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Direct evidence of allele-specific binding of CTCF and MeCP2 to Tsix in a HPRT-deficient female F₁ hybrid mouse cell line. Mammalian dosage compensation requires silencing of one of the two X chromosomes in females and is controlled by the X inactivation center (Xic). Xic contains many of the regulatory elements for the mutual interplay of X-inactive specific transcript (Xist) and Tsix, the antisense counterpart of Xist. The regulatory elements control X chromosome inactivation (XCI) via the formation of DNA-DNA and DNA-protein complexes with cis- and trans-acting factors. However, the process-dependent regulation of Xist/Tsix by these elements in each XCI process remains largely unknown. In this study, a 6-thioguanine-resistant female F(1) hybrid mouse cell line (designated HOBMSKI2) was constructed from a cross between a female HPRT-deficient transgenic mouse (designated BM3) and a male wild type Mus spretus mouse (designated MS), which enabled the direct discrimination of both allele-specific expression of X-linked genes and allele-specific binding of proteins associated with XCI due to DNA polymorphisms between BM3 and MS. Using this cell line, we found that Tsix on the active X chromosome (Xa) was not expressed in somatic cells despite the fact that CTCF, which ensures Tsix expression in embryonic stem cells, was still bound to the 5' end of Tsix on Xa, implying that CTCF may function differently during each XCI process and its trans-activating activity for Tsix expression may be lost in the maintenance process. In addition, the monoallelic expression of Tsix on Xa was inhibited by epigenetic modification of the chromatin in the maintenance process, which was mediated by protein complexes recruited by MeCP2. The results indicate the value of HOBMSKI2 in directly detecting the allele-specific binding of CTCF and MeCP2 to the 5' end of Tsix. The HOBMSKI2 mouse line is a versatile and useful resource for studying the molecular mechanism of the XCI process.

Which is the transcript responsible for X-chromosome inactivation?

5353aedb288f4dae47000006_010

[Progress in molecular chorea diagnosis. McLeod syndrome and chorea acanthocytosis]. McLeod syndrome and chorea-acanthocytosis are classified with the so-called neuroacanthocytosis group of syndromes. Both lead to progressive basal ganglia degeneration and were not easily distinguished in the past. With the discovery of their molecular bases, mutations of the X-linked gene XK and autosomal recessive mutations of the gene coding for chorein, respectively, the two phenotypes can now be differentiated and extend the diagnostic spectrum in patients presenting with chorea. The present review compares the two conditions and proposes a practical approach to diagnosis and treatment. Better-defined disease concepts should eventually replace the umbrella term of "neuroacanthocytosis." Animal models are needed to understand the underlying mechanisms. A final common pathway is likely for the pathogenesis of these conditions and is most probably shared with Huntington's disease.

Mutation of which gene is associated with McLeod syndrome?

531464a6e3eabad021000014_043

Molecular basis of congenital hypopigmentary disorders in humans: a review. Many specific gene products are sequentially made and utilized by the melanocyte as it emigrates from its embryonic origin, migrates into specific target sites, synthesizes melanin(s) within a specialized organelle, transfers pigment granules to neighboring cells, and responds to various exogenous cues. A mutation in many of the respective encoding genes can disrupt this process of melanogenesis and can result in hypopigmentary disorders. Following are examples highlighting this scenario. A subset of neural crest derived cells emigrate from the dorsal surface of the neural tube, become committed to the melanoblast lineage, and are targeted along the dorsal lateral pathway. The specific transcription factors PAX3 and MITF (microphthalmia transcription factor) appear to play a regulatory role in early embryonic development of the pigment system and in associated diseases (the Waardenburg syndromes). During the subsequent development and commitment of the melanoblast, concomitant expression of the receptors for fibroblasts growth factor (FGFR2), endothelin-B (EDNRB), and steel factor (cKIT) also appears essential for the continued survival of migrating melanoblasts. Lack or dysfunction of these receptors result in Apert syndrome, Hirschsprung syndrome and piebaldism, respectively. Once the melanocyte resides in its target tissue, a plethora of melanocyte specific enzymes and structural proteins are coordinately expressed to form the melanosome and to convert tyrosine to melanin within it. Mutations in the genes encoding these proteins results in a family of congenital hypopigmentary diseases called oculocutaneous albinism (OCA). The tyrosinase gene family of proteins (tyrosinase, TRP1, and TRP2) regulate the type of eumelanin synthesized and mutations affecting them result in OCA1, OCA3, and slaty (in the murine system), respectively. The P protein, with 12 transmembrane domains localized to the melanosome, has no assigned function as of yet but is responsible for OCA2 when dysfunctional. There are other genetically based syndromes, phenotypically resembling albinism, in which the synthesis of pigmented melanosomes, as well as specialized organelles of other cell types, is compromised. The Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome (HPS) and the Chediak-Higashi syndrome (CHS) are two such disorders. Eventually, the functional melanocyte must be maintained in the tissue throughout life. In some cases it is lost either normally or prematurely. White hair results in the absence of melanocytes repopulating the germinative hair follicle during subsequent anagen stages. Vitiligo, in contrast, results from the destruction and removal of the melanocyte in the epidermis and mucous membranes.

Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?

58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_107

Regulation and functions of ADAR in drosophila. Drosophila melanogaster has a single Adar gene encoding a protein related to mammalian ADAR2 that edits transcripts encoding glutamate receptor subunits. We describe the structure of the Drosophila Adar locus and use ModENCODE information to supplement published data on Adar gene transcription, and splicing. We discuss the roles of ADAR in Drosophila in terms of the two main types of RNA molecules edited and roles of ADARs as RNA-binding proteins. Site-specific RNA editing events in transcripts encoding ion channel subunits were initially found serendipitously and subsequent directed searches for editing sites and transcriptome sequencing have now led to 972 edited sites being identified in 597 transcripts. Four percent of D. melanogaster transcripts are site-specifically edited and these encode a wide range of largely membrane-associated proteins expressed particularly in CNS. Electrophysiological studies on the effects of specific RNA editing events on ion channel subunits do not suggest that loss of RNA editing events in ion channels consistently produce a particular outcome such as making Adar mutant neurons more excitable. This possibility would have been consistent with neurodegeneration seen in Adar mutant fly brains. A further set of ADAR targets are dsRNA intermediates in siRNA generation, derived from transposons and from structured RNA loci. Transcripts with convergent overlapping 3' ends are also edited and the first discovered instance of RNA editing in Drosophila, in the Rnp4F transcript, is an example. There is no evidence yet to show that Adar antagonizes RNA interference in Drosophila. Evidence has been obtained that catalytically inactive ADAR proteins exert effects on microRNA generation and RNA interference. Whether all effects of inactive ADARs are due to RNA-binding or to even further roles of these proteins remains to be determined.

Which is the major RNA editing enzyme in Drosophila melanogaster?

58e9e7aa3e8b6dc87c00000d_025

A new cardioprotective agent, JTV519, improves defective channel gating of ryanodine receptor in heart failure. Defective interaction between FKBP12.6 and ryanodine receptors (RyR) is a possible cause of cardiac dysfunction in heart failure (HF). Here, we assess whether the new cardioprotective agent JTV519 can correct it in tachycardia-induced HF. HF was induced in dogs by 4-wk rapid ventricular pacing, and sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) was isolated from left ventricular muscles. In failing SR, JTV519 increased the rate of Ca(2+) release and [(3)H]ryanodine binding. RyR were then labeled in a site-directed fashion with the fluorescent conformational probe methylcoumarin acetamide. In failing SR, the polylysine induced a rapid change in methylcoumarin acetamide fluorescence, presumably because the channel opening preceding the Ca(2+) release was smaller than in normal SR (consistent with a decreased rate of Ca(2+) release in failing SR), and JTV519 increased it. In conclusion, JTV519, a new 1,4-benzothiazepine derivative, corrected the defective channel gating in RyR (increase in both the rapid conformational change and the subsequent Ca(2+) release rate) in HF.

The drug JTV519 is derivative of which group of chemical compounds?

54f9b74306d9727f76000004_018

iLIR database: A web resource for LIR motif-containing proteins in eukaryotes. Atg8-family proteins are the best-studied proteins of the core autophagic machinery. They are essential for the elongation and closure of the phagophore into a proper autophagosome. Moreover, Atg8-family proteins are associated with the phagophore from the initiation of the autophagic process to, or just prior to, the fusion between autophagosomes with lysosomes. In addition to their implication in autophagosome biogenesis, they are crucial for selective autophagy through their ability to interact with selective autophagy receptor proteins necessary for the specific targeting of substrates for autophagic degradation. In the past few years it has been revealed that Atg8-interacting proteins include not only receptors but also components of the core autophagic machinery, proteins associated with vesicles and their transport, and specific proteins that are selectively degraded by autophagy. Atg8-interacting proteins contain a short linear LC3-interacting region/LC3 recognition sequence/Atg8-interacting motif (LIR/LRS/AIM) motif which is responsible for their interaction with Atg8-family proteins. These proteins are referred to as LIR-containing proteins (LIRCPs). So far, many experimental efforts have been carried out to identify new LIRCPs, leading to the characterization of some of them in the past 10 years. Given the need for the identification of LIRCPs in various organisms, we developed the iLIR database ( https://ilir.warwick.ac.uk ) as a freely available web resource, listing all the putative canonical LIRCPs identified in silico in the proteomes of 8 model organisms using the iLIR server, combined with a Gene Ontology (GO) term analysis. Additionally, a curated text-mining analysis of the literature permitted us to identify novel putative LICRPs in mammals that have not previously been associated with autophagy.

Which web resource for LIR motif-containing proteins in eukaryotes has been developed?

5a8056a2faa1ab7d2e00001f_001

[Cryptococcal meningitis]. BACKGROUND: Cryptococcus neoformans causes systemic disease in patients with immunodeficiency. The incidence of cryptococcal meningitis has increased in parallel with that of HIV infection. Cancer is also a known predisposing factor. MATERIAL AND METHODS: We present two case reports and a review of the literature concerning the epidemiology, diagnostics and treatment of cryptococcal meningitis. RESULTS: The incidence of cryptococcal meningitis in Scandinavia seems to be lower than in other parts of the world. Clinical signs and symptoms are often uncharacteristic. Detection of antigen in spinal fluid is a sensitive and fast test. INTERPRETATION: Cryptococcal meningitis is a rare disease, often with uncharacteristic symptoms. Patients with haematological malignancies have a higher risk of contracting this disease. It is a differential diagnosis when neurological symptoms occur in these patients.

Which is the main reason for the increase in the incidence of cryptococcal disease?

5ace37d50340b9f058000011_010

Breast cancer phenotype in women with TP53 germline mutations: a Li-Fraumeni syndrome consortium effort. Breast cancer is the most common tumor in women with Li-Fraumeni Syndrome (LFS), an inherited cancer syndrome associated with germline mutations in the TP53 tumor suppressor gene. Their lifetime breast cancer risk is 49% by age 60. Breast cancers in TP53 mutation carriers recently have more often been reported to be hormone receptor and HER-2 positive by immunohistochemistry and FISH in small series. We seek to complement the existing small literature with this report of a histopathologic analysis of breast cancers from women with documented LFS. Unstained slides and paraffin-embedded tumor blocks from breast cancers from 39 germline TP53 mutation carriers were assembled from investigators in the LFS consortium. Central histology review was performed on 93% of the specimens by a single breast pathologist from a major university hospital. Histology, grade, and hormone receptor status were assessed by immunohistochemistry; HER-2 status was defined by immunohistochemistry and/or FISH. The 43 tumors from 39 women comprise 32 invasive ductal carcinomas and 11 ductal carcinomas in situ (DCIS). No other histologies were observed. The median age at diagnosis was 32 years (range 22-46). Of the invasive cancers, 84% were positive for ER and/or PR; and 81% were high grade. Sixty three percent of invasive and 73% of in situ carcinomas were positive for Her2/neu (IHC 3+ or FISH amplified). Of the invasive tumors, 53% were positive for both ER and HER2+; other ER/PR/HER2 combinations were observed. The DCIS were positive for ER and HER2 in 27% of the cases. This report of the phenotype of breast cancers from women with LFS nearly doubles the literature on this topic. Most DCIS and invasive ductal carcinomas in LFS are hormone receptor positive and/or HER-2 positive. These findings suggest that modern treatments may result in improved outcomes for women with LFS-associated breast cancer.

What is the usual HER-2 status in breast cancer associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

52f21b722059c6d71c00000b_003

[Psychological Treatments for Borderline Personality Disorder: A Review of Cognitive-Behavioral Oriented Therapies]. INTRODUCTION: Borderline personality disorder is the most common personality disorder, with a global prevalence rate between 1.6% and 6%. It is characterized by affective disturbance and impulsivity, which lead to a high number of self-harm behaviors and great amount of health services use. International guidelines recommend psychotherapy as the primary treatment for borderline personality disorder. This paper reviews evidence about the effects and efficacy of cognitive-behavioral oriented psychological treatments for borderline personality disorder. MATERIAL AND METHODS: A literature review was conducted in Medline and PubMed databases, using the following keywords: borderline personality disorder, cognitive-behavioral psychotherapy and efficacy. RESULTS: Sixteen randomized clinical trials were evaluate in this review, which analyzed the effects of several cognitive-behavioral oriented psychotherapeutic interventions, namely dialectical behavioral therapy, cognitive behavioral therapy, schema-focused therapy and manual-assisted cognitive therapy. All above stated treatments showed clinical beneficial effects, by reducing borderline personality disorder core pathology and associated general psychopathology, as well as by reducing the severity and frequency of self-harm behaviors, and by improving the overall social, interpersonal and global adjustment. Dialectical behavioral therapy and schema-focused therapy also caused a soaring remission rate of diagnostic borderline personality disorder criteria of 57% and 94%, respectively. DISCUSSION: Although there were differences between the psychotherapeutic interventions analysed in this review, all showed clinical benefits in the treatment of borderline personality disorder. Dialectical behavioral therapy and schema-focused therapy presented the strongest scientific data documenting their efficacy, but both interventions are integrative cognitive-behavioral therapies which deviate from the traditional cognitive-behavioral model. CONCLUSION: In summary, the available studies support cognitive-behavioral psychological treatments as an efficacious intervention in borderline personality disorder. However, the existing scientific literature on this topic is still scarce and there is need for more studies, with higher methodological rigor, that should validate these results.

Which personality disorder is treated using dialectical behavior therapy?

5a68f005b750ff4455000016_011

Periodic limb movement disorder : a clinical and polysomnographic study. Periodic limb movement disorder (PLMD) is one of the commonest neurological disorders and causes significant disability, if left untreated. However, it is rarely diagnosed in clinical practice, probably due to lack of awareness and/or lack of necessary diagnostic facilities. Restless leg syndrome (RLS), aging, pregnancy, uraemia, iron deficiency, polyneuropathy are some of the common causes of secondary PLMD. Clinical presentation, polysomnographic findings and management of six patients of PLMD have been discussed in this report.

Which deficiency is the cause of restless leg syndrome?

530cefaaad0bf1360c000012_023

Degeneration of serotonergic neurons in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis: a link to spasticity. Spasticity is a common and disabling symptom observed in patients with central nervous system diseases, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, a disease affecting both upper and lower motor neurons. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spasticity is traditionally thought to be the result of degeneration of the upper motor neurons in the cerebral cortex, although degeneration of other neuronal types, in particular serotonergic neurons, might also represent a cause of spasticity. We performed a pathology study in seven patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and six control subjects and observed that central serotonergic neurons suffer from a degenerative process with prominent neuritic degeneration, and sometimes loss of cell bodies in patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Moreover, distal serotonergic projections to spinal cord motor neurons and hippocampus systematically degenerated in patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. In SOD1 (G86R) mice, a transgenic model of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, serotonin levels were decreased in brainstem and spinal cord before onset of motor symptoms. Furthermore, there was noticeable atrophy of serotonin neuronal cell bodies along with neuritic degeneration at disease onset. We hypothesized that degeneration of serotonergic neurons could underlie spasticity in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and investigated this hypothesis in vivo using tail muscle spastic-like contractions in response to mechanical stimulation as a measure of spasticity. In SOD1 (G86R) mice, tail muscle spastic-like contractions were observed at end-stage. Importantly, they were abolished by 5-hydroxytryptamine-2b/c receptors inverse agonists. In line with this, 5-hydroxytryptamine-2b receptor expression was strongly increased at disease onset. In all, we show that serotonergic neurons degenerate during amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, and that this might underlie spasticity in mice. Further research is needed to determine whether inverse agonists of 5-hydroxytryptamine-2b/c receptors could be of interest in treating spasticity in patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

Which type of cells is affected in Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis?

56c8274f5795f9a73e00000d_005

Histone variant H2A.Z regulates centromere silencing and chromosome segregation in fission yeast. The incorporation of histone variant H2A.Z into nucleosomes plays essential roles in regulating chromatin structure and gene expression. A multisubunit complex containing chromatin remodeling protein Swr1 is responsible for the deposition of H2A.Z in budding yeast and mammals. Here, we show that the JmjC domain protein Msc1 is a novel component of the fission yeast Swr1 complex and is required for Swr1-mediated incorporation of H2A.Z into nucleosomes at gene promoters. Loss of Msc1, Swr1, or H2A.Z results in loss of silencing at centromeres and defective chromosome segregation, although centromeric levels of CENP-A, a centromere-specific histone H3 variant that is required for setting up the chromatin structure at centromeres, remain unchanged. Intriguingly, H2A.Z is required for the expression of another centromere protein, CENP-C, and overexpression of CENP-C rescues centromere silencing defects associated with H2A.Z loss. These results demonstrate the importance of H2A.Z and CENP-C in maintaining a silenced chromatin state at centromeres.

Which protein mediates the replacement of H2A by H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?

58a6db8660087bc10a00002c_031

Mortality in children with severe epilepsy: 10 years of follow-up. Epilepsy is the main neurological condition in children and adolescents. Unfortunately patients with medical refractory epilepsy are more susceptible for clinical complications and death. We report a prospectively evaluated cohort of children followed for approximately 10 years. Fifty-three of 1012 patients died. Forty-two patients died due to epilepsy or its clinical complications and the main causes of death were pneumonia (in 16 cases), sepsis (in 9 patients), status epilepticus (in 8 patients). In 11 patients cause of death was sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP). Mental retardation was significantly more frequent in patients who did not die from SUDEP. SUDEP may be a significant condition associated with mortality in children and adolescents with epilepsy.

What condition is usually represented by the acronym SUDEP?

58dbb8968acda3452900001b_006

Enhancer evolution across 20 mammalian species. The mammalian radiation has corresponded with rapid changes in noncoding regions of the genome, but we lack a comprehensive understanding of regulatory evolution in mammals. Here, we track the evolution of promoters and enhancers active in liver across 20 mammalian species from six diverse orders by profiling genomic enrichment of H3K27 acetylation and H3K4 trimethylation. We report that rapid evolution of enhancers is a universal feature of mammalian genomes. Most of the recently evolved enhancers arise from ancestral DNA exaptation, rather than lineage-specific expansions of repeat elements. In contrast, almost all liver promoters are partially or fully conserved across these species. Our data further reveal that recently evolved enhancers can be associated with genes under positive selection, demonstrating the power of this approach for annotating regulatory adaptations in genomic sequences. These results provide important insight into the functional genetics underpinning mammalian regulatory evolution.

Are human enhancers or promoters evolving faster?

5ac3699f0340b9f058000001_004

L-leucine increases [3H]-thymidine incorporation in chicken hepatocytes: involvement of the PKC, PI3K/Akt, ERK1/2, and mTOR signaling pathways. This study examined how L-leucine affected DNA synthesis and cell cycle regulatory protein expression in cultured primary chicken hepatocytes. L-Leucine promoted DNA synthesis in a dose- and time-dependent manner, with concomitant increases in cyclin D1 and cyclin E expression. Phospholipase C (PLC) and protein kinase C (PKC) mediated the L-leucine-induced increases in [3H]-thymidine incorporation and cyclin D1/CDK4 and cyclin E/CDK2 expression, as U73122 (a PLC inhibitor) or bisindolylmaleimide I (a PKC blocker) inhibited these effects. L-Leucine also increased PKC phosphorylation and intracellular Ca2+ levels. L-Leucine-mediated increases in [3H]-thymidine incorporation and cyclin/CDK expression were sensitive to LY 294002 (PI3K inhibitor), Akt inhibitor, PD 98059 (MEK inhibitor). It was also observed that L-leucine-induced increases of cyclin/CDK expression were inhibited by PI3K siRNA and ERK siRNA; L-leucine increased extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1/2 (ERK1/2) and Akt phosphorylation levels. Bisindolylmaleimide I attenuated L-leucine-induced phosphorylation of ERK1/2 but did not influence Akt phosphorylation, and PI3K siRNA and LY 294002 inhibited L-leucine-induced ERK1/2 phosphorylation, suggesting some cross-talk between the PKC and ERK1/2 or PI3K/Akt and ERK1/2 pathways. L-Leucine also increased the levels of phosphorylated molecular target of rapamycin (mTOR) and two of its targets, ribosomal protein S6 kinase (p70S6K), and 4E binding protein 1 (4E-BP1); furthermore, rapamycin (an mTOR inhibitor) blocked all of the mitogenic effects of L-leucine. In addition, Akt inhibitor blocked L-leucine-induced mTOR phosphorylation. In conclusion, L-leucine stimulated DNA synthesis and promoted cell cycle progression in primary cultured chicken hepatocytes through PKC, ERK1/2, PI3K/Akt, and mTOR.

Which is the molecular target of the immunosuppressant drug Rapamycin?

53124bdae3eabad02100000b_005

The Na+/Ca2+ exchanger-mediated Ca2+ influx triggers nitric oxide-induced cytotoxicity in cultured astrocytes. Nitric oxide (NO) is involved in many pathological conditions including neurodegenerative disorders. We have previously found that sodium nitroprusside (SNP), an NO donor, stimulates mitogen-activated protein kinases (MAPKs) such as extracellular signal-regulating kinase (ERK), c-jun N-terminal protein kinase (JNK) and p38 MAPK, leading to caspase-independent apoptosis in cultured astrocytes. In view of the previous observation that NO stimulates the activity of the Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger (NCX), this study examines the involvement of NCX in cytotoxicity. The specific NCX inhibitor SEA0400 blocked SNP-induced phosphorylation of ERK, JNK and p38 MAPK, and decrease in cell viability. SNP-induced phosphorylation of ERK, JNK and p38 MAPK was blocked by removal of external Ca(2+), and SNP treatment caused an increase in (45)Ca(2+) influx. This increase in (45)Ca(2+) influx was blocked by SEA0400, but not the Ca(2+) channel blocker nifedipine. In addition, SNP-induced (45)Ca(2+) influx and cytotoxicity were reduced in NCX1-deficient cells which were transfected with NCX1 siRNA. Inhibitors of intracellular Ca(2+)-dependent proteins such as calpain and calmodulin blocked SNP-induced ERK phosphorylation and decrease in cell viability. Furthermore, the guanylate cyclase inhibitor LY83583 and the cGMP-dependent protein kinase inhibitor KT5823 blocked SNP-induced cytotoxicity. These findings suggest that NCX-mediated Ca(2+) influx triggers SNP-induced apoptosis in astrocytes, which may be mediated by a cGMP-dependent pathway.

The small molecule SEA0400 is an inhibitor of which ion antiporter/exchanger?

5506c3e38e1671127b00000a_023

Limb-Enhancer Genie: An accessible resource of accurate enhancer predictions in the developing limb. Epigenomic mapping of enhancer-associated chromatin modifications facilitates the genome-wide discovery of tissue-specific enhancers in vivo. However, reliance on single chromatin marks leads to high rates of false-positive predictions. More sophisticated, integrative methods have been described, but commonly suffer from limited accessibility to the resulting predictions and reduced biological interpretability. Here we present the Limb-Enhancer Genie (LEG), a collection of highly accurate, genome-wide predictions of enhancers in the developing limb, available through a user-friendly online interface. We predict limb enhancers using a combination of >50 published limb-specific datasets and clusters of evolutionarily conserved transcription factor binding sites, taking advantage of the patterns observed at previously in vivo validated elements. By combining different statistical models, our approach outperforms current state-of-the-art methods and provides interpretable measures of feature importance. Our results indicate that including a previously unappreciated score that quantifies tissue-specific nuclease accessibility significantly improves prediction performance. We demonstrate the utility of our approach through in vivo validation of newly predicted elements. Moreover, we describe general features that can guide the type of datasets to include when predicting tissue-specific enhancers genome-wide, while providing an accessible resource to the general biological community and facilitating the functional interpretation of genetic studies of limb malformations.

Which resource contains accurate enhancer predictions in the developing limb?

5a6d1733b750ff4455000030_001

One target-two different binding modes: structural insights into gevokizumab and canakinumab interactions to interleukin-1β. Interleukin-1β (IL-1β) is a key orchestrator in inflammatory and several immune responses. IL-1β exerts its effects through interleukin-1 receptor type I (IL-1RI) and interleukin-1 receptor accessory protein (IL-1RAcP), which together form a heterotrimeric signaling-competent complex. Canakinumab and gevokizumab are highly specific IL-1β monoclonal antibodies. Canakinumab is known to neutralize IL-1β by competing for binding to IL-1R and therefore blocking signaling by the antigen:antibody complex. Gevokizumab is claimed to be a regulatory therapeutic antibody that modulates IL-1β bioactivity by reducing the affinity for its IL-1RI:IL-1RAcP signaling complex. How IL-1β signaling is affected by both canakinumab and gevokizumab was not yet experimentally determined. We have analyzed the crystal structures of canakinumab and gevokizumab antibody binding fragment (Fab) as well as of their binary complexes with IL-1β. Furthermore, we characterized the epitopes on IL-1β employed by the antibodies by NMR epitope mapping studies. The direct comparison of NMR and X-ray data shows that the epitope defined by the crystal structure encompasses predominantly those residues whose NMR resonances are severely perturbed upon complex formation. The antigen:Fab co-structures confirm the previously identified key contact residues on IL-1β and provide insight into the mechanisms leading to their distinct modulation of IL-1β signaling. A significant steric overlap of the binding interfaces of IL-1R and canakinumab on IL-1β causes competitive inhibition of the association of IL-1β and its receptor. In contrast, gevokizumab occupies an allosteric site on IL-1β and complex formation results in a minor reduction of binding affinity to IL-1RI. This suggests two different mechanisms of IL-1β pathway attenuation.

Which molecule is targeted by the drug Gevokizumab?

550e828c71445a662f000002_012

Regulation of hTERT by BCR-ABL at multiple levels in K562 cells. BACKGROUND: The cytogenetic characteristic of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is the formation of the Philadelphia chromosome gene product, BCR-ABL. Given that BCR-ABL is the specific target of Gleevec in CML treatment, we investigated the regulation of the catalytic component of telomerase, hTERT, by BCR-ABL at multiple levels in K562 cells. METHODS: Molecular techniques such as over expression, knockdown, real-time PCR, immunoprecipitation, western blotting, reporter assay, confocal microscopy, telomerase assays and microarray were used to suggest that hTERT expression and activity is modulated by BCR-ABL at multiple levels. RESULTS: Our results suggest that BCR-ABL plays an important role in regulating hTERT in K562 (BCR-ABL positive human leukemia) cells. When Gleevec inhibited the tyrosine kinase activity of BCR-ABL, phosphorylation of hTERT was downregulated, therefore suggesting a positive correlation between BCR-ABL and hTERT. Gleevec treatment inhibited hTERT at mRNA level and significantly reduced telomerase activity (TA) in K562 cells, but not in HL60 or Jurkat cells (BCR-ABL negative cells). We also demonstrated that the transcription factor STAT5a plays a critical role in hTERT gene regulation in K562 cells. Knockdown of STAT5a, but not STAT5b, resulted in a marked downregulation of hTERT mRNA level, TA and hTERT protein level in K562 cells. Furthermore, translocation of hTERT from nucleoli to nucleoplasm was observed in K562 cells induced by Gleevec. CONCLUSIONS: Our data reveal that BCR-ABL can regulate TA at multiple levels, including transcription, post-translational level, and proper localization. Thus, suppression of cell growth and induction of apoptosis by Gleevec treatment may be partially due to TA inhibition. Additionally, we have identified STAT5a as critical mediator of the hTERT gene expression in BCR-ABL positive CML cells, suggesting that targeting STAT5a may be a promising therapeutic strategy for BCR-ABL positive CML patients.

What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?

5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_020

Human delta Np73 regulates a dominant negative feedback loop for TAp73 and p53. Inactivation of the tumour suppressor p53 is the most common defect in cancer cells. p53 is a sequence specific transcription factor that is activated in response to various forms of genotoxic stress to induce cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. Induction of p53 is subjected to complex and strict control through several pathways, as it will often determine cellular fate. The p73 protein shares strong structural and functional similarities with p53 such as the potential to activate p53 responsive genes and the ability to induce apoptosis. In addition to alternative splicing at the carboxyl terminus which yields several p73 isoforms, a p73 variant lacking the N-terminal transactivation domain (Delta Np73) was described in mice. In this study, we report the cloning and characterisation of the human Delta Np73 isoforms, their regulation by p53 and their possible role in carcinogenesis. As in mice, human Delta Np73 lacks the transactivation domain and starts with an alternative exon (exon 3'). Its expression is driven by a second promoter located in a genomic region upstream of this exon, supporting the idea of two independently regulated proteins, derived from the same gene. As anticipated, Delta Np73 is capable of regulating TAp73 and p53 function since it is able to block their transactivation activity and their ability to induce apoptosis. Interestingly, expression of the Delta Np73 is strongly up-regulated by the TA isoforms and by p53, thus creating a feedback loop that tightly regulates the function of TAp73 and more importantly of p53. The regulation of Delta Np73 is exerted through a p53 responsive element located on the Delta N promoter. Expression of Delta Np73 not only regulates the function of p53 and TAp73 but also shuts off its own expression, once again finely regulating the whole system. Our data also suggest that increased expression of Delta Np73, functionally inactivating p53, could be involved in tumorogenesis. An extensive analysis of the expression pattern of Delta Np73 in primary tumours would clarify this issue.

How many TAp73 isoforms have been identified in humans?

5173bdb38ed59a060a000020_088

Ewing sarcoma EWS protein regulates midzone formation by recruiting Aurora B kinase to the midzone. Ewing sarcoma is a malignant bone cancer that primarily occurs in children and adolescents. Eighty-five percent of Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the presence of the aberrant chimeric EWS/FLI1 fusion gene. Previously, we demonstrated that an interaction between EWS/FLI1 and wild-type EWS led to the inhibition of EWS activity and mitotic dysfunction. Although defective mitosis is considered to be a critical step in cancer initiation, it is unknown how interference with EWS contributes to Ewing sarcoma formation. Here, we demonstrate that EWS/FLI1- and EWS-knockdown cells display a high incidence of defects in the midzone, a midline structure located between segregating chromatids during anaphase. Defects in the midzone can lead to the failure of cytokinesis and can result in the induction of aneuploidy. The similarity among the phenotypes of EWS/FLI1- and EWS siRNA-transfected HeLa cells points to the inhibition of EWS as the key mechanism for the induction of midzone defects. Supporting this observation, the ectopic expression of EWS rescues the high incidence of midzone defects observed in Ewing sarcoma A673 cells. We discovered that EWS interacts with Aurora B kinase, and that EWS is also required for recruiting Aurora B to the midzone. A domain analysis revealed that the R565 in the RGG3 domain of EWS is essential for both Aurora B interaction and the recruitment of Aurora B to the midzone. Here, we propose that the impairment of EWS-dependent midzone formation via the recruitment of Aurora B is a potential mechanism of Ewing sarcoma development.

Which fusion protein is involved in the development of Ewing sarcoma?

552fac4fbc4f83e828000006_011

Necrobiosis lipoidica and diabetic control revisited. Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a rare skin disorder, usually considered a marker for diabetes mellitus. More than half of the patients with necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum have diabetes mellitus, but less than one per cent of diabetes mellitus patients have necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum. In the diabetes and dermatology literature, we find the position that there is no effect of glucose control on either the appearance of necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum or the clinical course of the lesion. We base our challenge to this position on a critical review of the original data. And conclude on the contrary, that necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is usually associated with poor glucose control and that tighter glucose control, as currently practised, might improve or prevent the disorder.

Which disease the skin condition Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is associated to?

58bfd8e902b8c60953000018_004

Targeting CD38 with Daratumumab Monotherapy in Multiple Myeloma. BACKGROUND: Multiple myeloma cells uniformly overexpress CD38. We studied daratumumab, a CD38-targeting, human IgG1κ monoclonal antibody, in a phase 1-2 trial involving patients with relapsed myeloma or relapsed myeloma that was refractory to two or more prior lines of therapy. METHODS: In part 1, the dose-escalation phase, we administered daratumumab at doses of 0.005 to 24 mg per kilogram of body weight. In part 2, the dose-expansion phase, 30 patients received 8 mg per kilogram of daratumumab and 42 received 16 mg per kilogram, administered once weekly (8 doses), twice monthly (8 doses), and monthly for up to 24 months. End points included safety, efficacy, and pharmacokinetics. RESULTS: No maximum tolerated dose was identified in part 1. In part 2, the median time since diagnosis was 5.7 years. Patients had received a median of four prior treatments; 79% of the patients had disease that was refractory to the last therapy received (64% had disease refractory to proteasome inhibitors and immunomodulatory drugs and 64% had disease refractory to bortezomib and lenalidomide), and 76% had received autologous stem-cell transplants. Infusion-related reactions in part 2 were mild (71% of patients had an event of any grade, and 1% had an event of grade 3), with no dose-dependent adverse events. The most common adverse events of grade 3 or 4 (in > 5% of patients) were pneumonia and thrombocytopenia. The overall response rate was 36% in the cohort that received 16 mg per kilogram (15 patients had a partial response or better, including 2 with a complete response and 2 with a very good partial response) and 10% in the cohort that received 8 mg per kilogram (3 had a partial response). In the cohort that received 16 mg per kilogram, the median progression-free survival was 5.6 months (95% confidence interval [CI], 4.2 to 8.1), and 65% (95% CI, 28 to 86) of the patients who had a response did not have progression at 12 months. CONCLUSIONS: Daratumumab monotherapy had a favorable safety profile and encouraging efficacy in patients with heavily pretreated and refractory myeloma. (Funded by Janssen Research and Development and Genmab; ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT00574288.).

What is the target of daratumumab?

5880aef4c872c95565000001_017

Altered ultrasonic vocalization in mice with a disruption in the Foxp2 gene. Neurobiology of speech and language has previously been studied in the KE family, in which half of the members have severe impairment in both speech and language. The gene responsible for the phenotype was mapped to chromosome 7q31 and identified as the FOXP2 gene, coding for a transcription factor containing a polyglutamine tract and a forkhead DNA-binding domain. Because of linkage studies implicating 7q31 in autism, where language impairment is a component of the disorder, and in specific language impairment, FOXP2 has also been considered as a potential susceptibility locus for the language deficits in autism and/or specific language impairment. In this study, we characterized mice with a disruption in the murine Foxp2 gene. Disruption of both copies of the Foxp2 gene caused severe motor impairment, premature death, and an absence of ultrasonic vocalizations that are elicited when pups are removed from their mothers. Disruption of a single copy of the gene led to modest developmental delay but a significant alteration in ultrasonic vocalization in response to such separation. Learning and memory appear normal in the heterozygous animals. Cerebellar abnormalities were observed in mice with disruptions in Foxp2, with Purkinje cells particularly affected. Our findings support a role for Foxp2 in cerebellar development and in a developmental process that subsumes social communication functions in diverse organisms.

Which gene is responsible for proper speech development?

5ace12be0340b9f058000007_008

The telomerase inhibitor imetelstat alone, and in combination with trastuzumab, decreases the cancer stem cell population and self-renewal of HER2+ breast cancer cells. Cancer stem cells (CSCs) are thought to be responsible for tumor progression, metastasis, and recurrence. HER2 overexpression is associated with increased CSCs, which may explain the aggressive phenotype and increased likelihood of recurrence for HER2(+) breast cancers. Telomerase is reactivated in tumor cells, including CSCs, but has limited activity in normal tissues, providing potential for telomerase inhibition in anti-cancer therapy. The purpose of this study was to investigate the effects of a telomerase antagonistic oligonucleotide, imetelstat (GRN163L), on CSC and non-CSC populations of HER2(+) breast cancer cell lines. The effects of imetelstat on CSC populations of HER2(+) breast cancer cells were measured by ALDH activity and CD44/24 expression by flow cytometry as well as mammosphere assays for functionality. Combination studies in vitro and in vivo were utilized to test for synergism between imetelstat and trastuzumab. Imetelstat inhibited telomerase activity in both subpopulations. Moreover, imetelstat alone and in combination with trastuzumab reduced the CSC fraction and inhibited CSC functional ability, as shown by decreased mammosphere counts and invasive potential. Tumor growth rate was slower in combination-treated mice compared to either drug alone. Additionally, there was a trend toward decreased CSC marker expression in imetelstat-treated xenograft cells compared to vehicle control. Furthermore, the observed decrease in CSC marker expression occurred prior to and after telomere shortening, suggesting that imetelstat acts on the CSC subpopulation in telomere length-dependent and -independent mechanisms. Our study suggests addition of imetelstat to trastuzumab may enhance the effects of HER2 inhibition therapy, especially in the CSC population.

Which enzyme is inhibited by Imetelstat?

56c048acef6e39474100001c_001

Smell testing is abnormal in 'lubag' or X-linked dystonia-parkinsonism: a pilot study. We administered a culturally corrected University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (ccUPSIT) consisting of 25 odor items to 20 patients with 'Lubag' or X-linked dystonia-parkinsonism and 20 control subjects matched by sex, age, educational background, smoking history, and geographical origin. The mean ccUPSIT score of Lubag patients (18 +/- 3.19) was statistically lower (P = 0.003) than controls (20.5 +/- 3.02). The smell scores did not correlate with phenotype, severity of dystonia, or duration of disease. Nine of 20 Lubag patients (45%) had ccUPSIT scores below the mean, with the lowest score being 11. This pilot study suggests that olfactory dysfunction may occur in Lubag patients.

What is the synonym of the lubag disease?

54df695b1388e8454a000004_012

Phosphorylation and specific ubiquitin acceptor sites are required for ubiquitination and degradation of the IFNAR1 subunit of type I interferon receptor. Ubiquitination, endocytosis, and lysosomal degradation of the IFNAR1 (interferon alpha receptor 1) subunit of the type I interferon (IFN) receptor is mediated by the SCFbeta-Trcp (Skp1-Cullin1-F-box protein beta transducin repeat-containing protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase in a phosphorylation-dependent manner. In addition, stability of IFNAR1 is regulated by its binding to Tyk2 kinase. Here we characterize the determinants of IFNAR1 ubiquitination and degradation. We found that the integrity of two Ser residues at positions 535 and 539 within the specific destruction motif present in the cytoplasmic tail of IFNAR1 is essential for the ability of IFNAR1 to recruit beta-Trcp as well as to undergo efficient ubiquitination and degradation. Using an antibody that specifically recognizes IFNAR1 phosphorylated on Ser535 we found that IFNAR1 is phosphorylated on this residue in cells. This phosphorylation is promoted by treatment of cells with IFNalpha. Although the cytoplasmic tail of IFNAR1 contains seven Lys residues that could function as potential ubiquitin acceptor sites, we found that only three (Lys501, Lys525, and Lys526), all located proximal to the destruction motif, are essential for ubiquitination and degradation of IFNAR1. Expression of Tyk2 stabilized IFNAR1 in a manner that was dependent neither on its binding to beta-Trcp nor IFNAR1 ubiquitination. We discuss the complexities and specifics of the ubiquitination and degradation of IFNAR1, which is a beta-Trcp substrate that undergoes degradation via a lysosomal pathway.

Which E3 ubiquitin ligase mediates the ubiquitination and degradation of the interferon receptor type 1 (IFNAR1)?

55192892622b194345000012_005

Post-surgical outcome for epilepsy associated with type I focal cortical dysplasia subtypes. Focal cortical dysplasias are a well-recognized cause of medically intractable seizures. The clinical relevance of certain subgroups of the International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) classification scheme remains to be determined. The aim of the present work is to assess the effect of the focal cortical dysplasia type Ib and Ic histologic subtypes on surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency. This study also provides an opportunity to compare the predictive value of the ILAE and Palmini et al classification schemes with regard to the type I focal cortical dysplasias. We retrospectively reviewed 91 focal cortical dysplasia patients (55% female; median age: 19 years (interquartile range 8-34); median seizure duration: 108 months (interquartile range 36-204)) with chronic epilepsy who underwent surgery. We compared the pathological subtypes, evaluating the patients' post-surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency according to the Engel's classification and the ILAE outcome classification. Both the ILAE classification scheme and Palmini et al classification scheme were utilized to classify the histologic subtype. Using χ(2) and Fisher's exact tests, we compared the post-surgical outcomes among these groups. Of the 91 patients, there were 50 patients with ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type Ib, 41 with ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type Ic, 63 with Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type IA, and 28 with Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type IB. After surgery, 44 patients (48%) were seizure-free. Crude analysis revealed no significant difference between patients with subtypes of ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type I or Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type I concerning postoperative outcome according to the Engel and ILAE scoring systems on seizure frequency. Our findings revealed no significant difference concerning surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency for the histologic subtypes of ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type I (Ib vs Ic) or Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type I (IA vs IB). In isolation, the histologic subtype of focal cortical dysplasia type I does not appear predictive of postoperative outcome.

Which disorder is rated by Palmini classification?

56c1f020ef6e394741000047_019

Mutation screening of the fibrillin-1 (FBN1) gene in 76 unrelated patients with Marfan syndrome or Marfanoid features leads to the identification of 11 novel and three previously reported mutations. Mutations in the gene encoding fibrillin-1 (FBN1) cause Marfan syndrome (MFS) and other related connective tissue disorders. In this study we performed SSCP to analyze all 65 exons of the FBN1 gene in 76 patients presenting with classical MFS or related phenotypes. We report 7 missense mutations, 3 splice site alterations, one indel mutation, one nonsense mutation and two mutations causing frameshifts: a 16bp deletion and a single nucleotide insertion. 5 of the missense mutations (Y1101C, C1806Y, T1908I, G1919D, C2251R) occur in calcium-binding Epidermal Growth Factor-like (EGFcb) domains of exons 26, 43, 46 and 55, respectively. One missense mutation (V449I) substitutes a valine residue in the non-calcium-binding epidermal growth factor like domain (EGFncb) of exon 11. One missense mutation (G880S) affects the "hybrid" motif in exon 21 by replacing glycine to serine. The 3 splice site mutations detected are: IVS1-1G>A in intron 1, IVS38-1G>A in intron 38 and IVS46+5G>A in intron 46. C628delinsK was identified in exon 15 leading to the substitution of a conserved cysteine residue. Furthermore two frameshift mutations were found in exon 15 (1904-1919del ) and exon 63 (8025insC) leading to premature termination codons (PTCs) in exon 17 and 64 respectively. Finally we identified a nonsense mutation (R429X) located in the proline rich domain in exon 10 of the FBN1 gene. Y1101C, IVS46+5G>A and R429X have been reported before.

Which gene mutations cause the Marfan syndrome?

58d8e6818acda3452900000a_048

The albinism of the feral Asinara white donkeys (Equus asinus) is determined by a missense mutation in a highly conserved position of the tyrosinase (TYR) gene deduced protein. A feral donkey population (Equus asinus), living in the Asinara National Park (an island north-west of Sardinia, Italy), includes a unique white albino donkey subpopulation or colour morph that is a major attraction of this park. Disrupting mutations in the tyrosinase (TYR) gene are known to cause recessive albinisms in humans (oculocutaneous albinism Type 1; OCA1) and other species. In this study, we analysed the donkey TYR gene as a strong candidate to identify the causative mutation of the albinism of these donkeys. The TYR gene was sequenced from 13 donkeys (seven Asinara white albino and six coloured animals). Seven single nucleotide polymorphisms were identified. A missense mutation (c.604C>G; p.His202Asp) in a highly conserved amino acid position (even across kingdoms), which disrupts the first copper-binding site (CuA) of functional protein, was identified in the homozygous condition (G/G or D/D) in all Asinara white albino donkeys and in the albino son of a trio (the grey parents had genotype C/G or H/D), supporting the recessive mode of inheritance of this mutation. Genotyping 82 donkeys confirmed that Asinara albino donkeys had genotype G/G whereas all other coloured donkeys had genotype C/C or C/G. Across-population association between the c.604C>G genotypes and the albino coat colour was highly significant (P = 6.17E-18). The identification of the causative mutation of the albinism in the Asinara white donkeys might open new perspectives to study the dynamics of this putative deleterious allele in a feral population and to manage this interesting animal genetic resource.

Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?

58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_069

The epidemiology of infectious mononucleosis in Northern Scotland: a decreasing incidence and winter peak. BACKGROUND: Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is almost ubiquitous in humans and generally occurs at two ages: infantile, which is usually asymptomatic and associated with poorer socioeconomic conditions, and adolescent, which causes infectious mononucleosis (IM) in ~25% cases. The determinants of whether the infection causes IM remain uncertain. We aimed to evaluate seasonality and temporal trends in IM. METHODS: Data from all Monospot tests, used as a marker for IM, were collected from the Grampian population over 16 years. RESULTS: Positive Monospot test results peaked at 17 years in females and 19 in males. Females had 16% more diagnoses, although 55% more tests. IM was ~38% more common in winter than summer. The annual rate of positive tests decreased progressively over the study period, from 174/100 000 (95% CI 171-178) in 1997 to 67/100 000 (95% CI 65-69) in 2012. CONCLUSIONS: IM appears to be decreasing in incidence, which may be caused by changing environmental influences on immune systems. One such factor may be exposure to sunlight.Words 168. FUNDING: The Medical Research Council and NHS Grampian-MS endowments.

Which virus can be diagnosed with the monospot test?

5a690487b750ff445500001f_005

Poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase 1 (PARP1) overexpression in human breast cancer stem cells and resistance to olaparib. BACKGROUND: Breast cancer stem cells (BCSCs) have been recognized as playing a major role in various aspects of breast cancer biology. To identify specific biomarkers of BCSCs, we have performed comparative proteomics of BCSC-enriched and mature cancer cell populations from the human breast cancer cell line (BCL), BrCA-MZ-01. METHODS: ALDEFLUOR assay was used to sort BCSC-enriched (ALDH+) and mature cancer (ALDH-) cell populations. Total proteins were extracted from both fractions and subjected to 2-Dimensional Difference In-Gel Electrophoresis (2-D DIGE). Differentially-expressed spots were excised and proteins were gel-extracted, digested and identified using MALDI-TOF MS. RESULTS: 2-D DIGE identified poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase 1 (PARP1) as overexpressed in ALDH+ cells from BrCA-MZ-01. This observation was confirmed by western blot and extended to four additional human BCLs. ALDH+ cells from BRCA1-mutated HCC1937, which had the highest level of PARP1 overexpression, displayed resistance to olaparib, a specific PARP1 inhibitor. CONCLUSION: An unbiased proteomic approach identified PARP1 as upregulated in ALDH+, BCSC-enriched cells from various human BCLs, which may contribute to clinical resistance to PARP inhibitors.

What is the target of the drug Olaparib?

54d649843706e89528000009_011

X-linked Christianson syndrome: heterozygous female Slc9a6 knockout mice develop mosaic neuropathological changes and related behavioral abnormalities. Christianson syndrome (CS) is an X-linked neurodevelopmental and neurological disorder characterized in males by core symptoms that include non-verbal status, intellectual disability, epilepsy, truncal ataxia, postnatal microcephaly and hyperkinesis. CS is caused by mutations in the SLC9A6 gene, which encodes a multipass transmembrane sodium (potassium)-hydrogen exchanger 6 (NHE6) protein, functional in early recycling endosomes. The extent and variability of the CS phenotype in female heterozygotes, who presumably express the wild-type and mutant SLC9A6 alleles mosaically as a result of X-chromosome inactivation (XCI), have not yet been systematically characterized. Slc9a6 knockout mice (Slc9a6 KO) were generated by insertion of the bacterial lacZ/β-galactosidase (β-Gal) reporter into exon 6 of the X-linked gene. Mutant Slc9a6 KO male mice have been shown to develop late endosomal/lysosomal dysfunction associated with glycolipid accumulation in selected neuronal populations and patterned degeneration of Purkinje cells (PCs). In heterozygous female Slc9a6 KO mice, β-Gal serves as a transcriptional/XCI reporter and thus facilitates testing of effects of mosaic expression of the mutant allele on penetrance of the abnormal phenotype. Using β-Gal, we demonstrated mosaic expression of the mutant Slc9a6 allele and mosaically distributed lysosomal glycolipid accumulation and PC pathology in the brains of heterozygous Slc9a6 KO female mice. At the behavioral level, we showed that heterozygous female mice suffer from visuospatial memory and motor coordination deficits similar to but less severe than those observed in X-chromosome hemizygous mutant males. Our studies in heterozygous Slc9a6 KO female mice provide important clues for understanding the likely phenotypic range of Christianson syndrome among females heterozygous for SLC9A6 mutations and might improve diagnostic practice and genetic counseling by helping to characterize this presumably underappreciated patient/carrier group.

Mutation of which gene is implicated in the Christianson syndrome?

5895bc397d9090f35300000b_002

The R402Q tyrosinase variant does not cause autosomal recessive ocular albinism. Mutations in the gene for tyrosinase, the key enzyme in melanin synthesis, are responsible for oculocutaneous albinism type 1, and more than 100 mutations of this gene have been identified. The c.1205G > A variant of the tyrosinase gene (rs1126809) predicts p.R402Q and expression studies show thermolabile enzyme activity for the variant protein. The Q402 allele has been associated with autosomal recessive ocular albinism when it is in trans with a tyrosinase gene mutation associated with oculocutaneous albinism type 1. We have identified 12 families with oculocutaneous albinism type 1 that exhibit segregation of the c.1205G > A variant with a known pathologic mutation on the homologous chromosome, and demonstrate no genetic association between autosomal recessive oculocutaneous albinism and the Q402 variant. We conclude that the codon 402 variant of the tyrosinase gene is not associated with albinism.

Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?

58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_010

Differential molecular response of the transcripts B2A2 and B3A2 to imatinib mesylate in chronic myeloid leukemia. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) originates from the hematopoietic stem cell and is characterized by the reciprocal translocation t(9;22)(q34;q11), which results in the BCR-ABL fusion gene on chromosome 22q-, also known as the Philadelphia chromosome. This chimeric gene codes for a cytoplasmic protein with constitutive tyrosine-kinase activity, responsible for cellular transformation and leukemogenesis in CML. The aim of this observational cohort study was to discriminate and quantify BCR-ABL transcripts in the peripheral blood of patients with CML who were treated with imatinib mesylate (Glivec, Novartis). Twenty-two patients were followed for six months during treatment. Quantitative real time polymerase chain reaction was performed before treatment and after 3 and 6 months from treatment initiation. As compared with the third month, there was a significant decrease in BCR-ABL expression in the sixth month of treatment (P = 0.0002). At the sixth month, there was a significant difference in the levels of the two major transcripts of BCR-ABL, B2A2 and B3A2 (P = 0.0347), indicating that B2A2 may be more sensitive to imatinib. The results of our study indicate that imatinib is able to modify the natural history of CML, and raise the hypothesis that patients who express the B2A2 transcript may have a better prognosis.

What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?

5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_043

Tanezumab, a recombinant humanized mAb against nerve growth factor for the treatment of acute and chronic pain. Persistent pain represents a major health problem, and most current therapeutic approaches are associated with unwanted effects and unsatisfactory pain relief. Therefore, an urgent need exists to develop more effective drugs that are directed toward new molecular targets. Nerve growth factor (NGF) is involved in pain transduction mechanisms, playing a key role as a master switch in many chronic and inflammatory pain states; the NGF ligand and its receptor TrkA constitute well-validated targets for pain therapy. Tanezumab (RN-624), a first-in-class recombinant humanized mAb targeting NGF, is being developed by Pfizer Inc for the potential treatment of pain associated with several conditions. In preclinical studies, tanezumab, and its murine precursor muMab-911, effectively targeted the NGF pathway in various chronic and inflammatory pain models. Phase I and II clinical trials in osteoarthritic pain and chronic lower back pain demonstrated good efficacy for the compound, as well as a good safety and tolerability profile. Given that tanezumab is an antibody, the drug demonstrates the general advantages of this class of products (including good specificity and favorable pharmacokinetics), and also appears to be particularly well suited for targeting the chronic and inflammatory-mediating pain actions of NGF and its receptor system.

What is the target of tanezumab?

5890e163621ea6ff7e000004_013

McEnhancer: predicting gene expression via semi-supervised assignment of enhancers to target genes. Transcriptional enhancers regulate spatio-temporal gene expression. While genomic assays can identify putative enhancers en masse, assigning target genes is a complex challenge. We devised a machine learning approach, McEnhancer, which links target genes to putative enhancers via a semi-supervised learning algorithm that predicts gene expression patterns based on enriched sequence features. Predicted expression patterns were 73-98% accurate, predicted assignments showed strong Hi-C interaction enrichment, enhancer-associated histone modifications were evident, and known functional motifs were recovered. Our model provides a general framework to link globally identified enhancers to targets and contributes to deciphering the regulatory genome.

Which method has been developed for assignment of enhancers to target genes?

5a6fa31ab750ff445500005e_004

A transient kinetic analysis of PRMT1 catalysis. Post-translational modifications (PTMs) are important strategies used by eukaryotic organisms to modulate their phenotypes. One of the well-studied PTMs, arginine methylation, is catalyzed by protein arginine methyltransferases (PRMTs) with SAM as the methyl donor. The functions of PRMTs have been broadly studied in different biological processes and diseased states, but the molecular basis for arginine methylation is not well-defined. In this study, we report the transient-state kinetic analysis of PRMT1 catalysis. The fast association and dissociation rates suggest that PRMT1 catalysis of histone H4 methylation follows a rapid equilibrium sequential kinetic mechanism. The data give direct evidence that the chemistry of methyl transfer is the major rate-limiting step and that binding of the cofactor SAM or SAH affects the association and dissociation of H4 with PRMT1. Importantly, from the stopped-flow fluorescence measurements, we have identified a critical kinetic step suggesting a precatalytic conformational transition induced by substrate binding. These results provide new insights into the mechanism of arginine methylation and the rational design of PRMT inhibitors.

Which is the methyl donor of histone methyltransferases?

516e7fda298dcd4e51000081_021

Amino acid delta13C analysis of hair proteins and bone collagen using liquid chromatography/isotope ratio mass spectrometry: paleodietary implications from intra-individual comparisons. We report a novel method for the chromatographic separation and measurement of stable carbon isotope ratios (delta(13)C) of individual amino acids in hair proteins and bone collagen using the LC-IsoLink system, which interfaces liquid chromatography (LC) with isotope ratio mass spectrometry (IRMS). This paper provides baseline separation of 15 and 13 of the 18 amino acids in bone collagen and hair proteins, respectively. We also describe an approach to analysing small hair samples for compound-specific analysis of segmental hair sections. The LC/IRMS method is applied in a historical context by the delta(13)C analysis of hair proteins and bone collagen recovered from six individuals from Uummannaq in Greenland. The analysis of hair and bone amino acids from the same individual, compared for the first time in this study, is of importance in palaeodietary reconstruction. If hair proteins can be used as a proxy for bone collagen at the amino acid level, this validates compound-specific isotope studies using hair as a model for palaeodietary reconstruction. Our results suggest that a small offset observed in the bulk delta(13)C values of the hair and bone samples may be attributed to two factors: (i) amino acid compositional differences between hair and bone proteins, and (ii) differential turnover rates of the tissues and the amino acid pools contributing to their synthesis. This application proposes that hair may be a useful complementary or alternative source of compound-specific paleodietary information.

Which bone protein is used in archaelogy for dating and species identification?

55054f8af73303d458000002_013

A randomized trial assessing the safety and immunogenicity of AS01 and AS02 adjuvanted RTS,S malaria vaccine candidates in children in Gabon. BACKGROUND: The malaria vaccine candidate antigen RTS,S includes parts of the pre-erythrocytic stage circumsporozoite protein fused to the Hepatitis B surface antigen. Two Adjuvant Systems are in development for this vaccine, an oil-in water emulsion--based formulation (AS02) and a formulation based on liposomes (AS01). METHODS & PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: In this Phase II, double-blind study (NCT00307021), 180 healthy Gabonese children aged 18 months to 4 years were randomized to receive either RTS,S/AS01(E) or RTS,S/AS02(D), on a 0-1-2 month vaccination schedule. The children were followed-up daily for six days after each vaccination and monthly for 14 months. Blood samples were collected at 4 time-points. Both vaccines were well tolerated. Safety parameters were distributed similarly between the two groups. Both vaccines elicited a strong specific immune response after Doses 2 and 3 with a ratio of anti-CS GMT titers (AS02(D)/AS01(E)) of 0.88 (95% CI: 0.68-1.15) post-Dose 3. After Doses 2 and 3 of experimental vaccines, anti-CS and anti-HBs antibody GMTs were higher in children who had been previously vaccinated with at least one dose of hepatitis B vaccine compared to those not previously vaccinated. CONCLUSIONS: RTS,S/AS01(E) proved similarly as well tolerated and immunogenic as RTS,S/AS02(D), completing an essential step in the age de-escalation process within the RTS,S clinical development plan. TRIAL REGISTRATION: ClinicalTrials.gov. NCT00307021.

RTS S AS01 vaccine was developed to prevent which disease?

56bc77a3ac7ad10019000015_020

[Chronic myeloid leukemia and imatinib: Experience at the Lome Campus teaching hospital (Togo)]. BACKGROUND: Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is a clonal malignant myeloproliferative disorder characterized by the expansion of hematopoietic cells carrying the Philadelphia chromosome (t 9.22). Our main objective was to assess the efficacy of imatinib in CML patients, measured by their survival. METHODS: Over a six-year period (June 2003 through May 2009), 25 patients were seen regularly for CML at the Lomé Campus teaching hospital. Patients received imatinib after diagnosis and underwent regular laboratory monitoring (quantification of BCR-ABL ratio by RT-PCR). Patients' survival and treatment response were evaluated. RESULTS: Patients' mean age at diagnosis was 40 years (range: 9 to 72 years). Men predominated (17 compared with 7 women). Splenomegaly was found in 80% of cases. The mean leukocyte level was 188.71 g/L (24.4-350). Six patients (24%) had thrombocytosis with a mean platelet count of 491.15 g/L (108-2000). Six patients (24%) died after developing accelerated-phase CML or blast crisis. Estimated overall survival of patients at 6 years was 60%. Molecular biology monitoring detected a secondary G250E mutation with resistance to imatinib in one patient. Standard hematological side effects led to reduction in imatinib doses. The principal nonhematological side effects were weight gain and transient digestible disorders. CONCLUSIONS: At six years after diagnosis, imatinib was effective in treating patients with CML, even in sub-Saharan Africa. Mutation-induced resistance required regular molecular biological monitoring to determine the need to switch to later-generation tyrosine kinase inhibitors.

What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?

5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_004

Hemorheological alterations in sickle cell anemia and their clinical consequences - The role of genetic modulators. Sickle cell anemia (SCA) is an autosomal recessive disease caused by the HBB:c.20A>T mutation that leads to hemoglobin S synthesis. The disease presents with high clinical heterogeneity characterized by chronic hemolysis, recurrent episodes of vaso-oclusion and infection. This work aimed to characterize by in silico studies some genetic modulators of severe hemolysis and stroke risk in children with SCA, and understand their consequences at the hemorheological level.Association studies were performed between hemolysis biomarkers as well as the degree of cerebral vasculopathy and the inheritance of several polymorphic regions in genes related with vascular cell adhesion and vascular tonus in pediatric SCA patients. In silico tools (e.g. MatInspector) were applied to investigate the main variant consequences.Variants in vascular adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM1) gene promoter and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (NOS3) gene were significantly associated with higher degree of hemolysis and stroke events. They potentially modify transcription factor binding sites (e.g. VCAM1 rs1409419_T allele may lead to an EVI1 gain) or disturb the corresponding protein structure/function. Our findings emphasize the relevance of genetic variation in modulating the disease severity due to their effect on gene expression or modification of protein biological activities related with sickled erythrocyte/endothelial interactions and consequent hemorheological abnormalities.

What gene is mutated in Sickle Cell Anemia?

58bcabc702b8c6095300000e_001

Intravenous vs subcutaneous naloxone for out-of-hospital management of presumed opioid overdose. OBJECTIVE: To determine whether naloxone administered i.v. to out-of-hospital patients with suspected opioid overdose would have a more rapid therapeutic onset than naloxone given subcutaneously (s.q.). METHODS: A prospective, sequential, observational cohort study of 196 consecutive patients with suspected opioid overdose was conducted in an urban out-of-hospital setting, comparing time intervals from arrival at the patient's side to development of a respiratory rate > or =10 breaths/min, and durations of bag-valve-mask ventilation. Subjects received either naloxone 0.4 mg i.v. (n = 74) or naloxone 0.8 mg s.q. (n = 122), for respiratory depression of <10 breaths/min. RESULTS: Mean interval from crew arrival to respiratory rate > or =10 breaths/min was 9.3 +/- 4.2 min for the i.v. group vs 9.6 +/- 4.58 min for the s.q. group (95% CI of the difference -1.55, 1.00). Mean duration of bag-valve-mask ventilation was 8.1 +/- 6.0 min for the i.v. group vs 9.1 +/- 4.8 min for the s.q. group. Cost of materials for administering naloxone 0.4 mg i.v. was $12.30/patient, compared with $10.70/patient for naloxone 0.8 mg s.q. CONCLUSION: There was no clinical difference in the time interval to respiratory rate > or =10 breaths/min between naloxone 0.8 mg s.q. and naloxone 0.4 mg i.v. for the out-of-hospital management of patients with suspected opioid overdose. The slower rate of absorption via the s.q. route was offset by the delay in establishing an i.v.

Which medication should be administered when managing patients with suspected acute opioid overdose?

5149f494d24251bc0500004c_011

Tanezumab, a recombinant humanized mAb against nerve growth factor for the treatment of acute and chronic pain. Persistent pain represents a major health problem, and most current therapeutic approaches are associated with unwanted effects and unsatisfactory pain relief. Therefore, an urgent need exists to develop more effective drugs that are directed toward new molecular targets. Nerve growth factor (NGF) is involved in pain transduction mechanisms, playing a key role as a master switch in many chronic and inflammatory pain states; the NGF ligand and its receptor TrkA constitute well-validated targets for pain therapy. Tanezumab (RN-624), a first-in-class recombinant humanized mAb targeting NGF, is being developed by Pfizer Inc for the potential treatment of pain associated with several conditions. In preclinical studies, tanezumab, and its murine precursor muMab-911, effectively targeted the NGF pathway in various chronic and inflammatory pain models. Phase I and II clinical trials in osteoarthritic pain and chronic lower back pain demonstrated good efficacy for the compound, as well as a good safety and tolerability profile. Given that tanezumab is an antibody, the drug demonstrates the general advantages of this class of products (including good specificity and favorable pharmacokinetics), and also appears to be particularly well suited for targeting the chronic and inflammatory-mediating pain actions of NGF and its receptor system.

What is the target of tanezumab?

5890e163621ea6ff7e000004_009

Crohn's disease: influence of age at diagnosis on site and clinical type of disease. BACKGROUND & AIMS: Crohn's disease has a bimodal age distribution of disease onset diagnosis. The peaks (20 and 50 years) may represent different phenotypes or different genetic and/or environmental influences between younger- and older-onset individuals. The aim of this study was to examine the influences of age at diagnosis of Crohn's disease on disease site, type, and course. METHODS: Records of 552 consecutive patients with Crohn's disease were reviewed retrospectively. RESULTS: Younger age at diagnosis (younger than 20 years), compared with an older age (40 years or older), was associated with a greater prevalence of a family history of Crohn's disease (29.9% vs. 13.6%), greater small bowel involvement (88.7% vs. 57.5%), more stricturing disease (45.8% vs. 28.8%), and a higher frequency of surgery (70.6% vs. 55.3%). Older age at diagnosis was associated with a greater prevalence of colonic disease (84.8% vs. 71.2%) and the inflammatory subtype (54.5% vs. 34.4%). A conditional logistic regression analysis confirmed an independent effect of age at diagnosis on ileal disease and surgery for intractable disease. CONCLUSIONS: In Crohn's disease, early age at diagnosis is associated with more complicated disease and a greater likelihood of having affected relatives. Stratification of Crohn's disease by age at diagnosis provides support for the concept of genetic heterogeneity.

What is the most likely age of diagnosis of Crohn's disease (CD)?

56cae3eb5795f9a73e000021_001

Additional phenotypic features of Muenke syndrome in 2 Dutch families. In about 30% of the patients with syndromal craniosynostosis, a genetic mutation can be traced. For the purpose of adequate genetic counseling and treatment of these patients, the full spectrum of clinical findings for each specific mutation needs to be appreciated. The Pro250Arg mutation in the FGFR3 gene is found in patients with Muenke syndrome and is one of the most frequently encountered mutations in craniosynostosis syndromes. A number of studies on the relationship between genotype and phenotype concerning this specific mutation have been published. Two Dutch families with Muenke syndrome were screened for the reported characteristics of this syndrome and for additional features. New phenotypical findings were hypoplasia of the frontal sinus, ptosis of the upper eyelids, dysplastic elbow joints with restricted elbow motion, and mild cutaneous syndactyly. Incidentally, polydactyly, severe ankylosis of the elbow, fusion of cervical vertebrae, and epilepsy were found. Upper eyelid ptosis is thought to be pathognomonic for Saethre-Chotzen syndrome but was also observed in our series of patients with Muenke syndrome. Because Muenke and Saethre-Chotzen syndrome can have similar phenotypes, DNA analysis is needed to distinguish between these syndromes, even when a syndrome diagnosis is already made in a family member.

How many different mutations have been associated with Muenke syndrome?

52c7311903868f1b0600001d_001

In vitro modeling of gallbladder-associated Salmonella spp. colonization. The host-pathogen interactions occurring in the gallbladder during Salmonella Typhi colonization contribute to typhoid fever pathogenesis during the acute and chronic stages of disease. The gallbladder is the primary reservoir during chronic typhoid carriage. In this organ, Salmonella encounters host-barriers including bile, immunoglobulins, and mucus. However, the bacterium possesses mechanisms to resist and persist in this environment, in part by its ability to attach to and invade into the gallbladder epithelium. Such persistence in the gallbladder epithelium contributes to chronic carriage. In addition, patients harboring gallstones in their gallbladders have increased risk of becoming carriers because these abnormalities serve as a substrate for Salmonella biofilm formation. Our laboratory has studied the Salmonella interactions in this specific environment by developing in vitro methods that closely mimic the gallbladder and gallstones niches. These methods are reproducible and provide a platform for future studies of acute and chronic bacterial infections in the gallbladder.

Gallbladder carriage is a well recognised means of spread of which bacteria?

5a7347a02dc08e987e00001b_001

c-Jun N-Terminal Kinase in Inflammation and Rheumatic Diseases. The c-Jun N-terminal kinases (JNKs) are members of the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) family and are activated by environmental stress. JNK is also activated by proinflammatory cytokines, such as TNF and IL-1, and Toll-like receptor ligands. This pathway, therefore, can act as a critical convergence point in immune system signaling for both adaptive and innate responses. Like other MAPKs, the JNKs are activated via the sequential activation of protein kinases that includes two dual-specificity MAP kinase kinases (MKK4 and MKK7) and multiple MAP kinase kinase kinases. MAPKs, including JNKs, can be deactivated by a specialized group of phosphatases, called MAP kinase phosphatases. JNK phosphorylates and regulates the activity of transcription factors other than c-Jun, including ATF2, Elk-1, p53 and c-Myc and non-transcription factors, such as members of the Bcl-2 family. The pathway plays a critical role in cell proliferation, apoptosis, angiogenesis and migration. In this review, an overview of the functions that are related to rheumatic diseases is presented. In addition, some diseases in which JNK participates will be highlighted.

Which MAP kinase phosphorylates the transcription factor c-jun?

5518e7da622b194345000004_017

Three periods of regulatory innovation during vertebrate evolution. The gain, loss, and modification of gene regulatory elements may underlie a substantial proportion of phenotypic changes on animal lineages. To investigate the gain of regulatory elements throughout vertebrate evolution, we identified genome-wide sets of putative regulatory regions for five vertebrates, including humans. These putative regulatory regions are conserved nonexonic elements (CNEEs), which are evolutionarily conserved yet do not overlap any coding or noncoding mature transcript. We then inferred the branch on which each CNEE came under selective constraint. Our analysis identified three extended periods in the evolution of gene regulatory elements. Early vertebrate evolution was characterized by regulatory gains near transcription factors and developmental genes, but this trend was replaced by innovations near extracellular signaling genes, and then innovations near posttranslational protein modifiers.

How many periods of regulatory innovation led to the evolution of vertebrates?

56d1da3b67f0cb3d66000006_001

MITF: a stream flowing for pigment cells. Microphthalmia-associated transcription factor (MITF) is a transcription factor with a basic-helix-loop-helix-leucine zipper (bHLHZip) structure. Mutations of the MITF gene cause a variety of phenotypes, most notably in pigmented cells, in several species. In humans, haploinsufficiency of MITF causes Waardenburg syndrome type 2, while a dominant-negative mutation causes Tietz syndrome. Four isoforms have been cloned so far: MITF-M is the most abundant and is expressed in neural-crest-derived melanocytes; MITF-A is expressed in various cultured cells including retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) and enriched in RPE of embryonal and developing eyes; MITF-H are expressed in many types of cultured cells and in the heart tissue; MITF-C is expressed in many types of cultured cells, but not in melanocytes. Many growth factor signaling pathways have been implicated for regulation of MITF at both protein and promoter levels. Most notably, Steel factor/c-Kit signaling pathway was linked to phosphorylation of MITF at Ser73 and Ser409 through activation of MAP kinase and RSK-1, respectively. Phosphorylation of MITF is also conducted at Ser298 through GSK3beta, although the signaling pathway for this event still remains to be elucidated. IGF-1 and HGF/SF pathways may merge with the c-Kit signaling pathway. WNT and MSH signaling pathways regulate MITF positively at the promoter level. Endothelins may regulate MITF at the protein and promoter levels. MITF is involved in the differentiation, growth and survival of pigment cells, employing a number of signaling pathways.

Which mutated gene is associated with Waardenburg and Tietz syndromes?

58a57f9460087bc10a00001f_039

Francisella tularensis aortitis. Francisella tularensis, the agent of tularemia, is a Gram-negative coccobacillus primarily pathogen for animals and occasionally for humans. The clinical manifestations of tularemia include pneumonia, ulceroglandular, oropharyngeal, or typhoidal disease. Rare manifestations are also described, but to our knowledge, we describe here the first case of F. tularensis aortitis in a human. Diagnosis was confirmed by the presence of F. tularensis in blood culture, by the presence of F. tularensis DNA in the aortic biopsy and by specific IgG and IgM responses against the bacteria. The outcome was favorable after surgery and specific antimicrobial therapy.

What organism causes tularemia?

58f4b9d470f9fc6f0f000016_001

Suppression of cell proliferation and signaling transduction by connective tissue growth factor in non-small cell lung cancer cells. Connective tissue growth factor (CTGF) is a secreted protein that belongs to CCN family. The proteins in this family are implicated in various biological processes, such as angiogenesis, adhesion, migration, and apoptosis. In this study, we explored the roles of CTGF in lung tumorigenesis. The expression levels of CTGF in 58 lung cancer samples were reduced by >2 fold in 57% of the samples compared with matched normal samples using real-time reverse transcription-PCR. These results were confirmed by immunohistochemical staining for CTGF in normal lung epithelia and lung cancer. Cellular proliferation was inhibited in non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) cell lines NCI-H460, NCI-H520, NCI-H1299, and SK-MES-1 by CTGF overexpression. Partially purified CTGF suppressed lung cancer cell growth. The growth inhibition caused by CTGF overexpression was associated with growth arrest at G(0)-G(1) and prominent induction of p53 and ADP ribosylation factor. Most interestingly, overexpression of CTGF suppressed insulin-like growth factor-I-dependent Akt phosphorylation and epidermal growth factor-dependent extracellular signal-regulated kinase 1/2 phosphorylation. In summary, NSCLC cells expressed decreased levels of CTGF compared with normal lung cells; this lower expression has an effect on lung cancer cell proliferation and its cellular response to growth factors. Our data suggest that CTGF may behave as a secreted tumor suppressor protein in the normal lung, and its expression is suppressed in many NSCLCs.

From which tissue was the NCI-H520 cell-line derived?

52f89fc62059c6d71c000050_004

Post-surgical outcome for epilepsy associated with type I focal cortical dysplasia subtypes. Focal cortical dysplasias are a well-recognized cause of medically intractable seizures. The clinical relevance of certain subgroups of the International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) classification scheme remains to be determined. The aim of the present work is to assess the effect of the focal cortical dysplasia type Ib and Ic histologic subtypes on surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency. This study also provides an opportunity to compare the predictive value of the ILAE and Palmini et al classification schemes with regard to the type I focal cortical dysplasias. We retrospectively reviewed 91 focal cortical dysplasia patients (55% female; median age: 19 years (interquartile range 8-34); median seizure duration: 108 months (interquartile range 36-204)) with chronic epilepsy who underwent surgery. We compared the pathological subtypes, evaluating the patients' post-surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency according to the Engel's classification and the ILAE outcome classification. Both the ILAE classification scheme and Palmini et al classification scheme were utilized to classify the histologic subtype. Using χ(2) and Fisher's exact tests, we compared the post-surgical outcomes among these groups. Of the 91 patients, there were 50 patients with ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type Ib, 41 with ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type Ic, 63 with Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type IA, and 28 with Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type IB. After surgery, 44 patients (48%) were seizure-free. Crude analysis revealed no significant difference between patients with subtypes of ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type I or Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type I concerning postoperative outcome according to the Engel and ILAE scoring systems on seizure frequency. Our findings revealed no significant difference concerning surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency for the histologic subtypes of ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type I (Ib vs Ic) or Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type I (IA vs IB). In isolation, the histologic subtype of focal cortical dysplasia type I does not appear predictive of postoperative outcome.

Which disorder is rated by Palmini classification?

56c1f020ef6e394741000047_017

Glucocorticoid modulation of mitochondrial function in hepatoma cells requires the mitochondrial fission protein Drp1. AIMS: Glucocorticoids, such as dexamethasone, enhance hepatic energy metabolism and gluconeogenesis partly through changes in mitochondrial function. Mitochondrial function is influenced by the balance between mitochondrial fusion and fission events. However, whether glucocorticoids modulate mitochondrial function through the regulation of mitochondrial dynamics is currently unknown. RESULTS: Here, we report that the effects of dexamethasone on mitochondrial function and gluconeogenesis in hepatoma cells are dependent on the mitochondrial fission protein dynamin-related protein 1 (Drp1). Dexamethasone increased routine oxygen consumption, maximal respiratory capacity, superoxide anion, proton leak, and gluconeogenesis in hepatoma cells. Under these conditions, dexamethasone altered mitochondrial morphology, which was paralleled by a large increase in Drp1 expression, and reduced mitofusin 1 (Mfn1) and Mfn2. In vivo dexamethasone treatment also enhanced Drp1 expression in mouse liver. On the basis of these observations, we analyzed the dependence on the Drp1 function of dexamethasone effects on mitochondrial respiration and gluconeogenesis. We show that the increase in mitochondrial respiration and gluconeogenesis induced by dexamethasone are hampered by the inhibition of Drp1 function. INNOVATION: Our findings provide the first evidence that the effects of glucocorticoids on hepatic metabolism require the mitochondrial fission protein Drp1. CONCLUSION: In summary, we demonstrate that the mitochondrial effects of dexamethasone both on mitochondrial respiration and on the gluconeogenic pathway depend on Drp1.

What is the functional role of the protein Drp1?

5717dbfe7de986d80d000001_017

Thyroid hypoplasia as a cause of congenital hypothyroidism in Williams syndrome. In the Williams-Beuren syndrome (WBS), disorders of the thyroid function and morphology have been reported and programs of thyroid screening and surveillance are recommended. However, the frequency of biochemical thyroid assessment, particularly in the first year of life, is being debated. In this report we describe an infant with WBS and congenital hypothyroidism, due to an important thyroid hypoplasia. The patient, a 1-month-old female, negative at primary neonatal thyroid screening, was referred to our hospital for dyspnea. Thyroid function tests showed a raised TSH (42 mIU/l; normal range 0.5-4 mIU/l) with a low FT(4) concentration (10.21 pmol/l; normal range: 10.29-24.45 pmol/l). Ultrasound examination of the neck showed a significant thyroid hypoplasia, whereas (99m)Tc-pertechnetate thyroid scintigraphy evidenced a thyroid gland in normal position, with reduced shape and overall weak fixation. Therefore, treatment with L-thyroxinewas started. Thyroid hypoplasia is a frequent characteristic of WBS and abnormalities of thyroid function are common in patients with this feature. Therefore, the possibility of congenital hypothyroidism should always be taken into consideration too and, even if congenital hypothyroidism neonatal screening is negative, thyroid (morphology and function) evaluation should be regularly assessed when the diagnosis is made and, thereafter, every year in the first years of life.

Which hormone abnormalities are common in Williams syndrome ?

530cefaaad0bf1360c00000d_011

Unifying the definitions of sudden unexpected death in epilepsy. Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP) is a category of death in people with epilepsy occurring in the absence of a known structural cause of death and is most likely heterogeneous with regard to mechanisms and circumstances. SUDEP is particularly difficult to investigate in research studies for several reasons, including its relatively low incidence, its unpredictable occurrence often in unwitnessed settings, and its low rate of complete autopsy examinations. Over the past two decades, two complementary definitions have been used in most SUDEP studies, but often with variations. We propose here a unified SUDEP definition and classification to resolve current ambiguities and to retrieve cases that would not have been further studied if the previous definitions were used. The proposed Unified SUDEP Definition and Classification contains, in addition to concepts inherent in the previous definitions, nine main recommendations. (1) The word "unexpected," and not the word "unexplained," should be uniformly used in the term SUDEP. (2) The SUDEP category should be applied when appropriate, whether or not a terminal seizure is known to have occurred. (3) The "Possible SUDEP" category should be used only for cases with competing causes of death, with cases left unclassified when data are insufficient to reasonably permit their classification. (4) Cases that would otherwise fulfill the definition of SUDEP should be designated as "SUDEP Plus" when evidence indicates that a preexisting condition, known before or after autopsy, could have contributed to the death, which otherwise is classified as SUDEP (e.g., coronary insufficiency with no evidence of myocardial infarction or long-QT syndrome with no documented primary ventricular arrhythmia leading to death). (5) To be considered SUDEP, the death should have occurred within 1 h from the onset of a known terminal event. (6) For status epilepticus as an exclusion criterion for SUDEP, the duration of seizure activity should be 30 min or more. (7) A specific category of SUDEP due to asphyxia should not be designated, the distinction being largely impractical on circumstantial or autopsy evidence, with more than one mechanism likely to be contributory in many cases. (8) Death occurring in water but without circumstantial or autopsy evidence of submersion should be classified as "Possible SUDEP." If any evidence of submersion is present, the death should not be classified as SUDEP. (9) A category of "Near-SUDEP" should be agreed to include cases in which cardiorespiratory arrest was reversed by resuscitation efforts with subsequent survival for more than 1 h. Scenarios that demonstrate the basis for each SUDEP category are described. If disagreement exists about which category fits a particular case, we suggest the use of consensus decision by a panel of informed reviewers to adjudicate the classification of the case.

What condition is usually represented by the acronym SUDEP?

58dbb8968acda3452900001b_018

Semaglutide and Cardiovascular Outcomes in Patients with Type 2 Diabetes. BACKGROUND: Regulatory guidance specifies the need to establish cardiovascular safety of new diabetes therapies in patients with type 2 diabetes in order to rule out excess cardiovascular risk. The cardiovascular effects of semaglutide, a glucagon-like peptide 1 analogue with an extended half-life of approximately 1 week, in type 2 diabetes are unknown. METHODS: We randomly assigned 3297 patients with type 2 diabetes who were on a standard-care regimen to receive once-weekly semaglutide (0.5 mg or 1.0 mg) or placebo for 104 weeks. The primary composite outcome was the first occurrence of cardiovascular death, nonfatal myocardial infarction, or nonfatal stroke. We hypothesized that semaglutide would be noninferior to placebo for the primary outcome. The noninferiority margin was 1.8 for the upper boundary of the 95% confidence interval of the hazard ratio. RESULTS: At baseline, 2735 of the patients (83.0%) had established cardiovascular disease, chronic kidney disease, or both. The primary outcome occurred in 108 of 1648 patients (6.6%) in the semaglutide group and in 146 of 1649 patients (8.9%) in the placebo group (hazard ratio, 0.74; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.58 to 0.95; P<0.001 for noninferiority). Nonfatal myocardial infarction occurred in 2.9% of the patients receiving semaglutide and in 3.9% of those receiving placebo (hazard ratio, 0.74; 95% CI, 0.51 to 1.08; P=0.12); nonfatal stroke occurred in 1.6% and 2.7%, respectively (hazard ratio, 0.61; 95% CI, 0.38 to 0.99; P=0.04). Rates of death from cardiovascular causes were similar in the two groups. Rates of new or worsening nephropathy were lower in the semaglutide group, but rates of retinopathy complications (vitreous hemorrhage, blindness, or conditions requiring treatment with an intravitreal agent or photocoagulation) were significantly higher (hazard ratio, 1.76; 95% CI, 1.11 to 2.78; P=0.02). Fewer serious adverse events occurred in the semaglutide group, although more patients discontinued treatment because of adverse events, mainly gastrointestinal. CONCLUSIONS: In patients with type 2 diabetes who were at high cardiovascular risk, the rate of cardiovascular death, nonfatal myocardial infarction, or nonfatal stroke was significantly lower among patients receiving semaglutide than among those receiving placebo, an outcome that confirmed the noninferiority of semaglutide. (Funded by Novo Nordisk; SUSTAIN-6 ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT01720446 .).

Which disease is treated with semaglutide?

5880c42fc872c95565000008_005

Virus-associated small satellite RNAs and viroids display similarities in their replication strategies. Since the discovery of non-coding, small, highly structured, satellite RNAs (satRNAs) and viroids as subviral pathogens of plants , have been of great interest to molecular biologists as possible living fossils of pre-cellular evolution in an RNA world. Despite extensive studies performed in the last four decades, there is still mystery surrounding the origin and evolutionary relationship between these subviral pathogens. Recent technical advances revealed some commonly shared replication features between these two subviral pathogens. In this review, we discuss our current perception of replication and evolutionary origin of these petite RNA pathogens.

Which are the smallest known subviral pathogens of plants?

56e0447a51531f7e3300000b_001

A Study to Determine if Addition of Palatal Petechiae to Centor Criteria Adds More Significance to Clinical Diagnosis of Acute Strep Pharyngitis in Children. Objective. A study to determine if addition of palatal petechiae to Centor criteria adds more value for clinical diagnosis of acute strep pharyngitis in children. Hypothesis. In children, Centor Criteria does not cover all the symptoms and signs of acute strep pharyngitis. We hypothesize that addition of palatal petechiae to Centor Criteria will increase the possibility of clinical diagnosis of group A streptococcal pharyngitis in children. Methods. One hundred patients with a complaint of sore throat were enrolled in the study. All the patients were examined clinically using the Centor Criteria. They were also examined for other signs and symptoms like petechial lesions over the palate, abdominal pain, and skin rash. All the patients were given rapid strep tests, and throat cultures were sent. No antibiotics were given until culture results were obtained. Results. The sample size was 100 patients. All 100 had fever, sore throat, and erythema of tonsils. Twenty of the 100 patients had tonsillar exudates, 85/100 had tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, and 86/100 had no cough. In total, 9 out of the 100 patients had positive throat cultures. We observed that petechiae over the palate, a very significant sign, is not included in the Centor Criteria. Palatal petechiae were present in 8 out of the 100 patients. Six out of these 8 with palatal petechiae had positive throat culture for strep (75%). Only 7 out of 20 with exudates had positive strep culture. Sixteen out of the 100 patients had rapid strep test positive. Those 84/100 who had negative rapid strep also had negative throat culture. Statistics. We used Fisher's exact test, comparing throat culture positive and negative versus presence of exudates and palatal hemorrhages with positive and negative throat cultures and the resultant P value <.0001. Conclusion. Our study concludes that addition of petechiae over the palate to Centor Criteria will increase the possibility of diagnosing acute group A streptococcal pharyngitis in children.

Centor criteria are used for which disease?

5a6f960fb750ff445500005c_002

Differential control of TAp73 and DeltaNp73 protein stability by the ring finger ubiquitin ligase PIR2. p73 is a p53-related transcription factor with fundamental roles in development and tumor suppression. Transcription from two different promoters on the p73 gene results in generation of transcriptionally active TAp73 isoforms and dominant negative DeltaNp73 isoforms with opposing pro- and anti-apoptotic functions. Therefore, the relative ratio of each isoform is an important determinant of the cell fate. Proteasomal degradation of p73 is mediated by polyubiquitination-dependent and -independent processes both of which appear, thus far, to lack selectivity for the TAp73 and DeltaNp73 isoforms. Here, we describe the characterization of another transcriptional target of TAp73; a ring finger domain ubiquitin ligase p73 Induced RING 2 protein (PIR2). Although PIR2 was initially identified a p53-induced gene (p53RFP), low abundance of PIR2 transcript in mouse embryonic fibroblasts of TAp73 KO mice compared with WT mice and comparison of PIR2 mRNA and protein levels following TAp73 or p53 overexpression substantiate TAp73 isoforms as strong inducers of PIR2. Although PIR2 expression was induced by DNA damage, its expression did not alter apoptotic response or cell cycle profile per se. However, coexpression of PIR2 with TAp73 or DeltaNp73 resulted in an increase of the TA/DeltaNp73 ratio, due to preferential degradation of DeltaNp73. Finally, PIR2 was able to relieve the inhibitory effect of DeltaNp73 on TAp73 induced apoptosis following DNA damage. These results suggest that PIR2, by being induced by TAp73 and degrading DeltaNp73, differentially regulates TAp73/DeltaNp73 stability, and, hence, it may offer a therapeutic approach to enhance the chemosensitivity of tumor cells.

How many TAp73 isoforms have been identified in humans?

5173bdb38ed59a060a000020_041

Appropriateness of diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis among Thai community pharmacists according to the Centor criteria. Background Inappropriate use of antibiotic treatment for pharyngitis by community pharmacists is prevalent in developing countries. Little is known about how the pharmacists identify patients with bacterial pharyngitis. Objective To ascertain the appropriateness of diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis among Thai community pharmacists according to the Centor criteria and to identify factors related to antibiotic dispensing. Setting 1040 Thai community pharmacists. Method A cross-sectional survey of community pharmacists was conducted in November 2012 to March 2013. The self-administered questionnaires were mailed to 57 % of community pharmacists in the south of Thailand (n = 1040). The survey included questions on diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis, knowledge on pharyngitis, and attitudes and control beliefs regarding antibiotic dispensing. Main outcome measure The appropriateness of diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis according to the original and modified Centor criteria and determinants of antibiotic dispensing including demographic characteristics of pharmacists, knowledge on pharyngitis, and attitudes and control beliefs on antibiotic dispensing. Results Approximately 68 % completed the questionnaires (n = 703). Compared to the pharmacists who reported not dispensing antibiotics in the hypothetical case with common cold, those reported dispensing antibiotics were more likely to consider the following conditions-presence of cough, mild sore throat and patients with age >60 years as cues for diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis (p < 0.05). The use of fewer scores of the clinical prediction rules for diagnosis was observed in antibiotic dispensers, compared to who did not do so (p < 0.005). Antibiotic dispensing was positively associated with period of dispensing experience (>5 years) [odds ratio (OR) 1.52; 95 % confidence interval (CI) 1.03-2.23], belief that antibiotics could shorten duration of pharyngitis (OR 1.48; 95 % CI 1.11-1.99), belief that antibiotics could prevent the complications (OR 1.44; 95 % CI 1.09-1.91) and belief that dispensing antibiotics could satisfy the patients (OR 1.31; 95 % CI 1.01-1.71). Nonetheless, antibiotic dispensing was negatively associated with knowledge about pharyngitis (OR 0.83; 95 % CI 0.75-0.93). Conclusion Pharmacists who are knowledgeable on the Centor criteria are more likely to appropriately diagnose streptococcal pharyngitis and less likely to dispense antibiotics in such case.

Centor criteria are used for which disease?

5a6f960fb750ff445500005c_006

Genetic Determinants of RNA Editing Levels of ADAR Targets in Drosophila melanogaster. RNA editing usually affects only a fraction of expressed transcripts and there is a vast amount of variation in editing levels of ADAR (adenosine deaminase, RNA-specific) targets. Here we explore natural genetic variation affecting editing levels of particular sites in 81 natural strains of Drosophila melanogaster. The analysis of associations between editing levels and single-nucleotide polymorphisms allows us to map putative cis-regulatory regions affecting editing of 16 A-to-I editing sites (cis-RNA editing quantitative trait loci or cis-edQTLs, P < 10(-8)). The observed changes in editing levels are validated by independent molecular technique. All identified regulatory variants are located in close proximity of modulated editing sites. Moreover, colocalized editing sites are often regulated by same loci. Similar to expression and splicing QTL studies, the characterization of edQTLs will greatly expand our understanding of cis-regulatory evolution of gene expression.

Which is the major RNA editing enzyme in Drosophila melanogaster?

58e9e7aa3e8b6dc87c00000d_005

Diagnosis of pneumoperitoneum on supine abdominal radiographs. A blinded, retrospective study was performed to determine the value of supine abdominal radiographs in diagnosing pneumoperitoneum. Supine films from 44 cases of pneumoperitoneum were randomly interspersed among supine films from 87 control subjects without free air, and the films were reviewed for the presence or absence of various signs of pneumoperitoneum, including Rigler's sign (gas on both sides of the bowel wall), the falciform ligament sign (gas outlining the falciform ligament), the football sign (gas outlining the peritoneal cavity), the inverted-V sign (gas outlining the medial umbilical folds), and the right-upper-quadrant gas sign (localized gas in the right upper quadrant). One or more of these signs were present in 26 cases (59%) of pneumoperitoneum, including the right-upper-quadrant gas sign in 18 cases (41%), Rigler's sign in 14 cases (32%), and the falciform ligament and football signs in one case each (2%). Unfortunately, there were frequent errors in the interpretation of the right-upper-quadrant gas sign and Rigler's sign, with a total of 11 false-positive cases (13%). Further analysis of the true-positive right-upper-quadrant gas signs showed that these gas collections were always triangular or linear with an inferolateral to superomedial orientation and, if triangular, a concave superolateral border. In the true-positive Rigler's signs, the bowel wall thickness ranged from 1 to 8 mm, whereas the false positives all had a bowel wall thickness of 1 mm or less. Proper interpretation of the various signs of pneumoperitoneum on supine films should lead to more accurate diagnosis of this condition.

Falciform ligament sign is characteristic to which disease?

5a72329e2dc08e987e000006_002

GBshape: a genome browser database for DNA shape annotations. Many regulatory mechanisms require a high degree of specificity in protein-DNA binding. Nucleotide sequence does not provide an answer to the question of why a protein binds only to a small subset of the many putative binding sites in the genome that share the same core motif. Whereas higher-order effects, such as chromatin accessibility, cooperativity and cofactors, have been described, DNA shape recently gained attention as another feature that fine-tunes the DNA binding specificities of some transcription factor families. Our Genome Browser for DNA shape annotations (GBshape; freely available at http://rohslab.cmb.usc.edu/GBshape/) provides minor groove width, propeller twist, roll, helix twist and hydroxyl radical cleavage predictions for the entire genomes of 94 organisms. Additional genomes can easily be added using the GBshape framework. GBshape can be used to visualize DNA shape annotations qualitatively in a genome browser track format, and to download quantitative values of DNA shape features as a function of genomic position at nucleotide resolution. As biological applications, we illustrate the periodicity of DNA shape features that are present in nucleosome-occupied sequences from human, fly and worm, and we demonstrate structural similarities between transcription start sites in the genomes of four Drosophila species.

Which genome browser database for DNA shape annotations is available?

56c8f4615795f9a73e00001a_003

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) detection: comparison of two molecular methods (IDI-MRSA PCR assay and GenoType MRSA Direct PCR assay) with three selective MRSA agars (MRSA ID, MRSASelect, and CHROMagar MRSA) for use with infection-control swabs. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is an increasing problem. Rapid detection of MRSA-colonized patients has the potential to limit spread of the organism. We evaluated the sensitivities and specificities of MRSA detection by two molecular methods (IDI-MRSA PCR assay and GenoType MRSA Direct PCR assay) and three selective MRSA agars (MRSA ID, MRSASelect, and CHROMagar MRSA), using 205 (101 nasal, 52 groin, and 52 axillary samples) samples from consecutive known MRSA-infected and/or -colonized patients. All detection methods had higher MRSA detection rates for nasal swabs than for axillary and groin swabs. Detection of MRSA by IDI-MRSA was the most sensitive method, independent of the site (94% for nasal samples, 80% for nonnasal samples, and 90% overall). The sensitivities of the GenoType MRSA Direct assay and the MRSA ID, MRSASelect, and CHROMagar MRSA agars with nasal swabs were 70%, 72%, 68%, and 75%, respectively. All detection methods had high specificities (95 to 99%), independent of the swab site. Extended incubation for a further 24 h with selective MRSA agars increased the detection of MRSA, with a corresponding decline in specificity secondary to a significant increase in false-positive results. There was a noticeable difference in test performance of the GenoType MRSA Direct assay in detection of MRSA (28/38 samples [74%]) compared with detection of nonmultiresistant MRSA (17/31 samples [55%]) (susceptible to two or more non-beta-lactam antibiotics). This was not observed with selective MRSA agar plates or IDI-MRSA. Although it is more expensive, in addition to rapid turnaround times of 2 to 4 h, IDI-MRSA offers greater detection of MRSA colonization, independent of the swab site, than do conventional selective agars and GenoType MRSA Direct.

What is MRSA?

58a32efe60087bc10a000013_051

Efficacy and safety of longer-term administration of evolocumab (AMG 145) in patients with hypercholesterolemia: 52-week results from the Open-Label Study of Long-Term Evaluation Against LDL-C (OSLER) randomized trial. BACKGROUND: Evolocumab (AMG 145), a monoclonal antibody against proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9 (PCSK9), significantly reduced low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) in phase 2 studies of 12 weeks' duration. The longer-term efficacy and safety of PCSK9 inhibition remain undefined. METHODS AND RESULTS: Of 1359 randomized and dosed patients in the 4 evolocumab phase 2 parent studies, 1104 (81%) elected to enroll into the Open-Label Study of Long-term Evaluation Against LDL-C (OSLER) study. Regardless of their treatment assignment in the parent study, patients were randomized 2:1 to receive either open-label subcutaneous evolocumab 420 mg every 4 weeks with standard of care (SOC) (evolocumab+SOC, n=736) or SOC alone (n=368). Ninety-two percent of patients in the evolocumab+SOC group and 89% of patients in the SOC group completed 52 weeks of follow-up. Patients who first received evolocumab in OSLER experienced a mean 52.3% [SE, 1.8%] reduction in LDL-C at week 52 (P<0.0001). Patients who received 1 of 6 dosing regimens of evolocumab in the parent studies and received evolocumab+SOC in OSLER had persistent LDL-C reductions (mean reduction, 50.4% [SE, 0.8%] at the end of the parent study versus 52.1% [SE, 1.0%] at 52 weeks; P=0.31). In patients who discontinued evolocumab on entry into OSLER, LDL-C levels returned to near baseline levels. Adverse events and serious adverse events occurred in 81.4% and 7.1% of the evolocumab+SOC group patients and 73.1% and 6.3% of the SOC group patients, respectively. CONCLUSION: Evolocumab dosed every 4 weeks demonstrated continued efficacy and encouraging safety and tolerability over 1 year of treatment in the largest and longest evaluation of a PCSK9 inhibitor in hypercholesterolemic patients to date. CLINICAL TRIAL REGISTRATION URL: http://clinicaltrials.gov. Unique identifier: NCT01439880.

Which enzyme is targeted by Evolocumab?

54e0d1491388e8454a000014_005

Thyroid hemiagenesis and elevated thyrotropin levels in a child with Williams syndrome. A girl with Williams syndrome (WS) presented with elevated thyrotropin (TSH) levels (7.0 microU/ml), normal free thyroid hormone concentrations, and absent antithyroid autoantibodies. Thyroid ultrasonography and scintigraphy showed hemiagenesis of the left lobe and no evidence of ectopic tissue. TSH response to thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) injection (200 microg/mq, i.v.) was exaggerated and prolonged, suggesting subclinical hypothyroidism. The biological activity of circulating TSH was slightly below the normal range [TSH bioactivity (B) to immunoreactivity (I) ratio (TSH B/I) = 0.4, normal: 0.6-2.2]. These abnormalities are similar to those seen in patients with hypothalamic hypothyroidism. Thyroid function is not a recognized manifestation of WS and is not routinely investigated. However, abnormalities of the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid (HPT) axis and thyroid dysgenesis have been found in other WS cases. Genes mapping at 7q11.23, contiguous to the chromosomal region deleted in most WS patients, may be involved in the development of the thyroid gland, contributing to the complex phenotype of WS.

Which hormone abnormalities are common in Williams syndrome ?

530cefaaad0bf1360c00000d_026

Multicenter evaluation of the Cepheid Xpert methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) test as a rapid screening method for detection of MRSA in nares. The first U.S. multicenter clinical trial to assess the performance of the Cepheid Xpert MRSA assay (Xpert MRSA) was conducted. The assay is a qualitative test designed for the rapid detection of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) directly from nares swabs. This novel test combines integrated nucleic acid extraction and automated real-time PCR for the detection of a MRSA-specific signature sequence. A total of 1,077 nares specimens were collected from seven geographically distinct health care sites across the United States with prevalence rates ranging from 5.2% to 44%. Nares specimens were tested by (i) the Xpert MRSA assay, (ii) direct culture on CHROMagar MRSA medium (direct CM culture), and (iii) broth-enriched culture (Trypticase soy broth with 6.5% sodium chloride) followed by plating onto CHROMagar MRSA medium (broth-enriched CM culture). When direct CM culture was designated the reference method, the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV), and negative predictive value (NPV) of the Xpert MRSA assay were 94.3%, 93.2%, 73.0%, and 98.8%, respectively. When broth-enriched CM culture was used as the reference method, the clinical sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV of the Xpert MRSA assay were 86.3%, 94.9%, 80.5%, and 96.6%, respectively. The BD GeneOhm MRSA (BDGO) assay was performed as a comparative molecular method. No statistical performance differences were observed between the Xpert MRSA and BDGO assays when they were compared to culture methods. From this large-scale, multicenter clinical comparison, we conclude that the Xpert MRSA assay is a simple, rapid, and accurate method for performing active surveillance for MRSA in a variety of health care populations.

What is MRSA?

58a32efe60087bc10a000013_039

RADAR: a rigorously annotated database of A-to-I RNA editing. We present RADAR--a rigorously annotated database of A-to-I RNA editing (available at http://RNAedit.com). The identification of A-to-I RNA editing sites has been dramatically accelerated in the past few years by high-throughput RNA sequencing studies. RADAR includes a comprehensive collection of A-to-I RNA editing sites identified in humans (Homo sapiens), mice (Mus musculus) and flies (Drosophila melanogaster), together with extensive manually curated annotations for each editing site. RADAR also includes an expandable listing of tissue-specific editing levels for each editing site, which will facilitate the assignment of biological functions to specific editing sites.

Which annotated database of A-to-I RNA editing is available?

587e1a01fc7e8dd84f000001_003

A novel mutation in the endosomal Na+/H+ exchanger NHE6 (SLC9A6) causes Christianson syndrome with electrical status epilepticus during slow-wave sleep (ESES). Mutations in the solute carrier family 9, subfamily A member 6 (SLC9A6) gene, encoding the endosomal Na+/H+ exchanger 6 (NHE6) are associated with Christianson syndrome, a syndromic form of X-linked intellectual disability characterized by microcephaly, severe global developmental delay, autistic behavior, early onset seizures and ataxia. In a 7-year-old boy with characteristic clinical and neuroimaging features of Christianson syndrome and epileptic encephalopathy with continuous spikes and waves during sleep, we identified a novel splice site mutation (IVS10-1G>A) in SLC9A6. These findings expand the clinical spectrum of the syndrome and indicate NHE6 dysfunction as a new cause of electrical status epilepticus during slow-wave sleep (ESES).

Mutation of which gene is implicated in the Christianson syndrome?

5895bc397d9090f35300000b_027

[Antagonism of the effects of benzodiazepines using flumazenil (Ro 15-1788)]. Flumazenil (Ro 15-1788) proved to be a very efficacious competitive antagonist of benzodiazepines that reliably counteracts their pharmacological actions within 1-2 min as could be demonstrated in clinical and EEG studies. In general, a total dose of 0.3-0.8 mg will be sufficient in clinical practice, avoiding side effects like nausea, tremor, sweating, or transient anxiety that could be observed when higher dosages were administered. Its therapeutic range is very high as could be demonstrated in experimental animal in which up to 8.000-fold the clinical dose was administered. The total volume of distribution (Vdes) amounts to nearly 1.000 ml/kg BW and the total clearance exceeds 1.200 ml/min, resulting in a biological half-life of less than 60 min. According to the benzodiazepine dosage and the rapid plasma concentration decline of flumazenil, in some cases a resedation could be observed. Hence, a careful observation of the antagonised patient on the ward is mandatory for 1.5-2 h, even if at first sight the antagonization seemed successful and the patient fully awake and cooperative. In anaesthesia, indications to administer flumazenil are adverse drug reactions and prolonged recovery after adequate benzodiazepine dosage. In intensive care medicine, the antagonist may be used in the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose as well as in the differential diagnosis of a coma of unknown origin. Additionally, the antagonist may be administered to interrupt benzodiazepine sedation e.g. for neurological examination.

Which drug should be used as an antidote in benzodiazepine overdose?

514a0a57d24251bc05000051_050

Teriflunomide: a once-daily oral medication for the treatment of relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis. PURPOSE: The purpose was to summarize US prescribing information for teriflunomide in the treatment of patients with relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis (RMS), with reference to clinical efficacy and safety outcomes. METHODS: In September 2012, the US Food and Drug Administration granted approval for the use of teriflunomide, 14 mg and 7 mg once daily, to treat RMS on the basis of the results of a Phase II study and the Phase III TEMSO (Teriflunomide Multiple Sclerosis Oral) trial. After recent updates to the prescribing information (October 2014), key findings from these and 2 other Phase III clinical trials, TOWER (Teriflunomide Oral in People With Relapsing Multiple Sclerosis) and TOPIC (Oral Teriflunomide for Patients with a First Clinical Episode Suggestive of Multiple Sclerosis), and practical considerations for physicians are summarized. FINDINGS: Teriflunomide, 14 mg and 7 mg, significantly reduced mean number of unique active lesions on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI; P < 0.05 for both doses) in the Phase II study. In the TEMSO and TOWER studies, the 14-mg dose of teriflunomide significantly reduced annualized relapse rate (31% and 36% relative risk reduction compared with placebo, respectively; both P < 0.001) and risk of disability progression sustained for 12 weeks (hazard ratio vs placebo 0.70 and 0.69, respectively; both P < 0.05). The 7-mg dose significantly (P < 0.02) reduced annualized relapse rate in both studies, although the reduction in risk of disability progression was not statistically significant. Teriflunomide treatment was also associated with significant efficacy on MRI measures of disease activity in TEMSO; both doses significantly reduced total lesion volume and number of gadolinium-enhancing T1 lesions. TOPIC evaluated patients with a first clinical event consistent with acute demyelination and brain MRI lesions characteristic of multiple sclerosis. More patients were free of relapse in the teriflunomide 14-mg and 7-mg groups than in the placebo group (P < 0.05 for both comparisons). In safety data pooled from the 4 studies, adverse events occurring in > 2% of patients and > 2% higher than in the placebo group were headache, alanine aminotransferase increase, diarrhea, alopecia (hair thinning), nausea, paresthesia, arthralgia, neutropenia, and hypertension. Routine monitoring procedures before and on treatment are recommended to assess potential safety issues. Women of childbearing potential must use effective contraception and, in the event of pregnancy, undergo an accelerated elimination procedure to reduce plasma concentrations of teriflunomide. IMPLICATIONS: Clinical evidence suggests that teriflunomide is an effective therapeutic choice for patients with RMS, both as an initial treatment and as an alternative for patients who may have experienced intolerance or inadequate response to a previous or current disease-modifying therapy.

Which drug was tested in the TEMSO Trial for multiple sclerosis?

589a246078275d0c4a00002a_010

Low alpha-synuclein 126 mRNA levels in dementia with Lewy bodies and Alzheimer disease. Alpha-synuclein, a main component of Lewy bodies in synucleinopathies and senile plaques in Alzheimer disease, is centrally involved in neurodegeneration. Three different isoforms (alpha-synuclein 112, 126, and 140) resulting from alternative splicing have been described so far. The present study explores alpha-synuclein 126 mRNA expression levels in the prefrontal cortex of six patients with dementia with Lewy bodies, eight patients with Lewy body variant of Alzheimer disease, eight patients with Alzheimer disease, and 10 controls. Relative alpha-synuclein 126 expression levels were determined by real-time polymerase chain reaction with competimer technology. Alpha-synuclein 126 mRNA expression was markedly decreased in the three dementias in comparison with controls, suggesting an important role of this alpha-synuclein isoform in the normal brain.

What is the main component of the Lewy bodies?

550c3d45a103b78016000008_013

The pentapeptide LQVVR plays a pivotal role in human cystatin C fibrillization. Human cystatin C (HCC) is a low molecular weight member of the cystatin family (type2). HCC consists of 120 amino acids. Normally it is an inhibitor of cysteine proteases, but in pathological conditions it forms amyloid fibrils in brain arteries of young adults. An 'aggregation-prone' pentapeptide ((47)LQVVR(51)) was located within the HCC sequence using AmylPred, an 'aggregation-prone' peptide prediction algorithm developed in our lab. This peptide was synthesized and self-assembled into amyloid-like fibrils in vitro, as electron microscopy, X-ray fiber diffraction, Attenuated Total Reflectance Fourier-Transform Spectroscopy and Congo red staining studies reveal. Thus, the (47)LQVVR(51) peptide seems to have an important role in HCC fibrillization.

Which peptide plays a pivotal role in human cystatin C fibrillization?

56b1f4300a360a5e4500001b_004

Spectrum of novel mutations found in Waardenburg syndrome types 1 and 2: implications for molecular genetic diagnostics. OBJECTIVES: Till date, mutations in the genes PAX3 and MITF have been described in Waardenburg syndrome (WS), which is clinically characterised by congenital hearing loss and pigmentation anomalies. Our study intended to determine the frequency of mutations and deletions in these genes, to assess the clinical phenotype in detail and to identify rational priorities for molecular genetic diagnostics procedures. DESIGN: Prospective analysis. PATIENTS: 19 Caucasian patients with typical features of WS underwent stepwise investigation of PAX3 and MITF. When point mutations and small insertions/deletions were excluded by direct sequencing, copy number analysis by multiplex ligation-dependent probe amplification was performed to detect larger deletions and duplications. Clinical data and photographs were collected to facilitate genotype-phenotype analyses. SETTING: All analyses were performed in a large German laboratory specialised in genetic diagnostics. RESULTS: 15 novel and 4 previously published heterozygous mutations in PAX3 and MITF were identified. Of these, six were large deletions or duplications that were only detectable by copy number analysis. All patients with PAX3 mutations had typical phenotype of WS with dystopia canthorum (WS1), whereas patients with MITF gene mutations presented without dystopia canthorum (WS2). In addition, one patient with bilateral hearing loss and blue eyes with iris stroma dysplasia had a de novo missense mutation (p.Arg217Ile) in MITF. MITF 3-bp deletions at amino acid position 217 have previously been described in patients with Tietz syndrome (TS), a clinical entity with hearing loss and generalised hypopigmentation. CONCLUSIONS: On the basis of these findings, we conclude that sequencing and copy number analysis of both PAX3 and MITF have to be recommended in the routine molecular diagnostic setting for patients, WS1 and WS2. Furthermore, our genotype-phenotype analyses indicate that WS2 and TS correspond to a clinical spectrum that is influenced by MITF mutation type and position.

Which mutated gene is associated with Waardenburg and Tietz syndromes?

58a57f9460087bc10a00001f_008

CD38 expression predicts poor prognosis and might be a potential therapy target in extranodal NK/T cell lymphoma, nasal type. No standard chemotherapy regimens have been defined yet for extranodal natural killer/T cell lymphoma (ENKTL), and the prognosis of patients with advanced or relapsed disease is very poor. Daratumumab, an investigated anti-cancer drug targeting CD38, has been of great interest in the treatment of CD38-expressing malignancies, especially multiple myeloma. In this study, we reviewed the clinical data of 94 patients with ENKTL, investigated the expression of CD38, and analyzed the prognostic value of CD38 expression. Forty-seven patients had weak expression of CD38, and the other 47 patients had strong expression. The complete response (CR) rate was significantly higher in patients who were treated with asparaginase-based therapy (83.8 vs. 59.6 %, p = 0.025). There was a trend towards higher CR rate in CD38 weak expression group (78.7 vs. 59.6 %, p = 0.074). At a median follow-up time of 42 months, the 2-year and 5-year progression-free survival (PFS) rates were 53.0 and 39.0 %, respectively, and the 2-year and 5-year overall survival (OS) rates were 68.0 and 58.0 %, respectively. In multivariate survival analysis including CD38 expression status, International Prognostic Index (IPI) score, local tumor invasion, and chemotherapy regimens, it was found that strong expression of CD38 and non-asparaginase-based chemoregimens were independent adverse prognostic factors for PFS (p = 0.009 and 0.027, respectively), while local tumor invasion and higher IPI score were independent adverse prognostic factors for OS (p = 0.002 and 0.035, respectively). In subgroup analysis, strong expression of CD38 significantly correlated with inferior survival outcomes in patients without local tumor invasion (p = 0.011) or with stage I-II disease (p = 0.008). In conclusion, we firstly found that the majority of ENKTL cases were CD38 positive, with half had strong expression of CD38, which significantly correlated with poor outcomes, indicating the potential role of CD38 as a therapy target for ENKTL.

Which molecule is targeted by Daratumumab?

56c04412ef6e39474100001b_001

McLeod syndrome: life-long neuropsychiatric disorder due to a novel mutation of the XK gene. A 50-year-old man presented with worsening, virtually lifelong, chorea and progressive behavioural disturbance, involving disinhibition and hoarding, over 10 years. Clinical assessment revealed chorea, dysarthria, areflexia, an inappropriately jovial, impulsive manner and neuropsychological evidence of frontosubcortical dysfunction. Investigation results included an elevated creatine kinase, caudate atrophy and hypoperfusion, acanthocytes in the peripheral blood and the McLeod phenotype. DNA studies demonstrated a single-base deletion at position 172 in exon 1 of the XK gene, giving rise to a premature stop codon at position 129 in exon 2.

Mutation of which gene is associated with McLeod syndrome?

531464a6e3eabad021000014_030

Paediatric investigation plans for pain: painfully slow! PURPOSE: To examine the early impact of the Paediatric Regulation, which entered into force in Europe on 27 January 2007, on the development of pharmaceutical drugs in the therapeutic field of pain submitted to the Paediatric Committee (PDCO) and to the European Medicines Agency (EMA). METHODS: Paediatric Investigations Plans (PIPs) submitted with a Decision (outcome) reached between September 2007 and March 2010 were included in the analysis. RESULTS: Of the 17 Paediatric Investigation Plans submitted, 14 have resulted in an EMA Decision, 3 were withdrawn by the applicants, 8 were granted a full waiver from development, and 1 resulted in a negative opinion. Decisions as issued included 15 clinical trials, with at least 1,282 children to be recruited into studies across five different products. Neonates were included in four of the products. CONCLUSIONS: The small number of submissions indicates a lack of new drugs being developed for the management of pain. Ethical concerns that too many vulnerable children will be recruited into clinical trials must be balanced against limiting the number of off-label prescribing and obtaining age-appropriate information on paediatric use. Now is an opportune time for clinicians, academics, learned societies and industry to collaborate for the benefit of children in pain.

How many clinical trials for off-label drugs in neonates are cited in the literature.

5150b807d24251bc05000072_002

The effect of dose increase of imatinib mesylate in patients with chronic or accelerated phase chronic myelogenous leukemia with inadequate hematologic or cytogenetic response to initial treatment. PURPOSE: Imatinib mesylate is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor with high affinity for the BCR-ABL fusion protein expressed by the hematopoietic cells in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). Some patients with chronic-phase or accelerated-phase CML either relapse after an initial response or are refractory to imatinib, prompting us to evaluate the efficacy of dose increase in such patients. EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN: Twelve chronic-phase patients initially receiving 400 mg/day and 4 patients with accelerated phase initially receiving either 400 mg/day (two patients) or 600 mg/day (two patients) had their dose increased (14 to 800 mg/day and 2 to 600 mg/day) because of progressive disease (usually clonal evolution) or inadequate cytogenetic response after at least 1 year of therapy. RESULTS: Six patients had major cytogenetic responses after dose increase (3 complete and 3 partial). Two others had minor cytogenetic responses. Two patients with clonal evolution transiently lost the additional clonal aberrations. Almost all of the responses occurred within 6 months, and were typically 3-6 months in duration. However, 3 patients have continuing major cytogenetic responses of >18 months duration. Dose increase was well tolerated, with thrombocytopenia, mild leukopenia, and exacerbation of prior edema being the most common adverse events. CONCLUSIONS: Although increasing the dose of imatinib can benefit a subgroup of patients with CML with either an inadequate cytogenetic response or disease progression, our results suggest the majority will not have a sustained meaningful response, and that other options, such as allogeneic stem cell transplant or investigational therapies, also need to be considered at the time of dose increase.

What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?

5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_079

[Pharmacologic and clinical characteristics of direct inhibitors of factor Xa: rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban and betrixaban]. Heparins and vitamin K antagonists (VKA) used commonly are the standard treatment of venous and arterial thromboses. They are very efficient and safe, but have some limitations: iatrogenicity, laboratory monitoring, parenteral use for heparins and fondaparinux. Nowadays, four new inhibitors of factor Xa are used orally (rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban, betrixaban), and they are at least as efficient as heparins and vitamin K antagonists. The objective is to substitute these indirect inhibitors of factor Xa (heparins, low molecular weight heparins and fondaparinux) in the prevention of venous and arterial thromboembolic episodes. The new direct inhibitors do not require routine laboratory monitoring of blood coagulation. They inhibit the extrinsic and the intrinsic pathways of blood coagulation. Rivaroxaban and apixaban are efficacious and safe in the prevention of cerebral infarcts in patients with non-valvular fibrillation. Apixaban is another direct inhibitor of factor Xa used orally which is developed in the same indications as rivaroxaban. Edoxaban and betrixaban are also in development. The objective of this work is to study the pharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic, the efficacy and safety of these four oral direct factor Xa inhibitors.

Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?

55200c606b348bb82c000013_115

dsPIG: a tool to predict imprinted genes from the deep sequencing of whole transcriptomes. BACKGROUND: Dysregulation of imprinted genes, which are expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner, plays an important role in various human diseases, such as cancer and behavioral disorder. To date, however, fewer than 100 imprinted genes have been identified in the human genome. The recent availability of high-throughput technology makes it possible to have large-scale prediction of imprinted genes. Here we propose a Bayesian model (dsPIG) to predict imprinted genes on the basis of allelic expression observed in mRNA-Seq data of independent human tissues. RESULTS: Our model (dsPIG) was capable of identifying imprinted genes with high sensitivity and specificity and a low false discovery rate when the number of sequenced tissue samples was fairly large, according to simulations. By applying dsPIG to the mRNA-Seq data, we predicted 94 imprinted genes in 20 cerebellum samples and 57 imprinted genes in 9 diverse tissue samples with expected low false discovery rates. We also assessed dsPIG using previously validated imprinted and non-imprinted genes. With simulations, we further analyzed how imbalanced allelic expression of non-imprinted genes or different minor allele frequencies affected the predictions of dsPIG. Interestingly, we found that, among biallelically expressed genes, at least 18 genes expressed significantly more transcripts from one allele than the other among different individuals and tissues. CONCLUSION: With the prevalence of the mRNA-Seq technology, dsPIG has become a useful tool for analysis of allelic expression and large-scale prediction of imprinted genes. For ease of use, we have set up a web service and also provided an R package for dsPIG at http://www.shoudanliang.com/dsPIG/.

How many genes are imprinted in the human genome?

57090c33cf1c325851000013_001

Interdigital foot infections: Corynebacterium minutissimum and agents of superficial mycoses. Interdigital foot infections are mostly caused initially by dermatophytes, yeasts and less frequently by bacteria. Erythrasma caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum can be confused with superficial mycoses. The aim of the study was to determine the prevalence of the etiologic agents of superficial mycoses and the frequency of Corynebacterium minutissimum in interdigital foot infections. All the samples obtained from the 121 patients with interdigital foot infections were examined directly with the use of 20% potassium hydroxide mounts and Gram stain under the microscope and cultured on Sabouraud's dextrose agar plates. In identification of superficial mycoses, the rate was found to be 14% with the cultural method and 14% with direct microscopic examination. Using a combination of direct microscopic examination and culture, a 33.8% ratio was achieved. In the culture of these samples, the most isolated factor was Trichophyton rubrum (33.7%). In 24 of the patients (19.8%) Corynebacterium minutissimum was detected by Gram staining, in 6 of these patients Trichophyton rubrum was found, Trichophyton mentagrophytes was found in 2 and Trichosporon spp. was found in 1. The examination of interdigital foot lesions in the laboratory, the coexistence of erythrasma with dermatophytes and yeast should be considered.

Which bacteria causes erythrasma?

5a68f448b750ff4455000018_001

SUMO-conjugating enzyme E2 UBC9 mediates viral immediate-early protein SUMOylation in crayfish to facilitate reproduction of white spot syndrome virus. Successful viruses have evolved superior strategies to escape host defenses or exploit host biological pathways. Most of the viral immediate-early (ie) genes are essential for viral infection and depend solely on host proteins; however, the molecular mechanisms are poorly understood. In this study, we focused on the modification of viral IE proteins by the crayfish small ubiquitin-related modifier (SUMO) and investigated the role of SUMOylation during the viral life cycle. SUMO and SUMO ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme 9 (UBC9) involved in SUMOylation were identified in red swamp crayfish (Procambarus clarkii). Both SUMO and UBC9 were upregulated in crayfish challenged with white spot syndrome virus (WSSV). Replication of WSSV genes increased in crayfish injected with recombinant SUMO or UBC9, but injection of mutant SUMO or UBC9 protein had no effect. Subsequently, we analyzed the mechanism by which crayfish SUMOylation facilitates WSSV replication. Crayfish UBC9 bound to all three WSSV IE proteins tested, and one of these IE proteins (WSV051) was covalently modified by SUMO in vitro. The expression of viral ie genes was affected and that of late genes was significantly inhibited in UBC9-silenced or SUMO-silenced crayfish, and the inhibition effect was rescued by injection of recombinant SUMO or UBC9. The results of this study demonstrate that viral IE proteins can be modified by crayfish SUMOylation, prompt the expression of viral genes, and ultimately benefit WSSV replication. Understanding of the mechanisms by which viruses exploit host components will greatly improve our knowledge of the virus-host "arms race" and contribute to the development of novel methods against virulent viruses.

What is the role of the UBC9 enzyme in the protein sumoylation pathway?

58a5b1fe60087bc10a000024_005

Analysis of tyrosinase mutations associated with tyrosinase-related oculocutaneous albinism (OCA1). Mutations of the tyrosinase gene associated with a partial or complete loss of enzymatic activity are responsible for tyrosinase related oculocutaneous albinism (OCA1). A large number of mutations have been identified and their analysis has provided insight into the biology of tyrosinase and the pathogenesis of these different mutations. Missense mutations produce their effect on the activity of an enzyme by altering an amino acid at a specific site. The location of these mutations in the peptide can be used to indicate potential domains important for enzymatic activity. Missense mutations of the tyrosinase polypeptide cluster in four regions, suggesting that these are important functional domains. Two of the potential domains involve the copper binding sites while the others are likely involved in substrate binding. More critical analysis of the copper binding domain of tyrosinase can be gained by analyzing the structure of hemocyanin, a copper-binding protein with a high degree of homology to tyrosinase in the copper binding region. This analysis indicates a single catalytic site in tyrosinase for all enzymatic activities.

Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?

58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_033

Statistical methodology for the evaluation of vaccine efficacy in a phase III multi-centre trial of the RTS, S/AS01 malaria vaccine in African children. BACKGROUND: There has been much debate about the appropriate statistical methodology for the evaluation of malaria field studies and the challenges in interpreting data arising from these trials. METHODS: The present paper describes, for a pivotal phase III efficacy of the RTS, S/AS01 malaria vaccine, the methods of the statistical analysis and the rationale for their selection. The methods used to estimate efficacy of the primary course of vaccination, and of a booster dose, in preventing clinical episodes of uncomplicated and severe malaria, and to determine the duration of protection, are described. The interpretation of various measures of efficacy in terms of the potential public health impact of the vaccine is discussed. CONCLUSIONS: The methodology selected to analyse the clinical trial must be scientifically sound, acceptable to regulatory authorities and meaningful to those responsible for malaria control and public health policy.

RTS S AS01 vaccine was developed to prevent which disease?

56bc77a3ac7ad10019000015_024

Transcript versus transcription? Numerous sense-antisense gene pairs have been discovered in various organisms. Antisense genes play important roles in establishing parentally imprinted gene expression patterns in mammals. Typically, protein-coding sense genes are reciprocally regulated by their non-coding antisense partners. One example for antisense regulation is the Xist (X-inactive specific transcript) and Tsix gene pair, which is pivotal in X-inactivation. Xist works as a functional RNA molecule that recruits repressive chromatin factors towards one of the female Xs for inactivation. Antisense Tsix transcription negatively regulates Xist and protects one X-chromosome in cis from inactivation by Xist. Albeit, the precise molecular mechanism is still obscure it has been shown that Tsix transcription regulates the chromatin structure by altering histone tail modifications and DNA methylation at the Xist promoter. In addition, Xist and Tsix RNA form an RNA duplexes in vivo and are processed to small RNAs, which have a potential regulatory function. Here we review the latest findings and based on ample experimental data consider models for antisense-mediated gene regulation in X-inactivation.

Which is the transcript responsible for X-chromosome inactivation?

5353aedb288f4dae47000006_017

Estrogen attenuates lipopolysaccharide-induced nitric oxide production in macrophages partially via the nongenomic pathway. Steroid hormones exert genotropic effects through members of the nuclear hormone receptor family. In the present study, we examined the effects of 17β-estradiol (E2) on nitric oxide (NO) production following lipopolysaccharide (LPS) stimulation and investigated the mechanisms in mouse bone marrow-derived macrophages (BMMs). E2 alone did not affect NO production. In contrast, E2 inhibited LPS-induced production of NO in BMMs. Using a cell-impermeable E2 conjugated to BSA (E2-BSA), which has been used to investigate the nongenomic effects of estrogen, we found that the increase in NO production induced by LPS was also attenuated. In addition, the intracellular estrogen receptor blocker, ICI 182780, only partially antagonized the total effects of E2 on LPS-stimulated NO production capacity. E2 also attenuated the LPS activation of p38 mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) but not that of extracellular-regulated protein kinase 1/2 (ERK1/2) and c-Jun NH2-terminal kinase (JNK). This attenuation was not abrogated by ICI 182780. Moreover, the p38 inhibitor, SB 203580, greatly reduced the LPS-induced NO production, and the remaining NO levels were no longer regulated by E2. Additionally, E2-BSA inhibited LPS-mediated changes in p38 MAPK activation to the same extent as E2. Moreover, E2 and E2-BSA inhibited LPS-induced activation of nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-κB) and activator protein 1 (AP-1). This inhibitory effect of E2 was only partially antagonized by ICI 182780. Taken together, these results suggest that E2 has an inhibitory effect on LPS-induced NO production in BMMs through inhibition of p38 MAPK phosphorylation, and blockade of NF-κB and AP-1 activation. These effects are mediated at least in part via a nongenomic pathway.

Which MAP kinase phosphorylates the transcription factor c-jun?

5518e7da622b194345000004_002

Transcriptional changes in response to X chromosome dosage in the mouse: implications for X inactivation and the molecular basis of Turner Syndrome. BACKGROUND: X monosomic mice (39,XO) have a remarkably mild phenotype when compared to women with Turner syndrome (45,XO). The generally accepted hypothesis to explain this discrepancy is that the number of genes on the mouse X chromosome which escape X inactivation, and thus are expressed at higher levels in females, is very small. However this hypothesis has never been tested and only a small number of genes have been assayed for their X-inactivation status in the mouse. We performed a global expression analysis in four somatic tissues (brain, liver, kidney and muscle) of adult 40,XX and 39,XO mice using the Illumina Mouse WG-6 v1_1 Expression BeadChip and an extensive validation by quantitative real time PCR, in order to identify which genes are expressed from both X chromosomes. RESULTS: We identified several genes on the X chromosome which are overexpressed in XX females, including those previously reported as escaping X inactivation, as well as new candidates. However, the results obtained by microarray and qPCR were not fully concordant, illustrating the difficulty in ascertaining modest fold changes, such as those expected for genes escaping X inactivation. Remarkably, considerable variation was observed between tissues, suggesting that inactivation patterns may be tissue-dependent. Our analysis also exposed several autosomal genes involved in mitochondrial metabolism and in protein translation which are differentially expressed between XX and XO mice, revealing secondary transcriptional changes to the alteration in X chromosome dosage. CONCLUSIONS: Our results support the prediction that the mouse inactive X chromosome is largely silent, while providing a list of the genes potentially escaping X inactivation in rodents. Although the lower expression of X-linked genes in XO mice may not be relevant in the particular tissues/systems which are affected in human X chromosome monosomy, genes deregulated in XO mice are good candidates for further study in an involvement in Turner Syndrome phenotype.

What chromosome is affected in Turner's syndrome?

58bca2f302b8c6095300000c_021

Role of ApoE in conformation-prone diseases and atherosclerosis. Three isoforms of human plasma apolipoprotein E (apoE) are ligands to lipoprotein receptors and influence in different manner the synthesis and catabolism of pro-atherogenic triglyceride-rich lipoproteins. Among three isoforms, the apoE4 isoform is associated with increased frequency of atherosclerosis and Alzheimer's disease (AD). The conformational transitions of beta-amyloid (Abeta) influenced by apoE and serum amyloid P (SAP) component are key events in AD development, the accumulation of intermediate diffusible and soluble oligomers of Abeta being of particular significance. SAP and apoE, in a different manner for the three isoforms, serve as "pathological" chaperones during the aggregation of Abeta considered as a conformation-prone process. In turn, apoE consisting of two domains self-associates in solution and intermediate structures differently populated for the three isoforms exist. The different structures of the three isoforms determine their different distribution among various plasma lipoproteins. The structural and metabolic consideration of the common apoE pathway(s) in two pathologies assumes four molecular targets for AD correction: (i) inhibition of the accumulation of diffusible soluble Abeta oligomers; (ii) inhibition of apoE synthesis and secretion by astrocytes, in particular, under lipid-lowering therapy; (iii) inhibition of the binding of apoE and/or SAP to Abeta; (iv) stimulation of the expression of cholesterol transporter ABCA1.

Which ApoE isoform is associated with atherosclerosis and Alzheimer's disease?

58b6cd3222d300530900000d_001

Reactivation of an inactive human X chromosome introduced into mouse embryonal carcinoma cells by microcell fusion with persistent expression of XIST. An inactive human X chromosome was introduced by microcell fusion into two mouse embryonal carcinoma cell lines, PSA1-TG8 and OTF9-63, each of which has a single X chromosome. The donor cell line was a mouse-human somatic cell hybrid, CF150, retaining one or more inactive human X chromosome(s) per cell as its only human element. Twenty hybrid clones isolated retained EC morphology and contained the intact human X chromosome(s) or its truncated derivative(s). Replication banding analysis showed that the introduced human X chromosome(s) or its derivative(s) replicated synchronously with other mouse chromosomes, suggesting reactivation of the human X chromosomal elements after transfer. Reversal of inactivation was further confirmed by the expression of five human X-linked genes repressed in CF150, although the XIST (X inactive specific transcript) gene continued to be active. The level of XIST expression in our hybrid cells was almost identical to that of parental CF150 cells. Methylation status of 5' end of the active XIST gene varied considerably from almost full methylation to unmethylation in these hybrids. Thus, mouse EC cells used in this study were capable of altering methylation status of the human XIST gene in a manner lacking consistency and unable to repress its transcription. Furthermore, we failed to obtain any positive evidence for the occurrence of X chromosome inactivation in differentiating monochromosome EC hybrids. Taken together, these findings suggest that the human X chromosome inactivation center including the XIST gene is unable to function effectively in mouse cells.

Which is the transcript responsible for X-chromosome inactivation?

5353aedb288f4dae47000006_035

Quantification of UCP1 function in human brown adipose tissue. Brown adipose tissue (BAT) mitochondria are distinct from their counterparts in other tissues in that ATP production is not their primary physiologic role. BAT mitochondria are equipped with a specialized protein known as uncoupling protein 1 (UCP1). UCP1 short-circuits the electron transport chain, allowing mitochondrial membrane potential to be transduced to heat, making BAT a tissue capable of altering energy expenditure and fuel metabolism in mammals without increasing physical activity. The recent discovery that adult humans have metabolically active BAT has rekindled an interest in this intriguing tissue, with the overarching aim of manipulating BAT function to augment energy expenditure as a countermeasure for obesity and the metabolic abnormalities it incurs. Subsequently, there has been heightened interest in quantifying BAT function and more specifically, determining UCP1-mediated thermogenesis in BAT specimens - including in those obtained from humans. In this article, BAT mitochondrial bioenergetics will be described and compared with more conventional mitochondria in other tissues. The biochemical methods typically used to quantify BAT mitochondrial function will also be discussed in terms of their specificity for assaying UCP1 mediated thermogenesis. Finally, recent data concerning BAT UCP1 function in humans will be described and discussed.

Which is the main protein in brown adipose tissue (BAT) active in thermogenesis?

5a8980d2fcd1d6a10c00000d_002

MethPed: an R package for the identification of pediatric brain tumor subtypes. BACKGROUND: DNA methylation profiling of pediatric brain tumors offers a new way of diagnosing and subgrouping these tumors which improves current clinical diagnostics based on histopathology. We have therefore developed the MethPed classifier, which is a multiclass random forest algorithm, based on DNA methylation profiles from many subgroups of pediatric brain tumors. RESULTS: We developed an R package that implements the MethPed classifier, making it easily available and accessible. The package can be used for estimating the probability that an unknown sample belongs to each of nine pediatric brain tumor diagnoses/subgroups. CONCLUSIONS: The MethPed R package efficiently classifies pediatric brain tumors using the developed MethPed classifier. MethPed is available via Bioconductor: http://bioconductor.org/packages/MethPed/.

Which R package could be used for the identification of pediatric brain tumors?

587e2300fc7e8dd84f000004_013

Effect of an investigational CYP17A1 inhibitor, orteronel (TAK-700), on estrogen- and corticoid-synthesis pathways in hypophysectomized female rats and on the serum estradiol levels in female cynomolgus monkeys. Orteronel (TAK-700) is an investigational, non-steroidal inhibitor of CYP17A1 with preferential inhibition of 17,20-lyase in NCI-H295 cells. Estrogen is synthesized from androgen by aromatase activity, and the effect of orteronel on estrogen synthesis was therefore evaluated. First, it was confirmed that orteronel does not directly inhibit aromatase activity. Second, the specific decline of serum estradiol and androgen levels in hypophysectomized female rats by orteronel in comparison with aromatase inhibitor anastrozole was evaluated; orteronel at doses > 3mg/kg significantly suppressed serum estradiol, testosterone, androstenedione and 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels, and increased progesterone levels in the estrogen-synthesis pathway. Orteronel, at a dose of 300mg/kg, suppressed serum estradiol concentrations to a similar degree as 0.1mg/kg anastrozole. In contrast, in the corticoid-synthesis pathway, serum aldosterone, corticosterone, and progesterone levels did not change significantly following administration of 300mg/kg of orteronel. Third, the effect of multiple oral administration of orteronel on serum estradiol levels in regularly cycling female cynomolgus monkeys was evaluated. Orteronel at 15mg/kg/day (7.5mg/kg/treatment, twice daily [bid]) continued to suppress the estradiol surge prior to the start of luteal phase for 1.5-times the average duration of three consecutive, pre-treatment menstrual cycles, while serum progesterone was maintained at levels almost equal to those in the luteal phase although a certain portion of this increased level of progesterone could be of adrenal-origin. This suppressive effect on estradiol surge was thought to be reversible since serum estradiol levels started to rise immediately after the discontinuation of orteronel. Estradiol surge was not abrogated by treatment with anastrozole 0.2mg/kg/day (0.1mg/kg/treatment, bid). In summary, orteronel can suppress serum estradiol concentrations in hypophysectomized female rats and monkeys through selective inhibition of CYP17A1 activity, suggesting that orteronel might be effective for hormone-dependent breast cancers and estrogen-dependent diseases.

Which enzyme is inhibited by Orteronel?

54e0c3e71388e8454a000013_005

Functional expression of a Drosophila gene in yeast: genetic complementation of DNA topoisomerase II. Since DNA topoisomerase II (EC 5.99.1.3) is an essential enzyme in yeast, heterologous topoisomerase II gene expression in yeast cells can provide a system for analyzing the structure and function of topoisomerase II genes from other species. A series of yeast expression plasmids was constructed in which segments of the cDNA sequences encoding Drosophila DNA topoisomerase II were inserted under the transcriptional control of yeast GAL1 promoter. Expression of the functional form of Drosophila topoisomerase II cDNA can complement conditionally lethal, temperature-sensitive mutations in the yeast topoisomerase II gene (TOP2), as well as mutations in which the TOP2 locus was disrupted. The survival of these yeast cells depends upon the continuous expression of Drosophila topoisomerase II. Repression of Drosophila gene expression by glucose causes these yeast cells to cease dividing after a few generations. In addition to these genetic complementation data, the expression of the Drosophila topoisomerase II gene in yeast cells with a disruption in TOP2 can also be detected by immunochemical methods with an antibody specific for Drosophila topoisomerase II.

Which topoisomerase is essential in yeast?

5a4e50b242878bf97d000001_005

Preparative HPLC separation of underivatized amino acids for isotopic analysis. Single-compound analysis of stable or radio-isotopes has found application in a number of fields ranging from archaeology to forensics. Often, the most difficult part of these analyses is the development of a method for isolating the compounds of interest.Here, we describe three complementary preparative HPLC procedures suitable for separating and isolating single amino acids from bone collagen or hair keratin with minimal isotopic contamination. Using preparative reversed-phase, ion-pair, or mixed-mode chromatography of underivatized amino acids in aqueous mobile phases, single amino acids can be isolated and further analyzed using mass spectrometric techniques.

Which bone protein is used in archaelogy for dating and species identification?

55054f8af73303d458000002_004

Transcription-coupled DNA repair in prokaryotes. Transcription-coupled repair (TCR) is a subpathway of nucleotide excision repair (NER) that acts specifically on lesions in the transcribed strand of expressed genes. First reported in mammalian cells, TCR was then documented in Escherichia coli. In this organism, an RNA polymerase arrested at a lesion is displaced by the transcription repair coupling factor, Mfd. This protein recruits the NER lesion-recognition factor UvrA, and then dissociates from the DNA. UvrA binds UvrB, and the assembled UvrAB* complex initiates repair. In mutants lacking active Mfd, TCR is absent. A gene transcribed by the bacteriophage T7 RNA polymerase in E. coli also requires Mfd for TCR. The CSB protein (missing or defective in cells of patients with Cockayne syndrome, complementation group B) is essential for TCR in humans. CSB and its homologs in higher eukaryotes are likely functional equivalents of Mfd.

Which gene strand is targeted by transcription-coupled repair (TCR)?

5545186cbf90a13052000002_016

Practical use of dabigatran etexilate for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is associated with an increased risk of thromboembolism, and is the most prevalent factor for cardioembolic stroke. Vitamin K antagonists (VKAs) have been the standard of care for stroke prevention in patients with AF since the early 1990s. They are very effective for the prevention of cardioembolic stroke, but are limited by factors such as drug-drug interactions, food interactions, slow onset and offset of action, haemorrhage and need for routine anticoagulation monitoring to maintain a therapeutic international normalised ratio (INR). Multiple new oral anticoagulants have been developed as potential replacements for VKAs for stroke prevention in AF. Most are small synthetic molecules that target thrombin (e.g. dabigatran etexilate) or factor Xa (e.g. rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban, betrixaban, YM150). These drugs have predictable pharmacokinetics that allow fixed dosing without routine laboratory monitoring. Dabigatran etexilate, the first of these new oral anticoagulants to be approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and the European Medicines Agency for stroke prevention in patients with non-valvular AF, represents an effective and safe alternative to VKAs. Under the auspices of the Regional Anticoagulation Working Group, a multidisciplinary group of experts in thrombosis and haemostasis from Central and Eastern Europe, an expert panel with expertise in AF convened to discuss practical, clinically important issues related to the long-term use of dabigatran for stroke prevention in non-valvular AF. The practical information reviewed in this article will help clinicians make appropriate use of this new therapeutic option in daily clinical practice.

Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?

55200c606b348bb82c000013_013

The transcription factor TFIIS zinc ribbon dipeptide Asp-Glu is critical for stimulation of elongation and RNA cleavage by RNA polymerase II. The eukaryotic transcription factor TFIIS enhances elongation and nascent transcript cleavage activities of RNA polymerase II in a stalled elongation complex. By site-directed mutagenesis, we have demonstrated that invariant residues Asp-261 and Glu-262 of the nucleic acid-binding TFIIS Zn ribbon are critical for stimulation of both elongation and RNA cleavage activities of RNA polymerase II. Substitution of either of these residues inactivates both TFIIS functions, suggesting a related role in both activities. These acidic residues may participate in phosphoryl transfer reactions by a two-metal-ion mechanism in a manner analogous to Klenow fragment. The RNA polymerase II itself may contain a Zn ribbon, in as much as the polymerase's 15-kDa subunit contains a sequence that aligns well with the TFIIS Zn ribbon sequence, including a similarly placed pair of acidic residues.

Which RNA polymerase II subunit carries RNA cleavage activity?

5a4df811966455904c00000e_007

A new model for dermatitis herpetiformis that uses HLA-DQ8 transgenic NOD mice. Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH) is an autoimmune blistering skin disorder that is associated with gluten sensitivity. It presents as a papulovesicular rash and is often associated with enteropathy. The rash resolves when the patient is placed on a gluten-free diet and/or dapsone. DH, as well as celiac disease, is tightly associated with DQ2 and DQ8. A novel mouse model for DH is described that utilizes the NOD background and the HLA-DQ8 transgene. The addition of DQ8 contributes sensitivity to gliadin, and the addition of the NOD background contributes to autoimmunity and pathogenesis. Fifteen NOD DQ8+ mice of 90 that were sensitized to gluten developed blistering pathology similar to that seen in DH. Neutrophil infiltration of the dermis, deposition of IgA at the dermal-epidermal junction, and a complete reversal of the blistering phenomenon with the administration of a gluten-free diet with or without dapsone were observed. None of the 3 blistering mice examined had small-bowel pathology. This animal model of DH will be useful to determine the specificity of the IgA deposits, as well as the pathogenic mechanisms that occur in the skin as a result of gluten ingestion.

What is the typical rash associated with gluten ?

55180ef46487737b43000006_024

Idarucizumab, a Humanized, Monoclonal Antibody Fragment for Immediate Reversal of Dabigatran. OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the role of idarucizumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody fragment, as a specific reversal agent for the anticoagulant activity of dabigatran and to review the pharmacology, pharmacokinetic properties, efficacy, and safety of this agent. METHODS: A literature search was conducted consisting of a PubMed database using the MeSH term idarucizumab and the key word dabigatran antidote. Studies evaluating the pharmacology, pharmacokinetics, safety, and efficacy of idarucizumab for the reversal of the anticoagulant activity of dabigatran were included. RESULTS: Idarucizumab represents a novel treatment option as it is the only humanized, monoclonal antibody fragment that specifically binds to dabigatran. Studies evaluating reversal of dabigatran-induced anticoagulation have demonstrated immediate, complete, and sustained effects with idarucizumab. Idarucizumab did not overcorrect thrombin generation. Additionally, evaluations have shown that dabigatran can be safely reinitiated 24 hours after the administration of idarucizumab. The United States Food and Drug Administration granted priority review for the biologic license application and accelerated approval for idarucizumab. CONCLUSION: Idarucizumab represents an encouraging development in the reversal of dabigatran. Its novel mechanism of action, pharmacokinetics, tolerability, and lack of thrombotic events contribute positively to its use in patients who experience bleeding or for those who require emergent surgery or procedures.

Which drug can be reversed with idarucizumab?

5a7237672dc08e987e000008_012