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Which of the following is not a second messenger | A: c-AMP B: IP3 C: Guanylyl cyclase D: Diacylglycerol (DAG | Answer: C |
Artery of 2nIi pharyngeal arch is - | A: Maxillaiy artery B: Stapedial artery C: Subclavian artery D: Commoncarotid artery | Answer: B |
What is the probable diagnosis in a patient with a dilated pupil not responsive to 1% pilocarpine | A: Diabetic third nerve palsy B: Ade's pupil C: Uncal Herniation D: Pharmacological block | Answer: D |
Alcohol causes - | A: Dilated cardiomyopathy B: HOCM C: Restrictive cardiomyopathy D: None | Answer: A |
Colonic polyp with most malignant potential is - | A: Juvenile polyp B: Hyperplastic polyp C: Pedunculated Adenomatous polyp D: Sessile Adenomatous polyp | Answer: D |
Which is not true regarding Bernard soulier syndrome? | A: Ristocetin aggregation is normal B: Aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal C: Large platelets D: Thrombocytopenia | Answer: A |
Which of the following is essential for tumor metastasis? | A: Angiogenesis B: Tumorogenesis C: Apoptosis D: Inhibition of tyrosine kinase activity | Answer: A |
Which of the following glomerular disease is associated with Crescent formation? | A: Minimal change disease B: Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C: Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis D: Rapidly non progressive glomerulonephritis | Answer: B |
Agglutination test is - | A: ABO incompatibility B: VDRL C: Weil-felix test D: FTA-ABS | Answer: C |
Which of the following vessels is involved in extradural haematoma? | A: Middle meningeal artery B: Venous sinuses C: Bridging veins D: Middle cerebral artery | Answer: A |
Man is intermediate host for - | A: Malaria B: Tuberculosis C: Filariasis D: Relapsing fever | Answer: A |
Drug of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices is? | A: Ethanolamine oleate B: Octreotide C: Propanolol D: Phytonadione | Answer: B |
Two or more oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid are most often positive in- | A: Acute bacterial meningitis B: Multiple sclerosis C: Subarachnoid harmorrhage D: Polyneuropathy | Answer: B |
Iodine deficiency control programme ? | A: Health education B: Water testing C: Foification of salt D: None | Answer: C |
All of the following are sexually transmited, Except- | A: Candida albicans B: Echinococcus C: Molluscum contagiosum D: Group B streptococcus | Answer: B |
All of the following methods are anti-larval measures, EXCEPT: | A: Intermittent irrigation B: Paris green C: Gambusia affinis D: Malathion | Answer: D |
IPC 82 states that: child cannot be punished under what age - | A: 5yrs B: 8yrs C: 7yrs D: lOyrs | Answer: C |
Treatment of choice for generalized anxiety disorder is? | A: Benzodiazepines B: Neuroleptics C: Beta blockers D: Barbiturates | Answer: A |
Which of the following agents may precipitate bronchospasm in patients with reactive airway disease? | A: Midazolam B: Etomidate C: Methohexital D: Propofol | Answer: C |
Vegetations below the AV valves are present in - | A: Libman-Sacks endocarditis B: Chronic rheumatic carditis C: Acute rheumatic carditis D: Non thrombotic endocarditis | Answer: A |
"Chemical pregnancy" means : | A: Negative beta HCG and absent gestational sac B: Positive beta HCG and present gestational sac C: Positive beta HCG and absent gestational sac D: Negative beta HCG and created sac margin | Answer: C |
Which of the following Biomedical wastes cannot be disposed off in yellow bags? | A: Reactive chemical wastes B: Radiographic wastes C: PVC D: Human anatomical wastes | Answer: A |
Which of the following bacteria contains mycolic acid in the cell wall | A: Escherichia B: Mycoplasma C: Mycobacteria D: Staphylococcus | Answer: C |
Child criteria doesnt include | A: Encephalopathy B: ALT C: Ascites D: Albumin | Answer: B |
Which of the following will be detected in flow cytometry? | A: Polycythemia B: Thrombocytosis C: Leukocytosis D: Neutrophilia | Answer: C |
Base of the skull fracture presents with involvement of the petrous temporal bone, which of the following important sign: | A: Subconjunctive haematoma B: CSF rhinorrhoea C: Raccon eyes D: Battle sign | Answer: D |
Which of the following pubeal events in girls is not estrogen dependant | A: Menstruation B: Vaginal cornification C: Height spu D: Hair growth | Answer: D |
A pathologist is observing a slide. He repos seeing perineural invasion. In which one of the following perineural invasion is most commonly seen? | A: Adenocarcinoma B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma C: Basal Cell Adenoma D: Squamous cell carcinoma | Answer: B |
All of the following investigations are used in FIGO staging of carcinoma cervix except ? | A: CECT B: Intravenous pyelography C: Cystoscopy D: Proctoscopy | Answer: A |
True regarding febrile convulsion – | A: Carbamazepine is good drug to treat it B: Patient with family h/o F.C. have increased incidence of recurrence C: Longterm neurological deficits are common D: Usually last for short while | Answer: B |
Uterine-cervix ratio up to 10 years of age: | A: 3:02 B: 2:01 C: 3:01 D: 1:02 | Answer: D |
Which of the following is produced in the lipoxygenase pathway? | A: Thromboxane B: Leukotrienes C: Prostaglandin D: Prostacyclin | Answer: B |
Apparent volume of distribution (aVd) is more than total body fluid if drug is: | A: Poorly soluble B: Sequestered in tissues C: Slow elimination D: Poorly plasma protein bound | Answer: B |
Deleterious effect of ultrasound on small organism is: | A: Ionisation B: Vacoulation C: Cavitation D: Disintegration | Answer: C |
Hemophia A due to deficiency of ? | A: Factor VIII B: Factor IX C: Factor X D: Factor XI | Answer: A |
V/Q ratio at the base of lung- | A: 1 B: 3 C: 0.6 D: 1.8 | Answer: C |
A 70 year old man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Patient goes into renal failure and has a BP of 70/50 mm of Hg. Drug that should be used to maintain BP is: | A: Adrenaline B: Ephedrine C: Phenylephrine D: Nor epinephrine | Answer: D |
To be defined as a ganglioside,a lipid substance isolated from nervous tissue must contain | A: NANA,hexose,fatty acid,glycerol B: NANA,hexose,fatty acid,phosphorycholine C: NANA,sphingosine,ethanolamine D: NANA,hexose,sphingosine,long chain fatty acid, | Answer: D |
A 25 years old female complains of recurrent rhinitis, nasal discharge and bilateral nasal blockage since one year. She has the history of asthma and allergy. On examination, multiple ethmoidal polyps are noted with mucosal thickening and impacted secretions in both the nasal cavities. A biopsy is taken and the material is cultured which shown the growth of many non pigmented septate hyphae with dichotomous branching typically at 45degrees. Which of the following is the most likely responsible organism | A: Aspergillus fumigatus B: Rhizopus C: Mucor D: Candida | Answer: A |
Blood for acid base gas (ABGO analysis in a bottle containing heparin can cause decreased value of - | A: pCO2 B: HCO2 C: pH D: pO2 | Answer: C |
Boerhaave syndrome is due to: | A: Burns B: Vomiting C: Stress D: Acid ingestion | Answer: B |
In anemia the concentration of 2,3 DPG is | A: Decreased B: Increased C: A or B D: Not changed | Answer: B |
The primary reason for replacing teeth destroyed due to
nursing bottle syndrome is | A: Speech and esthetics B: Form and function C: Incising and mastication D: Arch perimeter requirements in the transitional dentition | Answer: A |
Characteristic histopathology finding in Whipples disease is ? | A: PAS positive macrophages and rod shaped bacilli in lamina propria B: Shoened thickened villi with increased crypt depth C: Blunting and flattening of mucosal surface and absent villi D: Mononuclear infiltration at base of crypts | Answer: A |
In which of the following conditions uniform dilation of esophagus is seen | A: Scleroderma B: Trypanosoma cruzi infection C: Dermatomysitis D: BD | Answer: D |
Mechanism of action of vincristine in the treatment of ALL is: | A: Inhibition of topoisomerase II to cause breaks in DNA strands B: Alkylation and cross linking DNA strands C: Inhibition of DNA mediated RNA synthesis D: Inhibition of polymerization of tubulin to form microtubules | Answer: D |
All are true about ketone bodies except | A: Acetoacetate is primary ketone body B: Synthesized in mitochondria C: Synthesized in liver D: HMG CoA reductase is the rate-limiting enzyme | Answer: D |
Pseudoparalysis in an infant is suggestive of ? | A: Acute Rheumatic fever B: Vitamin B6 deficiency C: Vitamin E deficiency D: Vitamin C deficiency | Answer: D |
The coronoid process: | A: Limits the extension of maxillary posterior teeth setting B: Limits the thickness of the distobuccal flange of the upper complete denture C: Limits the thickness of the distobuccal flange of the lower complete denture D: Determines PPS | Answer: B |
Greater than 30 g of fat is excreted in feces per day. The cause is | A: Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency B: Rapid transient diarrhea C: Small intesitnal disease D: Normal | Answer: A |
A young girl has had repeated infections with Candida albicans and respiratory viruses since she was 3 months old. As part of the clinical evaluation of her immune status, her responses to routine immunization procedures should be tested. In this evaluation, the use of which of the following vaccines is contraindicated? | A: Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) B: Bordetella pertussis vaccine C: Diphtheria toxoid D: Inactivated polio | Answer: A |
All of the following are in the superficial perineal space of the male EXCEPT the | A: Bulb of the penis B: Crus of the penis C: Bulbourethral gland D: Bulbospongiosus muscle | Answer: C |
A 62-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with dull, diffuse abdominal pain. A CT scan reveals a tumor at the head of the pancreas. The abdominal pain is mediated by afferent fibers that travel initially with which of the following nerves? | A: Greater thoracic splanchnic B: Intercostal C: Phrenic D: Vagus | Answer: A |
Advantage of Minimal access surgery | A: Heat loss B: Better Hemostasis control C: Improved vision D: In wound pain | Answer: C |
Pinch purpura is diagnostic of – | A: Systemic primary amyloidosis B: Secondary systemic amyloidosis C: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D: Drug induced purpura | Answer: A |
The mode of action of Lanatoprost in glaucoma: | A: Increasing trabecular outflow B: Releasing pupillary block C: Decreasing aqueous humour formation D: Increasing uveoscleral outflow | Answer: D |
Gelle&;s test is done in | A: Otosclerosis B: Serous otitis media C: Traumatic deafness D: Senile deafness | Answer: A |
Factor responsible for Cardiac Hyperophy is? | A: ANF B: TNF alpha C: c-myc D: TGF beta | Answer: C |
Most common cause of gangrene of foot of a 30 year old farmers who is a chronic smoker | A: Atherosclerosis B: Raynaud's disease C: Thromboangiitis obliterans D: Myocardial infarction | Answer: C |
Following features are true about lipid insoluble beta blockers except? | A: Do not cross blood brain barrier B: Have good membrane stabilizing effect C: Incompletely absorbed orally D: Are long acting | Answer: B |
Sideroblastic anemia is seen in chronic poisoning of | A: Lead B: Arsenic C: Copper D: Mercury | Answer: A |
"Lift off' and "Belly Press" tests are done to examine which of the following rotator cuff muscle? | A: Teres Minor B: Supraspinatus C: Subscapularis D: Infraspinatus | Answer: C |
Superior Gluteal Nerve supplies ail except: | A: Gluteus Minimus B: Gluteus Medius C: Gluteus Maximus D: Tensor Fascia Lata | Answer: C |
Placental abnormality related to PPH is? | A: Placenta accreta B: Placenta percreta C: Retained placental D: All the above | Answer: D |
What is the amount of time required by erupting premolar to move through 1 mm of bone as measured on a bite-wing radiograph? | A: 3-4 months B: 4-5 months C: 5-6 months D: 6-7 months | Answer: B |
Best method to show trend of events with passage of time is? | A: Line diagram B: Bar diagram C: Histogram D: Pie chart | Answer: A |
More resistance in expiration is due to: | A: Increased compression of airway B: Due to change from linear to turbulent flow C: Saturation with moisture D: Increased rate of flow during expiration | Answer: A |
Antihypertensive may act by blocking all of following except: | A: Alpha–adrenoceptors B: ATP dependent K+ channels C: Nor adrenaline release D: Beta adrenoceptors | Answer: B |
Temporal pallor in optic disc seen in all except | A: Optic neuritis B: Compression of optic nerve C: Leber's hereditary optic neuritis D: Glaucoma | Answer: D |
Anti glaucoma drug that act by increasing uvea scleral outflow is? | A: Latanoprost B: Timolol C: pilocarpine D: Dorzolamide | Answer: A |
The major vitamin deficiency in Wernicke's encephalopathy is : | A: B1 B: B2 C: B6 D: B12 | Answer: A |
Commonest fungal infection of female genitalia in diabetes? | A: Cryptococcal B: Madurmycosis C: Candida D: Aspergillosis | Answer: C |
Who among the following has contributed to the development of neuro-otology and is considered as the father of 'nen ro-otology'? | A: Julius Lampa B: John J. Shea Jr C: William F. House D: Hales Main | Answer: C |
Drugs causing macular toxicity when given intravitreally- | A: Gentamycin B: Vancomycin C: Dexamethasone D: Ceftazidime | Answer: A |
Fatty liver is caused by all except | A: DM B: Tetracycline C: Starvation D: Excess iron intake | Answer: D |
Urination in the human subject is decreased by | A: Nicotinic agonists B: AChase inhibitors C: muscarinic agonists D: muscarinic antagonists | Answer: D |
Intraepidermal lgG deposition is seen in | A: Pemphigus B: Bullous pemphigoid C: Herpes genitalis D: SLE | Answer: A |
More resistance in respiration is due to which of the following? | A: Saturation with moisture B: Increased rate of flow during expiration C: Increased compression of airway D: Due to change from linear to turbulent flow | Answer: C |
A patient presented with fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and night sweats four weeks after unprotected sexual contact. Next investigation | A: p24 B: ELISA C: CD4 D: HIV PCR | Answer: A |
Apical root fracture in an anterior tooth is treated by: | A: Extraction B: Splinting for 2-3 months C: Endodontic treatment D: All of the above | Answer: D |
Neonatal Jaundice first time appears in the 2nd week not a cause is – | A: Galactossemia B: Rh Incompatibility C: Hypothyroidism D: Breast milk Jaundice | Answer: B |
Optical media are clear in: | A: Cavernous sinus thrombosis B: Orbital cellulitis C: Both of the above D: None of the above | Answer: C |
A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT shows no midline shift, but basal cisterns were full (compressed) with multiple small haemorrhage. The most probable diagnosis is: | A: Brain contusion B: Diffuse axonal injury C: Subdural hemorrhage D: Multiple infarct | Answer: B |
The patient is delivered by cesarean section under general anesthesia.The baby and placenta are easily delivered, but the uterus is noted to be boggy and atonic despite intravenous infusion of Pitocin. All of the following are appropriate agents to use next except | A: Methylergonovine (Methergine) administered intramuscularly B: Prostaglandin F2α (Hemabate) suppositories C: Misoprostil (Cytotec) suppositories D: Terbutaline administered intravenously | Answer: D |
Unwinding Enzyme in DNA synthesis: | A: Helicase B: Primase C: DNA Polymerase D: Transcriptase | Answer: A |
Most common pa of larynx involved in Tuberculosis is | A: Anterior B: Posterior C: Middle D: Anywhere | Answer: B |
Which bacteria has Ampitrichous flagella | A: V cholerae B: Spirillum minus C: Listeria D: Alcaligenes faecalis | Answer: D |
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by | A: EIEC B: Shigella C: Salmonella D: Cholera | Answer: B |
Liposomal amphotericin B has the following advantage over conventional amphotericin B: | A: Lesser nephrotoxicity B: Lesser cost C: Absense of infusional toxicity D: Once a week administration | Answer: A |
Which of the following is false regarding neoplastic compressive myelopathy? | A: Most neoplasms are subdural in origin B: Thoracic spine is most commonly involved C: Tumor does not cross the disk space to involve adjacent veebral body D: Prognosis is poor when motor deficits are established for > 48 hours | Answer: A |
In which of the following patients would enalapril be the best first line agent for high blood pressure control ? | A: A 62 year old man with renal artery stenosis B: A 32 year old pregnant female C: A 41 year old woman with hyperkalemia D: A 56 year old diabetic woman | Answer: D |
An eight year old child has active white spot lesions on his teeth and gives a history of having sugar containing snacks and beverages more than 3 times in between meals. In which category can we classify this child | A: High Risk B: Moderate Risk C: Low Risk D: None | Answer: A |
Which of the following generations of amalgam exhibit highest nobility? | A: 3rd generation amalgam B: 4th generation amalgam C: 5th generation amalgam D: 6th generation amalgam | Answer: D |
A patient of Schizophrenia was staed on neuroleptics, his psychotic symptoms began to improve however he developed sadness, would talks less to others, would mostly remain to bed. This presentation could be caused by all of following except: | A: Parkinsonism B: Major depression C: Negative symptoms are still persisting D: He is reacting to external stimuli | Answer: D |
The location of schatzki&;s ring is | A: Lower end of pharynx B: Upper end of esophagus C: Lower end of esophagus D: Antrum of stomach | Answer: C |
Prolactin: | A: Has somatotropic activity. B: It flow can cause infertility in women. C: Can suppress menstrual cycle in lactating women. D: Levels are increased by dopamine. | Answer: C |
Triplet repeats in Fragile X -syndrome is? | A: CTG B: CGG C: CAG D: GAA | Answer: B |
Left Kidney is preferred for transplantation because | A: Longer renal Vein B: Higher location C: Ease of surgery due to anatomical relations D: To prevent damage to liver | Answer: A |
Cesarean section is absolutely indicated in : | A: Previous H/0 LSCS B: Type IV placenta pre C: Type II placenta pre D: Past H/o hysterotomy | Answer: B |
In a dead body recovered from an open field, the below finding is seen. What could be the time since death: | A: 24- 36 hrs B: 3- 5 days C: 5-10 days D: More than 2 weeks | Answer: B |
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