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Retinoblastoma best evaluated by -
A: Ultrasonography B: CT SCAN C: CT SCAN + MRI D: MRI
Answer: C
Loss of an anatomical structure or a physiological function is called:
A: Disability B: Impairment C: Handicap D: Paralysis
Answer: B
Transcription is inhibited by
A: Actinomycin D B: Amanitin C: Chloramphenicol D: Streptomycin
Answer: A
A wave in ERG is due to activity of-
A: Pigmented epithelium B: Rods and cones C: Ganglion cell D: Bipolar cell
Answer: B
Which of the following mechanisms is not responsible for complications in DM
A: Non enzymatic glycosylation B: Protein Kinase C activation C: Disturbance in polyol pathway D: Chronic inflammation
Answer: D
Hemolysis is seen in all except:
A: Haemophilia. B: Thalassemia. C: Sickle cell anemia. D: Methotrexate therapy.
Answer: A
A full course of immunization against, Tetanus with 3 doses of Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years -
A: 5 B: 10 C: 15 D: 20
Answer: A
Overgrowth of the bile duct in a localized region is
A: Hamaoma B: Choristoma C: Polyp D: Malignant tumor
Answer: A
Which is the most common complication in Monoamniotic twins?
A: Discordance B: Cord entanglement C: Conjoined twins D: Intertwining
Answer: D
All have chances of DVT except -
A: Hip fracture & resting B: Young < 25yrs age C: Decreased protein C & S D: Factor V defect
Answer: B
A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his mother because of petechial bleeding and bruises on his torso and limbs. The child doesn't have any other signs or symptoms and doesn't appear to be ill. Mother reports gastrointestinal infection several weeks prior to petechiae and bruising. CBC shows thrombocytopenia (<20xl09/L). Other parameters of CBC are within expected range for age. Also, PT, PTT and metabolic panels are all within referent range. What is the expected outcome of this blood disorder?
A: Complete resolution is expected B: Survival rate is up to 70% depending on risk stratification C: Lifelong disease dependent on factor VIII substitution D: Lifelong disease dependent on factor IX substitution
Answer: A
Non competitive inhibition is
A: Reversible B: Irreversible C: Any of the above D: None of the above
Answer: C
The earliest manifestations of Chronic lead poisoning include:
A: Colic and Constipation B: Encephalopathy C: Punctate basophilia D: Lower limb paralysis
Answer: C
Percentage of sucrose solution used for newborn analgesia is:
A: 5% B: 10% C: 24% D: 50%
Answer: C
Which of the following drugs are useful for long term treatment of congestive hea failure
A: Digoxin B: Ramipril C: Dobutamine D: Spironolactone
Answer: C
Which of the following drug possess similar cycloplegic action and is more potent mydriatic than atropine is:
A: Hyoscine. B: Tropicamide. C: Homatropine. D: All of the above.
Answer: A
Which of the following vitamin deficiency is found in patients with gastric cancer ?
A: Vitamin C B: Vitamin B 12 C: Vitamin A D: Vitamin D
Answer: B
A 25-year-old woman complains of persistent bleeding for 5 days after a dental extraction. She has noticed easy bruisability since childhood and was given a blood transfusion at age 17 because of prolonged bleeding after an apparently minor cut. She denies ecchymoses or bleeding into joints. Her father has noticed similar symptoms but has not sought medical care. Physical examination is normal except for mild oozing from the dental site. She does not have splenomegaly or enlarged lymph nodes. Her CBC is normal, with a platelet count of 230,000. Her prothrombin time is normal, but the partial thromboplastin time is mildly prolonged. The bleeding time is 12 minutes (normal 3-9 minutes). What is most appropriate way to control her bleeding?
A: Factor VIII concentrate B: Fresh frozen plasma C: Desmopressin (DDAVP) D: Whole blood transfusion
Answer: C
In Niacin deficiency, all of the following are seen except -
A: Deafness B: Diarrhea C: Dementia D: Dermatitis
Answer: A
Duration of adolescent stage in boys is
A: 3 years B: 3-5 years C: 4 years D: 5 years
Answer: D
In acute inflammation, contraction of endothelial cells results in the following:
A: Delayed transient increase in permeability B: Early transient increase in permeability C: Delayed permanent increase in permeability D: Early permanent increase in permeability
Answer: B
Type I muscle fibers rich in myosin heavy chain are
A: Fast contracting, susceptible to fatigue B: Slow contracting, susceptible to fatigue C: Fast contracting, resistant to fatigue D: Slow contracting, resistant to fatigue
Answer: D
What is the function of DNA ligase?
A: Unwinding (denaturation) of dsDNA to provide as ssDNA template B: Seals the single strand nick between the nascent chain and Okazaki fragments on lagging strand C: Initiation of DNA synthesis and elongation D: Initiates synthesis of RNA primers
Answer: B
Which of the following anti-Parkinson drugs has the potential to cause retroperitoneal fibrosis ?
A: Pramipexole B: Entacapone C: Bromocriptine D: Ropinirole
Answer: C
Which receptors are present in liver for uptake of LDL:
A: Apo E B: Apo A and Apo E C: Apo E and Apo B100 D: Apo B100
Answer: C
Pseudo gestational sac is seen in the USG of
A: Missed aboion B: Ectopic gestation C: Complete aboion D: Hematometra
Answer: B
True about the chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
A: FEVI <30 of predicted value B: FEV1/FVC<0.7 C: total lung capacity increased D: All
Answer: D
Ectopia lentis in a child is seen in which of the following disease?
A: Sarcoidosis B: Homocystinuria C: Alkaptonuria D: Wilson disease
Answer: B
Alcoholic presents with psychosis and memory loss. Probable diagnosis is:
A: Wernicke's encephalopathy B: Wernicke's Korsakoff psychosis C: Acute psychosis D: None of the above
Answer: B
The glycolytic enzyme Enolase is inhibited by
A: Iodoacetate B: Fluoride C: Arsenate D: Arsenic
Answer: B
All of the followings are signs of reversible cell injury; except:
A: Loss of microvilli B: Cell Swelling C: Bleb formation D: Dense Mitochondrial deposit
Answer: D
Power of reduced eye is ?
A: 55 D B: 60 D C: 65 D D: 70 D
Answer: B
The length of the eye ball is
A: 12 mm B: 16 mm C: 20 mm D: 24 mm
Answer: D
Wilm' s tumor associated with A/E
A: Hemihypertrophy B: Aniridia C: Hypertension D: Bilateral polycystic kidney disease
Answer: D
All are caused by Herpes simplex virus except
A: CA cervix B: Gingivostomatitis C: Mollaret meningitis D: Herpes labialis
Answer: A
Great auricular nerve originates from?
A: C2,C3 B: C3,C4 C: C4,C5 D: C5,C6
Answer: A
Function of CAMP
A: Ion exchange B: Activation of protein kinase C: Activation of Ryanodine receptors D: Release of acetylcholine
Answer: B
Birth trauma is a risk factor for:
A: Prolapse uterus B: Endometriosis C: PID D: Abortions
Answer: A
During an operation if a pair of scissors is left in abdomen it is known as:(2004)
A: Petty's method B: Res ipsa forcepalis C: Res ipsa loquitor D: Pharaoh's serpents
Answer: C
Paranasal sinuses presents at bih are
A: Frontal and maxillary B: Ethmoid and maxillary C: Frontal and ethmoid D: Sphenoid and ethmoid
Answer: B
The incidence of carcinoma cervix in women with multiple sexual paners is 5 times the incidence seen in those with a single paner. Based on this, what is the attributable risk?
A: 20% B: 40% C: 50% D: 80%
Answer: D
Secondary amyloidosis complicates which of the following:
A: Pneumonia B: Chronic glomerulonephritis C: Irritable bowel syndrome D: Chronic osteomyelitis
Answer: D
Thiopentone is used for induction anaesthesia, because it is –
A: Smooth induction B: Rapidly redistributed C: Rapid redistribution D: easy to monitor
Answer: A
If TFR in a population is 4, then GRR would be (approx.)
A: 2 B: 4 C: 8 D: 16
Answer: A
Pericardial space is present between ?
A: Endocardium and pericardium B: Epicardium and pericardium C: Endocardium and epicardium D: Parietal and visceral pericardium
Answer: D
Which of the following is primary prevention-
A: Screening test B: Early diagnosis C: Use of mosquito net D: Restoration of lost function
Answer: C
Chacroid is caused by?
A: N. Gonnorrea B: H. Ducrei C: T. Pallidum D: H. Influenza
Answer: B
Metrifonate is effective against:
A: Amoebiasis B: Leishmaniosis C: Schistosomiasis D: Giardiasis
Answer: C
For which malignancy, intensity Modulated Radiotherapy is the most suitable
A: Lung B: Prostate C: Leukemias D: Stomach
Answer: B
Eruption of Maxillary 2nd molar occur at
A: 8-9 year B: 10-11 year C: 19-20 year D: 12-13 year
Answer: D
Most common cause of secondary postpaum hemorrhage:-
A: Trauma B: Atonic uterus C: Bleeding disorders D: Retained products of conception
Answer: D
A 53 year old male presents with an enlarged supraclavicular lymph node, and examination reveals enlargement of the Waldeyer ring of oropharyngeal lymphoid tissue. There is no hepatosplenornegaly. Lymph node biopsy reveals replacements by a monomorphous population of large lymphoid cells with enlarged nuclei and prominent nucleoli. The CBC is normal except for finding of mild anemia. Immunohistochemical staining and flow cytometry of the node reveals that most lymphoid cells are CDl9 CD10=,CD3-, CD15-, and negative (TdT). These findings are most consistent with a diagnosis of
A: Chronic lymphadenitis B: Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma C: Hodgkin disease D: Lymphoblastic lymphoma
Answer: B
Clonorches sinenensis is-
A: Tapeworm B: Roundworm C: Threadworm D: Fluke
Answer: D
Use of FAST?
A: To detect fluid in pericardial and peritoneal sacs B: Pyoperitoneum C: Intestinal obstruction D: Pancreatitis
Answer: A
The 'Japanese Detergent Suicide Technique' involves mixing of common household chemical to produce:
A: H2S and other poisonous gases B: Deadly foam C: Deadly Acidic Compond D: Deadly fluid cyanide compound
Answer: A
Substance with same atomic number but different mass number –
A: Isotope B: Isobar C: Atom D: Mineral
Answer: A
NSAIDs are used in all except -
A: As analgesic B: In peptic ulcer C: R.A. D: O.A.
Answer: B
On USG finding of cystic hygroma in fetus is suggestive of
A: Down's syndrome B: Marphan's syndrome C: Turner's syndrome D: Klinfelter's syndrome
Answer: C
A 22-year-old man has a sudden loss of vision in the right eye. On physical examination, there is a subluxation of the right crystalline lens. On auscultation of the chest, a midsystolic click is audible. An echocardiogram shows a floppy mitral valve and dilated aortic arch. The patient's brother and his cousin are similarly affected. He is prescribed a beta-blocker. A genetic defect involving which of the following substances is most likely to be present in this patient?
A: Collagen B: Dystrophin C: Fibrillin-1 D: NF1 protein
Answer: C
Hypokalemia is seen with -
A: Frusemide B: Coisol C: Metabolic acidosis D: Amiloride
Answer: A
An 19-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room following a motorcycle accident. He is ale and fully oriented, but witnesses to the accident repo an interval of unresponsiveness following the injury. Skull films show a fracture of the left temporal bone. Following x-ray, the patient suddenly loses consciousness and dilation of the left pupil is noted. This patient should be considered to have?
A: Ruptured berry aneurysm B: Epidural hematoma C: Acute subdural hematoma D: Intra Abdominal hemorrhage
Answer: B
All these structures are found in the lateral nasal wall except:
A: Superior turbinate B: Vomer C: Agger nasi D: Hasner's valve
Answer: B
If thiopentone is injected accidently into an artery the first symptom is –
A: Analgesia B: Paralysis C: Skin ulceration D: Pain
Answer: D
True about pugilistic attitude?
A: Indicate only antimoem burn B: Indicate only postmoem burn C: Cannot differentiate between antemoem & postmoem burn D: Indicate defense by victim during antemoem death
Answer: C
Which of the following drug when taken in excess can be removed by dialysis?
A: Digoxin B: Salicylates C: Benzodiazepines D: Organophosphates
Answer: B
All of the following are true about cluster sampling except-
A: Samples are similar to those in simple Random sampling B: Is a Rapid and simple method C: The sample size may very according to study design D: It is a type of probability sample
Answer: A
Dofetilide is which class of anti arrhythmia drug
A: Class 1 B: Class 11 C: Class 111 D: Class 1V
Answer: C
Bone pearl's or wax drippings is pathogonomic of:
A: Burns B: Scalds C: Lightening D: Electrocution
Answer: D
Metal fume fever can be seen in poisoning by all EXCEPT: March 2003
A: Lead B: Arsenic C: Iron D: Zinc
Answer: B
Fructose is transpoed by:
A: GLUT 1 B: GLUT 2 C: GLUT 5 D: GLUT 4
Answer: C
A child with alopecia, hyperpigmentation, hypogonadism and rash of genital area and mouth is likely to suffer from:
A: Iron deficiency B: Zinc deficiency C: Calcium deficiency D: Copper deficiency
Answer: B
True about carcinoma esophagus is-
A: Most common site is lower end B: Both adeno and suqamous cell carcinoma occur C: Commonest histology is adenocarcinoma D: More common in females
Answer: B
Use of tamoxifen in carcinoma of breast patients does not lead to the following side effects :
A: Thromboembolic events B: Endometrial carcinoma C: Cataract D: Cancer in opposite breast
Answer: D
Sternal edema is seen in -
A: Measles B: Mumps C: Diphtheria D: Varicella
Answer: B
Which of the following nerve fibers are first to get blocked by local anaesthetic
A: A alpha B: A beta C: A delta D: A gamma
Answer: C
Ketamine belongs to which of the following group of drugs ?
A: Phencyclidine B: Phenols C: Barbiturate D: Benzodiazepine
Answer: A
Anti-D Rh is given for: September 2005
A: Rh positive father,Rh positive mother B: Rh negative father,Rh positive mother C: Rh negative father,Rh negative mother D: Rh positive father,Rh negative mother
Answer: D
About Ectopia vesicae, following is true except ?
A: CA bladder may occur B: Ventral curvature of penis C: Incontinence of urine D: Visible uretero - vesical efflux
Answer: B
On USG finding of cystic hygroma in fetus is suggestive of :
A: Down's syndrome B: Marfan's syndrome C: Turner's syndrome D: Klinfelter's syndrome
Answer: C
Oesophageal atresia may occur as a pa of VACTERAL group of anomalies. What does `TE' stand for?
A: Tetralogy of Fallot B: Thoracic empyema C: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula D: Talipes equinovarus
Answer: C
The time between primary and secondary case is called:
A: A period of communicability B: Serial interval C: Incubation period D: Generation time
Answer: B
Best treatment of old fracture is
A: Manipulation and POP cast application. B: Open reduction and internal fixation and bone grafting. C: K Wire fixation D: External fixation
Answer: B
Duodenal adenocarcinoma -a) Most common small bowel carcinomab) Periampullary carcinomac) Jaundice & anemia - most common symptomd) Local resection - curative
A: ac B: bc C: ad D: b
Answer: A
Which is a noveneral form of trephonemal infection – a) Yawsb) Pintac) Syphillisd) GV
A: ab B: a C: ad D: bc
Answer: A
A 10-year old boy presents to the pediatric emergency unit with seizures. Blood pressure in the upper extremity measured as 200/140 mm Hg. Femoral pulses were not palpable. The most likely diagnosis amongst the following is:
A: Takayasu's aooaeritis B: Renal parenchymal disease C: Grand mal seizures D: Coarctation of aoa
Answer: D
Over closure of jaws is accentuated muscle activity:
A: Buccinator B: Lateral pterygoid C: Temporalis D: medial pterygoid
Answer: C
Artifical radioisotopsa) Radiumb) Uraniumc) Plutoniumd) Iridiume) Cobalt
A: ab B: bc C: de D: bd
Answer: C
According to Poiseuille's law, reducing the radius of an airway to one-third will increase its resistance how many fold?
A: 3-Jan B: 3 C: 9 D: 81
Answer: D
Which is used for sterilization of cystoscope
A: Glutaraldehyde B: Formaldehyde C: Isopropyl alcohol D: Ethylene oxide
Answer: A
A neonate is said be low birth weight (LBW) if his weight is less than ----- gms:
A: 2000 B: 2200 C: 2500 D: 2800
Answer: C
Which is most lipogenic carbohydrate:
A: Glucose B: Galactose C: Fructose D: Starch
Answer: C
The nucleotide triplet CTC in the sixth position of the l3-chain in DNA forms the complementary nucleotide on (mRNA) that codes for glutamic acid. A point mutation on the l3-chain resulting in the nucleotide triplet CAC forms a com¬plementary nucleotide on mRNA that codes for valine. In sickle cell anemia, you would expect the comple¬mentary nucleotide triplet on mRNA from 5' to 3' to read
A: GAG B: CTC C: GTG D: GUG
Answer: D
Which of the following condition masks low serum haptoglobin in hemolysis?
A: Bile duct obstruction B: Liver disease C: Malnutrition D: Pregnancy
Answer: A
EBV causes: March 2013
A: Infectious mononucleosis B: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma C: Glandular fever D: All of the above
Answer: D
Which of the following snake produces paralysis with convulsions -
A: Vipers B: Sea Snakes C: Cobra D: Krait
Answer: C
Dehiscence in the external auditory canal cause infection in the parotid gland via:
A: Fissure of Santorini B: Notch of Rivinus C: Petro-tympanic fissure D: Retro pharyngeal fissure
Answer: A
Amino acids not coded by triplet codon:
A: Lysine B: Hydroxyproline C: Selenocysteine D: Pyrrolysine
Answer: B
Which index of obesity does not include height?
A: BMI B: Ponderal's index C: Broca's index D: Corpulence index
Answer: D
Lalita, a female patient presents with pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa and intestinal polyps. Her sister also gives the same history. Most probable diagnosis is:
A: Carcinoid tumor B: Melanoma C: Villous adenoma D: Peutz-Jegher's syndrome
Answer: D
Not true about virulence of endodontic microflora is
A: Endotoxin B: Exotoxin C: Bacterial enzymes D: Microbial interferences
Answer: B