 0.72 to 1.07; 4537 children, three trials; high quality evidence), or the number of dropouts from the nutritional programme (RR 1.14, 95% CI 0.62 to 2.11; 5107 children, four trials; moderate quality evidence). However, lipid-based nutrient supplements significantly increased the number of children recovered (RR 1.10, 95% CI 1.04 to 1.16; 6367 children, five trials; moderate quality evidence), and decreased the number of non-recovering children (RR 0.53, 95% CI 0.40 to 0.69; 4537 children, three trials; high quality evidence). LNS also improved weight gain, weight-for-height, and mid-upper arm circumference, although for these outcomes, the improvement was modest (moderate quality evidence). One trial observed more children with vomiting in the lipid-based nutrient supplements group compared to those receiving blended food (RR 1.43, 95% CI 1.11 to 1.85; 2712 children, one trial; low quality evidence). Foods at complementary doses - no firm conclusion could be drawn on the comparisons between LNS at complementary dose and blended foods at complementary or full dose (low quality evidence). Lipid-based nutrient supplements versus specific types of blended foods - a recently developed enriched blended food (CSB++) resulted in similar outcomes to LNS (4758 children, three trials; moderate to high quality evidence). Different types of blended foods - in one trial, CSB++ did not show any significant benefit over locally made blended food, for example, Misola, in number who recovered, number who died, or weight gain (moderate to high quality evidence). Improved adequacy of home diet - no study evaluated the impact of improving adequacy of local diet, such as local foods prepared at home according to a given recipe or of home processing of local foods (soaking, germination, malting, fermentation) in order to increase their nutritional content. In conclusion, there is moderate to high quality evidence that both lipid-based nutrient supplements and blended foods are effective in treating children with MAM. Although lipid-based nutrient supplements (LNS) led to a clinically significant benefit in the number of children recovered in comparison with blended foods, LNS did not reduce mortality, the risk of default or progression to SAM. It also induced more vomiting. Blended foods such as CSB++ may be equally effective and cheaper than LNS. Most of the research so far has focused on industrialised foods, and on short-term outcomes of MAM. There are no studies evaluating interventions to improve the quality of the home diet, an approach that should be evaluated in settings where food is available, and nutritional education and habits are the main determinants of malnutrition. There are no studies from Asia, where moderate acute malnutrition is most prevalent.

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Renal colic is acute pain caused by urinary stones. The prevalence of urinary stones is between 10% and 15% in the United States, making renal colic one of the common reasons for urgent urological care. The pain is usually severe and the first step in the management is adequate analgesia. Many different classes of medications have been used in this regard including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and narcotics. The aim of this review was to assess benefits and harms of different NSAIDs and non-opioids in the treatment of adult patients with acute renal colic and if possible to determine which medication (or class of medications) are more appropriate for this purpose. Clinically relevant outcomes such as efficacy of pain relief, time to pain relief, recurrence of pain, need for rescue medication and side effects were explored. We searched the Cochrane Renal Group's Specialised Register (to 27 November 2014) through contact with the Trials' Search Co-ordinator using search terms relevant to this review. Only randomised or quasi randomised studies were included. Other inclusion criteria included adult patients with a clinical diagnosis of renal colic due to urolithiasis, at least one treatment arm included a non-narcotic analgesic compared to placebo or another non-narcotic drug, and reporting of pain outcome or medication adverse effect. Patient-rated pain by a validated tool, time to relief, need for rescue medication and pain recurrence constituted the outcomes of interest. Any adverse effects (minor or major) reported in the studies were included. Abstracts were reviewed by at least two authors independently. Papers meeting the inclusion criteria were fully reviewed and relevant data were recorded in a standardized Cochrane Renal Group data collection form. For dichotomous outcomes relative risks and 95% confidence intervals were calculated. For continuous outcomes the weighted mean difference was estimated. Both fixed and random models were used for meta-analysis. We assessed the analgesic effects using four different outcome variables: patient-reported pain relief using a visual analogue scale (VAS); proportion of patients with at least 50% reduction in pain; need for rescue medication; and pain recurrence. Heterogeneity was assessed using the I² test. A total of 50 studies (5734 participants) were included in this review and 37 studies (4483 participants) contributed to our meta-analyses. Selection bias was low in 34% of the studies or unclear in 66%; performance bias was low in 74%, high in 14% and unclear in 12%; attrition bias was low in 82% and high in 18%; selective reporting bias low in 92% of the studies; and other biases (industry funding) was high in 4%, unclear in 18% and low in 78%.Patient-reported pain (VAS) results varied widely with high heterogeneity observed. For those comparisons which could be pooled we observed the following: NSAIDs significantly reduced pain compared to antispasmodics (5 studies, 303 participants: MD -12.97, 95% CI -21.80 to - 4.14; I² = 74%) and combination therapy of NSAIDs plus antispasmodics was significantly more effective in pain control than NSAID alone (2 studies, 310 participants: MD -1.99, 95% CI -2.58 to -1.40; I² = 0%).NSAIDs were significantly more effective than placebo in reducing pain by 50% within the first hour (3 studies, 197 participants: RR 2.28, 95% CI 1.47 to 3.51; I² = 15%). Indomethacin was found to be less effective than other NSAIDs (4 studies, 412 participants: RR 1.27, 95% CI 1.01 to 1.60; I² = 55%). NSAIDs were significantly more effective than hyoscine in pain reduction (5 comparisons, 196 participants: RR 2.44, 95% CI 1.61 to 3.70; I² = 28%). The combination of NSAIDs and antispasmodics was not superior to NSAIDs only (9 comparisons, 906 participants: RR 1.00, 95% CI 0.89 to 1.13; I² = 59%). The results were mixed when NSAIDs were compared to other non-opioid medications.When the need for rescue medication was evaluated, Patients receiving NSAIDs were significantly less likely to require rescue medicine than those receiving placebo (4 comparisons, 180 participants: RR 0.35, 95% CI 0.20 to 0.60; I² = 24%) and NSAIDs were more effective than antispasmodics (4 studies, 299 participants: RR 0.34, 95% CI 0.14 to 0.84; I² = 65%). Combination of NSAIDs and antispasmodics was not superior to NSAIDs (7 comparisons, 589 participants: RR 0.99, 95% CI 0.62 to 1.57; I² = 10%). Indomethacin was less effective than other NSAIDs (4 studies, 517 participants: RR 1.36, 95% CI 0.96 to 1.94; I² = 14%) except for lysine acetyl salicylate (RR 0.15, 95% CI 0.04 to 0.65).Pain recurrence was reported by only three studies which could not be pooled: a higher proportion of patients treated with 75 mg diclofenac (IM) showed pain recurrence in the first 24 hours of follow-up compared to those treated with 40 mg piroxicam (IM) (60 participants: RR 0.05, 95% CI 0.00 to 0.81); no significant difference in pain recurrence at 72 hours was observed between piroxicam plus phloroglucinol and piroxicam plus placebo groups (253 participants: RR 2.52, 95% CI 0.15 to12.75); and there was no significant difference in pain recurrence within 72 hours of discharge between IM piroxicam and IV paracetamol (82 participants: RR 1.00, 95% CI 0.65 to 1.54).Side effects were presented inconsistently, but no major events were reported. Although due to variability in studies (inclusion criteria, outcome variables and interventions) and the evidence is not of highest quality, we still believe that NSAIDs are an effective treatment for renal colic when compared to placebo or antispasmodics. The addition of antispasmodics to NSAIDS does not result in better pain control. Data on other types of non-opioid, non-NSAID medication was scarce.Major adverse effects are not reported in the literature for the use of NSAIDs for treatment of renal colic.

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The objective of the scoping review is to identify and describe within the existing literature the characteristics (values, principles, components and suggest practical applications) of primary health care models of service delivery for Indigenous people. More specifically, the review question is:What are the characteristics (values, principles, components and suggested practical applications) of primary health care models of service delivery for Indigenous people?Findings from this scoping review will inform two systematic reviews. One of these will explore the acceptability and the other the effectiveness of identified characteristics. The scoping review will follow the JBI Scoping Review methodology as outlined in the 2015 Joanna Briggs Institute Reviewers' Manual. Indigenous populations in colonized countries experience worse health outcomes relative to their non-Indigenous counterparts. In Australia, in the period 2010 to 2012 the estimated gap in life expectancy between Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Australians compared to non-Indigenous Australians was 10 years Similar gaps in life expectancy between Indigenous and non-Indigenous have been demonstrated in other countries, such as New Zealand, Canada and the United StatesThe gap in life expectancy and the health disadvantage experienced by Indigenous people is in part the result of mainstream health services not adequately meeting the health needs of Indigenous people and Indigenous people's inability to access mainstream services Part of the solution has been the establishment of primary health care services for and in many cases run by Indigenous people. Indigenous primary health services have been developed to provide culturally appropriate services that meet the needs of local Indigenous communities.In Australia, the first Aboriginal medical service was established in 1971 in Redfern, New South Wales, by "community activists in response to ongoing discrimination against Aboriginal people within mainstream health services to address the poor health and premature deaths of Aboriginal people, and to provide a culturally appropriate system of health care". There are now over 150 Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Services in Australia. Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Services are underpinned by common values such as culture, cultural respect, integrity, inclusion, self-determination, community control, sovereignty and leadership.Similar models of Indigenous health services exist in other countries, such as Māori health providers in New Zealand, First Nations and Inuit Health Authorities in Canada, and the Indian Health Services in the US. In New Zealand, Māori health providers deliver health and disability services to Māori and non-Māori clients. The difference between Māori health providers and mainstream services in New Zealand is that Māori health services are based on kaupapa, a plan or set of principles and ideas that informs behavior and customs, and the delivery framework which is distinctively Māori. First Nations and Inuit Health Authorities in Canada coordinate and integrate health programs and services to achieve better health outcomes for First Nations people. These community-based services largely focus on health promotion and prevention. First Nations and Inuit Health Authorities work under a unique health governance structure that includes local First Nations' leadership, based on the philosophy of self-governance and self-determination, which represent and address the health needs of First Nation communities. The Indian Health Service (IHS) in the US is responsible for providing comprehensive health services to American Indians and Alaska Natives. The IHS aims to raise the physical, mental, social and spiritual health of American Indians and Alaska Natives to the highest level, and its goal is "to ensure that comprehensive, culturally acceptable personal and public health services are available and accessible to American Indian and Alaska Native people". The IHS "grew out of a special government-to-government relationship between the federal government and Indian Tribes".Evidence suggests that "a strong primary health care sector is essential to the health and wellbeing of a population, and that a strong primary health care sector is associated with better population health, reduced costs of health care provision, and greater efficiency within the system". A study of Aboriginal Canadians shows that poor access and ineffective primary health care services were directly related to increased avoidable hospital admissions. In addition, a recent study in Australia focusing on the costs and the health outcomes associated with primary care use by Indigenous people with diabetes in remote communities in the Northern Territory demonstrates that improved access to primary health care which is responsive to the needs of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people is both cost-effective and associated with better health outcomes.Given the strong link between primary health care and health outcomes and the significant contribution Indigenous health services make towards reducing the health disadvantage experienced by Indigenous people, it is important to understand the characteristics that support the delivery of health provided by Indigenous health services and their unique models. While there is not a clear definition in the literature about what a model of care or model of service delivery is, for the purpose of this review, it will encompass all factors involved in the delivery of care including but not limited to the vision, values and strategies that underpin the delivery of care, healthcare services and programs, governance and leadership, workforce, organization and supply, and infrastructure and other resources.The aim of this scoping review is to determine the characteristics of Indigenous primary health care models of service delivery by drawing on existing literature that look at the way in which services are delivered in this setting.An initial search of literature was conducted to establish whether there are studies with findings available to answer the review question, and whether there is a systematic or scoping review addressing the knowledge gap currently underway or published. There are no systematic or scoping reviews published or underway that address the question proposed by this review.

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Magnesium sulphate has been used to inhibit preterm labour to prevent preterm birth. There is no consensus as to the safety profile of different treatment regimens with respect to dose, duration, route and timing of administration. To assess the efficacy and safety of alternative magnesium sulphate regimens when used as single agent tocolytic therapy during pregnancy. We searched the Cochrane Pregnancy and Childbirth Group's Trials Register (30 September 2015) and reference lists of retrieved studies. Randomised trials comparing different magnesium sulphate treatment regimens when used as single agent tocolytic therapy during pregnancy in women in preterm labour. Quasi-randomised trials were eligible for inclusion but none were identified. Cross-over and cluster trials were not eligible for inclusion. Health outcomes were considered at the level of the mother, the infant/child and the health service. intravenous or oral magnesium sulphate given alone for tocolysis.Comparison: alternative dosing regimens of magnesium sulphate given alone for tocolysis. Two review authors independently assessed trial eligibility and quality and extracted data. Three trials including 360 women and their infants were identified as eligible for inclusion in this review. Two trials were rated as low risk of bias for random sequence generation and concealment of allocation. A third trial was assessed as unclear risk of bias for these domains but did not report data for any of the outcomes examined in this review. No trials were rated to be of high quality overall.Intravenous magnesium sulphate was administered according to low-dose regimens (4 g loading dose followed by 2 g/hour continuous infusion and/or increased by 1 g/hour hourly until successful tocolysis or failure of treatment), or high-dose regimens (4 g loading dose followed by 5 g/hour continuous infusion and increased by 1 g/hour hourly until successful tocolysis or failure of treatment, or 6 g loading dose followed by 2 g/hour continuous infusion and increased by 1 g/hour hourly until successful tocolysis or failure of treatment).There were no differences seen between high-dose magnesium sulphate regimens compared with low-dose magnesium sulphate regimens for the primary outcome of fetal, neonatal and infant death (risk ratio (RR) 0.43, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.12 to 1.56; one trial, 100 infants). Using the GRADE approach, the evidence for fetal, neonatal and infant death was considered to be VERY LOW quality. No data were reported for any of the other primary maternal and infant health outcomes (birth less than 48 hours after trial entry; composite serious infant outcome; composite serious maternal outcome).There were no clear differences seen between high-dose magnesium sulphate regimens compared with low-dose magnesium sulphate regimens for the secondary infant health outcomes of fetal death; neonatal death; and rate of hypocalcaemia, osteopenia or fracture; and secondary maternal health outcomes of rate of caesarean birth; pulmonary oedema; and maternal self-reported adverse effects. Pulmonary oedema was reported in two women given high-dose magnesium sulphate, but not in any of the women given low-dose magnesium sulphate.In a single trial of high and low doses of magnesium sulphate for tocolysis including 100 infants, the risk of respiratory distress syndrome was lower with use of a high-dose regimen compared with a low-dose regimen (RR 0.31, 95% CI 0.11 to 0.88; one trial, 100 infants). Using the GRADE approach, the evidence for respiratory distress syndrome was judged to be LOW quality. No difference was seen in the rate of admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. However, for those babies admitted, a high-dose regimen was associated with a reduction in the length of stay in the neonatal intensive care unit compared with a low-dose regimen (mean difference -3.10 days, 95% confidence interval -5.48 to -0.72).We found no data for the majority of our secondary outcomes. There are limited data available (three studies, with data from only two studies) comparing different dosing regimens of magnesium sulphate given as single agent tocolytic therapy for the prevention of preterm birth. There is no evidence examining duration of therapy, timing of therapy and the role for repeat dosing.Downgrading decisions for our primary outcome of fetal, neonatal and infant death were based on wide confidence intervals (crossing the line of no effect), lack of blinding and a limited number of studies. No data were available for any of our other important outcomes: birth less than 48 hours after trial entry; composite serious infant outcome; composite serious maternal outcome. The data are limited by volume and the outcomes reported. Only eight of our 45 pre-specified primary and secondary maternal and infant health outcomes were reported on in the included studies. No long-term outcomes were reported. Downgrading decisions for the evidence on the risk of respiratory distress were based on wide confidence intervals (crossing the line of no effect) and lack of blinding.There is some evidence from a single study suggesting a reduction in the length of stay in the neonatal intensive care unit and a reduced risk of respiratory distress syndrome where a high-dose regimen of magnesium sulphate has been used compared with a low-dose regimen. However, given that evidence has been drawn from a single study (with a small sample size), these data should be interpreted with caution.Magnesium sulphate has been shown to be of benefit in a wide range of obstetric settings, although it has not been recommended for tocolysis. In clinical settings where health benefits are established, further trials are needed to address the lack of evidence regarding the optimal dose (loading dose and maintenance dose), duration of therapy, timing of therapy and role for repeat dosing in terms of efficacy and safety for mothers and their children. Ongoing examination of different regimens with respect to important health outcomes is required.

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Breast cancer is the most common form of cancer and the second leading cause of death amongst women in Europe. Amongst five invasive cancers per 1000 women detected in screening, 2.7 were &lt; 15 mm in diameter; and others reported that over one third of excised breast lesions were clinically occult. The challenge is to accurately locate small non-palpable lesions intraoperatively for optimal therapeutic outcome. A secondary important goal is to remove the smallest amount possible of healthy glandular tissue for optimal cosmesis. Currently the most widely adopted approach (80% in one survey) in guided breast-conserving surgery for excising non-palpable breast lesions is wire-guided localization (WGL). With the clinical setting shifting towards earlier non-palpable breast lesions being detected through screening, we investigated whether the current standard in assisting surgical excision of these lesions, WGL, yields the best therapeutic outcome for women with breast cancer. To assess the therapeutic outcomes of any new form of guided surgical intervention for non-palpable breast lesions against wire-guided localization, the current gold standard. We searched the Cochrane Breast Cancer Group's (CBCG) Specialized Register, MEDLINE (via PubMed), the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL), and the World Health Organization (WHO) International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) search portal from the earliest available date up to 30 March 2015. We also handsearched recent conference proceedings and sought information from experts in the field. Two review authors, BC and RJ, independently screened by title and abstract the studies we had identified through the search strategy; when this was inconclusive, they examined the full-text article for inclusion. We resolved any discrepancies regarding eligibility by discussion with a third review author, RA. Three review authors, BC, JW, and RJ, independently extracted data using a standardized data sheet. We performed all analyses using Review Manager (RevMan) or the R meta package, and in accordance with the Cochrane Handbook for Systematic Reviews of Interventions. We reported results via a graphical assessment using forest plots showing the study estimates. We considered and discussed additional subgroup and sensitivity analyses. We identified 11 randomized controlled trials (RCTs) that met the inclusion criteria of this Cochrane review and included eight trials in the meta-analyses. Six RCTs compared radioguided occult lesion localization (ROLL) versus WGL, and two RCTs compared radioactive iodine ((125)I) seed localization (RSL) versus WGL. Of the three remaining trials, one RCT compared cryo-assisted techniques (CAL) versus WGL, one compared intraoperative ultrasound-guided lumpectomy (IOUS) versus WGL, and one compared modified ROLL technique in combination with methylene dye (RCML) versus WGL. Of the trials we included in the meta-analysis, there were a total of 1273 participants with non-palpable breast lesions (627 participants (WGL); 443 participants (ROLL); and 203 participants (RSL)). The participant population varied considerably between included trials, which included participants with both non-palpable benign and malignant lesions, and varied in defining clear margins. The included trials did not report any long-term outcomes.In general, the outcomes of WGL, ROLL and RSL were comparable.ROLL demonstrated favourable results in successful localization (risk ratio (RR) 0.60, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.16 to 2.28; 869 participants; six trials), positive excision margins (RR 0.74, 95% CI 0.42 to 1.29; 517 participants; five trials), and re-operation rates (RR 0.51, 95% CI 0.21 to 1.23; 583 participants; four trials) versus WGL, but none were statistically significant. WGL was significantly superior to RSL in successfully localizing non-palpable lesions (RR 3.85, 95% CI 1.21 to 12.19; 402 participants; two trials). However, for successful excision, ROLL and RSL have comparable outcomes versus WGL (ROLL versus WGL: RR 1.00, 95% CI 0.99 to 1.01; 871 participants; six trials; RSL versus WGL: RR 1.00, 95% CI 0.99 to 1.01; 402 participants; two trials). These findings were similar in that RSL demonstrated favourable results over WGL in positive tumour margins (RR 0.67, 95% CI 0.43 to 1.06; 366 participants; two trials), and re-operation rates (RR 0.80, 95% CI 0.48 to 1.32; 305 participants; one trial) but neither reached statistical significance. In contrast, WGL had fewer postoperative complications to both ROLL (RR 1.18, 95% CI 0.71 to 1.98; 642 participants; four trials) and RSL (RR 1.51, 95% CI 0.75 to 3.03; 305 participants; one trial), although this was also not statistically significant.The overall quality of evidence was good. The main risk of bias amongst included studies consisted of incomplete data sets, selective reporting, and allocation concealment. Interpretation and applicability of this meta-analysis was hindered by the mixed indication of diagnostic versus therapeutic purposes when undertaking WGL, ROLL, or RSL, leading to a high level of mixed pathology in numerous trials. Other limitations include underpowered studies, lack of data in standardized format for meta-analysis, lack of complete data amongst the trials, and absence of long-term data. Owing to a lack of trials in certain localization techniques, we could only draw conclusions about ROLL and RSL versus WGL. There is no clear evidence to support one guided technique for surgically excising a non-palpable breast lesion over another. Results from this Cochrane review support the continued use of WGL as a safe and tested technique that allows for flexibility in selected cases when faced with extensive microcalcification. ROLL and RSL could be offered to patients as a comparable replacement for WGL as they are equally reliable. Other techniques such as IOUS, RCML, and CAL are of academic interest, but recommendation for routine use in the clinical environment and oncological outcomes require further validation. The results of this Cochrane review also stress the need for more fully powered RCTs to evaluate the best technique according to the comprehensive criteria described, with a more consistent and standardized approach in outcome reporting.

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This is an updated version of the original Cochrane Review published in Issue 2, 2002 and its subsequent updates in 2010 and 2015.Epilepsy is a common neurological condition in which recurrent, unprovoked seizures are caused by abnormal electrical discharges from the brain. It is believed that with effective drug treatment, up to 70% of individuals with active epilepsy have the potential to become seizure-free and go into long-term remission shortly after starting drug therapy with a single antiepileptic drug in monotherapy.Worldwide, carbamazepine and phenytoin are commonly-used broad spectrum antiepileptic drugs, suitable for most epileptic seizure types. Carbamazepine is a current first-line treatment for partial onset seizures in the USA and Europe. Phenytoin is no longer considered a first-line treatment due to concerns over adverse events associated with its use, but the drug is still commonly used in low- to middle-income countries because of its low cost. No consistent differences in efficacy have been found between carbamazepine and phenytoin in individual trials, although the confidence intervals generated by these studies are wide. Differences in efficacy may therefore be shown by synthesising the data of the individual trials. To review the time to withdrawal, six- and 12-month remission, and first seizure with carbamazepine compared to phenytoin, used as monotherapy in people with partial onset seizures (simple partial, complex partial, or secondarily generalised tonic-clonic seizures), or generalised tonic-clonic seizures, with or without other generalised seizure types. For the latest update we searched the Cochrane Epilepsy Group's Specialised Register (1st November 2016), the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL) via the Cochrane Register of Studies Online (CRSO, 1st November 2016), MEDLINE (Ovid, 1946 to 1 November 2016), ClinicalTrials.gov (1 November 2016), and the World Health Organization (WHO) International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP, 1st November 2016). Previously we also searched SCOPUS (1823 to 16th September 2014) as an alternative to Embase, but this is no longer necessary, because randomised and quasi-randomised controlled trials in Embase are now included in CENTRAL. We handsearched relevant journals, contacted pharmaceutical companies, original trial investigators and experts in the field. Randomised controlled trials (RCTs) in children or adults with partial onset seizures or generalised onset tonic-clonic seizures, comparing carbamazepine monotherapy versus phenytoin monotherapy. This is an individual participant data (IPD) review. Our primary outcome was time to withdrawal of allocated treatment, and our secondary outcomes were time to six-month remission, time to 12-month remission, and time to first seizure post-randomisation. We used Cox proportional hazards regression models to obtain study-specific estimates of hazard ratios (HRs) with 95% confidence intervals (CIs) and the generic inverse variance method to obtain the overall pooled HR and 95% CI. IPD were available for 595 participants out of 1192 eligible individuals, from four out of 12 trials (i.e. 50% of the potential data). For remission outcomes, HR greater than 1 indicates an advantage for phenytoin; and for first seizure and withdrawal outcomes, HR greater than 1 indicates an advantage for carbamazepine. The methodological quality of the four studies providing IPD was generally good and we rated it at low risk of bias overall in the analyses.The main overall results (pooled HR adjusted for seizure type) were time to withdrawal of allocated treatment: 1.04 (95% CI 0.78 to 1.39; three trials, 546 participants); time to 12-month remission: 1.01 (95% CI 0.78 to 1.31; three trials, 551 participants); time to six-month remission: 1.11 (95% CI 0.89 to 1.37; three trials, 551 participants); and time to first seizure: 0.85 (95% CI 0.70 to 1.04; four trials, 582 participants). The results suggest no overall statistically significant difference between the drugs for these outcomes. There is some evidence of an advantage for phenytoin for individuals with generalised onset seizures for our primary outcome (time to withdrawal of allocated treatment): pooled HR 0.42 (95% CI 0.18 to 0.96; two trials, 118 participants); and a statistical interaction between treatment effect and epilepsy type (partial versus generalised) for this outcome (P = 0.02). However, misclassification of seizure type for up to 48 individuals (32% of those with generalised epilepsy) may have confounded the results of this review. Despite concerns over side effects leading to the withdrawal of phenytoin as a first-line treatment in the USA and Europe, we found no evidence that phenytoin is more likely to be associated with serious side effects than carbamazepine; 26 individuals withdrew from 290 randomised (9%) to carbamazepine due to adverse effects, compared to 12 out of 299 (4%) randomised to phenytoin from four studies conducted in the USA and Europe (risk ratio (RR) 1.42, 95% CI 1.13 to 1.80, P = 0.014). We rated the quality of the evidence as low to moderate according to GRADE criteria, due to imprecision and potential misclassification of seizure type. We have not found evidence for a statistically significant difference between carbamazepine and phenytoin for the efficacy outcomes examined in this review, but CIs are wide and we cannot exclude the possibility of important differences. There is no evidence in this review that phenytoin is more strongly associated with serious adverse events than carbamazepine. There is some evidence that people with generalised seizures may be less likely to withdraw early from phenytoin than from carbamazepine, but misclassification of seizure type may have impacted upon our results. We recommend caution when interpreting the results of this review, and do not recommend that our results alone should be used in choosing between carbamazepine and phenytoin. We recommend that future trials should be designed to the highest quality possible, with considerations of allocation concealment and masking, choice of population, choice of outcomes and analysis, and presentation of results.

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L-PRF (leukocyte- and platelet-rich fibrin) is one of the four families of platelet concentrates for surgical use and is widely used in oral and maxillofacial regenerative therapies. The first objective of this article was to evaluate the mechanical vibrations appearing during centrifugation in four models of commercially available table-top centrifuges used to produce L-PRF and the impact of the centrifuge characteristics on the cell and fibrin architecture of a L-PRF clot and membrane. The second objective of this article was to evaluate how changing some parameters of the L-PRF protocol may influence its biological signature, independently from the characteristics of the centrifuge. In the first part, four different commercially available centrifuges were used to produce L-PRF, following the original L-PRF production method (glass-coated plastic tubes, 400 g force, 12 minutes). The tested systems were the original L-PRF centrifuge (Intra-Spin, Intra-Lock, the only CE and FDA cleared system for the preparation of L-PRF) and three other laboratory centrifuges (not CE/FDA cleared for L-PRF): A-PRF 12 (Advanced PRF, Process), LW-UPD8 (LW Scientific) and Salvin 1310 (Salvin Dental). Each centrifuge was opened for inspection, two accelerometers were installed (one radial, one vertical), and data were collected with a spectrum analyzer in two configurations (full-load or half load). All clots and membranes were collected into a sterile surgical box (Xpression kit, Intra-Lock). The exact macroscopic (weights, sizes) and microscopic (photonic and scanning electron microscopy SEM) characteristics of the L-PRF produced with these four different machines were evaluated. In the second part, venous blood was taken in two groups, respectively, Intra-Spin 9 ml glass-coated plastic tubes (Intra-Lock) and A-PRF 10 ml glass tubes (Process). Tubes were immediately centrifuged at 2700 rpm (around 400 g) during 12 minutes to produce L-PRF or at 1500 rpm during 14 minutes to produce A-PRF. All centrifugations were done using the original L-PRF centrifuge (Intra-Spin), as recommended by the two manufacturers. Half of the membranes were placed individually in culture media and transferred in a new tube at seven experimental times (up to 7 days). The releases of transforming growth factor β-1 (TGFβ-1), platelet derived growth factor AB (PDGF-AB), vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and bone morphogenetic protein 2 (BMP-2) were quantified using ELISA kits at these seven experimental times. The remaining membranes were used to evaluate the initial quantity of growth factors of the L-PRF and A-PRF membranes, through forcible extraction. Very significant differences in the level of vibrations at each rotational speed were observed between the four tested centrifuges. The original L-PRF centrifuge (Intra-Spin) was by far the most stable machine in all configurations and always remained under the threshold of resonance, unlike the three other tested machines. At the classical speed of production of L-PRF, the level of undesirable vibrations on the original centrifuge was between 4.5 and 6 times lower than with other centrifuges. Intra-Spin showed the lowest temperature of the tubes. A-PRF and Salvin were both associated with a significant increase in temperature in the tube. Intra-Spin produced the heaviest clot and quantity of exudate among the four techniques. A-PRF and LW produced much lighter, shorter and narrower clots and membranes than the two other centrifuges. Light microscopy analysis showed relatively similar features for all L-PRF types (concentration of cell bodies in the first half). However, SEM illustrated considerable differences between samples. The original Intra-Spin L-PRF showed a strongly polymerized thick fibrin matrix and all cells appeared alive with a normal shape, including the textured surface aspect of activated lymphocytes. The A-PRF, Salvin and LW PRF-like membranes presented a lightly polymerized slim fibrin gel and most of the visible cell bodies appeared destroyed (squashed or shrunk). In the second part of this study, the slow release of the three tested growth factors from original L-PRF membranes was significantly stronger (more than twice stronger, p&lt;0.001) at all experimental times than the release from A-PRF membranes. No trace of BMP2 could be detected in the A-PRF. A slow release of BMP2 was detected during at least 7 days in the original L-PRF. Moreover, the original L-PRF clots and membranes (produced with 9 mL blood) were always significantly larger than the A-PRF (produced with 10 mL blood). The A-PRF membranes dissolved in vitro after less than 3 days, while the L-PRF membrane remained in good shape during at least 7 days. Each centrifuge has its clear own profile of vibrations depending on the rotational speed, and the centrifuge characteristics are directly impacting the architecture and cell content of a L-PRF clot. This result may reveal a considerable flaw in all the PRP/PRF literature, as this parameter was never considered. The original L-PRF clot (Intra-Spin) presented very specific characteristics, which appeared distorted when using centrifuges with a higher vibration level. A-PRF, LW and Salvin centrifuges produced PRF-like materials with a damaged and almost destroyed cell population through the standard protocol, and it is therefore impossible to classify these products in the L-PRF family. Moreover, when using the same centrifuge, the original L-PRF protocol allowed producing larger clots/membranes and a more intense release of growth factors (biological signature at least twice stronger) than the modified A-PRF protocol. Both protocols are therefore significantly different, and the clinical and experimental results from the original L-PRF shall not be extrapolated to the A-PRF. Finally, the comparison between the total released amounts and the initial content of the membrane (after forcible extraction) highlighted that the leukocytes living in the fibrin matrix are involved in the production of significant amounts of growth factors. The centrifuge characteristics and centrifugation protocols impact significantly and dramatically the cells, growth factors and fibrin architecture of L-PRF.

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Tonsillectomy is a very common operation and is performed using various surgical methods. Coblation is a popular method because it purportedly causes less pain than other surgical methods. However, the superiority of coblation is unproven. To compare the effects of coblation tonsillectomy for chronic tonsillitis or tonsillar hypertrophy with other surgical techniques, both hot and cold, on intraoperative morbidity, postoperative morbidity and procedural cost. The Cochrane ENT Information Specialist searched the ENT Trials Register; Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL 2017, Issue 3); PubMed; Ovid Embase; CINAHL; Web of Science; ClinicalTrials.gov; ICTRP and additional sources for published and unpublished trials. The date of the search was 20 April 2017. Randomised controlled trials (RCTs) of children and adults undergoing tonsillectomy with coblation compared with any other surgical technique. This review is limited to trials of extracapsular (traditional) tonsillectomy and excludes trials of intracapsular tonsil removal (tonsillotomy). We used the standard Cochrane methods. Our primary outcomes were: patient-reported pain using a validated pain scale at postoperative days 1, 3 and 7; intraoperative blood loss; primary postoperative bleeding (within 24 hours) and secondary postoperative bleeding (more than 24 hours after surgery). Secondary outcomes were: time until resumption of normal diet, time until resumption of normal activity, duration of surgery and adverse effects including blood transfusion and the need for reoperation. We used GRADE to assess the quality of the evidence for each outcome; this is indicated in italics. We included 29 studies, with a total of 2561 participants. All studies had moderate or high risk of bias. Sixteen studies used an adequate randomisation technique, however the inability to mask the surgical teams and/or provide adequate methods to mitigate the risk of bias put nearly all studies at moderate or high risk of detection and measurement bias for intraoperative blood loss, and primary and secondary bleeding. In contrast most studies (20) were at low risk of bias for pain assessment. Most studies did not report data in a manner permitting meta-analysis.Most studies did not clearly report the participant characteristics, surgical indications or whether patients underwent tonsillectomy or adenotonsillectomy. Most studies reported that tonsillitis (infection) and/or tonsillar hypertrophy (obstruction) were the indication for surgery. Seven studies included only adults, 16 studies included only children and six studies included both. Pain At postoperative day 1 there is very low quality evidence that patients in the coblation group had less pain, with a standardised mean difference (SMD) of -0.79 (95% confidence interval (CI) -1.38 to -0.19; 538 participants; six studies). This effect is reduced a SMD of -0.44 (95% CI -0.97 to 0.09; 401 participants; five studies; very low-quality evidence) at day 3, and at day 7 there is low quality evidence of little or no difference in pain (SMD -0.01, 95% CI -0.22 to 0.19; 420 participants; five studies). Although this suggests that pain may be slightly less in the coblation group between days 1 and 3, the clinical significance is unclear. Intraoperative blood loss Methodological differences between studies in the measurement of intraoperative blood loss precluded meta-analysis. Primary and secondary bleeding The risk of primary bleeding was similar (risk ratio (RR) 0.99, 95% CI 0.48 to 2.05; 2055 participants; 25 studies; low-quality evidence). The risk of secondary bleeding was greater in the coblation group with a risk ratio of 1.36 (95% CI 0.95 to 1.95; 2118 participants; 25 studies; low-quality evidence). Using the median of the control group as the baseline risk, the absolute risk in the coblation group was 5% versus 3.6% in the control group. The difference of 1.3% has a 95% CI of 0.2% lower in the coblation group to 3.5% higher. Secondary outcomes Differences in study design and data reporting precluded the identification of differences in the time to resumption of normal diet or activity, or whether there was a difference in the duration of surgery.Although we could not feasibly compare the costs of equipment or operative facility, anaesthetic and surgical fees across different healthcare systems we used duration of surgery as a proxy for cost. Although this outcome was commonly reported in studies, it was not possible to pool the data to determine whether there was a difference.Adverse events other than bleeding were not well reported. It is unclear whether there is a difference in postoperative infections or the need for reoperation. The coblation technique may cause less pain on postoperative day 1, but the difference is small and may be clinically meaningless. By postoperative day 3, the difference decreases further and by postoperative day 7 there appears to be little or no difference. We found similar rates of primary bleeding but we cannot rule out a small increased risk of secondary bleeding with coblation. The evidence supporting these findings is of low or very low quality, i.e. there is a very high degree of uncertainty about the results. Moreover, for most outcomes data were only available from a few of the 29 included studies.The current evidence is of very low quality, therefore it is uncertain whether or not the coblation technique has any advantages over traditional tonsillectomy techniques. Despite the large number of studies, failure to use standardised or validated outcome measures precludes the ability to pool data across studies. Therefore, well-conducted RCTs using consistent, validated outcome measures are needed to establish whether the coblation technique has a benefit over other methods. In the included studies we identified no clear difference in adverse events. However, given the rarity of these events, randomised trials lack the power to detect a difference. Data from large-scale registries will provide a better estimate of any difference in these rare outcomes.

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Oral mucositis is a side effect of chemotherapy, head and neck radiotherapy, and targeted therapy, affecting over 75% of high-risk patients. Ulceration can lead to severe pain and difficulty with eating and drinking, which may necessitate opioid analgesics, hospitalisation and supplemental nutrition. These complications may disrupt cancer therapy, which may reduce survival. There is also a risk of death from sepsis if pathogens enter the ulcers of immunocompromised patients. Ulcerative oral mucositis can be costly to healthcare systems, yet there are few preventive interventions proven to be beneficial. Cytokines and growth factors may help the regeneration of cells lining of the mouth, thus preventing or reducing oral mucositis and its negative effects. To assess the effects of cytokines and growth factors for preventing oral mucositis in patients with cancer who are receiving treatment. Cochrane Oral Health's Information Specialist searched the following databases: Cochrane Oral Health's Trials Register (searched 10 May 2017); the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL; 2017, Issue 4) in the Cochrane Library (searched 10 May 2017); MEDLINE Ovid (1946 to 10 May 2017); Embase Ovid (7 December 2015 to 10 May 2017); CINAHL EBSCO (Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature; 1937 to 10 May 2017); and CANCERLIT PubMed (1950 to 10 May 2017). The US National Institutes of Health Ongoing Trials Register (ClinicalTrials.gov) and the World Health Organization International Clinical Trials Registry Platform were searched for ongoing trials. We included parallel-design randomised controlled trials (RCTs) assessing the effects of cytokines and growth factors in patients with cancer receiving treatment. Two review authors independently screened the results of electronic searches, extracted data and assessed risk of bias. For dichotomous outcomes, we reported risk ratios (RR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI). For continuous outcomes, we reported mean differences (MD) and 95% CIs. We pooled similar studies in random-effects meta-analyses. We reported adverse effects in a narrative format. We included 35 RCTs analysing 3102 participants. Thirteen studies were at low risk of bias, 12 studies were at unclear risk of bias, and 10 studies were at high risk of bias.Our main findings were regarding keratinocyte growth factor (KGF) and are summarised as follows.There might be a reduction in the risk of moderate to severe oral mucositis in adults receiving bone marrow/stem cell transplantation after conditioning therapy for haematological cancers (RR 0.89, 95% CI 0.80 to 0.99; 6 studies; 852 participants; low-quality evidence). We would need to treat 11 adults with KGF in order to prevent one additional adult from developing this outcome (95% CI 6 to 112). There might be a reduction in the risk of severe oral mucositis in this population, but there is also some possibility of an increase in risk (RR 0.85, 95% CI 0.65 to 1.11; 6 studies; 852 participants; low-quality evidence). We would need to treat 10 adults with KGF in order to prevent one additional adult from developing this outcome (95% CI 5 to prevent the outcome to 14 to cause the outcome).There is probably a reduction in the risk of moderate to severe oral mucositis in adults receiving radiotherapy to the head and neck with cisplatin or fluorouracil (RR 0.91, 95% CI 0.83 to 1.00; 3 studies; 471 participants; moderate-quality evidence). We would need to treat 12 adults with KGF in order to prevent one additional adult from developing this outcome (95% CI 7 to infinity). It is very likely that there is a reduction in the risk of severe oral mucositis in this population (RR 0.79, 95% CI 0.69 to 0.90; 3 studies; 471 participants; high-quality evidence). We would need to treat 7 adults with KGF in order to prevent one additional adult from developing this outcome (95% CI 5 to 15).It is likely that there is a reduction in the risk of moderate to severe oral mucositis in adults receiving chemotherapy alone for mixed solid and haematological cancers (RR 0.56, 95% CI 0.45 to 0.70; 4 studies; 344 participants; moderate-quality evidence). We would need to treat 4 adults with KGF in order to prevent one additional adult from developing this outcome (95% CI 3 to 6). There might be a reduction in the risk of severe oral mucositis in this population (RR 0.30, 95% CI 0.14 to 0.65; 3 studies; 263 participants; low -quality evidence). We would need to treat 10 adults with KGF in order to prevent one additional adult from developing this outcome (95% CI 8 to 19).Due to the low volume of evidence, single-study comparisons and insufficient sample sizes, we found no compelling evidence of a benefit for any other cytokines or growth factors and there was no evidence on children. There did not appear to be any serious adverse effects of any of the interventions assessed in this review. We are confident that KGF is beneficial in the prevention of oral mucositis in adults who are receiving: a) radiotherapy to the head and neck with cisplatin or fluorouracil; or b) chemotherapy alone for mixed solid and haematological cancers. We are less confident about a benefit for KGF in adults receiving bone marrow/stem cell transplant after conditioning therapy for haematological cancers because of multiple factors involved in that population, such as whether or not they received total body irradiation (TBI) and whether the transplant was autologous (the patients' own cells) or allogeneic (cells from a donor). KGF appears to be a relatively safe intervention.Due to limited research, we are not confident that there are any beneficial effects of other cytokines and growth factors. There is currently insufficient evidence to draw any conclusions about the use of cytokines and growth factors in children.

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Most women undergoing assisted reproduction treatment will reach the stage of embryo transfer (ET), but the proportion of embryos that can be successfully implanted after ET has remained small since the mid-1990s. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone that is synthesised and released by the syncytiotrophoblast and has a fundamental role in embryo implantation and the early stages of pregnancy. Intrauterine administration of hCG via ET catheter during a mock procedure around the time of ET is a novel approach that has been suggested to improve the outcomes of assisted reproduction. To investigate whether intrauterine (intracavity) administration of hCG (IC-hCG) around the time of ET improves clinical outcomes in subfertile women undergoing assisted reproduction. We performed searches on 9 January 2018 using Cochrane methods. We looked for randomised controlled trials (RCTs) evaluating IC-hCG around the time of ET, irrespective of language and country of origin. Two review authors independently selected studies, assessed risk of bias, extracted data from studies, and attempted to contact study authors when data were missing. We performed statistical analysis using Review Manager 5. We assessed evidence quality using GRADE methods. Primary outcomes were live birth and miscarriage; secondary outcomes were clinical pregnancy rate and complications. Seventeen RCTs investigated the effects of IC-hCG administration for 4751 subfertile women undergoing assisted reproduction. IC-hCG was administered in variable doses at different times before the ET. hCG was obtained from the urine of pregnant women or from cell cultures using recombinant DNA technology.Most studies (12/17) were at high risk of bias in at least one of the seven domains assessed. Common problems were unclear reporting of study methods and lack of blinding. The main limitations for evidence quality were high risk of bias and serious imprecision.For analyses of live birth and clinical pregnancy, there was considerable heterogeneity (I² &gt; 75%) and therefore we present subgroups for dosage and stage of ET. Exploration for sources of heterogeneity revealed two key prespecified variables as important determinants: stage of ET (cleavage vs blastocyst stage) and dose of IC-hCG (&lt; 500 international units (IU) vs ≥ 500 IU). We performed meta-analyses within subgroups defined by stage of embryo and dose of IC-hCG.Live birth rates among women having cleavage-stage ET with an IC-hCG dose &lt; 500 IU compared to women having cleavage-stage ET without IC-hCG showed no benefit of the intervention and would be consistent with no substantive difference or disadvantage of indeterminate magnitude (risk ratio (RR) 0.76, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.58 to 1.01; one RCT; 280 participants; I² = 0%; very low-quality evidence). In a clinic with a live birth rate of 49% per cycle, use of IC-hCG &lt; 500 IU would be associated with a live birth rate ranging from 28% to 50%.Results show an increase in live birth rate in the subgroup of women undergoing cleavage-stage ET with an IC-hCG dose ≥ 500 IU compared to women having cleavage-stage ET without IC-hCG (RR 1.57, 95% CI 1.32 to 1.87; three RCTs; 914 participants; I² = 0%; moderate-quality evidence). At a clinic with a live birth rate of 27% per cycle, use of IC-hCG ≥ 500 IU would be associated with a live birth rate ranging from 36% to 51%.Results show no substantive differences in live birth among women having blastocyst-stage ET with an IC-hCG dose ≥ 500 IU compared to women having blastocyst-stage ET without IC-hCG (RR 0.92, 95% CI 0.80 to 1.04; two RCTs; 1666 participants; I² = 0%; moderate-quality evidence). At a clinic with a live birth rate of 36% per cycle, use of IC-hCG ≥ 500 IU would be associated with a live birth rate ranging from 29% to 38%.Evidence for clinical pregnancy among women having cleavage-stage ET with an IC-hCG dose &lt; 500 IU showed no benefit of the intervention and would be consistent with no substantive difference or disadvantage of indeterminate magnitude (RR 0.88, 95% CI 0.70 to 1.10; one RCT; 280 participants; I² = 0%; very low-quality evidence).Results show an increase in clinical pregnancy rate in the subgroup of women having cleavage-stage ET with an IC-hCG dose ≥ 500 IU compared to women having cleavage-stage ET without IC-hCG (RR 1.49, 95% CI 1.32 to 1.68; 12 RCTs; 2186 participants; I² = 18%; moderate-quality evidence).Results show no substantive differences in clinical pregnancy among women having blastocyst-stage ET with an IC-hCG dose ≥ 500 IU (RR 0.99, 95% CI 0.85 to 1.15; four RCTs; 2091 participants; I² = 42%; moderate-quality evidence) compared to women having blastocyst-stage ET with no IC-hCG.No RCTs investigated blastocyst-stage ET with an IC-hCG dose &lt; 500 IU.We are uncertain whether miscarriage was influenced by intrauterine hCG administration (RR 1.04, 95% CI 0.81 to 1.35; 11 RCTs; 3927 participants; I² = 0%; very low-quality evidence).Reported complications were ectopic pregnancy (four RCTs; 1073 participants; four events overall), heterotopic pregnancy (one RCT; 495 participants; one event), intrauterine death (three RCTs; 1078 participants; 22 events), and triplets (one RCT; 48 participants; three events). Events were few, and very low-quality evidence was insufficient to permit conclusions to be drawn. There is moderate quality evidence that women undergoing cleavage-stage transfer using an IC-hCG dose ≥ 500 IU have an improved live birth rate. There is insufficient evidence for IC-hCG treatment for blastocyst transfer. There should be further trials with live birth as the primary outcome to identify the groups of women who would benefit the most from this intervention. There was no evidence that miscarriage was reduced following IC-hCG administration, irrespective of embryo stage at transfer or dose of IC-hCG. Events were too few to allow conclusions to be drawn with regard to other complications.

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Pearl millet [Pennisetum glaucum (L.) R. Br. Syn. Pennisetum americanum (L.) Leeke] is the oldest and widely cultivated millet in Asian and African countries, mostly grown over low fertile soils in more than 40 countries covering an area of 312.00 lakh hectares (FAOSTAT 2017). In Haryana, crop was grown over an area of 4.30 lakh hectares during Kharif 2019. Pearl millet is prone to many fungal and bacterial diseases. During 2018 to 2020, a new devastating diseas exhibiting stem rot like symptoms was observed in pearl millet growing regions in Indian state of Haryana. The isolated disease causing agent was a bacterium, where 16S rDNA-based nucleotide sequence deposited in NCBI GenBank (Accession nos. MZ433194.1) conferred its nearness to Klebsiella aerogenes (Hormaeche and Edwards 1960) Tindall et al. 2017. Further, DNA gyrase genomic sequence (NCBI Accession nos. MZ707528.1) also stayed its high homology to K. aerogenes. Klebsiella usually known to cause diseases in humans and animals, and also has been found inciting different kind of rots in different plantations viz. top rot in maize (Huang Min et al. 2016). Pearl millet is susceptible to minor bacterial diseases viz. bacterial leaf streak (Xanthomonas campestris), bacterial leaf spot (Pseudomonas syringae) and leaf stripe (P. avenae). Earlier, among the plant pathogenic bacterial entirety, only Erwinia chrysanthemi is known to cause stem rot diseases in sorghum (Saxena et al. 1991) amongst different types of millet. Extensive disease survey of pearl millet growing regions (Hisar, Bhiwani, Rewari, Mohindergarh and Bawal districts of Haryana having an altitude of 215, 225, 245, 262 and 266 m, respectively) in rainy seasons of 2019 and 2020 revealed the prevalence of typical stem rot disease, representing up to 70% disease incidence in the infected fields. The pieces of symptomatic stem of different plants were collected from two locations (Hisar and Bhiwani) and associated organism was isolated following the techniques of Janse (2005). The resulting growth of bacterial cultures were further purified on nutrient agar (NA) media using streak plate technique where colony growth of both the isolates were observed as morphotypes. The resulting bacteria were gram-negative and rod-shaped. Colonies were round and creamish white on NA. Isolated morphotypes were positive for indole production, methyl red, Voges Proskauer's test, citrate utilization, arabinose, mannitol, rhamnose and sucrose, whereas negative for glucose, adonitol, lactose and sorbitol tests. Biochemical tests were performed following standard methods (Holt et al. 1994). Molecular analysis of both isolates was performed using two sets of primers (universal 16S rRNA gene and genus-specific gyrA gene). The gyrA fragment (F: 5'-CGCGTACTATACGCCATGAACGTA-3'; R: 5'-ACCGTTGATCACTTCGGTCAGG-3') has been adopted as Klebsiella genus-specific gene (Brisse and Verhoef 2001). The quality and quantity of the isolated genomic DNA were analyzed using NanoDrop-2000 (Thermo Fisher Scientific, USA) and resolved in 1% (w/v) agarose gel. Thereafter, visualized in gel documentation to confirm a single band of high-molecular-weight DNA. The fragment 16S rDNA was amplified using 27F and 1492R primers, where a single discrete PCR amplicon of 1500 bp was observed in 1% (w/v) agarose gel. Similarly, the gyrA gene was amplified using 09510F and 09510R primers that conferred a single discrete band of 400 bp. The forward and reverse DNA sequencing reaction of purified PCR amplicons (16S rDNA and gyrA) was carried out using BDT v3.1 Cycle sequencing kit on a genetic analyzer to generate gene sequences. The consensus sequences of both gene were generated from forward and reverse sequences data using aligner software. The obtained sequences of both genes were compared with the available nucleotide sequences in the NCBI using the blast 2.2.9 system (https://blast.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/Blast.cgi?PAGE_TYPE=BlastSearch). The sequenced PCR amplicons showed up to 100% similarity with Klebsiella aerogenes 16s RNA nucleotide sequences (Accession nos. NR102493.2, MT373521.1; MF682950.1; MF462979.1 etc.). The bacterium also showed high nucleotide homology to K. aerogenes gyrA gene sequences (Accession nos. LR607333.1; CP035466.1; CP049600.1 etc.). The molecular phylogenetic analysis was done by the maximum likelihood method based on the Tamura-Nei model, and 1000 replicates for bootstrap testing in MEGA 7.0 software. The analysis involved 16 nucleotide sequences and evolutionary distances were computed. The 16s RNA based phylogenetic tree raised using MEGA7 (Kumar et al. 2016) elucidates that Klebsiella aerogenes Hisar formed a cluster with three K. aerogenes strains (Accession nos. MZ577128.1, MT373521.1 and MT 373520.1), whereas K. aerogenes Bhiwani displayed higher homology to NCBI sequences viz. MF682950.1, MT355368.1, MW331687.1and LC515412.1. Bacterial suspension was prepared by suspending bacterial cells into sterile water and cell density was adjusted to 1×107 colony forming unit/ml. For pathogenicity, leaf whorl inoculation (10 ml suspension/ whorl) was done on 15 days old seedlings of pearl millet genotype 7042S raised under controlled conditions (Temperature 35±2°C and more than 80% Relative Humidity). The pathogenicity was proved under field conditions as well. Initial symptoms were observed 4-5 days after inoculation as long streaks on leaves. Soon a spike in number of these leaf streaks was observed. Thereafter, water-soaked lesions appeared on the stem at 20-25 days after inoculation which later on turned brown to black. Severely diseased plants were dead, exhibiting hollowing of the stem and drying of leaves. The infected stem pith disintegrated and showed slimy rot symptoms and the pearl millet clumps toppled down. The rotten stems of both inoculations were again cut in to small pieces and the reisolated bacterium showed exactly the same morphological, biochemical and molecular characteristics. To our knowledge, this is the first report of stem rot of pearl millet incited by K. aerogenes in south-western regions of Haryana, India. Because the stem rot caused by K. aerogenes poses a significant threat to pearl millet cultivation, further research on biology, epidemiology and management choices is needed.

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Vaccinium corymbosum L. is the most cultivated blueberry species in Chile. Chilean fruits typically take up to 50 days to reach oversea markets; therefore, controlling post-harvest pathogens is of outmost importance to maintain international food safety and quality standards. In February 2019, the Microbial Genetic Resources Bank at INIA received fruits of V. corymbosum cv. 'Brigitta Blue' from Mariquina (-39.567869, -72.992461), located in the southern Chilean blueberry production zone, for post-harvest disease diagnosis. Asymptomatic fruits were incubated in moist-chambers at 25 °C with light/darkness cycles of 12 h. After 5 d, some fruits showed sunken areas and small surface wounds that exudated orange masses of conidia; under the epidermis, gray acervuli were also detected. After 15d, these fruits became dehydrated, mummified, and covered by mycelia, all characteristic symptoms of anthracnose (Wharton and Schilder 2008). In Chile, Colletotrichum gloeosporioides has, thus far, been the only causal agent of anthracnose reported in blueberry (Lara et al. 2003). Conidia exudated from the diseased fruit were inoculated on potato-dextrose agar (PDA) and incubated at 25 °C for 7 d. The resulting colony was predominantly cottony with gray aerial mycelium, displaying masses of pale orange conidia; on the reverse side, the colony was a pink-reddish color. Under a microscope, conidia were hyaline, fusiform to elliptic in shape, and displaying guttulate of 12.2±1.2 × 4.17±0.3 μm (n=30), characteristics coinciding with those described for Colletotrichum fioriniae (Pennycook 2017; Shivas and Tan 2009) (Supplementary Figure 1). The isolate was deposited in the Chilean Collection of Microbial Genetic Resources (CChRGM) as RGM 3330. Genomic DNA extraction of RGM 3330 and phylogenetic analyses were carried out according to Cisterna-Oyarce et al. (2022). A multi-locus sequencing analysis was carried out using five genetic markers. The internal transcribed spacer (ITS), glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase (gapdh), actin (act), and chitin synthase 1 (chs-1) were PCR-amplified following Damm et al. (2012) and -tubulin (tub) following Glass and Donaldson (1995). Sequences were deposited in GenBank (ON364141 for ITS and ON369167-70 for tub, act, chs-1, and gapdh, respectively) (Sayers et al. 2021). A BLAST analysis carried out in SequenceServer (Priyam et al. 2019), using a custom database of sequences retrieved from Damm et al. (2012) and Liu et al. (2020), showed that all genetic markers were 100% identical to those of C. fioriniae CBS 128517T (ITS (540/540 identities), gapdh (249/249), act (245/245), and chs-1 (274/274)), except for tub, which shared 99.8% of its identities (416/417) with this species. Maximum likelihood phylogenetic estimation clustered RGM 3330 with C. fioriniae strains CBS 128517T and CBS 126526 with 100% bootstrap support (Supplementary Figure 1). Koch's postulates were carried out with asymptomatic fruits of V. corymbosum cv. 'Brigitta Blue'. Prior to inoculation, fruits were surface-sterilized for 10 s in 70% ethanol, 3 s in 1% NaOCl, 10 s in 70% ethanol, rinsed three times with sterile distilled water, and subsequently placed in moist-chambers. Two groups of three repetitions of 20 fruits each were sprayed with 9 × 106 conidia/mL of RGM 3330 for the first group and with sterile distilled water for the control. After 5 d at 25 °C with light/darkness cycles of 12 h, only fruits sprayed with the conidial solution developed symptoms of anthracnose and the re-isolated fungi were identical in morphology to RGM 3330. This is the first report of C. fioriniae in blueberry in Chile. References Cisterna-Oyarce, V., Carrasco-Fernández, J., Castro, J. F., Santelices, C., Muñoz-Reyes, V., Millas, P., Buddie, A. G., and France, A. 2022. Gnomoniopsis smithogilvyi: identification, characterization and incidence of the main pathogen causing brown rot in postharvest sweet chestnut fruits (Castanea sativa) in Chile. Australasian Plant Disease Notes 17:2. Damm, U., Cannon, P. F., Woudenberg, J. H., and Crous, P. W. 2012. The Colletotrichum acutatum species complex. Stud. Mycol. 73:37-113. Glass, N. L., and Donaldson, G. C. 1995. Development of primer sets designed for use with the PCR to amplify conserved genes from filamentous ascomycetes. Appl. Environ. Microbiol. 61:1323-1330. Lara, O., Velazquez, C. G., and Ascencio, C. 2003. Colletotrichum gloeosporiodes in blueberry fruit. in: XIII Congreso de Fitopatología. Liu, X., Zheng, X., Khaskheli, M. I., Sun, X., Chang, X., and Gong, G. 2020. Identification of Colletotrichum species associated with blueberry anthracnose in Sichuan, China. Pathogens 9:718. Pennycook, S. 2017. Colletotrichum fioriniae comb. &amp; stat. nov., resolving a nomenclatural muddle. Mycotaxon 132:149-152. Priyam, A., Woodcroft, B. J., Rai, V., Moghul, I., Munagala, A., Ter, F., Chowdhary, H., Pieniak, I., Maynard, L. J., Gibbins, M. A., Moon, H., Davis-Richardson, A., Uludag, M., Watson-Haigh, N. S., Challis, R., Nakamura, H., Favreau, E., Gómez, E. A., Pluskal, T., Leonard, G., Rumpf, W., and Wurm, Y. 2019. Sequenceserver: a modern graphical user interface for custom BLAST databases. Mol. Biol. Evol. 36:2922-2924. Sayers, E. W., Cavanaugh, M., Clark, K., Pruitt, K. D., Schoch, C. L., Sherry, S. T., and Karsch-Mizrachi, I. 2021. GenBank. Nucleic Acids Res. 49:D92-D96. Shivas, R. G., and Tan, Y. P. 2009. A taxonomic re-assessment of Colletotrichum acutatum, introducing C. fioriniae comb. et stat. nov. and C. simmondsii sp. nov. Fungal Divers. 39:111-122. Wharton, P., and Schilder, A. 2008. Novel infection strategies of Colletotrichum acutatum on ripe blueberry fruit. Plant Pathol. 57:122-134. Supplementary material Supplementary Figure 1: Isolation and identification of Colletotrichum fioriniae RGM 3330 from blueberry fruits cv. 'Brigitta Blue' from Chile. (A) A fruit showing anthracnose; (B) colony of Colletotrichum fioriniae RGM 3330 growing on PDA; (C) microscopic observation of the conidia (100x magnification; bar=10 µm); (D) phylogenetic tree resulting from a maximum likelihood analysis of combined sequence data from ITS, act, chs-1, gapdh, and tub regions for Colletotrichum acutatum species complex, number in the nodes represent ultrafast bootstrap values.

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Hypertrophic and keloid scars are common skin conditions resulting from abnormal wound healing. They can cause itching, pain and have a negative physical and psychological impact on patients' lives. Different approaches are used aiming to improve these scars, including intralesional corticosteroids, surgery and more recently, laser therapy. Since laser therapy is expensive and may have adverse effects, it is critical to evaluate the potential benefits and harms of this therapy for treating hypertrophic and keloid scars. To assess the effects of laser therapy for treating hypertrophic and keloid scars. In March 2021 we searched the Cochrane Wounds Specialised Register, CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Embase, CINAHL EBSCO Plus and LILACS. To identify additional studies, we also searched clinical trials registries for ongoing and unpublished studies, and scanned reference lists of relevant included studies as well as reviews, meta-analyses, and health technology reports. There were no restrictions with respect to language, date of publication, or study setting. We included randomised controlled trials (RCTs) for treating hypertrophic or keloid scars (or both), comparing laser therapy with placebo, no intervention or another intervention. Two review authors independently selected studies, extracted the data, assessed the risk of bias of included studies and carried out GRADE assessments to assess the certainty of evidence. A third review author arbitrated if there were disagreements. We included 15 RCTs, involving 604 participants (children and adults) with study sample sizes ranging from 10 to 120 participants (mean 40.27). Where studies randomised different parts of the same scar, each scar segment was the unit of analysis (906 scar segments). The length of participant follow-up varied from 12 weeks to 12 months. All included trials had a high risk of bias for at least one domain: all studies were deemed at high risk of bias due to lack of blinding of participants and personnel. The variability of intervention types, controls, follow-up periods and limitations with report data meant we pooled data for one comparison (and only two outcomes within this). Several review secondary outcomes - cosmesis, tolerance, preference for different modes of treatment, adherence, and change in quality of life - were not reported in any of the included studies. Laser versus no treatment: We found low-certainty evidence suggesting there may be more hypertrophic and keloid scar improvement (that is scars are less severe) in 585-nm pulsed-dye laser (PDL) -treated scars compared with no treatment (risk ratio (RR) 1.96; 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.11 to 3.45; two studies, 60 scar segments). It is unclear whether non-ablative fractional laser (NAFL) impacts on hypertrophic scar severity when compared with no treatment (very low-certainty evidence). It is unclear whether fractional carbon dioxide (CO<sub2</sub) laser impacts on hypertrophic and keloid scar severity compared with no treatment (very low-certainty evidence). Eight studies reported treatment-related adverse effects but did not provide enough data for further analyses. Laser versus other treatments: We are uncertain whether treatment with 585-nm PDL impacts on hypertrophic and keloid scar severity compared with intralesional corticosteroid triamcinolone acetonide (TAC), intralesional Fluorouracil (5-FU) or combined use of TAC plus 5-FU (very low-certainty evidence). It is also uncertain whether erbium laser impacts on hypertrophic scar severity when compared with TAC (very low-certainty evidence). Other comparisons included 585-nm PDL versus silicone gel sheeting, fractional CO<sub2</sub laser versus TAC and fractional CO<sub2</sub laser versus verapamil. However, the authors did not report enough data regarding the severity of scars to compare the interventions. As only very low-certainty evidence is available on treatment-related adverse effects, including pain, charring (skin burning so that the surface becomes blackened), telangiectasia (a condition in which tiny blood vessels cause thread-like red lines on the skin), skin atrophy (skin thinning), purpuric discolorations, hypopigmentation (skin colour becomes lighter), and erosion (loss of part of the top layer of skin, leaving a denuded surface) secondary to blistering, we are not able to draw conclusions as to how these treatments compare. Laser plus other treatment versus other treatment: It is unclear whether 585-nm PDL plus TAC plus 5-FU leads to a higher percentage of good to excellent improvement in hypertrophic and keloid scar severity compared with TAC plus 5-FU, as the certainty of evidence has been assessed as very low. Due to very low-certainty evidence, it is also uncertain whether CO<sub2</sub laser plus TAC impacts on keloid scar severity compared with cryosurgery plus TAC. The evidence is also very uncertain about the effect of neodymium-doped yttrium aluminium garnet (Nd:YAG) laser plus intralesional corticosteroid diprospan plus 5-FU on scar severity compared with diprospan plus 5-FU and about the effect of helium-neon (He-Ne) laser plus decamethyltetrasiloxane, polydimethylsiloxane and cyclopentasiloxane cream on scar severity compared with decamethyltetrasiloxane, polydimethylsiloxane and cyclopentasiloxane cream. Only very low-certainty evidence is available on treatment-related adverse effects, including pain, atrophy, erythema, telangiectasia, hypopigmentation, regrowth, hyperpigmentation (skin colour becomes darker), and depigmentation (loss of colour from the skin). Therefore, we are not able to draw conclusions as to how these treatments compare.  AUTHORS' CONCLUSIONS: There is insufficient evidence to support or refute the effectiveness of laser therapy for treating hypertrophic and keloid scars. The available information is also insufficient to perform a more accurate analysis on treatment-related adverse effects related to laser therapy. Due to the heterogeneity of the studies, conflicting results, study design issues and small sample sizes, further high-quality trials, with validated scales and core outcome sets should be developed. These trials should take into consideration the consumers' opinion and values, the need for long-term follow-up and the necessity of reporting the rate of recurrence of scars to determine whether lasers may achieve superior results when compared with other therapies for treating hypertrophic and keloid scars.

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One crucial goal of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD) is the characterization of myocardial microcirculation that reflects tissue supply much better than detection and quantification of a stenosis itself. PERFUSION: Myocardial perfusion is one important parameter of microcirculation and it is commonly detected by first-pass techniques using contrast agents (CA). Despite the quantification of perfusion it is an indispensable component of a comprehensive diagnosis to determine the perfusion reserve, which is believed a good indicator for viability of myocardium. However, most MRI techniques for perfusion imaging are Ca based and this implies a restricted reproducibility in humans. Beyond it, most first-pass techniques are qualitative and not quantitative. REGIONAL BLOOD VOLUME: Another parameter of microcirculation is the regional intracapillary myocardial blood volume (RBV) that almost represents the whole intramyocardial blood volume due to its dominating volume fraction. The RBV reflects the autoregulatory adaptation of microvessels, e.g., a severe stenosis may lead to an increase of the RBV by capillary recruitment, and the RBV is reduced in scar areas. The RBV may be quantified by first-pass techniques; however, this demands a definite relation between signal intensity and concentration of the CA, which is difficult to find for the range of concentrations present during the first pass. Until recently, no techniques existed for the exact and noninvasive assessment of the RBV. CAPILLARY RECRUITMENT: The evaluation of the relevance of a coronary artery stenosis is of paramount interest for the therapeutic decision. A severe stenosis implies the activation of compensation mechanisms, which includes poststenotic dilation of the microvascular system. This lowering of the vascular resistance aims to maintain sufficient blood supply at least under resting conditions. However, many obstacles hamper the noninvasive assessment of this autoregulatory response so far. Our laboratory recently developed different techniques for the assessment of myocardial perfusion, regional myocardial blood volume, and capillary recruitment. These techniques are based on theoretical and physiologic considerations and work mainly without CA. In this article, feasibility and reproducibility of these approaches are shown in volunteers and patients. MR exams were performed on a 1.5-T whole body scanner (SIEMENS Vision) and a 2-T system (BRUKER Tomikon). Stress examinations were done repeatedly under pharmacologically induced stress (dipyridamole or adenosine, infusion rate: 0.56 mg/kg body weight over 4 min via an antecubital vein). Heart rate and blood pressure were continuously monitored during stress exams. T1 Spin labeling used in this work is based on T1 measurements after global and slice-selective spin preparation using a fast ECG-gated saturation recovery FLASH sequence. Due to the inflow of unsaturated proton spins, T1 in tissue is shortened after slice-selective preparation case compared to global saturation. We showed that, assuming a two compartment model with fast proton exchange between the compartments, the absolute perfusion P (in [ml/g/min]) can be calculated as P = lambda/T1(blood) ([T1(global)/T1(selective)] - 1), where the blood tissue partition coefficient lambda represents the quotient of water content of capillary blood and perfused tissue, which is approximately 0.9 ml/g in myocardial tissue. T1(blood) is the longitudinal relaxation time T1 of the arterial blood, measured in the left ventricle (LV). T1(global) and T1(selective) are the myocardial T1 calculated after the respective spin preparation. Perfusion reserve is evaluated as the quotient of perfusion under adenosine-induced stress and perfusion at rest. In volunteers quantitative perfusion was determined as 2.5 +/- 0.7 ml/g/min (rest), perfusion reserve was about 2.0. Absolute perfusion decreased to 1.6 +/- 0.6 ml/g/min under oxygen breathing. In patients with CAD, myocardial regions with decreased perfusion reserve could be identified. perfusion reserve could be identified. Performing the described spin-labeling technique with an intravascular CA facilitates the determination of the intra-extracapillary water proton exchange frequency and the RBV. In a patient study, the effect of the intravascular CA Feruglose (Amersham) on relaxation rate in myocardium (R1(myo)) in the steady state was investigated (Figure 1). The dependence of R1(myo) on R1(blood) was characterized and compared with a theoretical model which allowed determination of the intra-extracapillary water proton exchange frequency (f = 0.48 s(-1)) and the intracapillary blood volume (RBV = 12.9%). A linear response range of Delta R1(myo) on Delta R1(blood) was estimated which, in future studies, will allow the determination of RBV with intravascular CA (Figure 2). T2* We anticipated that poststenotic vasodilatation implies a capillary recruitment. Almost all (i.e., &gt; 90%) of intramyocardial blood residues in that type of vessel. Due to their large arteriovenous oxygenation difference, myocardial capillaries contain considerable amounts of deoxyhemoglobin (Figure 3). Hence, in regions with autoregulatory capillary recruitment the tissue concentration of deoxyhemoglobin should be elevated when compared to myocardium supplied by a normal vessel (Figure 5b). Due to its paramagnetic property and its intravascular confinement, the natural CA deoxyhemoglobin may be assessed by susceptibility sensitive, or also called blood oxygenation level-dependent (BOLD) MRI. For T2* measurements, a segmented gradient echo pulse sequence was used, which acquired ten successive gradient echoes per rf excitation in a single breathhold. In volunteers, there was an increase in T2* of about 10% under dipyridamole-induced stress (Figure 4). This means a decrease of the intracapillary deoxyhemoglobin concentration, whereas the oxygen consumption under increased perfusion did not change. In myocardial regions of patients, associated with the stenotic artery T2* was significantly lower than in residual myocardium (p &lt; 0.01; Figure 5a). This difference in T2* increased after application of the vasodilator dipyridamole (p &lt; 0.001). In patients being reinvestigated after therapeutic interventions, the microvascular dilation was partly removed (Figure 5c). For the first time we could show that myocardial BOLD MRI detects poststenotic capillary recruitment dependent on a coronary artery stenosis.

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Health consumers increasingly want access to accurate, evidence-based information about their medications. Currently, education about medications (that is, information that is designed to achieve health or illness related learning) is provided predominantly via spoken communication between the health provider and consumer, sometimes supplemented with written materials. There is evidence, however, that current educational methods are not meeting consumer needs. Multimedia educational programs offer many potential advantages over traditional forms of education delivery. To assess the effects of multimedia patient education interventions about prescribed and over-the-counter medications in people of all ages, including children and carers. We searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL, The Cochrane Library 2011, Issue 6), MEDLINE (1950 to June 2011), EMBASE (1974 to June 2011), CINAHL (1982 to June 2011), PsycINFO (1967 to June 2011), ERIC (1966 to June 2011), ProQuest Dissertation &amp; Theses Database (to June 2011) and reference lists of articles. Randomised controlled trials (RCTs) and quasi-RCTs of multimedia-based patient education about prescribed or over-the-counter medications in people of all ages, including children and carers, if the intervention had been targeted for their use. Two review authors independently extracted data and assessed the risk of bias of included studies. Where possible, we contacted study authors to obtain missing information. We identified 24 studies that enrolled a total of 8112 participants. However, there was significant heterogeneity in the comparators used and the outcomes measured, which limited the ability to pool data. Many of the studies did not report sufficient information in their methods to allow judgment of their risk of bias. From the information that was reported, three of the studies had a high risk of selection bias and one was at high risk of bias due to lack of blinding of the outcome assessors. None of the included studies reported the minimum clinically important difference for the outcomes that were measured. We have therefore reported results from the studies but have been unable to interpret whether differences were of clinical importance.The main findings of the review are as follows.Knowledge: There is low quality evidence that multimedia education was more effective than usual care (non-standardised education provided as part of usual clinical care) or no education (standardised mean difference (SMD) 1.04, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.49 to 1.58, six studies with 817 participants). There was considerable statistical heterogeneity (I(2) = 89%), however, all but one of the studies favoured the multimedia group. There is moderate quality evidence that multimedia education was not more effective at improving knowledge than control multimedia interventions (i.e. multimedia programs that do not provide information about the medication) (mean difference (MD) of knowledge scores 2.78%, 95% CI -1.48 to 7.0, two studies with 568 participants). There is moderate quality evidence that multimedia education was more effective when added to a co-intervention (written information or brief standardised instructions provided by a health professional) compared with the co-intervention alone (MD of knowledge scores 24.59%, 95% CI 22.34 to 26.83, two studies with 381 participants).Skill acquisition: There is moderate quality evidence that multimedia education was more effective than usual care or no education (MD of inhaler technique score 18.32%, 95% CI 11.92 to 24.73, two studies with 94 participants) and written education (risk ratio (RR) of improved inhaler technique 2.14, 95% CI 1.33 to 3.44, two studies with 164 participants). There is very low quality evidence that multimedia education was equally effective as education by a health professional (MD of inhaler technique score -1.01%, 95% CI -15.75 to 13.72, three studies with 130 participants).Compliance with medications: There is moderate quality evidence that there was no difference between multimedia education and usual care or no education (RR of complying 1.02, 95% CI 0.96 to 1.08, two studies with 4552 participants).We could not determine the effect of multimedia education on other outcomes, including patient satisfaction, self-efficacy and health outcomes, due to an inadequate number of studies from which to draw conclusions. This review provides evidence that multimedia education about medications is more effective than usual care (non-standardised education provided by health professionals as part of usual clinical care) or no education, in improving both knowledge and skill acquisition. It also suggests that multimedia education is at least equivalent to other forms of education, including written education and education provided by a health professional. However, this finding is based on often low quality evidence from a small number of trials. Multimedia education about medications could therefore be considered as an adjunct to usual care but there is inadequate evidence to recommend it as a replacement for written education or education by a health professional. Multimedia education may be considered as an alternative to education provided by a health professional, particularly in settings where provision of detailed education by a health professional is not feasible. More studies evaluating multimedia educational interventions are required in order to increase confidence in the estimate of effect of the intervention.Conclusions regarding the effect of multimedia education were limited by the lack of information provided by study authors about the educational interventions, and variability in their content and quality. Studies testing educational interventions should provide detailed information about the interventions and comparators. Research is required to establish a framework that is specific for the evaluation of the quality of multimedia educational programs. Conclusions were also limited by the heterogeneity in the outcomes reported and the instruments used to measure them. Research is required to identify a core set of outcomes which should be measured when evaluating patient educational interventions. Future research should use consistent, reliable and validated outcome measures so that comparisons can be made between studies.

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Lay health workers (LHWs) perform functions related to healthcare delivery, receive some level of training, but have no formal professional or paraprofessional certificate or tertiary education degree. They provide care for a range of issues, including maternal and child health. For LHW programmes to be effective, we need a better understanding of the factors that influence their success and sustainability. This review addresses these issues through a synthesis of qualitative evidence and was carried out alongside the Cochrane review of the effectiveness of LHWs for maternal and child health. The overall aim of the review is to explore factors affecting the implementation of LHW programmes for maternal and child health. We searched MEDLINE, OvidSP (searched 21 December 2011); MEDLINE Ovid In-Process &amp; Other Non-Indexed Citations, OvidSP (searched 21 December 2011); CINAHL, EBSCO (searched 21 December 2011); British Nursing Index and Archive, OvidSP (searched 13 May 2011). We searched reference lists of included studies, contacted experts in the field, and included studies that were carried out alongside the trials from the LHW effectiveness review. Studies that used qualitative methods for data collection and analysis and that focused on the experiences and attitudes of stakeholders regarding LHW programmes for maternal or child health in a primary or community healthcare setting. We identified barriers and facilitators to LHW programme implementation using the framework thematic synthesis approach. Two review authors independently assessed study quality using a standard tool. We assessed the certainty of the review findings using the CerQual approach, an approach that we developed alongside this and related qualitative syntheses. We integrated our findings with the outcome measures included in the review of LHW programme effectiveness in a logic model. Finally, we identified hypotheses for subgroup analyses in future updates of the review of effectiveness. We included 53 studies primarily describing the experiences of LHWs, programme recipients, and other health workers. LHWs in high income countries mainly offered promotion, counselling and support. In low and middle income countries, LHWs offered similar services but sometimes also distributed supplements, contraceptives and other products, and diagnosed and treated children with common childhood diseases. Some LHWs were trained to manage uncomplicated labour and to refer women with pregnancy or labour complications.Many of the findings were based on studies from multiple settings, but with some methodological limitations. These findings were assessed as being of moderate certainty. Some findings were based on one or two studies and had some methodological limitations. These were assessed have low certainty.Barriers and facilitators were mainly tied to programme acceptability, appropriateness and credibility; and health system constraints. Programme recipients were generally positive to the programmes, appreciating the LHWs' skills and the similarities they saw between themselves and the LHWs. However, some recipients were concerned about confidentiality when receiving home visits. Others saw LHW services as not relevant or not sufficient, particularly when LHWs only offered promotional services. LHWs and recipients emphasised the importance of trust, respect, kindness and empathy. However, LHWs sometimes found it difficult to manage emotional relationships and boundaries with recipients. Some LHWs feared blame if care was not successful. Others felt demotivated when their services were not appreciated. Support from health systems and community leaders could give LHWs credibility, at least if the health systems and community leaders had authority and respect. Active support from family members was also important.Health professionals often appreciated the LHWs' contributions in reducing their workload and for their communication skills and commitment. However, some health professionals thought that LHWs added to their workload and feared a loss of authority.LHWs were motivated by factors including altruism, social recognition, knowledge gain and career development. Some unsalaried LHWs wanted regular payment, while others were concerned that payment might threaten their social status or lead recipients to question their motives. Some salaried LHWs were dissatisfied with their pay levels. Others were frustrated when payment differed across regions or institutions. Some LHWs stated that they had few opportunities to voice complaints. LHWs described insufficient, poor quality, irrelevant and inflexible training programmes, calling for more training in counselling and communication and in topics outside their current role, including common health problems and domestic problems. LHWs and supervisors complained about supervisors' lack of skills, time and transportation. Some LHWs appreciated the opportunity to share experiences with fellow LHWs.In some studies, LHWs were traditional birth attendants who had received additional training. Some health professionals were concerned that these LHWs were over-confident about their ability to manage danger signs. LHWs and recipients pointed to other problems, including women's reluctance to be referred after bad experiences with health professionals, fear of caesarean sections, lack of transport, and cost. Some LHWs were reluctant to refer women on because of poor co-operation with health professionals.We organised these findings and the outcome measures included in the review of LHW programme effectiveness in a logic model. Here we proposed six chains of events where specific programme components lead to specific intermediate or long-term outcomes, and where specific moderators positively or negatively affect this process. We suggest how future updates of the LHW effectiveness review could explore whether the presence of these components influences programme success. Rather than being seen as a lesser trained health worker, LHWs may represent a different and sometimes preferred type of health worker. The close relationship between LHWs and recipients is a programme strength. However, programme planners must consider how to achieve the benefits of closeness while minimizing the potential drawbacks. Other important facilitators may include the development of services that recipients perceive as relevant; regular and visible support from the health system and the community; and appropriate training, supervision and incentives.

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Analysis of the prevalence rates of selected diagnoses of congenital anomalies in the Czech Republic in 1994-2009. Retrospective epidemiological analysis of postnatal and total (including prenatally diagnosed cases) prevalence of congenital anomalies from the database of the National Registry of Congenital Anomalies of the Czech Republic. Data from the National Registry of Congenital Anomalies (NRCA) maintained by the Institute of Health Information and Statistics of the Czech Republic (IHIS CR) were used. Data on congenital anomalies in general and selected types of congenital anomalies were analyzed for the entire Czech Republic from 1994-2009. Additional data on prenatally diagnosed anomalies were obtained from medical genetics centres in the Czech Republic thanks to voluntary cooperation. This study analyzed postnatal and overall prevalence of congenital anomalies, with the latter including results of positive prenatal diagnosis. More detailed analysis was carried out for the following diagnoses: cystic kidney disease, renal agenesis/hypoplasia, tetralogy of Fallot, large vessel transposition, left heart hypoplasia, aortic coarctation, Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, and Patau syndrome. Cystic kidney disease showed a significant increase in 1999 and 2000, mainly due to postnatally diagnosed cases. This can be explained, on the one hand, by the modification made to the reporting of congenital anomalies in the Czech Republic and, on the other hand, by an earlier and more complete detection of postnatal cases. Since 2000, there has been a significant increase in reported cystic kidney disease as a result of postnatal kidney screening. In 1994-1999, the prevalence rates of this diagnosis ranged from 1.7 to 3.1 per 10,000 live births. Similar trend is seen in the prevalence of renal agenesis/hypoplasia. In the monitored period, prenatally diagnosed cases showed a slight increase while postnatally diagnosed cases showed a considerable rise. In 1994-1999, the prevalence rates of renal agenesis/hypoplasia ranged between 1.7 and 3.0 per 10,000 live births and in 2000-2009, between 3.9 and 7.7 per 10,000 live births. A major contributor to the upward trend is more frequent detection of unilateral renal agenesis/hypoplasia. The prevalence of tetralogy of Fallot remains nearly unchanged, with prenatally diagnosed cases accounting for more than 20% since 2000. The mean postnatal prevalence rate was 3.20 per 10,000 live births and the overall prevalence rate was 3.54 per 10,000 live births. A similar prevalence trend is seen in large vessel transposition. The mean postnatal prevalence rate was 3.01 per 10,000 live births and the mean overall prevalence rate was 3.38 per 10,000 live births. The proportion of prenatally diagnosed left heart hypoplasia showed a slow upward trend, reaching more than 75% in 2006. The mean postnatal prevalence rate was 1.44 per 10,000 live births and the mean overall prevalence rate was 2.86 per 10,000 live births. Aortic coarctation was diagnosed prenatally most often in 2003 (15.25%), with a mean of 7.5% for the whole period analyzed. Despite the prenatal diagnostic outcomes, the postnatal prevalence rates of left heart hypoplasia did not substantially vary in 1994-2009. The mean postnatal prevalence rate was 4.87 per 10,000 live births and the mean overall prevalence rate was 5.26 per 10,000 live births. The prevalence rates of prenatally diagnosed Down syndrome were continuously increasing from 4.79 to 17.73 per 10,000 live births and conversely, the postnatal prevalence rates were continuously decreasing from 7.79 to 3.31 per 10,000 live births. Increase in the overall prevalence rates can be explained mainly by the demographic situation in the Czech Republic in recent years: the average age at first birth and the first birth rate for women aged over 35 years were on the rise. The rate of prenatally diagnosed Down syndrome doubled from 40% to 80%. Similarly, the prevalence rate of prenatally diagnosed Edwards syndrome was on the rise while that of postnatally diagnosed cases was declining. The rate of prenatally diagnosed cases rose from 63% to 96% over the last two years. The mean prevalence rate of postnatally diagnosed cases was 0.72 per 10,000 live births and the mean overall prevalence rate was 3.78 per 10,000 live births. Similarly, the rate of prenatally diagnosed Patau syndrome increased from 30% in 1997 to 100% in 2009 and the rate of postnatally diagnosed cases was declining. The mean prevalence rate of postnatally diagnosed cases was 0.40 per 10,000 live births and the mean overall prevalence rate was 1.38 per 10,000 live births. The overall prevalence rates of the monitored diagnoses from the group of congenital kidney disease (cystic kidney disease and renal agenesis/hypoplasia) were on the rise in the monitored -period mainly due to advances in imaging technologies (ultrasonography) and their use in both prenatal and postnatal diagnosis. Increase in postnatally diagnosed cases can be attributed primarily to the reporting of less severe cases (cystic kidney disease) or unilateral anomalies (renal agenesis and hypoplasia). As for the monitored congenital heart defects, advances in ultrasonographic imaging diagnosis played a considerable role in the increase of cases. The overall prevalence rate show a slow upward trend, but there is a significant decline in postnatally diagnosed cases due to prenatal diagnosis of a severe anomaly, left heart hypoplasia. As for congenital chromosomal aberrations, several interconnected factors influenced the final rate. Firstly, the proportion of prenatally diagnosed cases increases due to quantitative and qualitative improvements of the screening tests. They resulted in greater efficiency of prenatal diagnosis and, at the same time, in less need for invasive prenatal diagnostic procedures. Another factor is increase in average age at first birth and in the first birth rate for women aged over 35 years resulting in higher overall prevalence rates of Down syndrome, Edwards syndrome, and Patau syndrome in the Czech Republic.

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Following cataract surgery and intraocular lens (IOL) implantation, loss of accommodation or postoperative presbyopia occurs and remains a challenge. Standard monofocal IOLs correct only distance vision; patients require spectacles for near vision. Accommodative IOLs have been designed to overcome loss of accommodation after cataract surgery. To define (a) the extent to which accommodative IOLs improve unaided near visual function, in comparison with monofocal IOLs; (b) the extent of compromise to unaided distance visual acuity; c) whether a higher rate of additional complications is associated the use of accommodative IOLs. We searched CENTRAL (which contains the Cochrane Eyes and Vision Group Trials Register) (The Cochrane Library 2013, Issue 9), Ovid MEDLINE, Ovid MEDLINE in-Process and Other Non-Indexed Citations, Ovid MEDLINE Daily Update, Ovid OLDMEDLINE (January 1946 to October 2013), EMBASE (January 1980 to October 2013), Latin American and Caribbean Health Sciences Literature Database (LILACS) (January 1982 to October 2013), the metaRegister of Controlled Trials (mRCT) (www.controlled-trials.com), ClinicalTrials.gov (www.clinicaltrial.gov) and the WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) (www.who.int/ictrp/search/en). We did not use any date or language restrictions in the electronic searches for trials. We last searched the electronic databases on 10 October 2013. We include randomised controlled trials (RCTs) which compared implantation of accommodative IOLs to implantation of monofocal IOLs in cataract surgery. Two authors independently screened search results, assessed risk of bias and extracted data. All included trials used the 1CU accommodative IOL (HumanOptics, Erlangen, Germany) for their intervention group. One trial had an additional arm with the AT-45 Crystalens accommodative IOL (Eyeonics Vision). We performed a separate analysis comparing 1CU and AT-45 IOL. We included four RCTs, including 229 participants (256 eyes), conducted in Germany, Italy and the UK. The age range of participants was 21 to 87 years. All studies included people who had bilateral cataracts with no pre-existing ocular pathologies. We judged all studies to be at high risk of performance bias. We graded two studies with high risk of detection bias and one study with high risk of selection bias.Participants who received the accommodative IOLs achieved better distance-corrected near visual acuity (DCNVA) at six months (mean difference (MD) -3.10 Jaeger units; 95% confidence intervals (CI) -3.36 to -2.83, 2 studies, 106 people, 136 eyes, moderate quality evidence). Better DCNVA was seen in the accommodative lens group at 12 to 18 months in the three trials that reported this time point but considerable heterogeneity of effect was seen, ranging from 1.3 (95% CI 0.98 to 1.68; 20 people, 40 eyes) to 6 (95% CI 4.15 to 7.85; 51 people, 51 eyes) Jaeger units and 0.12 (95% CI 0.05 to 0.19; 40 people, binocular) logMAR improvement (low quality evidence). The relative effect of the lenses on corrected distant visual acuity (CDVA) was less certain. At six months there was a standardised mean difference of -0.04 standard deviations (95% CI -0.37 to 0.30, 2 studies, 106 people, 136 eyes, low quality evidence). At long-term follow-up there was heterogeneity of effect with 18-month data in two studies showing that CDVA was better in the monofocal group (MD 0.12 logMAR; 95% CI 0.07 to 0.16, 2 studies, 70 people,100 eyes) and one study which reported data at 12 months finding similar CDVA in the two groups (-0.02 logMAR units, 95% CI -0.06 to 0.02, 51 people) (low quality evidence).The relative effect of the lenses on reading speed and spectacle independence was uncertain, The average reading speed was 11.6 words per minute more in the accommodative lens group but the 95% confidence intervals ranged from 12.2 words less to 35.4 words more (1 study, 40 people, low quality evidence). People with accommodative lenses were more likely to be spectacle-independent but the estimate was very uncertain (risk ratio (RR) 8.18; 95% CI 0.47 to 142.62, 1 study, 40 people, very low quality evidence).More cases of posterior capsule opacification (PCO) were seen in accommodative lenses but the effect of the lenses on PCO was uncertain (Peto odds ratio (OR) 2.12; 95% CI 0.45 to 10.02, 91 people, 2 studies, low quality evidence). People in the accommodative lens group were more likely to require laser capsulotomy (Peto OR 7.96; 95% CI 2.49 to 25.45, 2 studies, 60 people, 80 eyes, low quality evidence). Glare was reported less frequently with accommodative lenses but the relative effect of the lenses on glare was uncertain (RR any glare 0.78; 95% CI 0.32 to 1.90, 1 study, 40 people, and RR moderate/severe glare 0.45; 95% CI 0.04 to 4.60, low quality evidence). There is moderate-quality evidence that study participants who received accommodative IOLs had a small gain in near visual acuity after six months. There is some evidence that distance visual acuity with accommodative lenses may be worse after 12 months but due to low quality of evidence and heterogeneity of effect, the evidence for this is not clear-cut. People receiving accommodative lenses had more PCO which may be associated with poorer distance vision. However, the effect of the lenses on PCO was uncertain.Further research is required to improve the understanding of how accommodative IOLs may affect near visual function, and whether they provide any durable gains. Additional trials, with longer follow-up, comparing different accommodative IOLs, multifocal IOLs and monofocal IOLs, would help map out their relative efficacy, and associated late complications. Research is needed on control over capsular fibrosis postimplantation.Risks of bias, heterogeneity of outcome measures and study designs used, and the dominance of one design of accommodative lens in existing trials (the HumanOptics 1CU) mean that these results should be interpreted with caution. They may not be applicable to other accommodative IOL designs.

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Central serous chorioretinopathy (CSC) is characterized by serous detachment of the neural retina with dysfunction of the choroid and retinal pigment epithelium (RPE). The effects on the retina are usually self limited, although some people are left with irreversible vision loss due to progressive and permanent photoreceptor damage or RPE atrophy. There have been a variety of interventions used in CSC, including, but not limited to, laser treatment, photodynamic therapy (PDT), and intravitreal injection of anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) agents. However, it is not known whether these or other treatments offer significant advantages over observation or other interventions. At present there is no evidence-based consensus on the management of CSC. Due in large part to the propensity for CSC to resolve spontaneously or to follow a waxing and waning course, the most common initial approach to treatment is observation. It remains unclear whether this is the best approach with regard to safety and efficacy. To compare the relative effectiveness of interventions for central serous chorioretinopathy. We searched CENTRAL (which contains the Cochrane Eyes and Vision Trials Register) (2015, Issue 9), Ovid MEDLINE, Ovid MEDLINE In-Process and Other Non-Indexed Citations, Ovid MEDLINE Daily, Ovid OLDMEDLINE (January 1946 to February 2014), EMBASE (January 1980 to October 2015), the ISRCTN registry (www.isrctn.com/editAdvancedSearch), ClinicalTrials.gov (www.clinicaltrials.gov) and the World Health Organization (WHO) International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) (www.who.int/ictrp/search/en). We did not use any date or language restrictions in the electronic searches for trials. We last searched the electronic databases on 5 October 2015. Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) that compared any intervention for CSC with any other intervention for CSC or control. Two review authors independently selected studies and extracted data. We pooled data from all studies using a fixed-effect model. For interventions applied to the eye (i.e. not systemic interventions), we synthesized direct and indirect evidence in a network meta-analysis model. We included 25 studies with 1098 participants (1098 eyes) and follow-up from 16 weeks to 12 years. Studies were conducted in Europe, North and South America, Middle East, and Asia. The trials were small (most trials enrolled fewer than 50 participants) and poorly reported; often it was unclear whether key aspects of the trial, such as allocation concealment, had been done. A substantial proportion of the trials were not masked.The studies considered a variety of treatments: anti-VEGF (ranibizumab, bevacizumab), PDT (full-dose, half-dose, 30%, low-fluence), laser treatment (argon, krypton and micropulse laser), beta-blockers, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, Helicobactor pylori treatment, and nutritional supplements (Icaps, lutein); there were only one or two trials contributing data for each comparison. We downgraded for risk of bias and imprecision for most analyses, reflecting study limitations and imprecise estimates. Network meta-analysis (as planned in our protocol) did not help to resolve this uncertainty due to a lack of trials, and problems with intransitivity, particularly with respect to acute or chronic CSC.Low quality evidence from two trials suggested little difference in the effect of anti-VEGF (ranibizumab or bevacizumab) or observation on change in visual acuity at six months in acute CSC (mean difference (MD) 0.01 LogMAR (logarithm of the minimal angle of resolution), 95% confidence interval (CI) -0.02 to 0.03; 64 participants). CSC had resolved in all participants by six months. There were no significant adverse effects noted.Low quality evidence from one study (58 participants) suggested that half-dose PDT treatment of acute CSC probably results in a small improvement in vision (MD -0.10 logMAR, 95% CI -0.18 to -0.02), less recurrence (risk ratio (RR) 0.10, 95% CI 0.01 to 0.81) and less persistent CSC (RR 0.12, 95% CI 0.01 to 1.02) at 12 months compared to sham treatment. There were no significant adverse events noted.Low quality evidence from two trials (56 participants) comparing anti-VEGF to low-fluence PDT in chronic CSC found little evidence for any difference in visual acuity at 12 months (MD 0.03 logMAR, 95% CI -0.08 to 0.15). There was some evidence that more people in the anti-VEGF group had recurrent CSC compared to people treated with PDT but, due to inconsistency between trials, it was difficult to estimate an effect. More people in the anti-VEGF group had persistent CSC at 12 months (RR 6.19, 95% CI 1.61 to 23.81; 34 participants).Two small trials of micropulse laser, one in people with acute CSC and one in people with chronic CSC, provided low quality evidence that laser treatment may lead to better visual acuity (MD -0.20 logMAR, 95% CI -0.30 to -0.11; 45 participants). There were no significant adverse effects noted.Other comparisons were largely inconclusive.We identified 12 ongoing trials covering the following interventions: aflibercept and eplerenone in acute CSC; spironolactone, eplerenone, lutein, PDT, and micropulse laser in chronic CSC; and micropulse laser and oral mifepristone in two trials where type of CSC not clearly specified. CSC remains an enigmatic condition in large part due to a natural history of spontaneous improvement in a high proportion of people and also because no single treatment has provided overwhelming evidence of efficacy in published RCTs. While a number of interventions have been proposed as potentially efficacious, the quality of study design, execution of the study and the relatively small number of participants enrolled and followed to revealing endpoints limits the utility of existing data. It is not clear whether there is a clinically important benefit to treating acute CSC which often resolves spontaneously as part of its natural history. RCTs comparing individual treatments to the natural history would be valuable in identifying potential treatment groups for head-to-head comparison. Of the interventions studied to date, PDT or micropulse laser treatment appear the most promising for study in future trials.

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The projected rise in the incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) could develop into a substantial health problem worldwide. Whether dipeptidyl-peptidase (DPP)-4 inhibitors or glucagon-like peptide (GLP)-1 analogues are able to prevent or delay T2DM and its associated complications in people at risk for the development of T2DM is unknown. To assess the effects of DPP-4 inhibitors and GLP-1 analogues on the prevention or delay of T2DM and its associated complications in people with impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting blood glucose, moderately elevated glycosylated haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) or any combination of these. We searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials; MEDLINE; PubMed; Embase; ClinicalTrials.gov; the World Health Organization (WHO) International Clinical Trials Registry Platform; and the reference lists of systematic reviews, articles and health technology assessment reports. We asked investigators of the included trials for information about additional trials. The date of the last search of all databases was January 2017. We included randomised controlled trials (RCTs) with a duration of 12 weeks or more comparing DPP-4 inhibitors and GLP-1 analogues with any pharmacological glucose-lowering intervention, behaviour-changing intervention, placebo or no intervention in people with impaired fasting glucose, impaired glucose tolerance, moderately elevated HbA1c or combinations of these. Two review authors read all abstracts and full-text articles and records, assessed quality and extracted outcome data independently. One review author extracted data which were checked by a second review author. We resolved discrepancies by consensus or the involvement of a third review author. For meta-analyses, we planned to use a random-effects model with investigation of risk ratios (RRs) for dichotomous outcomes and mean differences (MDs) for continuous outcomes, using 95% confidence intervals (CIs) for effect estimates. We assessed the overall quality of the evidence using the GRADE instrument. We included seven completed RCTs; about 98 participants were randomised to a DPP-4 inhibitor as monotherapy and 1620 participants were randomised to a GLP-1 analogue as monotherapy. Two trials investigated a DPP-4 inhibitor and five trials investigated a GLP-1 analogue. A total of 924 participants with data on allocation to control groups were randomised to a comparator group; 889 participants were randomised to placebo and 33 participants to metformin monotherapy. One RCT of liraglutide contributed 85% of all participants. The duration of the intervention varied from 12 weeks to 160 weeks. We judged none of the included trials at low risk of bias for all 'Risk of bias' domains and did not perform meta-analyses because there were not enough trials.One trial comparing the DPP-4 inhibitor vildagliptin with placebo reported no deaths (very low-quality evidence). The incidence of T2DM by means of WHO diagnostic criteria in this trial was 3/90 participants randomised to vildagliptin versus 1/89 participants randomised to placebo (very low-quality evidence). Also, 1/90 participants on vildagliptin versus 2/89 participants on placebo experienced a serious adverse event (very low-quality evidence). One out of 90 participants experienced congestive heart failure in the vildagliptin group versus none in the placebo group (very low-quality evidence). There were no data on non-fatal myocardial infarction, stroke, health-related quality of life or socioeconomic effects reported.All-cause and cardiovascular mortality following treatment with GLP-1 analogues were rarely reported; one trial of exenatide reported that no participant died. Another trial of liraglutide 3.0 mg showed that 2/1501 in the liraglutide group versus 2/747 in the placebo group died after 160 weeks of treatment (very low-quality evidence).The incidence of T2DM following treatment with liraglutide 3.0 mg compared to placebo after 160 weeks was 26/1472 (1.8%) participants randomised to liraglutide versus 46/738 (6.2%) participants randomised to placebo (very low-quality evidence). The trial established the risk for (diagnosis of) T2DM as HbA1c 5.7% to 6.4% (6.5% or greater), fasting plasma glucose 5.6 mmol/L or greater to 6.9 mmol/L or less (7.0 mmol/L or greater) or two-hour post-load plasma glucose 7.8 mmol/L or greater to 11.0 mmol/L (11.1 mmol/L). Altogether, 70/1472 (66%) participants regressed from intermediate hyperglycaemia to normoglycaemia compared with 268/738 (36%) participants in the placebo group. The incidence of T2DM after the 12-week off-treatment extension period (i.e. after 172 weeks) showed that five additional participants were diagnosed T2DM in the liraglutide group, compared with one participant in the placebo group. After 12-week treatment cessation, 740/1472 (50%) participants in the liraglutide group compared with 263/738 (36%) participants in the placebo group had normoglycaemia.One trial used exenatide and 2/17 participants randomised to exenatide versus 1/16 participants randomised to placebo developed T2DM (very low-quality evidence). This trial did not provide a definition of T2DM. One trial reported serious adverse events in 230/1524 (15.1%) participants in the liraglutide 3.0 mg arm versus 96/755 (12.7%) participants in the placebo arm (very low quality evidence). There were no serious adverse events in the trial using exenatide. Non-fatal myocardial infarction was reported in 1/1524 participants in the liraglutide arm and in 0/55 participants in the placebo arm at 172 weeks (very low-quality evidence). One trial reported congestive heart failure in 1/1524 participants in the liraglutide arm and in 1/755 participants in the placebo arm (very low-quality evidence). Participants receiving liraglutide compared with placebo had a small mean improvement in the physical component of the 36-item Short Form scale showing a difference of 0.87 points (95% CI 0.17 to 1.58; P = 0.02; 1 trial; 1791 participants; very low-quality evidence). No trial evaluating GLP-1-analogues reported data on stroke, microvascular complications or socioeconomic effects. There is no firm evidence that DPP-4 inhibitors or GLP-1 analogues compared mainly with placebo substantially influence the risk of T2DM and especially its associated complications in people at increased risk for the development of T2DM. Most trials did not investigate patient-important outcomes.

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Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that is usually diagnosed when a patient has a suspected or documented infection, and meets two or more criteria for systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). The incidence of sepsis is higher among people admitted to critical care settings such as the intensive care unit (ICU) than among people in other settings. If left untreated sepsis can quickly worsen; severe sepsis has a mortality rate of 40% or higher, depending on definition. Recognition of sepsis can be challenging as it usually requires patient data to be combined from multiple unconnected sources, and interpreted correctly, which can be complex and time consuming to do. Electronic systems that are designed to connect information sources together, and automatically collate, analyse, and continuously monitor the information, as well as alerting healthcare staff when pre-determined diagnostic thresholds are met, may offer benefits by facilitating earlier recognition of sepsis and faster initiation of treatment, such as antimicrobial therapy, fluid resuscitation, inotropes, and vasopressors if appropriate. However, there is the possibility that electronic, automated systems do not offer benefits, or even cause harm. This might happen if the systems are unable to correctly detect sepsis (meaning that treatment is not started when it should be, or it is started when it shouldn't be), or healthcare staff may not respond to alerts quickly enough, or get 'alarm fatigue' especially if the alarms go off frequently or give too many false alarms. To evaluate whether automated systems for the early detection of sepsis can reduce the time to appropriate treatment (such as initiation of antibiotics, fluids, inotropes, and vasopressors) and improve clinical outcomes in critically ill patients in the ICU. We searched CENTRAL; MEDLINE; Embase; CINAHL; ISI Web of science; and LILACS, clinicaltrials.gov, and the World Health Organization trials portal. We searched all databases from their date of inception to 18 September 2017, with no restriction on country or language of publication. We included randomized controlled trials (RCTs) that compared automated sepsis-monitoring systems to standard care (such as paper-based systems) in participants of any age admitted to intensive or critical care units for critical illness. We defined an automated system as any process capable of screening patient records or data (one or more systems) automatically at intervals for markers or characteristics that are indicative of sepsis. We defined critical illness as including, but not limited to postsurgery, trauma, stroke, myocardial infarction, arrhythmia, burns, and hypovolaemic or haemorrhagic shock. We excluded non-randomized studies, quasi-randomized studies, and cross-over studies . We also excluded studies including people already diagnosed with sepsis. We used the standard methodological procedures expected by Cochrane. Our primary outcomes were: time to initiation of antimicrobial therapy; time to initiation of fluid resuscitation; and 30-day mortality. Secondary outcomes included: length of stay in ICU; failed detection of sepsis; and quality of life. We used GRADE to assess the quality of evidence for each outcome. We included three RCTs in this review. It was unclear if the RCTs were three separate studies involving 1199 participants in total, or if they were reports from the same study involving fewer participants. We decided to treat the studies separately, as we were unable to make contact with the study authors to clarify.All three RCTs are of very low study quality because of issues with unclear randomization methods, allocation concealment and uncertainty of effect size. Some of the studies were reported as abstracts only and contained limited data, which prevented meaningful analysis and assessment of potential biases.The studies included participants who all received automated electronic monitoring during their hospital stay. Participants were randomized to an intervention group (automated alerts sent from the system) or to usual care (no automated alerts sent from the system).Evidence from all three studies reported 'Time to initiation of antimicrobial therapy'. We were unable to pool the data, but the largest study involving 680 participants reported median time to initiation of antimicrobial therapy in the intervention group of 5.6 hours (interquartile range (IQR) 2.3 to 19.7) in the intervention group (n = not stated) and 7.8 hours (IQR 2.5 to 33.1) in the control group (n = not stated).No studies reported 'Time to initiation of fluid resuscitation' or the adverse event 'Mortality at 30 days'. However very low-quality evidence was available where mortality was reported at other time points. One study involving 77 participants reported 14-day mortality of 20% in the intervention group and 21% in the control group (numerator and denominator not stated). One study involving 442 participants reported mortality at 28 days, or discharge was 14% in the intervention group and 10% in the control group (numerator and denominator not reported). Sample sizes were not reported adequately for these outcomes and so we could not estimate confidence intervals.Very low-quality evidence from one study involving 442 participants reported 'Length of stay in ICU'. Median length of stay was 3.0 days in the intervention group (IQR = 2.0 to 5.0), and 3.0 days (IQR 2.0 to 4.0 in the control).Very low-quality evidence from one study involving at least 442 participants reported the adverse effect 'Failed detection of sepsis'. Data were only reported for failed detection of sepsis in two participants and it wasn't clear which group(s) this outcome occurred in.No studies reported 'Quality of life'. It is unclear what effect automated systems for monitoring sepsis have on any of the outcomes included in this review. Very low-quality evidence is only available on automated alerts, which is only one component of automated monitoring systems. It is uncertain whether such systems can replace regular, careful review of the patient's condition by experienced healthcare staff.

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<bObjective:</b To explore the influences of hydrogen-rich saline on acute kidney injury in severely burned rats and to analyze the related mechanism. <bMethods:</b Fifty-six Sprague Dawley rats were divided into sham injury group (<in</i=8), burn group (<in</i=24), and hydrogen-rich saline group (<in</i=24) according to the random number table. Rats in sham injury group were treated by 20 ℃ water bath on the back for 15 s to simulate injury, and rats in burn group and hydrogen-rich saline group were inflicted with 30% total body surface area (TBSA) full-thickness scald (hereinafter referred to as burns) by 100 ℃ water bath on the back for 15 s. Immediately after injury, hydrogen-rich saline at the dose of 10 mL/kg were intraperitoneally injected to the rats in hydrogen-rich saline group at one time, while normal saline with the same dose were intraperitoneally injected to the rats in sham injury group and burn group. At post injury hour (PIH) 6, rats in the 3 groups were intraperitoneally injected with 4 mL·kg(-1)·%TBSA(-1) lactated Ringer's solution for resuscitation. Eight rats from sham injury group at PIH 72 and eight rats from burn group and hydrogen-rich saline group at PIH 6, 24, and 72 were sacrificed respectively after their blood samples from abdominal aorta were collected. Then their kidney tissue was harvested for histopathological observation and renal tubular injury scoring by hematoxylin and eosin staining, serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen were detected by the clinical blood biochemical analyzer, expression distribution and mRNA expressions of tumor necrosis factor α (TNF-α), interleukin-1β (IL-1β), and IL-6 in renal tissue were evaluated by immunohistochemical staining and real time fluorescent quantitive reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction respectively, and protein expression of high mobility group protein 1 (HMGB1) was detected by Western blotting. Data were processed with Kruskal-Wallis <iH</i test, Dunn test, one-way analysis of variance, Bonferroni test. <bResults:</b (1) The renal tubular structure of rats in sham injury group at PIH 72 was complete with no inflammatory cell infiltration and no cellular degeneration or necrosis. Since PIH 6, the changes such as vacuolation and shape change of cells and aggregation of broken protein in renal tubules were observed in rats of burn group, and all these changes deteriorated with time. The renal injury of rats in hydrogen-rich saline group at different post injury time points were relieved compared with those of rats in burn group at the corresponding time points. The renal tubular injury scores of rats in burn group and hydrogen-rich saline group at PIH 6, 24, and 72 were significantly higher than the score in sham injury group at PIH 72 (<iP</i&lt;0.05). The renal tubular injury scores of rats in hydrogen-rich saline group were significantly lower than those in burn group at PIH 6, 24, and 72 (<iP</i&lt;0.05). (2) Except for those in hydrogen-rich saline group at PIH 6 and 72 (<iP</i&gt;0.05), the levels of serum creatinine of rats in burn group at all the time points and hydrogen-rich saline group at the other time points were significantly higher than the level of serum creatinine of rats in sham injury group at PIH 72 (<iP</i&lt;0.01). The levels of blood urea nitrogen of rats in burn group and hydrogen-rich saline group at PIH 6, 24, and 72 were significantly higher than the level of blood urea nitrogen of rats in sham injury group at PIH 72 (<iP</i&lt;0.01). The levels of serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen of rats in hydrogen-rich saline group at PIH 6, 24, and 72 were significantly lower than those in burn group at the corresponding time points (<iP</i&lt;0.05). (3) There were certain degree of positive expressions of TNF-α, IL-1β, and IL-6 in renal tissue of rats in sham injury group at PIH 72, which were mainly observed in the cytoplasm of renal tubular epithelium cell. The expressions of above-mentioned inflammatory cytokines in renal tissue of rats in burn group at PIH 6, 24, and 72 were higher than those in sham injury group. The expressions of above-mentioned inflammatory cytokines in renal tissue of rats in hydrogen-rich saline group at all the time points were less than those in burn group at the corresponding time points. (4) Compared with those in sham injury group at PIH 72, the mRNA expression levels of TNF-α, IL-1β, and IL-6 of rats in burn group at PIH 6, 24, and 72 were significantly increased (<iP</i&lt;0.01). The mRNA expression levels of TNF-α were significantly increased in hydrogen-rich saline group at PIH 6 and 24 (<iP</i&lt;0.05 or <iP</i&lt;0.01), and the mRNA expression level of IL-6 was significantly increased in hydrogen-rich saline group at PIH 6 (<iP</i&lt;0.01). Compared with those at the corresponding time points in burn group, except for the mRNA expression level of TNF-α in hydrogen-rich saline group at PIH 6 showed no significant differences (<iP</i&gt;0.05), and the mRNA expression levels of TNF-α, IL-1β, and IL-6 at the other time points in hydrogen-rich saline group were significantly decreased (<iP</i&lt;0.05). (5) Compared with 0.39±0.03 in sham injury group at PIH 72, the protein expression of HMGB1 of rats in burn group at PIH 6, 24, and 72 (1.19±0.07, 1.00±0.06, 0.80±0.05) were significantly increased (<iP</i&lt;0.05), while the protein expression of HMGB1 of rats in hydrogen-rich saline group at PIH 6, 24, and 72 (0.35±0.08, 0.47±0.06, 0.42±0.06) showed no significant differences (<iP</i&gt;0.05). Compared with those in burn group, the protein expressions of HMGB1 of rats in hydrogen-rich saline group at PIH 6, 24, and 72 were significantly decreased (<iP</i&lt;0.05). <bConclusions:</b Hydrogen-rich saline can alleviate the acute kidney injury in severely burned rats through regulating the release of inflammatory cytokines in renal tissue.

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People living with HIV have high rates of anal human papillomavirus infection and anal precancer/cancer. This study aims to: 1) determine human papillomavirus subtype distribution among people living with HIV with anal high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions; 2) compare the clinicopathological characteristics of patients with anal high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions by human papillomavirus 16 status; and 3) investigate high-risk human papillomavirus negative anal high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion cases. In this retrospective study, 700 people living with HIV who have biopsy-proven anal high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions were reviewed for demographics, cytological diagnoses, and human papillomavirus testing results for human papillomavirus 16, 18, and 12 other high-risk types. For human papillomavirus-negative subjects, corresponding biopsies were genotyped by using real-time polymerase chain reaction. This study was conducted in a large urban HIV clinic system and major referral center for anal cancer screening. Median age was 46 years (range, 20-76). Ninety-one percent of the patients were men who have sex with men. The primary outcome measure was the association between demographic variables and human papillomavirus 16 status. Anal cytology was unsatisfactory (5%), benign (13%), atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (35%), low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (36%), and high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (11%). Human papillomavirus cotesting results were negative (n = 38, 5%), human papillomavirus 16 (n = 303, 43%), human papillomavirus 18 (n = 78, 11%), or exclusively non-16/18 types (n = 281, 40%). Human papillomavirus 16 positivity was associated with ≥3 high-grade lesions and ≥ low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion cytology (p &lt; 0.001). Age, race/ethnicity, sex, smoking, CD4+ T-cell count, and HIV viral load did not differ by status of human papillomavirus 16 (p &gt; 0.05). For human papillomavirus-negative cases, human papillomavirus genotyping of biopsies was positive for high-risk (n = 14, 36%) or possibly carcinogenic types (n = 12, 32%), or negative (n = 12, 32%). This was a retrospective data analysis, and it pooled the results for 12 high-risk human papillomavirus types rather than individual types. Nearly all people living with HIV and anal high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions test positive for high-risk human papillomavirus on anal swabs; negative results may be due to sampling error, L1-based polymerase chain reaction assay, or human papillomavirus types not captured by standard clinical assays. Patients who have human papillomavirus 16-positive anal high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions are indistinguishable from others based on demographic and clinical characteristics, underscoring the potential role of human papillomavirus testing for anal cancer screening. See Video Abstract at http://links.lww.com/DCR/B208. PACIENTES PORTADORES DE VIH CON PRECURSORES DE CÁNCER DE ANO: CARACTERÍSTICAS CLINICOPATOLÓGICAS Y DISTRIBUCIÓN DEL SUBTIPO VPH: Los pacientes portadores de VIH tienen altas tasas de infección por VPH y alto riesgo de desarrolar lesiones precáncerosas / cáncerosas del ano.(1) Determinar la distribución del subtipo de VPH entre las personas portadoras de VIH con lesiones intraepiteliales escamosas anales de alto grado. (2) Comparar las características clinicopatológicas de pacientes con lesiones intraepiteliales escamosas anales de alto grado del subtipo VPH 16. (3) Investigar casos de lesiones intraepiteliales escamosas anales de alto grado negativas para el VPH de alto riesgo.Estudio retrospectivo sobre 700 personas portadoras de VIH con lesiones intraepiteliales escamosas anales de alto grado confirmadas por biopsia. Los datos fueron revisados para determinar información demográfica, diagnósticos citológicos y resultados de tipización en el VPH subtipos 16 y 18, y otros 12 tipos de alto riesgo. Para los individuos negativos al VPH, se analizó el genotipo en las biopsias correspondientes mediante test de PCR en tiempo real.Extenso sistema de clinicas urbanas tratando VIH y un importante centro de referencia para la detección del cáncer analla mediana de edad poblacional fue de 46 años (rango, 20-76). 91% eran hombres que tenían sexo con hombres.Asociación entre las variables demográficas y el estado del VPH subtipo16.la citología anal fue insatisfactoria (5%), benigna (13%), células escamosas atípicas de importancia indeterminada (35%), lesión intraepitelial escamosa de bajo grado (36%) y lesiones intraepiteliales escamosas de alto grado (11%). Los resultados de la prueba conjunta del VPH fueron negativos (n = 38, 5%), el virus del VPH subtipo 16 (n = 303, 43%), el VPH subtipo 18 (n = 78, 11%) o los subtipos exclusivamente no 16/18 (n = 281, 40%). La positividad del VPH subtipo 16 se encotraba asociado con ≥3 lesiones de alto grado y ≥ células escamosas atípicas en la prueba de citología de indeterminada importancia (p &lt; 0.001). La edad, la raza / etnia, el sexo, el tabaquismo, el recuento de células T CD4 + y la carga viral del VIH no difirieron según el estado del VPH subtipo 16 (p &gt; 0.05). Para los casos negativos al VPH, el genotipo del virus del papiloma humano de las biopsias fue positivo para los tipos de alto riesgo (n = 14, 36%) o posiblemente carcinogénicos (n = 12, 32%), o negativo (n = 12, 32%).Análisis de datos retrospectivos, con resultados agrupados para 12 tipos de VPH de alto riesgo en lugar de tipos individuales.Casi todas las personas portadoras de VIH con lesiones intraepiteliales escamosas anales de alto grado dan positivo para el VPH de alto riesgo al muestreo de hisopos anales; Los resultados negativos pueden deberse a un error en el muestreo y al análisis de PCR basado en L1 o subtipos de VPH no obtenidos en los ensayos clínicos estándar. Los pacientes con lesiones intraepiteliales escamosas anales de alto grado positivas para el VPH subtipo 16 no son identificables de los demás, en función de las características demográficas y clínicas, lo que minimiza el rol potencial de la prueba del VPH en la detección del cáncer anal. Consulte Video Resumen en http://links.lww.com/DCR/B208. (Traducción-Dr. Xavier Delgadillo).

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Retinal detachment (RD) with proliferative vitreoretinopathy (PVR) often requires surgery to restore normal anatomy and to stabilize or improve vision. PVR usually occurs in association with recurrent RD (that is, after initial retinal re-attachment surgery), but occasionally may be associated with primary RD. Either way, for both circumstances a tamponade agent (gas or silicone oil) is needed during surgery to reduce the rate of postoperative recurrent RD. The objective of this review was to assess the relative safety and effectiveness of various tamponade agents used with surgery for RD complicated by PVR. We searched CENTRAL (which contains the Cochrane Eyes and Vision Trials Register) (the Cochrane Library 2019, Issue 1), Ovid MEDLINE, Ovid MEDLINE In-Process and Other Non-Indexed Citations, Ovid MEDLINE Daily, Ovid OLDMEDLINE (January 1946 to January 2019), Embase (January 1980 to January 2019), Latin American and Caribbean Literature on Health Sciences (LILACS) (January 1982 to January 2019), the metaRegister of Controlled Trials (mRCT) (www.controlled-trials.com), ClinicalTrials.gov (www.clinicaltrials.gov) and the WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) (www.who.int/ictrp/search/en). We did not use any date or language restrictions in the electronic searches for trials. We last searched the electronic databases on 2 January 2019. We included randomized controlled trials (RCTs) on participants undergoing surgery for RD associated with PVR that compared various tamponade agents. Two review authors screened the search results independently. We used the standard methodological procedures expected by Cochrane. We identified four RCTs (601 participants) that provided data for the primary and secondary outcomes. Three RCTs provided data on visual acuity, two reported on macular attachment, one on retinal reattachment and another two on adverse events such as RD, worsening visual acuity and intraocular pressure. Study Characteristics Participants' characteristics varied across studies and across intervention groups, with an age range between 21 to 89 years, and were predominantly men. The Silicone Study was conducted in the USA and consisted of two RCTs: (silicone oil versus sulfur hexafluoride (SF<sub6</sub) gas tamponades; 151 participants) and (silicone oil versus perfluropropane (C<sub3</subF<sub8</sub) gas tamponades; 271 participants). The third RCT compared heavy silicone oil (a mixture of perfluorohexyloctane (F<sub6</subH<sub8</sub) and silicone oil) with standard silicone oil (either 1000 centistokes or 5000 centistokes; 94 participants). The fourth RCT compared 1000 centistokes with 5000 centistokes silicone oil in 85 participants. We assessed most RCTs at low or unclear risk of bias for most 'Risk of bias' domains. Findings Although SF<sub6</sub gas was reported to be associated with worse anatomic and visual outcomes than was silicone oil at one year (quantitative data not reported), at two years, silicone oil compared to SF<sub6</sub gas showed no evidence of a difference in visual acuity (33% versus 51%; risk ratio (RR) 1.57; 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.93 to 2.66; 1 RCT, 87 participants; low-certainty evidence). At one year, another RCT comparing silicone oil and C<sub3</subF<sub8</sub gas found no evidence of a difference in visual acuity between the two groups (41% versus 39%; RR 0.97; 95% CI 0.73 to 1.31; 1 RCT, 264 participants; low-certainty evidence). In a third RCT, participants treated with standard silicone oil compared to those receiving heavy silicone oil also showed no evidence of a difference in the change in visual acuity at one year, measured on logMAR scale ( mean difference -0.03 logMAR; 95% CI -0.35 to 0.29; 1 RCT; 93 participants; low-certainty evidence). The fourth RCT with 5000-centistoke and 1000-centistoke comparisons did not report data on visual acuity. For macular attachment, participants treated with silicone oil may probably experience more favorable outcomes than did participants who received SF<sub6</sub at both one year (quantitative data not reported) and two years (58% versus 79%; RR 1.37; 95% CI 1.01 to 1.86; 1 RCT; 87 participants; low-certainty evidence). In another RCT, silicone oil compared to C<sub3</subF<sub8</sub at one year found no evidence of difference in macular attachment (RR 1.00; 95% CI 0.86 to 1.15; 1 RCT, 264 participants; low-certainty evidence). One RCT that compared 5000 centistokes to 1000 centistoke reported that retinal reattachment was successful in 67 participants (78.8%) with first surgery and 79 participants (92.9%) with the second surgery, and no evidence of between-group difference (1 RCT; 85 participants; low-certainty evidence). The fourth RCT that compared standard silicone oil with heavy silicone oil did not report on macular attachment. Adverse events In one RCT (86 participants), those receiving standard 1000 centistoke silicone oil compared with those of the 5000 centistoke silicone oil showed no evidence of a difference in intraocular pressure elevation at 18 months (24% versus 22%; RR 0.90; 95% CI 0.41 to 1.94; low-certainty evidence), visually significant cataract (49% versus 64%; RR 1.30; 95% CI 0.89 to 1.89; low-certainty evidence), and incidence of retina detachment after the removal of silicone oil (RR 0.36 95% CI 0.08 to 1.67; low-certainty evidence). Another RCT that compared standard silicone oil with heavy silicone oil suggests no difference in retinal detachment at one year (25% versus 22%; RR 0.89; 95% CI 0.54 to 1.48; 1 RCT; 186 participants; low-certainty evidence). Retinal detachment was not reported in the RCTs that compared silicone oil versus SF<sub6</sub and silicone oil versus to C<sub3</subF<sub8</sub. There do not appear to be any major differences in outcomes between C<sub3</subF<sub8</sub and silicone oil. Silicone oil may be better than SF<sub6</sub for macular attachment and other short-term outcomes. The choice of a tamponade agent should be individualized for each patient. The use of either C<sub3</subF<sub8</sub or standard silicone oil appears reasonable for most patients with RD associated with PVR. Heavy silicone oil, which is not available for routine clinical use in the USA, may not demonstrate evidence of superiority over standard silicone oil.

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