{ "Contributors": [ "Shreeshiv Patel" ], "Source": [ "HeadQA" ], "URL": [ "https://huggingface.co/datasets/head_qa" ], "Categories": [ "Question Answering" ], "Reasoning": [ "Scientific Reasoning" ], "Definition": [ "In this task, you are given a multiple-choice question about healthcare. Answer the question based on your information and classify your answers into '1', '2', '3', and '4'." ], "Input_language": [ "English" ], "Output_language": [ "English" ], "Instruction_language": [ "English" ], "Domains": [ "Exam" ], "Positive Examples": [ { "input": "Question: A 13-year-old girl is operated on due to Hirschsprung illness at 3 months of age. Which of the following tumors is more likely to be present? \n Options: <1> Abdominal neuroblastoma <2> Wilms tumor <3> Mesoblastic nephroma <4> Familial thyroid medullary carcinoma.", "output": "2", "explanation": "The answer to the given question should be a tumor, therefore Wilms tumor is the correct answer for the given question." }, { "input": "Question: In a basic health area, 10 cases of influenza were detected in the month of June. This form of presentation of the communicable disease is defined as: \n Options: <1> Epidemic. <2> Hypoendemia <3> Mesoendemia <4> Sporadic <5> Pandemic.", "output": "4", "explanation": "Lots of people face common diseases such as fever, common cold, and influenza in winter. The question asked about the presentation of communicable disease with 10 cases in one particular month. Since this is a seasonal communicable disease the answer would be Sporadic, which means periodic. All other options are irrelevant to the context of the question." }, { "input": "Question: In relation to pulmonary surfactant, indicate the correct answer: \n Options: <1> It contains enzymes necessary for gas exchange. <2> It helps to eliminate harmful elements in the alveoli. <3> It is secreted by type 1 pneumonites. <4> Decreases alveolar surface tension. <5> It is only synthesized in emergency situations.", "output": "4", "explanation": "The question is about choosing the correct answer related to pulmonary surfactant. It is the physical property of surfactant that it reduces the surface tension, this property is mentioned in option four which is the correct answer." } ], "Negative Examples": [ { "input": "Question: One of the characteristics of the Nursing Process is: \n Options: <1> Decision making is characteristic of the planning stage. <2> It focuses on the nurse. <3> The data of each phase provide information for the next. <4> Decision making must be linked to standard response. <5> It must be designed so that it remains static.", "output": "2", "explanation": "The given question is asked to find the characteristics of the nursing process and one of the nursing process is 'the data of each phase provide information for the next.', which is option 3." }, { "input": "Question: After antigenic recognition, the T cell receptor transmits an activation signal through: \n Options: <1> CD3 and chain \uf07a. <2> Ig\uf061 and Ig\uf062. <3> TAP1 and TAP2. <4> RAG1 and RAG2. <5> Determining regions of complementarity 1 and 2.", "output": "3", "explanation": "The correct answer is CD3 and chain, which is option 1, not 3. So, the given instance is a negative example." } ], "Instances": [ { "id": "task1431-444a404eefbb4a93b9e92c03cd9f1c19", "input": "Question: The excitatory postsynaptic potentials: \n Options: <1> They are all or nothing. <2> They are hyperpolarizing. <3> They can be added. <4> They spread long distances. <5> They present a refractory period.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c7181ce7bb914a9eace6450ca05e3447", "input": "Question: Motor plate is the union between the motor neuron and the: \n Options: <1> Smooth muscle. <2> Skeletal muscle <3> Cardiac muscle <4> Muscle spindle <5> Tendon.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ecd93fc3612c4bdc9aba74347519cbe2", "input": "Question: DO NOT generate action potentials: \n Options: <1> Smooth muscle fibers. <2> Bipolar neurons of the retina. <3> Skeletal striated muscle fibers. <4> Cardiac muscle fibers. <5> Ganglion neurons of the retina.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c9addf771408487fa28c99b936675f58", "input": "Question: In the initiation of voluntary movements the first area that is activated is: \n Options: <1> Premotor cortex. <2> Primary motor cortex. <3> Brain stem <4> Cerebellum. <5> Basal ganglia", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a04839bcdc3d43feb69a38eebc950462", "input": "Question: The corpuscles of Pacini: \n Options: <1> They are innervated by unmyelinated fibers. <2> They are mechanoreceptors of slow adaptation. <3> They have small receptor fields. <4> They are located in deep areas of the dermis. <5> They are thermoreceptors.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f98672ca227d4a65ae03fcc146601f93", "input": "Question: The color of the eyes depends on the pigment present in: \n Options: <1> Pupil. <2> Cornea. <3> Iris. <4> Choroid <5> Retina.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d30300fcc3864a14b741eebb0bc4deb8", "input": "Question: In the layer closest to the pigment epithelium of the retina are the cells: \n Options: <1> Ganglionares <2> Cones and canes. <3> Amacrinas. <4> Bipolar <5> Horizontal", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d3484188344947b9ab060add26a5fd40", "input": "Question: The Purkinje cells of the cerebellum receive direct input from: \n Options: <1> Spinal neurons <2> Neurons of deep cerebellar nuclei. <3> Climbing fibers <4> Mossy fibers. <5> Pyramidal neurons of cerebral cortex.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dfb41bf85bcc44008da5aaacc52ddc33", "input": "Question: They release noradrenaline the: \n Options: <1> Sympathetic preganglionic fibers. <2> Sympathetic Postganglionic Fibers <3> Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers <4> Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers <5> Only the chromaffin cells.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f5a3c66653c54891a89552a980851658", "input": "Question: Circadian rhythms are established in: \n Options: <1> Pineal gland. <2> Suprachiasmatic nucleus. <3> Retina. <4> Spinal cord. <5> Centromedianic thalamic nucleus.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-66c81c3214d64fa491471f43332f88d1", "input": "Question: A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it innervates constitute: \n Options: <1> Motor plate. <2> Motor unit <3> Neuromuscular junction <4> Motor synapse <5> Motor filament", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-86f6d2d5900a44658e35beb651ef0d58", "input": "Question: In the ear of mammals: \n Options: <1> The sterocilies of the hair cells contact the basilar membrane. <2> The tympanic ramp contains endolymph. <3> The basilar membrane is wider and more flexible at the level of the helicotrema. <4> The sensory cells are those of Deiter. <5> The oval membrane has a larger surface than the tympanic membrane.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6c0030c8c3a44b4fa36f6f93a6b74bf9", "input": "Question: Calcitriol or active Vitamin D induces: \n Options: <1> Hypocalcemia <2> Synthesis of calbindin in enterocytes. <3> Calcium secretion in urine. <4> PTH secretion. <5> Decrease in intestinal absorption of phosphate.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6d1aad569b9344d7ad13fd57bad7c3e8", "input": "Question: Increase the activity of Na + / K + -ATPase: \n Options: <1> Insulin. <2> Aldosterone <3> ACTH. <4> Atrial natriuretic peptide. <5> ADH.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b70c1fd157654f6aba1baa3bcd05d40e", "input": "Question: The glucocorticoids: \n Options: <1> Increase ACTH levels. <2> They stimulate the secretion of CRH. <3> They are anti-inflammatory. <4> They are hypoglycemic. <5> Increase immune responses.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-48b38ea8c8db430e99a40309993ca44d", "input": "Question: Placental lactogen has equivalent effects to: \n Options: <1> GH <2> Insulin. <3> Oxytocin <4> Estrogens <5> FSH.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-77fde5f703f04d5dac5246506aea56f9", "input": "Question: Lacks hypothalamic control: \n Options: <1> Glucagon. <2> ACTH. <3> Prolactin <4> GH <5> LH", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9bef1671261342c6af807bef320e5ea4", "input": "Question: The kidneys secrete the hormone: \n Options: <1> Calcitriol. <2> Renina <3> Angiotensin II. <4> Aldosterone <5> Calcitonin", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-85944143d7d84a9a83159e0e2123e36a", "input": "Question: The neurohypophysis: \n Options: <1> It is a continuation of the hypothalamus. <2> It presents dual hypothalamic control. <3> It receives hypothalamic hormones via blood. <4> It is irrigated by the portal system hypothalamus pituitary gland. <5> It produces prolactin.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c05ab28efd034a54b5bbb49991e2d6c8", "input": "Question: GH secretion: \n Options: <1> It stops after puberty. <2> Increase during the fast. <3> It decreases during sleep. <4> It is stimulated by somatostatin. <5> It is inhibited by exercise.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-28dfa59c626148c9ac3235a06a8ad67f", "input": "Question: Thyroid hormones inhibit: \n Options: <1> The basal metabolism. <2> The production of body heat. <3> Growth. <4> The development and maturation of the central nervous system. <5> The secretion of TSH.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5e49698207de4783a16e89b8db268ab4", "input": "Question: Prolactin stimulates the: \n Options: <1> Milk secretion <2> Milky ejection. <3> Deposit of fat in the breasts. <4> Formation of the mammary ducts. <5> Formation of mammary secretory cells.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b73e7668129848fa81e86bb02c27b71e", "input": "Question: The second heart sound coincides with: \n Options: <1> End of ventricular diastole. <2> End of atrial diastole. <3> Opening of the aortic valve. <4> Atrial systole <5> Closing of the semilunar valves.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c65e3b799dfa45be813f2a745c219060", "input": "Question: The activation of arterial baroreceptors causes: \n Options: <1> Stimulation of the bulbar pressure center. <2> Activation of the parasympathetic. <3> Increased blood pressure. <4> Tachycardia. <5> Positive inotropic effect.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ceaadc3dcb2245a0b900cfa4c6ecfd53", "input": "Question: The blood flow velocity is maximum in: \n Options: <1> Great arteries <2> Distribution arteries. <3> Arterioles <4> Capillaries <5> Venules", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-303f1f428b8042b0958591e7a37e7413", "input": "Question: They are essential for blood coagulation: \n Options: <1> Red blood cells. <2> White blood cells <3> Platelets. <4> The lymph. <5> Serum glucose", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cffc394fd1a3461c96c72b8f2b89c741", "input": "Question: Fibrinogen is activated by: \n Options: <1> Platelet stopper <2> Plasmina. <3> Thrombin <4> Thromboplastin. <5> Factor von Willebrand.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6a2cbb9bc73e4398bab51a1efb3b1dd3", "input": "Question: Ventricular filling is greater during: \n Options: <1> Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. <2> First third of the ventricular diastole. <3> Atrial systole <4> Intermediate phase of ventricular diastole. <5> It is uniform.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f855d1117f88438c8e31f02d8b842d34", "input": "Question: The main vessels that regulate blood flow are: \n Options: <1> Arteries <2> Arterioles <3> Capillaries <4> Venules <5> Veins.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-462556aeb5834172845c2b4cd5f306f4", "input": "Question: After ventricular systole, the volume of blood in the ventricle is: \n Options: <1> Zero. <2> The telesistolic. <3> The systolic. <4> The end-diastolic. <5> Greater in the right ventricle than in the left.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ffe0169d576641f89032569213d8c434", "input": "Question: The QT interval of the electrocardiogram indicates the duration of: \n Options: <1> Atrial contraction <2> Ventricular contraction. <3> Ventricular relaxation <4> Atrial relaxation <5> Delay in the atrioventricular node.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7de22acc28934ddaa4ca21adeb5e754b", "input": "Question: Activates the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system an increase in: \n Options: <1> Blood pressure. <2> Parasympathetic activity <3> Concentration of Ca2 + in plasma. <4> Na + concentration in plasma. <5> Sympathetic activity", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7ebce82a6a9344c8a4e7185270d71429", "input": "Question: During ventricular systole: \n Options: <1> All ventricular blood is expelled. <2> Intraventricular pressure is equal in both ventricles. <3> The ventricular volume begins to decrease from the beginning of the contraction. <4> The atrio-ventricular valves are open. <5> The atria are relaxed.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7a20807a2c794ed1b9c2bf8049ecf25c", "input": "Question: The lymphatic flow from the feet: \n Options: <1> It increases when standing up. <2> Increase by external compression. <3> Increases when decreasing capillary permeability. <4> It decreases during inspiration. <5> Decrease by exercise.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9548f7dc077e48cca6f68f133db73da2", "input": "Question: The reabsorption of glucose in the nephron: \n Options: <1> It has no maximum rate. <2> It is less than 50% of the filtered. <3> It is done in the proximal tubule. <4> It is mediated by insulin. <5> It is by simple diffusion.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-192792536cba4b4ea6b7a10e295677f0", "input": "Question: Urine is hypoosmolar with respect to plasma in: \n Options: <1> Bowman's capsule. <2> Proximal tubule <3> Medulla area of \u200b\u200bthe loop of Henle. <4> Initial zone of the distal tubule. <5> Collecting tubule in the presence of ADH.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-91017bced05a4d8bb09d4e14b22dcc63", "input": "Question: In the digestive system, the vagus: \n Options: <1> Stimulates the contraction of the cardia. <2> The gastro-colic reflex mediates. <3> Decreases the secretion of gastric acid. <4> Inhibits the secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate. <5> It is not choralgogo.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-38f6321f702347e69a2b5ec1fc48265a", "input": "Question: Inhibits gastrin secretion: \n Options: <1> Parasympathetic stimulation. <2> Sight, aroma and taste of the food. <3> Stomach distension <4> Presence of proteins in the stomach. <5> Somatostatin.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a73ab15d33ab4abb9fcbc459c110e652", "input": "Question: Alveolar pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure: \n Options: <1> In the initial phase of inspiration. <2> In the middle phase of inspiration. <3> In the middle phase of an expiration. <4> At the end of expiration. <5> At the end of the inspiration.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fcfe6be3658a45cb95d81e06beeb67cc", "input": "Question: The anatomical dead space: \n Options: <1> It is always greater than the physiological one. <2> Secret surfactants. <3> Includes medium-sized bronchioles. <4> It allows gaseous exchange. <5> Includes the volume of inspiratory reserve.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-75b44a7a8ff84c44b33fc44e31b188a5", "input": "Question: If the arterial pO2 decreases to 60 mm of Hg: \n Options: <1> Decreases ventilation. <2> Central chemoreceptors are activated. <3> The central chemoreceptors are depressed. <4> The arterial chemoreceptors are activated. <5> It produces loss of consciousness.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c09c04cf85fa4a08b0bb3550a0973a1a", "input": "Question: The pyramidal neurons are in: \n Options: <1> Cerebellum. <2> Brain. <3> Spinal cord. <4> Spinal ganglia. <5> Hypophysis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8c8d063314af4b8a83723940a02da887", "input": "Question: The lipid inclusion of unilocular adipocytes is surrounded by: \n Options: <1> Actin filaments. <2> Myosin filaments. <3> Filaments of vimentin. <4> Microtubules <5> Membrane from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a565f3f49aaa46999adb014cef7170ec", "input": "Question: The presence of phosphatidylserine on the cell surface indicates: \n Options: <1> Cellular senescence <2> Apoptosis <3> Necrosis. <4> Mitosis. <5> Hormone stimulation", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee4c8bf5f11b4615896b857844565d10", "input": "Question: The hydrolases of the lysosomes act in medium: \n Options: <1> Acid. <2> Basic. <3> Neutral. <4> It depends on the material to digest. <5> At any pH.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a5afe1ae68be47a59974ec6862bf9186", "input": "Question: Heterochromatin lacks: \n Options: <1> Histone H1. <2> Nucleosomes <3> Exons <4> Transcriptional activity <5> Origins of replication.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-10e20abdf3bd4254825647cb654b6b3c", "input": "Question: The epithelium of the epidermis is: \n Options: <1> Stratified keratinized plane. <2> Stratified non-keratinized plane. <3> Simple keratinized cylindrical. <4> Keratinized stratified cylindrical. <5> Cubic stratified.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e0f9f199f067462f873b6f1f35f65536", "input": "Question: The cell is destroyed to release the secretion: \n Options: <1> Merocrine <2> Apocrine <3> Endocrine <4> Holocrine <5> Paracrine", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-184a50fe0de8491bb6a3db6e54ef1061", "input": "Question: Among the following, the first precursor cell of neutrophil granulocytes is: \n Options: <1> Monoblast. <2> Myeloblast. <3> Metamielocito. <4> Cell in band (or in staff) <5> Promyelocyte", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ef7c3d5adc0e482b94e6a62a265d53f3", "input": "Question: The system in T: \n Options: <1> It is present in all muscle cells without exception. <2> It is part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. <3> It has an ATPase activated by Ca2 +. <4> It is a tubular invagination of the plasma membrane. <5> Releases Ca2 + to the cytosol during recruitment.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a7e0fcab3a03433a93dafa6ec91ab081", "input": "Question: In eukaryotic cells the lipids of the membrane are synthesized mainly in: \n Options: <1> Rough endoplasmic reticulum. <2> Golgi apparatus. <3> Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. <4> Mitochondria <5> Ribosomes", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aa78547df18745e59fb3427ba1975ffc", "input": "Question: Fibrous cartilage is typical of: \n Options: <1> Windpipe. <2> Bronchi <3> Auricular pavilion <4> Intervertebral discs. <5> External auditive conduct.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d75571c203254d6e9242e7cb70f369ab", "input": "Question: Presents centroacinosas cells the gland: \n Options: <1> Parotid. <2> Submaxillary <3> Sublingual <4> Pancreas. <5> Liver.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e5b960c5ba4f405f80f6098d187e56ae", "input": "Question: The continuous capillaries are typical of: \n Options: <1> Central Nervous System. <2> Liver. <3> Glands <4> Kidney. <5> Digestive tube.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-91a738c04a994b13b00cd7e1867b8847", "input": "Question: The M\u00fcller cells of the retina are: \n Options: <1> Modified neurons. <2> Glandular <3> Neurogliales of support. <4> Of the microglia. <5> Of the pigmentary layer.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bac15b0fee6e4782b3d16bed5b7cc286", "input": "Question: The ribosomal subunits are formed in the: \n Options: <1> Nucleoplasm. <2> Nucleolus <3> Nuclear sheet. <4> Nuclear pore. <5> Cytoplasm.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-12b50999854f48e3b3893003817cc8a4", "input": "Question: The nuclear lamina is formed by: \n Options: <1> Actina. <2> Tubulina. <3> Intermediate filaments <4> Fibronectin <5> Laminin", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b518dfba5ee1475b96ca088e1fc64f93", "input": "Question: Importin intervenes in the transport of proteins from the cytoplasm to: \n Options: <1> Nucleus. <2> Endoplasmic reticulum. <3> Mitochondria. <4> Peroxisome <5> Lysosome", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-82f0c6b862f04efbb54a66bd3997e25e", "input": "Question: They are formed by maturation of late endosomes: \n Options: <1> Lysosomes <2> Phagosomes <3> Multivesicular bodies. <4> Secretion granules <5> Proteosomes", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cfd27ad7d61340cc87abef0139c289f4", "input": "Question: The cell displacement by creep depends on: \n Options: <1> Cilia. <2> Stereocilios. <3> Flagella. <4> Actin filaments. <5> Microvilli.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f0e3e479f2b7480f9fd9c0473f94510d", "input": "Question: They have their own ribosomes: \n Options: <1> Lysosomes <2> Peroxisomes <3> Endosomes <4> Secretion granules <5> Mitochondria", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-346d630a9e9947e78584023f4d7dda93", "input": "Question: Kinesin and dynein are: \n Options: <1> Adhesion proteins. <2> Microtubular motors. <3> Degradative enzymes <4> Components of the vesicular cover. <5> Transcriptional factors.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1106ff4062cd423887ca69137d689bef", "input": "Question: They produce myelin in the central nervous system: \n Options: <1> Astrocytes <2> Ependymal cells. <3> Satellite cells. <4> Schwann cells. <5> Oligodendrocytes", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0d0343ac985a4574b8f41087ad342e14", "input": "Question: It does NOT occur during apoptosis: \n Options: <1> Rupture of the plasma membrane. <2> Condensation of chromatin. <3> Collapse of the cytoskeleton. <4> Fragmentation of DNA <5> Formation of apoptotic bodies.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5cc6b94ad1704cf994864de36882e144", "input": "Question: The desmosomes: \n Options: <1> Communicate the cytoplasms of contiguous cells. <2> They seal the intercellular space. <3> They surround the entire cell perimeter. <4> They connect the cell to the basal lamina. <5> They are point intercellular adhesive bonds.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-54cddc211d5448c894e6b3a52817094b", "input": "Question: The tissue is avascular: \n Options: <1> Cartilaginous. <2> Adipose. <3> Osseous. <4> Muscular. <5> Nervous.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-934984be24ec4da5a91011e0b201088a", "input": "Question: The goblet cells belong to the tissue: \n Options: <1> Epithelial. <2> Conjunctive. <3> Cartilaginous. <4> Osseous. <5> Adipose.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cd0b416a994c42bcb00c068b8220ebcb", "input": "Question: Mast cells or mast cells belong to the tissue: \n Options: <1> Epithelial. <2> Conjunctive. <3> Adipose <4> Lymphoid <5> Nervous.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-81653a5c5d7349d3bc395fb46c977242", "input": "Question: They produce bone resorption: \n Options: <1> Fibroblasts. <2> Osteoblasts <3> Osteoclasts. <4> Osteocytes <5> Osteona.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b967e896751046638c9b1dd8dd9e52e7", "input": "Question: They are fragments of the cytoplasm of a precursor cell: \n Options: <1> Lymphocytes <2> Megakaryocytes <3> Monocytes <4> Platelets. <5> Erythrocytes", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c60b2f68f6374303af957cfdcf3ae369", "input": "Question: If a statistical test offers a value p <0.05: \n Options: <1> The null hypothesis is accepted. <2> The alternative hypothesis is rejected. <3> the null hypothesis is rejected. <4> The null hypothesis can not be rejected. <5> There is no evidence in favor of the alternative hypothesis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fbf55e464c5341d2b6257187bed831f1", "input": "Question: A confidence interval to estimate the population mean will be more precise when: \n Options: <1> The lower the confidence level. <2> The greater the dispersion of the sample. <3> The smaller the sample size. <4> The greater the typical sampling error. <5> The higher the confidence level.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-40e5ca3de1a44bd2ad999a8e33566251", "input": "Question: If a sample of size 100 has a standard deviation of 10, its typical error is: \n Options: <1> 10 <2> 100 <3> 0.1 <4> one. <5> There is not enough data to calculate it.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ef37977485054ff28231cdbe58ad388b", "input": "Question: How many degrees of freedom does a Student's t-test applied to two samples related to a total of 25 individuals? \n Options: <1> 26 <2> 24 <3> 2. 3. <4> 48 <5> 47", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3822f8b23a354fd2a4848a4d451d7503", "input": "Question: The most common ectopic pregnancy occurs in: \n Options: <1> The fallopian tube. <2> The oviductal tube. <3> The cervix <4> The ovary <5> The abdomen.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fc6be044ec4a4f0890acb835d5e90ee6", "input": "Question: The blastocyst is detached from the zona pellucida in: \n Options: <1> The ovary <2> The fallopian tube. <3> Oviductal tube. <4> The uterus. <5> The vagina", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aa484e20caa24357b7d5cb0894a77cb9", "input": "Question: The term that includes the changes of the endometrium during pregnancy is: \n Options: <1> Hatching. <2> Apposition. <3> Accession. <4> Invasion. <5> Decidualization.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-42fc3fd525d14152b5ed80f665312121", "input": "Question: After gastrulation, the epiblast is transformed into: \n Options: <1> Endoderm <2> Mesoderm <3> Ectoderm <4> Celoma <5> Chorionic villi.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-86079f72314249999f858f529a623b89", "input": "Question: In the formation of the skin they intervene: \n Options: <1> Only the ectoderm. <2> The ectoderm, mesoderm and cells of the neural crest. <3> The ectoderm and mesoderm. <4> The ectoderm and cells of the neural crest. <5> Only the mesoderm.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fe9b5cd0503140378a858e5c479b927d", "input": "Question: In the human genome, the coding sequences are called: \n Options: <1> Exons <2> Promoters <3> Intensifiers <4> Introns <5> Adapters", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3acc7141f7d049ee9dd2678333d6053f", "input": "Question: The amount of DNA in a genome is called value: \n Options: <1> TO. <2> D. <3> An. <4> C. <5> Cn.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-59e48e2b2cd44d89a8fdcbed99c16064", "input": "Question: The most frequent mechanism that induces the activation of the ABL protooncogene in chronic myeloid leukemia is: \n Options: <1> Point mutation <2> Gene amplification. <3> Methylation of the promoter. <4> Deletion <5> Translocation", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-221ccd9629f345bfa5e01620919b24f3", "input": "Question: It has a recessive inheritance linked to the X chromosome the: \n Options: <1> Acatalasemia <2> Hemophilia A. <3> Rett syndrome. <4> Cystic fibrosis, <5> Hypophosphatemia", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-543f7d81816d473bb814d23f7e7d8060", "input": "Question: In eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase that transcribes small ribosomal RNAs is: \n Options: <1> II. <2> I. <3> IV. <4> III. <5> V.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6c45000697c646d5a280043a7d03a41c", "input": "Question: To silence messenger RNA (mRNA) siRNAs and miRNAs are usually linked to your: \n Options: <1> TATA box. <2> 5'-UTR. <3> 5 'cap. <4> 3'-UTR. <5> Poly (A) 3 tail.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ad9a477c102743409d7e37aabe4a8c40", "input": "Question: Generates blunt DNA fragments the restriction enzyme: \n Options: <1> Bam HI. <2> Hae III. <3> Hind III. <4> Eco RI. <5> Eco RII.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8853b2a26cb54769af55472f8104341f", "input": "Question: In eukaryotes, group II introns are in genes: \n Options: <1> Of rRNA. <2> From tRNA. <3> They encode proteins in the nucleus. <4> They encode proteins in mitochondria. <5> None is correct.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d2d0c3aa31724434be2519acff2f1e9d", "input": "Question: In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes: \n Options: <1> Small rRNA <2> Pre-mRNA. <3> ARNsno. <4> ARNt. <5> Large rRNA.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-38922761042f4396b41aaa08593c0e4a", "input": "Question: What enzyme does a retrovirus use to synthesize DNA copy of its genome? \n Options: <1> DNA polymerase I. <2> cDNA polymerase I. <3> RNA polymerase I. <4> cDNA polymerase II. <5> Reverse transcriptase", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8f73d397781344548918b871f9036270", "input": "Question: How many palindromic sequences exist on the human Y chromosome that allow Y-Y recombination ?: \n Options: <1> 8 <2> 6 <3> Four. <4> 10 <5> 12", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f82ede63a1c141759be4656fdc54a648", "input": "Question: It is an oncogen: \n Options: <1> NF1 <2> P53 <3> RB <4> cMYC. <5> WT1.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d4e692323363468592587bcac88cfded", "input": "Question: It is a stop codon for translation: \n Options: <1> AUG. <2> UAU <3> UGA <4> UAC. <5> UGU", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b8d5e48c4a33450abd2113ca4c773ceb", "input": "Question: In the replication of eukaryotic DNA the functions that correspond to the gamma (\u03b3) DNA polymerase are: \n Options: <1> Translational synthesis of nuclear DNA. <2> Replication and repair of mitochondrial DNA. <3> Initiation of nuclear DNA synthesis. <4> Repair of nuclear DNA. <5> Synthesis of the leading and delayed nuclear DNA chain.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-257c14bec2ba437a849041fad16ee001", "input": "Question: If the guanine percentage of a double-stranded DNA molecule is 30%, that of adenine is: \n Options: <1> 10% <2> 70% <3> 80% <4> twenty%. <5> 30%", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-db362b8d1e3b4d68a2719ddbbe01b59d", "input": "Question: Among the 5 types of histones of chromatin, the one with the lowest molecular weight is: \n Options: <1> H2A. <2> H2B. <3> H1 <4> H4 <5> H3", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cc09c72517ec4125b27b7379f686cbf7", "input": "Question: The three-dimensional structure of B-DNA: \n Options: <1> It is shorter and wider than the A-DNA. <2> It has around 20pb for each 360\u00ba turn of the propeller. <3> It is the most stable structure under physiological conditions. <4> It appears when the DNA is placed in a saline solution. <5> It is a left-handed helix.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-679870bc10b94823aaaac46f73daaf55", "input": "Question: Williams-Beuren syndrome is characterized by a microdeletion of the long arm of the chromosome: \n Options: <1> Four. <2> 22 <3> fifteen. <4> 17 <5> 7", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3be62a8185fd48c1817b9b3394c661ef", "input": "Question: The genetic phenomenon that explains that the expression of a gene is influenced by the sex of the parent is: \n Options: <1> Character limited by sex. <2> Characteristic linked to sex. <3> Cytoplasmic inheritance. <4> Genomic imprint <5> Maternal genetic effect.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f364c75cc9b7498eaa23a06534936fe3", "input": "Question: In a pedigree of an autosomal dominant trait it is observed that: \n Options: <1> The trait appears more frequently in males. <2> The unaffected people do not transmit the trait. <3> The trait tends to skip generations. <4> The affected people have both affected parents. <5> The trait tends to appear in the progeny of related parents.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cc617ae51fdc479fb223f3dacb772485", "input": "Question: In mitosis, the nuclear membrane disintegrates and spindle microtubules bind to the kinetochores in: \n Options: <1> Cytokinesis <2> Prometaphase. <3> Metaphase <4> Interface. <5> Prophase.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ac5abc894daa4c89ba1f0b73c0cc41b3", "input": "Question: Has a dominant inheritance linked to the X chromosome the: \n Options: <1> Duchenne muscular dystrophy. <2> Fabry disease. <3> Huntington's Korea. <4> Cystic fibrosis. <5> Rett syndrome.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e99c9076d4b8474cacd0fd4129e5227a", "input": "Question: Has an autosomal dominant inheritance: \n Options: <1> Alcaptonuria. <2> Huntington's Korea. <3> Rett syndrome. <4> Colour blindness. <5> Duchenne muscular dystrophy.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-540e35c7f85844a0ad2a4e2060f80f2d", "input": "Question: The number of Barr corpuscles of the cells of a man with karyotype 48, XXXY is: \n Options: <1> two. <2> one. <3> 0 <4> 3. <5> Four.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-41d82b703ffd4f47b51e3578d09dfeab", "input": "Question: The type of epistasia that explains the 15: 1 dihybrid phenotypic ratio is: \n Options: <1> Double dominant. <2> Simple recessive <3> Recessive dominant double. <4> Double recessive <5> Simple dominant.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-04174f76289c4b11ac1d13f4e61ffecb", "input": "Question: To calculate the number of different genotypes in any allelic series the formula is applied: \n Options: <1> (n-1) / 2. <2> n x (n + 1) / 2. <3> n x (n-1) / 2. <4> (n-1) x (n + 1) / 2. <5> (2n-1) / 2.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d55a9303adb440dda60c3d464738877e", "input": "Question: The change corresponds to a change mutation: \n Options: <1> T \u2192 C. <2> A \u2192 T. <3> G \u2192 A. <4> C \u2192 T. <5> A \u2192 G.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3e201ccf18fd4038a3992125def07375", "input": "Question: The order of the stages of the cell cycle is: \n Options: <1> S, G1, Mitosis, G2. <2> G2, G1, S, Mitosis. <3> G1, Mitosis, G2, S. <4> S, G0, Mitosis, G1. <5> G1, S, G2, Mitosis.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-58fcecca537f4951a9c20ed2a6d4366e", "input": "Question: How many chromosomes would a male with nulisomy have for chromosomes 17 and 18? \n Options: <1> 43 <2> Four. Five. <3> 44 <4> 42 <5> 40", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8e10b12f25c8470fa3222f1030c683a0", "input": "Question: It is NOT associated with defects in DNA repair the: \n Options: <1> Fanconi anemia. <2> Li-Fraumeni syndrome. <3> Bloom syndrome. <4> Xeroderma pigmentosa. <5> Sickle-cell anemia", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8043843e25ea46c2bedb9ce8765d9b70", "input": "Question: The denaturing of proteins: \n Options: <1> Alters the native conformation without affecting the biological activity. <2> It is always irreversible. <3> It can only be achieved by treatment with strong acids. <4> It does not affect the primary structure. <5> It produces the hydrolysis of the protein.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6759493523034b6d9b89b924031a783e", "input": "Question: In relation to the structure of proteins: \n Options: <1> All globular proteins have the same domains. <2> The tertiary structure is present only in oligomeric proteins. <3> Hemoglobin is the only protein that has a quaternary structure. <4> The protein domains are regions of compact folding that exert a certain function. <5> The tertiary and quaternary structures are maintained only by the peptide bonds.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8a4071bb97a4499e9c6e8dcb7f604193", "input": "Question: Regarding enzymatic cofactors: \n Options: <1> All enzymes are required to be active. <2> Its binding to the enzyme is always covalent. <3> There are no two enzymes that use the same cofactor. <4> They can be metal ions. <5> They only have structural function.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-88d5b02179374d27922078e12d8890eb", "input": "Question: In relation to enzymatic inhibition: \n Options: <1> An irreversible inhibitor causes the denaturation of the enzyme. <2> The competing inhibitors bind to the substrate of the reaction. <3> A non-competitive inhibitor does not need to bind to the enzyme to exert its activity. <4> All inhibitors modify Vmax. <5> A competitive inhibitor increases the value of Km.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-db7a6d6f72514bc2b4b11e1243e87545", "input": "Question: Sulfur contains the side chain of: \n Options: <1> Lysine <2> Tryptophan <3> Cysteine <4> Serina <5> To the girl.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-de5db0dadc2e4f98a2cf87fb2e1c6d7a", "input": "Question: It contains an imidazole group the side chain of: \n Options: <1> Arginine <2> Tyrosine <3> Glutamine <4> Histidine <5> Lysine", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-db1574c477dd4d689e8a0da2f1bffcc9", "input": "Question: The pentose phosphate pathway produces: \n Options: <1> NADH and acetyl-CoA. <2> NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate. <3> NADH and ribose-5-phosphate. <4> Urea. <5> Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ad8cbbd913c84d018a40ad5a1176e6b5", "input": "Question: The oxygen we consume in the respiratory chain is transformed into: \n Options: <1> Acetyl-CoA. <2> Carbon dioxide. <3> Carbon monoxide. <4> Water. <5> Carbonic acid.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e238863886eb412f8229b6e46c8a7ed3", "input": "Question: When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction: \n Options: <1> It is not modified and can be reused. <2> It does not change, but it loses its activity. <3> It always requires the participation of cofactors. <4> It denatures to facilitate bonding with the substrate. <5> It always requires energy.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8ffbe7433d2247318f73f9cdad8acc03", "input": "Question: The maximum speed of an enzymatic reaction: \n Options: <1> It depends on the substrate concentration. <2> It depends on the enzyme concentration. <3> It doubles when duplicating the substrate concentration. <4> It is Km / 2. <5> It is the same for all enzymes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1d52edfe2dcc484a9a77a60ad4ba1eb4", "input": "Question: The ketone bodies: \n Options: <1> They are used by the liver to synthesize fatty acids. <2> They only form in conditions of good nutrition. <3> Its formation is especially active in skeletal muscle. <4> It is formed from acetyl-CoA. <5> They never give acetone.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8aff55df9505453f84befa1b2360c03b", "input": "Question: In general, allosteric enzymes: \n Options: <1> They link the effectors in the active center. <2> They form covalent bonds with their negative effectors. <3> They originate hyperbolic curves of speed before the concentration of substrate. <4> They change their conformation when they link effectors. <5> They are irreversibly modified when they are inhibited.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1935299dc1ce4f42be00cc9bcd442f51", "input": "Question: It is completely oxidized in the citric acid cycle: \n Options: <1> \uf061-ketoglutarate. <2> Succinate <3> Citrate. <4> Acetyl-CoA. <5> Oxalacetate.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c170bcce6fc34da6b249d9ea234069da", "input": "Question: Animals can NOT synthesize glucose from: \n Options: <1> Glycerol. <2> To the girl. <3> Palmitate <4> Oxalacetate. <5> Lactate", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-82b3a7ceaf3f472c96ecf6d0299c5d7b", "input": "Question: Pyruvate carboxylase: \n Options: <1> It requires biotin. <2> Use a methyl group activated as a carbon source. <3> It catalyzes the production of acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide. <4> It is activated in the muscle during the Cori cycle. <5> It is an intermediate of the citric acid cycle.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0f30eada1d08476ebbe29b2a6b007e6c", "input": "Question: The Cori cycle: \n Options: <1> It involves the synthesis and degradation of glycogen. <2> It does not imply the conversion of lactate into pyruvate. <3> It only takes place in the liver. <4> Oxidizes tricarboxylic acids. <5> It involves glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b0537d5d40264e81bcf98d985603a7d6", "input": "Question: It is activated when cyclic AMP joins the: \n Options: <1> Adenylate cyclase. <2> Protein kinase A. <3> Glycogen phosphorylase kinase. <4> Pyruvate kinase. <5> Phosphofruct kinase 1.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bf455f1abb6742619c0a659880a5ff06", "input": "Question: The enantiomers of a molecule are: \n Options: <1> Very different in all its chemical and physical properties. <2> Superimposed mirror images. <3> Distinguishable by their optical activity. <4> The result of the cyclization of a molecule in different positions. <5> Interconvertible without rupture of covalent bonds.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-76b7ddd41c6c4dd9a33ffb9682c0cccf", "input": "Question: The forces that stabilize the alpha helix are: \n Options: <1> Intra-chain hydrogen bridges parallel to the axis of the helix. <2> Disulfide bridges between methionines. <3> Hydrogen bridges between chains perpendicular to the axis of the helix. <4> Van der Waals forces among the radicals. <5> Links between lysine radicals.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3811d403b81448b58d12cc83bfeb59ab", "input": "Question: The phosphate groups of the nucleotides: \n Options: <1> They are stabilized by binding to divalent anions. <2> They form low-energy hydrolysis bonds. <3> They are called X, Y and Z as they move away from ribose. <4> They are attached to the C3' of the ribose. <5> They present negative charge.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-23553582250c4258ad30cb845866a6f2", "input": "Question: On the link between the nitrogenous base and the ribose of the nucleotides: \n Options: <1> The anomeric carbon of ribose is in alpha configuration. <2> It is an N-glycosidic bond. <3> It involves the C5' of the ribose. <4> It involves phosphate groups. <5> It is of a different nature for each nitrogenous base.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-26248b78ae6b42849cd19ccc0d63e3ff", "input": "Question: The phosphodiester bond: \n Options: <1> It is formed by attack from a nitrogenous base to a phosphate. <2> It is formed using NMP as a substrate. <3> In its training PPi is consumed. <4> It involves an alpha phosphate of one nucleotide and an OH group of the ribose of another. <5> It does not need enzymatic catalysis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b70ede1494c24e6389f2435732c1cd5d", "input": "Question: The tRNA-aminoacyl-transferases: \n Options: <1> They link the amino acid to the ribosome. <2> They bind the amino acid to the anticodon of the tRNA. <3> They are RNA polymerases. <4> They guarantee the fidelity of the translation. <5> They are not important in the translation.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-18f9a644dadb4076b4ab5346545fe874", "input": "Question: In the translation of prokaryotes, the first tRNA: \n Options: <1> It is introduced in site A. <2> Join a methylated amino acid. <3> It is accompanied by the IF2 factor. <4> It is paired with a UGA start codon. <5> Always join serina.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0398eb8df29048bd992a6cf588cadaf2", "input": "Question: On the synthesis of proteins it is correct to affirm that: \n Options: <1> Start at the carboxyl end. <2> The mRNA is translated from the 5'-end to the 3'-end. <3> In eukaryotes it takes place in the nucleus. <4> The first subunit of the ribosome to bind to the mRNA is the largest. <5> It does not consume energy.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-141ddbaf1ea1493d8e002a0aa8ff80ea", "input": "Question: In the Michaelis-Menten kinetics, when the values \u200b\u200bof [s] are much lower (<1/100) than the value of Km: \n Options: <1> We are in saturation kinetics. <2> The kinetics is of order 1. <3> The Vo is the Vmax. <4> The speed is independent of the [s]. <5> That situation never occurs.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-75fab55af8734db1b2a879a484d3a0bf", "input": "Question: Enzymatic regulation by phosphorylation: \n Options: <1> It is reversible. <2> It requires enzymes that directly introduce the Pi. <3> Introduce the Pi into acidic and basic amino acids. <4> Always activate enzymes. <5> It is carried out by phosphatases.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-63681d60bcd14f7bb02b3a2468bfcd01", "input": "Question: Glycogenesis: \n Options: <1> It is a very active pathway in all tissues. <2> It is activated by insulin. <3> All their reactions occur in the mitochondria. <4> One of its substrates is ribose. <5> It is produced in the liver.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-87532a3b1b5d4a1d996e4475a21277d5", "input": "Question: In the urea cycle, the argininsuccinate: \n Options: <1> It generates fumarate and arginine by argininesuccinase. <2> It has five amino groups in its structure. <3> Its synthesis produces energy in the form of ATP. <4> It is synthesized in the mitochondria. <5> It is a keto acid.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cacb89aa0ffd49ac83f944c2b0093a42", "input": "Question: Acetyl-CoA carboxylase: \n Options: <1> It is a mitochondrial enzyme. <2> Its product is Succinyl-CoA. <3> It requires biotin as a cofactor. <4> Free ATP <5> Eat NADH.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-96dd8a880af1446aaeac1bd1e0585d8c", "input": "Question: Acetyl-CoA: \n Options: <1> It is synthesized from pyruvate in the eukaryotic cytoplasm. <2> It has a phosphate bond rich in energy. <3> Presents a guanine nucleotide in coenzyme A. <4> Activates pyruvate carboxylase and inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase. <5> It easily crosses the mitochondrial inner membrane.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-81d4c7fdcf504dc49d1f04cf770c21ab", "input": "Question: In the regulation of glycogen metabolism by adrenaline: \n Options: <1> Adenylate cyclase is inhibited. <2> Protein kinase A is inhibited through cAMP. <3> Glycogen synthetase is inhibited by phosphorylation. <4> Glycogen phosphorylase is inhibited by phosphorylation. <5> The main enzyme that carries it out is protein kinase C.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d4bdb63e147c40ca8945df306ead2421", "input": "Question: Diphyllobothrium latum competes with its definitive host for the vitamin: \n Options: <1> TO. <2> B 12 <3> C. <4> D. <5> AND.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f85a7d467b664936a35ab339c5ec1cbe", "input": "Question: Miltefosine and meglumine antimonate are used against: \n Options: <1> Plasmodium falciparum. <2> Entamoeba histolytica. <3> Fasciola hepatica. <4> Leishmania <5> Trichinella spiralis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b1fb8b23ba0e4c87971355751b011a57", "input": "Question: Praziquantel is indicated against: \n Options: <1> Dicrocoelium dendriticum. <2> Plasmodium. <3> Taenia saginata. <4> Toxoplasma gondii. <5> Entamoeba histolytica.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-38d489982e064092ad3a26968edb3b3d", "input": "Question: The eggs are operculated: \n Options: <1> Hymenolepis nana. <2> Trichinella spiralis. <3> Enterobius vermicularis. <4> Fasciola hepatica. <5> Ascaris lumbricoides.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4695ec1b9e3c4e8e813399e1babd2fe6", "input": "Question: Miracidium is a larval phase that is part of the biological cycle of a: \n Options: <1> Pediculus <2> Ascaris <3> Oxiuro. <4> Fluke. <5> Phlebotomist", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e7abcfc5dd7f4e809846f6fb519e1984", "input": "Question: The transmission of hepatitis E virus is via: \n Options: <1> Fecal-oral <2> Body secretions. <3> Bloodline <4> Placenta. <5> Aerial", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-92b0dc5be2a04fa6a14951b69b641175", "input": "Question: The genetic material of parvoviruses is: \n Options: <1> Double-stranded DNA <2> Single chain DNA <3> Single-stranded positive RNA <4> Single negative chain RNA. <5> Double-stranded RNA", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fc783e81465849e48a795bbbcaf670e3", "input": "Question: They have helical symmetry in their capsid the: \n Options: <1> Rabies virus. <2> Common cold virus. <3> Papilomavirus. <4> Herpesvirus. <5> Adenovirus.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a6bbbdaaf22c4fe4babede8f683a4f0c", "input": "Question: The genome of the hepatitis B virus is DNA from: \n Options: <1> Simple string (+). <2> Simple string (-). <3> Double circular chain. <4> Double linear chain. <5> Incomplete circular double chain (with notches).", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3b62dcfcdf7c44bcb672f2d98c7ecda0", "input": "Question: The retrovirus envelope comes from (the): \n Options: <1> Plasma membrane. <2> Nuclear membrane. <3> Endoplasmic reticulum. <4> Golgi apparatus. <5> Mitochondria.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a567244def7e4aa9915052405b2165a1", "input": "Question: The Baltimore system of virus classification is based on: \n Options: <1> The type of genetic material (DNA or RNA) they possess. <2> The morphology of their virions. <3> The replication of the genome and the synthesis process of its mRNA. <4> The symmetry of the capsid. <5> The presence or absence of wrapping.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-238e549ee3764e308759ad3b7b1f898d", "input": "Question: They cause diarrhea in children: \n Options: <1> Togavirus. <2> Coronavirus. <3> Arenavirus. <4> Parvovirus. <5> Astrovirus", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-96ec5c3b971a47f89143ceaeaa0a82e5", "input": "Question: The bodies of Negri are masses of viral particles visible under an optical microscope in cells infected by the virus: \n Options: <1> Smallpox <2> Anger. <3> The polyoma. <4> Yellow fever <5> Herpes", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e155cd119a094c94a0383cd048e83d0d", "input": "Question: The antiviral tamiflu that is used against the bird flu virus acts: \n Options: <1> Inhibiting viral neuraminidase. <2> Inactivating the viral protease responsible for the processing of capsomere precursors. <3> Preventing the decapsidation of viral particles. <4> Blocking the interaction of viral particles with their cellular receptor. <5> Altering the activity of the viral DNA polymerase.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-67a7e314deb245f18eeebce026423ea4", "input": "Question: The genetic material of the influenza virus is replicated in the: \n Options: <1> Lysosome <2> Cellular cytoplasm. <3> Nucleus of the cell. <4> Endosome <5> Golgi apparatus.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d64d77ea76014dc2b76d35fbf5c4c2f1", "input": "Question: Immediately after the herpes virus decapsidation takes place: \n Options: <1> Synthesis of an own RNA polymerase. <2> Circularization of its genome. <3> Lysis of the endosome. <4> Transcription of the viral DNA polymerase. <5> Synthesis of a protein that inhibits the replication of the host cell.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3db81dd5a70a4eb89f419e9ecfd569f6", "input": "Question: The common cold virus has a genome: \n Options: <1> Single chain DNA <2> Double-stranded DNA <3> Fragmented. <4> Simple chain RNA <5> Double-stranded RNA", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-684b63b8fa5c44609c17cd58e70d0c07", "input": "Question: The most important causative agents of cervical cancer are: \n Options: <1> Papilomavirus. <2> Polyomavirus <3> Retrovirus. <4> Cytomegalovirus. <5> Parvovirus.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6a80f27d0a4d46428927804b5dc8f739", "input": "Question: They use a reverse transcriptase during their replication: \n Options: <1> Papovavirus. <2> Polyomavirus <3> Hepadnavirus. <4> Parvovirus. <5> Herpesvirus.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-10aaeea5f8c04e569abb73c0133753b4", "input": "Question: The virus (virusoid) of hepatitis D (agent \u03b4) needs to co-infect with the hepatitis virus: \n Options: <1> TO. <2> B. <3> C. <4> AND. <5> G.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-df48383ab2ec4b02961fbbc28287ff88", "input": "Question: Most Gram-positive bacteria do not grow in MacConkey's medium because it contains: \n Options: <1> Bile salts and crystal violet. <2> Lactose and casein hydrolyzate. <3> Neutral red <4> Mannitol <5> Basic fuchsin", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-59cd6797449746bba1168c8745028e1e", "input": "Question: The immersion oil used for microscopic observation: \n Options: <1> Protects the sample from the oxidizing effect of air. <2> Lubricate the objective lens. <3> Reduces refraction and increases resolution. <4> It acts as a lens that increases magnification. <5> Avoid dehydration of the preparation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5b9af4d7d0e54346955f97c5c2ada997", "input": "Question: To observe the bacterial capsules in a clear field microscope, a stain is made: \n Options: <1> Resistant acid <2> From Leifson. <3> Simple. <4> Negative. <5> Differential.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f9f8a1785e4a4f9a880a7a918fb3de2a", "input": "Question: The microbiocidal action of iodine and chlorine and many of its derivatives is due to: \n Options: <1> They are oxidizing agents. <2> They bind specifically to the active centers of the enzymes. <3> They bind specifically to ribosomal proteins. <4> They induce pores in the membranes. <5> They cause the dissolution of membrane phospholipids.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2227add24425494580ef40d1329a533d", "input": "Question: The bacteria contain endotoxins: \n Options: <1> Of all types except microplasmas. <2> Gram positive. <3> Gram negative <4> Intracellular <5> Endospore formers", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-987cb0f17f6a41dfb097abe52032e98f", "input": "Question: The O antigen used in the classification of Gram negative bacteria corresponds to: \n Options: <1> The flagellar proteins. <2> Components of the capsule. <3> The peptidoglycan. <4> The polysaccharide of lipopolysaccharides. <5> Plasma membrane proteins.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-99306cd1593641baa5d035f68b5aead5", "input": "Question: The alcohol-resistance acid is used to identify: \n Options: <1> Fermenting bacteria. <2> Yeasts used in the production of alcoholic beverages. <3> Bacteria that possess mycolic acids. <4> Sporulated organisms. <5> Oxidizing organisms from sulfides to sulfuric acid.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2f86afd4ec544f4ca8052d319d3ccda7", "input": "Question: The Archaea differ from the bacteria in that: \n Options: <1> Their membranes have a single phospholipid layer. <2> They have several chromosomes. <3> Their membranes have glycerol ethers. <4> They are not susceptible to viral infection. <5> They do not have a cell wall.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6f918d5c1e1d4edf8562918615852b65", "input": "Question: Very commonly the autoinducer molecules responsible for the quorum perception of many Gram-negative bacteria are: \n Options: <1> N-acyl homoserine lactones. <2> Diaminopimelic acid. <3> Proteins <4> Hills <5> Fatty acids.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-632efd524f3248c9aabe8c1159b1b02b", "input": "Question: The most commonly used data to study the phylogenetic relationship between bacteria is: \n Options: <1> The cytosine-guanine composition of their DNA. <2> The degree of DNA-DNA hybridization. <3> The amino acid sequence of ribosomal proteins. <4> The nucleotide sequence of 16S ribosomal RNA. <5> The composition of the cell wall.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bb5a0719333d448e9835f8667d409aff", "input": "Question: It usually protects the DNA of a restriction enzyme: \n Options: <1> Methylation of a nitrogenous base. <2> Glycosylation of a nitrogenous base. <3> Acetylation of deoxyribose. <4> Phosphorylation of deoxyribose. <5> Loss of one of the hydroxyl groups of phosphate.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8152aebda82a49288c7c40a96fcd542f", "input": "Question: An essential characteristic of plasmids is: \n Options: <1> Be able to integrate into the genome of the host cell. <2> Direct the process of bacterial conjugation. <3> Carry genes for antibiotic resistance. <4> Replicate autonomously. <5> Being circular DNA molecules.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c29f0c4005ce4d8d883624e535c5d438", "input": "Question: The fermentation of glucose used by Escherichia coli is: \n Options: <1> Lactic <2> Propionic <3> Alcoholic <4> Butyric <5> Acid-mixed.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-00bf8c3ea64f48ff91572cb78c8456dd", "input": "Question: The target of the aminoglycoside antibacterials is the: \n Options: <1> DNA polymerase <2> Transpeptidation of peptidoglycan. <3> 30S subunit of the ribosome. <4> RNA polymerase <5> DNA gyrase.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-80e95d7b47b04cdb8b16de0a4a6fb2ef", "input": "Question: In the synthesis of DNA, the quinolones act: \n Options: <1> Joining the double helix and thus blocking the progress of the replication fork. <2> Interlacing in the double helix and thus causing errors in the transcription. <3> On DNA gyrase. <4> As nucleotide analogs that are incorporated into DNA. <5> About DNA polymerases.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cf93b2e9400c4322917093aef0d60192", "input": "Question: Isoniazid is effective against: \n Options: <1> Brucella. <2> Mycoplasma. <3> Staphylococcus aureus. <4> Mycobacterium tuberculosis. <5> Bacillus anthracis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-977189140e6945ffae0606dc9592e08c", "input": "Question: A difference between the genus Vibrio and the enterobacteria is to be: \n Options: <1> Strict anaerobe. <2> Halophile. <3> Negative oxidase of peritric flogging. <4> Very demanding nutritionally. <5> Do not ferment glucose.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9a2d1dac98cc469996bb4a4b33df690a", "input": "Question: Cause of syphilis: \n Options: <1> Trichomonas vaginalis. <2> Neisseria gonorrhoeae. <3> Treponema pallidum. <4> Mycoplasma genitalium. <5> Mobiluncus curtisii.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8ef02161cd1b4669a39c5770f7377746", "input": "Question: They incorporate sterols to their plasma membrane: \n Options: <1> Mycobacterium tuberculosis. <2> Micrococcus luteus. <3> Mycoplasma pneumoniae <4> Chlamydia trachomatis. <5> Rickettsia prowazekii.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-38df445d081b4643b56226e11c580064", "input": "Question: The vaginal microbiota of a healthy fertile woman is dominated by bacteria of the genus: \n Options: <1> Peptostreptococcus <2> Bifidobacterium <3> Eubacterium. <4> Lactobacillus <5> Vagococcus", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6cb65efdebf44a29b383bac9b0d3bcc1", "input": "Question: Lyme disease is caused by: \n Options: <1> Borrelia burgdorferi. <2> Treponema saccharophilum. <3> Spirillum commune. <4> Leptospira interrogans. <5> Limulus polyphemus.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6bc78a4c1373408ab1180a20aeb5226f", "input": "Question: The cholera toxin: \n Options: <1> Inhibits protein synthesis. <2> It is hemolytic and dermonecrotic. <3> Alters the flow of electrolytes in the intestine. <4> It is formed by a single polypeptide that is cleaved by the effect of proteases. <5> It produces food poisoning.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4170440d721a4e46967f68acecb169df", "input": "Question: Botulinum toxin: \n Options: <1> It occurs in infected and poorly aerated wounds. <2> Blocks protein synthesis. <3> It blocks the secretion of acetylcholine in the myoneural plaque. <4> It interferes with nerve impulse transmission at the level of axons. <5> It causes necrosis of the nerve endings.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-25fd7d7d7d8c4abcbe6f9bb649c91d28", "input": "Question: An important test to distinguish Staphylococcus aureus from saprophytic staphylococci, such as Staphylococcus epidermidis is: \n Options: <1> Oxidase <2> Catalase <3> Indole. <4> Urea <5> Coagulase", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-167db189aa104abb9574830f0f36a756", "input": "Question: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is typically: \n Options: <1> Sensitive to most antibiotics used in human medicine. <2> Pathogen obligated. <3> Opportunistic pathogen. <4> Commensal bacteria of the digestive tract. <5> Intracellular pathogen.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f68d9893f69c4a03803247c55b905814", "input": "Question: Infections caused by Clostridium tetani, Bordetella pertussis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Vibrio cholerae have in common: \n Options: <1> The type of transmission. <2> The reservoir. <3> The production of exotoxins. <4> The affected organs. <5> The route of infection.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-76a146dcb0e140aba1d21eb4067bf5fe", "input": "Question: The main virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae is one (one): \n Options: <1> F\u00edmbria. <2> Capsule. <3> Scourge <4> Endotoxin <5> Adhesin", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b298c61eb7ff43878bd21ee28086ec4b", "input": "Question: Legionella pneumophila is transmitted by: \n Options: <1> Air conditioning systems. <2> Contact between individuals. <3> Mosquito bite. <4> Contaminated food. <5> Fecal-oral route.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ed854a0514c943e19b03d5273778d2d0", "input": "Question: It contains a Gram negative species that causes meningitis the genus: \n Options: <1> Trichomonas. <2> Pasteurella <3> Burkholderia. <4> Francisella. <5> Neisseria.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-41b43e202dc2441fa5f9924db451eb5f", "input": "Question: In mammals, Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are receptors: \n Options: <1> Signaling. <2> Antigenic <3> Of histocompatibility alleles. <4> Of phagocytosis. <5> Of chemokines.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7e415e9af7354780a04ee380d13f5d44", "input": "Question: The innate immune response to viruses is mainly mediated by lymphocytes: \n Options: <1> B1 <2> Th1. <3> Cytolytic T <4> NK <5> T\u03b3\u03b4.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-734aead645b949b08e2a7c048251a1e7", "input": "Question: The main function of chemokines is: \n Options: <1> Regulate lymphocyte traffic. <2> Stimulate cell proliferation in response to chemical agents. <3> Amplify the production of antiviral cytokines. <4> Regulate the selection in the thymus. <5> Antagonize some cytokines.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0f0376f02310402081436528ed079b64", "input": "Question: Interactions between selectins and vascular targeins: \n Options: <1> They are very strong. <2> They mediate the first phase of the leukocyte / endothelium adhesion. <3> They are permanent. <4> They mediate firm adhesion to the endothelium. <5> They are very intense in the spleen.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-41e05ddcd9b241cdae9583f3b8b00b5a", "input": "Question: In the processing and presentation of peptides of extracellular origin intervene (n): \n Options: <1> The TAP proteins. <2> The tapasina. <3> The HLA-DM molecule. <4> The proteosome. <5> The HLA-B molecules.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1ec09157f79b46e882e537fb20619263", "input": "Question: The main autocrine growth factor for most T lymphocytes after antigen recognition is: \n Options: <1> Interleukin 2 <2> Interleukin 4 <3> Interleukin 10 <4> TGF-beta. <5> All the previous ones", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4b10d9ac4b8b4af5b77c255d9ddecb05", "input": "Question: T\u03b1\uf062 CD4 + lymphocytes: \n Options: <1> They are functionally cooperative with B lymphocytes and other T lymphocytes. <2> They recognize native antigens in soluble form. <3> They recognize peptides in the MHC class I context. <4> They are less abundant than CD8 + in human blood. <5> They release perforins.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-01eb37836cf4400da711bfa9c573a5af", "input": "Question: It is more characteristic of Th1 than Th2 lymphocytes: \n Options: <1> Interleukin 5 <2> The TGF-beta. <3> Interleukin 10 <4> Interleukin 17 <5> The IFN-\u03b3.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a4cf9b7f2ebd41ccb97c28ec0a8db5d6", "input": "Question: Th1 lymphocytes: \n Options: <1> Activate B lymphocytes and eosinophils. <2> Activate macrophages and NK lymphocytes. <3> They secrete mainly IL-4. <4> They promote the production of IgE. <5> They are a type of Treg lymphocytes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3fb85eb82b554588995ffa99baec1f00", "input": "Question: They are involved in the lytic action of cytotoxic T lymphocytes: \n Options: <1> Granzimas <2> Opsonins. <3> Histamines <4> Integrins <5> Cathepsins.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a6caa7ac1586428c88fc37c34c922b02", "input": "Question: The development of B cells in the bone marrow: \n Options: <1> It is dependent on the antigen. <2> It begins with gene rearrangements in the kappa light chain. <3> It is dependent on stromal cells. <4> It begins with gene rearrangements in the delta heavy chain. <5> It is dependent on T lymphocytes.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1cceceb7a146420e8fbf09c98a5f73c0", "input": "Question: They can be part of the B lymphocyte receptor on the cell surface: \n Options: <1> IgM and IgG. <2> IgD and IgG. <3> IgD and IgM. <4> IgA and IgM. <5> IgG and IgE.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-687234da4e184f828cbda2b1685a22b5", "input": "Question: Determines the isotype change of the immunoglobulin heavy chain: \n Options: <1> The receptor of cell B. <2> The CD40 molecule and the cytokines. <3> IgM or IgD of the lymphocyte membrane. <4> Age. <5> The location of the lymphocyte within the germinal center.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7c4d4320b6814a57925c16ec1d2b5872", "input": "Question: In comparison with the primary humoral responses, the secondary ones: \n Options: <1> They are based primarily on IgM. <2> They are faster and more durable. <3> They generate antibodies of low affinity for the antigen. <4> They present a low level of hypermutation. <5> They generate much lower amount of antibodies.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b6ce0fca188a40fa8f369efc1d73bdd6", "input": "Question: The most abundant immunoglobulin isotype produced by plasma cells of mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue is: \n Options: <1> IgM <2> IgD. <3> IgG <4> IgA <5> IgE", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9cb1e1d6b6cf44edac5d3b59c10b8ca6", "input": "Question: The following may occur in multimeric form associated with the J chain: \n Options: <1> IgA and IgG. <2> IgD and IgM, <3> IdE and IgD. <4> IgA and IgD. <5> IgA and IgM.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c672c20ace0d4e67aab1cb6d26478b7f", "input": "Question: The classical pathway of complement is activated in response to: \n Options: <1> Antigen-antibody complexes. <2> Direct binding of C3b to bacterial walls. <3> Microbial glycolipids. <4> Properdin <5> The C-reactive protein.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b4205bb42a064a0d95c6691824b4707c", "input": "Question: They are directly involved in allergic reactions: \n Options: <1> T lymphocytes. <2> Dendritic cells <3> Monocytes <4> Platelets. <5> Mastocytes", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eafaada6eb2243e4a7710513aec60450", "input": "Question: Serum disease is a hypersensitivity: \n Options: <1> Mediated by IgE. <2> Against molecules of the extracellular matrix. <3> Mediated by deposition of immune complexes in certain tissues. <4> With formation of granulomas. <5> With activation of mast cells associated with blood vessels.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6cb6005eaab24de9a2136e7212a944b3", "input": "Question: Contact dermatitis is mediated by: \n Options: <1> IgE <2> IgG <3> Activated eosinophils. <4> Activated NK lymphocytes. <5> Activated Th1 lymphocytes.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9494724100f448a1b1b08569e15213be", "input": "Question: A complication of transplantation of hematopoietic precursors is: \n Options: <1> Common variable immunodeficiency. <2> Graft-versus-host disease. <3> Immunodeficiencies in complement components. <4> The lack of NK lymphocytes. <5> Chronic granulomatous disease.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1ec1d86666a84cad819c2e07d9cedf9e", "input": "Question: The most common use of indirect ELISA is the quantification of: \n Options: <1> Serum proteins. <2> The cytotoxicity mediated by NK lymphocytes. <3> The activation of the complement. <4> Specific antibodies in a serum. <5> Apoptosis", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-15fb50b2c4cf4d048e3a2d6ab0fb36e5", "input": "Question: As an immunoanalytical technique, flow cytometry is mainly based on the detection of signals: \n Options: <1> Chemiluminescent <2> Fluorescent <3> Bioluminescent <4> Piezoelectric. <5> Magnetic", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6e5bc56ade1a4a7182b111350b264fae", "input": "Question: When centrifuging human peripheral blood in a density gradient in Ficoll: \n Options: <1> The mononuclear cells float on the Ficoll. <2> The lymphocytes remain in the background. <3> The erythrocytes float on the Ficoll. <4> The granulocytes float on the Ficoll. <5> The monocytes remain in the background.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e49a2f4357764ca4b629b81745f264cc", "input": "Question: In comparison with polyclonal antibodies, a monoclonal antibody: \n Options: <1> It has low cost. <2> It has heterogeneous specificity. <3> It is of variable specificity. <4> Recognizes a single epitope. <5> It is of variable affinity.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ed8d1dd6abff41eab1bb7538bf6e7373", "input": "Question: Type I pneumocytes: \n Options: <1> They produce surfactant. <2> They give rise to type II pneumocytes. <3> They have a lot of organelles. <4> They are responsible for gas exchange. <5> They are mesenchymal cells.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-32fbfb8fdb2c46a69cadc06be9366890", "input": "Question: It has a single nucleus in central position: \n Options: <1> Skeletal muscle fiber. <2> Cardiac muscle fiber. <3> Osteoclast <4> Thrombocyte <5> Erythrocyte", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-449258d653db482daa56d085c52cf0df", "input": "Question: Azidothymidine (AZT) used against the human immunodeficiency virus: \n Options: <1> It binds to the cellular RNA polymerase and blocks transcription. <2> It binds to the early promoter of the virus and prevents its recognition by RNA polymerase. <3> Antagonizes the phosphorylation of nucleosides, thus inhibiting the synthesis of viral DNA. <4> Blocks the transport of thymidine to the cellular interior. <5> Inhibits transcriptase", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d0022348125648a38dc99f30c6deec09", "input": "Question: Typically the species of the genus Leptospira: \n Options: <1> They have movement by perimeter flagellation. <2> They present endoflagelos. <3> They are anaerobic. <4> They form prostecas. <5> They are diners.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f05b2eda30f4495cadc1b9bcf38b62b3", "input": "Question: After antigenic recognition, the T cell receptor transmits an activation signal through: \n Options: <1> CD3 and chain \uf07a. <2> Ig\uf061 and Ig\uf062. <3> TAP1 and TAP2. <4> RAG1 and RAG2. <5> Determining regions of complementarity 1 and 2.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f8dc7fd8e7c34a5694a46251dbe321dc", "input": "Question: Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase: \n Options: <1> It is inhibited by citrate. <2> It is activated by the AMP. <3> Releases a phosphate like Pi. <4> It is a mitochondrial enzyme. <5> It catalyzes a reversible reaction.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d40f4d3268a54cc4a4dd98adc05ec869", "input": "Question: In a three-point test crossover study, a negative interference indicates that: \n Options: <1> More double crossings have occurred than expected. <2> There have been fewer double crossings than expected. <3> The match coefficient is less than 1. <4> A simple crossover decreases the likelihood of a double crossover occurring. <5> There have been fewer simple cross-links than expected.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-86ffd41e61074bfa832a3cfe7722021f", "input": "Question: The number of pairs of metacentric chromosomes of the human karyotype is: \n Options: <1> 8 <2> 6 <3> Four. <4> 12 <5> two.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-65cd07377ca64a259e7ecf9c190a7add", "input": "Question: The trophoblast develops from: \n Options: <1> The outer layer of the blastocyst. <2> The internal cell mass. <3> The zona pellucida. <4> The bilaminar germinative disc. <5> The endometrium", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-59a10af9705349a88e597e76c8f63c0f", "input": "Question: In the electrophoresis of hemoglobin in cellulose acetate: \n Options: <1> Neutral Red or Evans Blue are used as dyes. <2> Three differentiated fractions are obtained: Hb A, Hb A2 and carbonic anhydrase. <3> The majority fraction is HbA2. <4> The hemolysate is obtained using CINH4. <5> Acetone-Ethanol (1: 1) is used as decolorizer.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-304987c5e04942808fb3a3e89fcd1d79", "input": "Question: What are the three types of bone cells? \n Options: <1> Trabeculae, mitochondria and osteocytes. <2> Osteoclasts, trabeculae and osteoliths. <3> Osteocytes, osteoblasts and mitochondria. <4> Trabeculae, mitochondria and osteocytes. <5> Osteoblasts, osteoclasts and osteocytes.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6d664d57204e46c18e5ff7638537ad6b", "input": "Question: How many pairs of spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord? \n Options: <1> Twenty eight. <2> Twenty nine. <3> Thirty one. <4> Thirty-three. <5> Thirty-five.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c414606f277c4be8a433b581cffe512f", "input": "Question: The specialized type of soft and diffuse connective tissue, called myeloid tissue, is also called: \n Options: <1> Spinal cord. <2> Bone marrow. <3> Myelin <4> Endochondral marrow <5> Leukomyelin", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a0c46f2432f6492f9658c31cfb5f3d4b", "input": "Question: What is cardiac output? \n Options: <1> The volume of blood that leaves the heart per unit of time (ml / min or l / min). <2> The complete heartbeat constituted by contraction (systole) and relaxation (diastole) in both atria and in both ventricles measured in time (sec). <3> The blood that remains in the heart when the pressure gradient determines the distension of the cardiac fibers. <4> The power gradient of the contraction, also called contractility. <5> The ventricular volume that remains constant.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1733fe32d81c442b9c9e12f558870095", "input": "Question: Substances that prevent abrupt changes in the pH of a solution by adding an acid or a base to it are called: \n Options: <1> Aceto-acetic bodies. <2> Tampons. <3> Hydrogens. <4> Anhydrous. <5> Answers 2 and 3 are the correct ones.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-825f5550314740d1ad383568fd93797f", "input": "Question: Point out the correct answer regarding the regulation of hematopoiesis: \n Options: <1> Altitude inhibits hematopoiesis. <2> Erythropoietin inhibits hematopoiesis. <3> Hypoxia stimulates the production of erythropoietin. <4> Erythropoietin is synthesized in the liver. <5> Erythropoietin does not influence the production of red blood cells.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-266c515481634e62bed003d0b6293474", "input": "Question: The negative feedback regulation of thyroid hormone is as follows: \n Options: <1> High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that elevate HRT. <2> High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that raise TSH. <3> High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that decrease TRH. <4> Decreased TRH that elevates TSH. <5> Decreased TSH that elevates HRT.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7934d586b2c14953a1b223e2877fff18", "input": "Question: Granular or juxtaglomerular cells of the nephron secrete: \n Options: <1> Angiotensin I. <2> Renina <3> Angiotensinogen. <4> Aldosterone <5> Vasopressin", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-68ee2b96b5fe4242b59d5fa59c0ccba6", "input": "Question: The fundamental function of the basal ganglia is: \n Options: <1> Control movement <2> Increase hearing <3> Improve the ability of taste. <4> Increase appetite <5> Increase urination", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6f488b8a8cc440f79acd98ce34336a70", "input": "Question: According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart, under physiological conditions the cardiac output is directly proportional to: \n Options: <1> The size of the ventricle. <2> The heart rate <3> The venous return. <4> The thickness of the myocardium. <5> All the previous answers are correct.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2070abee476c4011868592691564f1d8", "input": "Question: The Law of Bases of the National Health of 1944 established with obligatory character: \n Options: <1> That in each Spanish province a College of Health Assistants was created that would integrate practitioners, midwives and nurses. <2> The creation of the Body of Ministers, Practitioners of Surgery and Midwives. <3> The official program to be followed by nurses in the Faculties of Medicine. <4> The creation of the Nursing Corps of the Traditionalist Spanish Falange and of the JONS. <5> The requirements to obtain the title and to be able to get registered as Professional Nurses of the Spanish Red Cross.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1ef056acfeda4c8fa19ea217bd220e48", "input": "Question: In charge of who was the regulation of the exercise of health professions in Spain during the fifteenth century and later? \n Options: <1> The Faculties of Medicine. <2> The Protomedical Court. <3> The General Board of Health. <4> The Ministry of Education. <5> The General Benevolence of the State.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ab47044e2e4246a092be984762745b47", "input": "Question: The History of Nursing is narrated around the relationships between the different elements and the factors that define periods or stable phases of history, called: \n Options: <1> Domestic; Preprofessional; Religious and Postprofessional. <2> Tribal / Domestic; Religious / Institutional; Preprofessional and Professional. <3> Tribal; Religious; Domestic and Institutional. <4> Tribal / Domestic; Antigua / Relational; Scientific / Professional and Postprofessional. <5> Empirical Vocational and Scientific.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e2738d50bd734c05ad13606145c130a1", "input": "Question: By what legal norm were regulated for the first time the specialties for the Diploma in Nursing and obtaining the title of Specialist Nurse? \n Options: <1> Order June 1, 1992 (BOE June 2). <2> Royal Decree 450/2005, of April 22 (BOE May 6). <3> Royal Decree 992/1987, of July 3 (BOE 1 of August). <4> Royal Decree 943/1986 (BOE May 14). <5> Order of July 15, 1980 (BOE of July 23).", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-582af643340e4ab8892b90e5859ae2e4", "input": "Question: What is the name of the specialty of the History of Nursing that is dedicated to the study of existing care systems in Prehistory? \n Options: <1> Paleodermia. <2> Neo-nursing <3> Primo Nursing. <4> Ethno-nursing <5> Meso-nursing", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d4157aba46434e17a1fe1608cf40bd49", "input": "Question: The author who showed in her writings her interest in the control of the environment, as well as the importance of the influence of Nature in the health of the people is: \n Options: <1> V. Henderson. <2> H. Peplau. <3> F. Nightingale. <4> M. Leininger. <5> D. Orem.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3fd6420c972a4c0f81cf992a63148b65", "input": "Question: Virgina Henderson describes the relationship of the nurse with the patient in the following structure: \n Options: <1> Levels: Substitution. Help. Accompaniment. <2> Roles: Strange. Person resource. Teacher. Leadership. Substitute. Advice. <3> Skills: Beginner Advanced beginner Effective. Expert. <4> Help modes: Act for another. Lead another. Support another. Provide an environment that fosters development. Teach another <5> Styles: Stimulation. Confirmation. Conservation and continuity of life. Self-image Compensation and rest.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1e11a49217f54dbe867e99d1de388102", "input": "Question: The conception of person based on the idea that he is a being inseparably linked to his culture is developed in the care model of: \n Options: <1> M. E. Rogers. <2> N. J. Pender. <3> J. Watson. <4> M. Leininger. <5> M. K. Chisman and J. Riehl-Sisca.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f0b13b3983db43bb9366d220b03d5fe0", "input": "Question: E. H. is a 64-year-old lady diagnosed with hypertension and assisted by her nurse in the corresponding program. The activities carried out by the nurse are aimed at regulating the exercise and development of the self-care agency of E. H. The lady performs her self-care and regulates the exercise and development of her self-care agency. This organization of care is described by Orem as a system: \n Options: <1> Partially compensatory. <2> Support-education. <3> Completely compensatory. <4> Complementation <5> Of shared regulation and development.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-652ef4669c6148cf92209650e4ea557a", "input": "Question: According to Alfaro-Lefevre, thinking critically in the context of nursing situations means that: \n Options: <1> It is constantly revaluing, self-correcting and seeking to improve. <2> It replaces the process of nursing care. <3> Supports concrete proposals to maintain priorities and interventions. <4> It makes our own limitations and predispositions lose importance. <5> Provide the arguments to justify that the best answer is the perfect one.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1f027d776d414c119cd34d822c9d588d", "input": "Question: One of the characteristics of the Nursing Process is: \n Options: <1> Decision making is characteristic of the planning stage. <2> It focuses on the nurse. <3> The data of each phase provide information for the next. <4> Decision making must be linked to standard response. <5> It must be designed so that it remains static.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fa5891c7f09241e489ecf65a795163b3", "input": "Question: The validation or verification of information is an essential step in critical thinking that helps you avoid: \n Options: <1> Make assumptions <2> Skip pertinent information <3> Misinterpreting situations. <4> Draw hasty conclusions or focus in the wrong direction. <5> All the previous answers are correct.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3b8163ab09ce4815a1a6822a2442b147", "input": "Question: In the interview with a patient during the assessment stage, open questions present a disadvantage because: \n Options: <1> They can reveal the affectivity of the interviewee with respect to one aspect. <2> The answers are difficult to register and doing it requires skill. <3> They let the interviewee speak. <4> Too much importance is attached to the opinions of the interviewee. <5> They can attract interest and confidence for the freedom they provide.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-342fb0b3846c4f5294b2eb7807814bc6", "input": "Question: The nurse identifies that the person she has evaluated presents a series of manifestations that correspond to the defining characteristics of a diagnostic label, however, does not identify any possible cause. How should you enunciate the diagnosis following the guidelines of the PES format? \n Options: <1> Problem related to unknown cause manifested by the defining characteristics identified. <2> Using the term related to instead of due to, between problem and etiology. <3> As a risk diagnosis. <4> Problem related to the defining characteristics identified. <5> The absence of cause means that there is no problem, so a diagnosis could not be stated.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-34b2ce2909854005bd9497a01d3fb58a", "input": "Question: When recording the data obtained during the execution of the care, the appropriate thing is: \n Options: <1> Take some time to make the annotations, after a reflection based on what is remembered. <2> Focus on the important problems and events that communicate what is different that day in that person. <3> Collect all that has been perceived about the answer, even if it is subjective, because it is an important information for the team. <4> Record all the normal manifestations that the person presents. <5> Make the annotations in a general manner, without describing temporal concretions that would hinder interpretation.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-93c2619606cc45cb99016a20d97913f4", "input": "Question: Regarding the NANDA-I taxonomy, it is correct to affirm that: \n Options: <1> All the diagnoses contained in the taxonomy are appropriate for all practicing nurses. <2> All the proposed diagnoses are relevant for all specialties. <3> There are diagnoses that may be outside the scope of exercise that governs the nurse practice of a specific area. <4> The use of the diagnoses contained in the classification supports their use over the regulations that may exist in a specific area. <5> The taxonomy must adjust to each reality, removing those diagnoses that are not usual and including those that do not appear in the classification and represent common problems.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e1f4a906d8134c17a688b0f53451a30a", "input": "Question: It is NOT a component of the evaluation stage of the Nursing Process: \n Options: <1> The collection of data related to the results. <2> The comparison of the data with the desired results. <3> The relationship of the nursing activities with the results. <4> The continuation, modification or termination of the care plan. <5> The election of pertinent results and determination of precise indicators.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b043a7a5f1b046a89a31be91b2143003", "input": "Question: The system of norms and sanctions that is established in a mandatory way for professionals based on professional ethics behaviors, is called: \n Options: <1> Professional bioethics <2> Practical ethics <3> Professional deontology. <4> Professional rights <5> Hierarchical moral code.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bc61b85a23c04cb7bad038ab186518b2", "input": "Question: According to the Code of Ethics, in their professional practice, the nurse / guarantor will guarantee and carry out a correct and adequate treatment for all the people who need it: \n Options: <1> Less in the assumptions of risks. <2> Regardless of your condition, age or circumstance. <3> Except in the case of patients legally declared dangerous. <4> But it can be exempted from its obligation only when dealing with infectious and contagious patients. <5> Except when the professional presents his objection in writing.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-18c540f530ed42f5a3225166ed91fff8", "input": "Question: What name do the Codes that define the internal good of the nursing profession receive, according to which obligations and responsibilities are enunciated and professional excellence is promoted? \n Options: <1> Deontological. <2> Ethical <3> Bioethics <4> Practical <5> Of Care", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2a35120eaf894f0a90af71f4b55f6d13", "input": "Question: In the prevalence of bioethical principles, the principles of justice and nonmaleficence are framed in an ethics: \n Options: <1> Of maximums. <2> Of minimums. <3> Deontological <4> Pluralistic. <5> Of excellence", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cc9a8369dbe64678af4c9ddc1fe7ddd5", "input": "Question: As a health professional, you must have communicative qualities / abilities. Based on the following dialogue, identify what the nurse does: Patient - I do not know what they are going to do to me, I am afraid that something goes wrong in the operation. Nurse - Do not worry, calm down, you will see how everything will turn out well. \n Options: <1> It is receptive and encourages the communication of more concrete aspects. <2> It is giving false assurances, offers reassuring answers without reasonable basis. <3> The nurse uses the technique of pointing. <4> It is transmitting the nurse's own safety. <5> It is addressing the patient's anxiety.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b003c6887c984ba78be46d4889d7ea4f", "input": "Question: To deal directly and effectively with stressful situations, you can use: \n Options: <1> Confrontation as a strategy centered on emotion. <2> The distancing as a strategy focused on the problem. <3> Strategies focused on the problem, such as social support. <4> The defensive mechanism of regression. <5> The self-incrimination.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0f69633378504292b79684ae3e9913d6", "input": "Question: The transactional or processual stress model of Lazarus and Folkman: \n Options: <1> It focuses on physiological reactions to any stressful stimulus. <2> Describes the general adaptation syndrome. <3> It establishes three stages: reaction, resistance and exhaustion. <4> It attaches great importance to the cognitive processes that mediate between the stressful stimulus and the stress response. <5> Describes the long-term negative effects of prolonged exposure to stress.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1d71d4791c30409b9cde248376caeaaa", "input": "Question: They are signs and symptoms of severe anxiety: \n Options: <1> Tachycardia and nausea. <2> Decreased attention and tremors. <3> Vomiting and psychomotor agitation. <4> Insomnia and malaise <5> Distorted perception and inability to communicate.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-220d918035f34639b9e6808ad27aeb13", "input": "Question: Point out the correct statement about the relaxation technique: \n Options: <1> Visualization decreases the degree of relaxation. <2> The best relaxation is achieved when the person falls asleep. <3> You can practice relaxation, after continuous practice, in any position and place. <4> In deep breaths it is not advisable to hold the air for a few seconds. <5> If tingling appears, it indicates that the person is not relaxing well.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-58d246b2bac24cfdb8a771338f137f4b", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following options does NOT correspond to the objectives of the pre-anesthetic medication: \n Options: <1> Reduce anxiety <2> Relieve preoperative pain. <3> Relieve postoperative pain <4> Facilitate the induction of anesthesia. <5> Reduce the anesthetic needs.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c108904d85f9413fade1e29cf22846f7", "input": "Question: Indicate the wrong option in relation to the most frequent adverse reactions produced by the following drugs: \n Options: <1> Penicillins: permanent alteration of the coloring of the teeth. <2> Clindamycin: diarrhea. <3> Quinolones: headaches. <4> Aminoglycosides: ototoxicity. <5> Tetracyclines: photosensitivity.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e30d4311c050413d9cebb54c32a880b6", "input": "Question: Point out the correct option: \n Options: <1> Long-acting bronchodilators should be used on demand. <2> Rapid-acting bronchodilators should be administered every 3-5 hours. <3> Bradycardia is an adverse effect that frequently appears after the administration of bronchodilators. <4> Glucocorticoids are used as a preventive treatment for seizures in asthmatic patients. <5> The answers 1 and 4 are correct.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d32b685414244b8cac26878f887cc86b", "input": "Question: Vitamin K is the specific antagonist for: \n Options: <1> Oral anticoagulants <2> Insulin. <3> Paracetamol. <4> Heparin. <5> Opiates", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6d3ef2994ce8462bade45ab59c18b64f", "input": "Question: Proton pump inhibitor drugs are useful in the treatment of: \n Options: <1> Constipation. <2> Corneal ulcer. <3> Peptic ulcer. <4> Traveler's diarrhea. <5> Crohn's disease.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-76c08d0fd46e4f75832561516908be0b", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following drugs has antihypertensive action: \n Options: <1> Pancuronium <2> Nitroprusside sodium <3> Procainamide <4> Salbutamol <5> Clarithromycin", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-136a7994b1b74c4ca6fabacede049785", "input": "Question: In relation to adrenaline it is true that: \n Options: <1> It produces uterine contractions. <2> It is used in the treatment of anaphylactic shock. <3> It is used together with ampicillin in situations of sepsis. <4> It is contraindicated in situations of cardiac arrest due to its effect. <5> Encapsulated is rapidly absorbed orally.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b6d78b7804ff4e469622100776436538", "input": "Question: In strict vegetarians, a lack of one of the following vitamins may appear: \n Options: <1> B12 vitamin. <2> Vitamin C. <3> Retinol <4> Folate <5> Niacin", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-642252899c1a42f8a81a5d45a71ce191", "input": "Question: With regard to the intermittent administration of enteral nutrition, point out the INCORRECT response: \n Options: <1> It can be administered in bolus. <2> The administration should last 15 to 20 minutes. <3> After the take, you have to wash the probe to remove debris. <4> It is always administered with a pump. <5> The total amount is divided into 4 or 5 daily doses.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8c1b57b9d95a4a9aa429e282311f4d7e", "input": "Question: Olive oil has the following nutrients in its composition, EXCEPT: \n Options: <1> Cholesterol. <2> Oleic acid. <3> Antioxidants <4> Vitamin E. <5> Linoleic acid.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d8e86a8cd4034435a70659bbfbe4848f", "input": "Question: What is estimated with the measurement of skin folds? \n Options: <1> The total body mass. <2> The lean mass. <3> The body fat. <4> The relationship between fat mass and muscle mass. <5> The skeletal muscles.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f7cb8eec42224f83b311d67ba20081b7", "input": "Question: Which of these foods should reduce a patient with high cholesterol from his diet? \n Options: <1> Cereals. <2> Vegetables. <3> Whole milk. <4> Olive oil. <5> Fish.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3d697c27361b4b9c8415a4f9321c4f17", "input": "Question: Which of the following nutrients requires more special attention and recommendation in later life? \n Options: <1> Selenium. <2> Calcium. <3> Essential amino acids. <4> Lipids <5> Fiber.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bba9e823839241c7a59cf482966d11e9", "input": "Question: Fatty fish, commonly called blue, are those that contain just over 10% fat. Which of the following is a lean fish and, therefore, with a lower fat intake? \n Options: <1> Sardine. <2> Eel. <3> Salmon. <4> Sole. <5> Mackerel.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bc45bd84ab2e4b45bd2811c5ee5f61c6", "input": "Question: To diagnose a situation of cardiorespiratory arrest, the correct sequence of assessment according to the recommendations of the Guide 2010 of the Spanish Council of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation consists of: \n Options: <1> Check unconsciousness, check signs of life or presence of pulse, check if you breathe and open the airway. <2> Check unconsciousness, alert, open the airway and check if it breathes. <3> Check pulse, alert, open the airway, check unconsciousness, check if you breathe. <4> Open the airway, check unconsciousness, check for pulse or signs of life (cough, movement) and check if you breathe. <5> Open the airway, alert, check if you breathe, check presence of pulse or signs of life and check unconsciousness.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-667a2a90be7041b4bbd1e7cbe7dba801", "input": "Question: People affected by chronic heart failure usually present the diagnosis of nursing Intolerance to activity related to: \n Options: <1> Fear, because it is a situation that poses a potential risk to life. <2> Imbalance between the supply and oxygen demand due to the decrease in myocardial contractility. <3> Excess fluid volume due to interruption of blood flow. <4> Poor knowledge about the disease and treatment with diuretics. <5> Infection due to decreased immune response.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f6cd4a87ff5f43dfbe076483b4d8c62e", "input": "Question: In acute coronary syndrome with ST-segment elevation, heparin is used because: \n Options: <1> It is fibrinolytic, since it destroys the thrombus. <2> It inhibits the formation of more thrombi and prevents their recurrence. <3> It inhibits platelet aggregation. <4> Restores the patency of the coronary artery immediately. <5> All the previous answers are correct.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b7dbce26836e495282ce4eadc67ac666", "input": "Question: What self-care recommendations for discharge would you give to a patient with epistaxis? \n Options: <1> Sneeze with your mouth closed. <2> Perform deep breaths and instil saline into nostrils. <3> Blow your nose hard. <4> Avoid activities that involve physical effort. <5> Adopt the Fowler position.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fb51f1274db5498185f5c3b81896968e", "input": "Question: J. L. is a patient who has to administer a drug by inhalation with a dispenser in the form of a pressurized cartridge. The recommendation that will give you for its correct administration will be: \n Options: <1> Place the inhaler 6 cm in front of the mouth. <2> Perform a slow and deep expiration before administration. <3> Hold the cartridge with your thumb up and your index finger down. <4> Start the inspiration after pressing the inhaler. <5> The mouth should not be rinsed after inhalation.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e006830ba8ae4323bf995013836445b8", "input": "Question: When administering oxygen therapy to a patient admitted to the emergency room due to exacerbated COPD, you should take into account that: \n Options: <1> The flow of oxygen must be high, since respiratory failure is accompanied by hypoxia. <2> The concentration of oxygen is conditioned by the patient's clinical situation. <3> The concentration of oxygen must be equal to the atmospheric concentration, since the patient presents hypercapnia. <4> The flow should be low, since hypoxia is the only stimulus to breathe. <5> The flow must be adjusted to achieve a PO2 greater than 90 mmHg.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fa27a10f4e57425e817d42a145386fc1", "input": "Question: What action would you take if you notice that in the chamber of the hydraulic seal of a patient's chest drainage, the water rises on inspiration and descends on expiration? \n Options: <1> Observe possible system bids. <2> Check the pressure level of the suction gauge. <3> Milk the tubes for obstruction. <4> None, since it is a normal finding. <5> Check that the system is placed horizontally.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c184ff77fdff4fb09aa467e3ef008b08", "input": "Question: When caring for a patient who has undergone a supraglottic laryngectomy, you should bear in mind that: \n Options: <1> He has lost the ability to speak by extirpation of the true vocal cords. <2> The tracheostomy they have performed will be permanent. <3> You have a risk of bronchoaspiration due to difficulty swallowing. <4> You may have constipation due to cervical dissection. <5> A portion of the larynx has been removed along with a vocal cord.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b43be1350c1f45e59be8afa7ad2194d2", "input": "Question: The management of seizures in a patient, within the ictal phase, includes activities such as reassuring him, protecting him from injuries, administering the prescribed medication and maintaining a permeable airway, among others. But, in addition, it is fundamental: \n Options: <1> Introduce any object into the patient's mouth. <2> Put your fingers in your mouth to try to keep it open. <3> Do not waste time in the establishment of a venous line, because in no case will be necessary. <4> Do not force any object into your mouth. <5> Proceed with nasotracheal intubation, always and in all cases.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3adbb28bc736478aaf1befd70670ee7e", "input": "Question: Guillain-Barr\u00e9 syndrome is an acute inflammatory demyelinating disorder of the peripheral nervous system. The loss of muscular strength in the acute phase can imply an urgency, which in severe cases results in: \n Options: <1> Exclusive loss of muscle strength in the lower extremities. <2> Tetraplegia and respiratory failure that need to control the patient's circulatory status, endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. <3> Psychomotor agitation that leads to sleep disorders. <4> Scarce affectation of costal and / or diaphragmatic muscles. <5> Alterations exclusively sensory.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0bff632bf2e74d8bb35447aebb9d460f", "input": "Question: When you assess a patient with a neurological problem, you check that he has a positive Kerning sign. This finding is related to: \n Options: <1> Meningeal irritation <2> Convulsive crisis. <3> Alteration of the I Cranial Pair. <4> Diplopia. <5> Cerebral stroke.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2230eae9ab274b10ae8f21f878754c02", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements about Parkinson's disease is true? \n Options: <1> The disease begins with obvious manifestations that guide the doctor to formulate the definitive diagnosis. <2> The disease is a neurological disorder characterized by tremor, rigidity and bradykinesia. <3> In the beginning, patients walk more and more slowly. <4> Flaccidity, associated with motor dysfunction, is bilateral. <5> In advanced stages, the patient presents lordosis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3be77265eaac4ffcb6d945542736381b", "input": "Question: What is the main risk factor in the appearance of ischemic or hemorrhagic ICTUS? \n Options: <1> Cardiopathy <2> Mellitus diabetes. <3> Hyperlipidemia <4> Arterial hypertension. <5> Obesity.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c09d33ed690d4569ab05167bba593884", "input": "Question: The control of vital signs is fundamental in the assessment of the neurological patient. Many neurological disorders can present alterations of the respiratory pattern or frequency, indicating damage to the respiratory center or the nervous system. One of these abnormal breathing patterns, present in meningitis or cases of supratentorial injury, is Cheyne-Stokes respiration, characterized by: \n Options: <1> Regular frequency and superficial character. <2> Absence of clearly observable breathing. <3> A series of breaths that increase in amplitude / intensity to a maximum point in which they begin to decrease, followed by an apnea pause. <4> Slow and regular breaths with a frequency less than 10 per minute. <5> It is an abnormal and sustained increase in both depth and respiratory rate.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a87d62f8c22a440a8053d0343332b631", "input": "Question: In which of the following positions should a patient be placed to perform a gastroscopy? \n Options: <1> Right lateral decubitus. <2> Left lateral decubitus. <3> Supine decubitus <4> Trendelemburg. <5> Sims position.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-692d719587b149608db006fba8ef786a", "input": "Question: Mr. A. P. has been discharged after being operated on for a gastric resection. What recommendations should you give to avoid the rapid evacuation syndrome? \n Options: <1> Drink liquids during the meal. <2> Take a diet high in carbohydrates. <3> After ingestion, the decubitus position is the most beneficial if the patient tolerates it. <4> You should plan rest periods of 15 minutes after meals. <5> Take a diet low in protein and fat, to avoid abdominal distension.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1145cef5a0da4263b47858a55694ff91", "input": "Question: The diet of a person with intestinal diverticulosis should be: \n Options: <1> Hyperproteic. <2> Hypercaloric. <3> Hyposodic. <4> Rich in fiber. <5> Hypocaloric.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4ec2907f7cb147508d715e882b279297", "input": "Question: Which of the following clinical manifestations is predominant in a patient with acute pancreatitis? \n Options: <1> Abdomen rigid or on board. <2> Ecchymosis on the flank or around the navel. <3> Fever. <4> Jaundice. <5> Abdominal pain.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-734547a0fdd849f4acf6cea1ecd2e4bf", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements about personal care after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is INCORRECT? \n Options: <1> Start light exercise (walking) one week after the intervention. <2> Shower or bathe after 1 or 2 days. <3> Return to sexual activity when desired. <4> If you had fat intolerance before the operation, gradually add fat to your usual diet in small increments. <5> Resume the normal diet.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee070eda681f4ee89c0d7efaa071c5fd", "input": "Question: A patient with dyspepsia will undergo a screening test for Helicobacter pylori. Before carrying out the test, the patient should know that: \n Options: <1> Treatment with proton pump inhibitors should be discontinued at least one week before the test. <2> Treatment with proton pump inhibitors should be discontinued at least two weeks before the test. <3> The use of antacids also modifies the results of the test. <4> The use of antibiotics does not modify the diagnostic tests for H. pylori. <5> Antibiotic treatments negativize the diagnostic tests for H. pylori, so these drugs should be avoided for one week before any diagnostic test.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5b834f50e01a4e51bc5f0d8d275b6ed1", "input": "Question: In general, water intake should be increased in patients undergoing chemotherapy with the aim of: \n Options: <1> Prevent kidney damage. <2> Fluidify bronchial secretions. <3> Relieve post-chemotherapy nausea. <4> Increase the volume. <5> Decrease the risk of infection.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-07ac98c374714a449a03a32267c70c3a", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following safety precautions used in the care of the patient receiving brachytherapy is NOT true: \n Options: <1> Single room. <2> Prohibition of visits of children. <3> Radiation meters for health personnel. <4> Reverse isolation. <5> Limitation of the time of the visits.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7a2c439bf8f64d31a02c9264b73659f2", "input": "Question: Which of the following chemicals is considered the most lethal individual carcinogen? \n Options: <1> Alcohol. <2> Smoke of the tabacco. <3> Tar. <4> Benzene. <5> Nickel.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5855bf5a770b4cb3960a20cd9803ee27", "input": "Question: The gradation of a tumor refers to: \n Options: <1> Determine the extent of the disease by considering tumor size and spread. <2> Measure the abnormal cell growth with respect to the size, shape and disposition of the tumor. <3> Obtain a sample of tissue to analyze it under a microscope and detect malignant cells. <4> Identify the type of tissue that caused the tumor and the degree to which the tumor cells retain the characteristics of the tissue of origin. <5> Select specific therapies to destroy tumor cells by interfering with their cellular functions.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f7ef91e8061847b381da12ae4aebc8e0", "input": "Question: You are informing P. T. of hair loss that will occur about the second or third week of beginning chemotherapy treatment. It suggests you start using the wig before hair loss in order to: \n Options: <1> Hide alopecia. <2> Decrease depersonalization. <3> Provide alternatives to the patient. <4> Prepare for the loss and facilitate adjustment. <5> Facilitate the choice of the color wig and similar style before alopecia.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-caf8f04c21354ac3b7318ed06296a99b", "input": "Question: A 55-year-old woman with adrenal insufficiency has been prescribed corticosteroid treatment. Which of the following instructions would you provide in relation to this treatment? \n Options: <1> Take the drug first thing in the morning. <2> Take the drug before bedtime. <3> Exclude foods rich in calcium and vitamin D from the diet. <4> Eat a diet low in calories and protein. <5> Monitor the decrease in blood pressure.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8ae012f3d1d3460ca51a160f781776d2", "input": "Question: Mr. P. L., 59, has type 2 diabetes and his Body Mass Index is 27. He asks you if you can have a glass of wine with meals. Your answer is: \n Options: <1> You should refrain from drinking alcoholic beverages because of the risk of developing ketoacidosis. <2> You can do it, but you must incorporate the calories of alcohol into the meal plan. <3> You can consume it before meals to reduce the risk of hypoglycaemia. <4> It should be avoided, because the consumption of alcohol even in moderate amounts increases coronary morbidity. <5> No answer is correct.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-258c690cb4f841d3b261388b4fba3942", "input": "Question: Which of the following insulins is used for the basal dose in a diabetic patient? \n Options: <1> Lispro. <2> Aspart. <3> Metformin. <4> Glargine <5> Regular.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e14cca263ca4432c8db7f2a207b488bc", "input": "Question: A.C. is hospitalized for presenting a picture of thyrotoxicosis. Which of these measures would you carry out? \n Options: <1> Shelter the patient with blankets. <2> Provide hypocaloric diet. <3> Encourage aerobic exercise. <4> Control the frequency and characteristics of the pulse. <5> Administer stool softeners regularly.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8473f1a4caad4a5780a06782024b910a", "input": "Question: Peritoneal dialysis is a depurative technique that is characterized because: \n Options: <1> It is necessary to always administer heparin through the peritoneal catheter. <2> It is indicated in patients with respiratory problems of a restrictive type. <3> Does not produce significant hemodynamic alterations. <4> Requires daily and nightly solution exchanges every four hours. <5> Water and toxic substances are eliminated by ultrafiltration.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f1c976319542450f8fa337eff63d0d5f", "input": "Question: P. L. is a patient with frequent urinary infections. When explaining the possible causes of the same will comment that a risk factor is: \n Options: <1> The presence of urinary stones. <2> The intake of substances that acidify the urine. <3> The increase of leukocytes in urine. <4> The saturation of urine by calcium salts. <5> The emission of urine every 2 or 3 hours.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5a8a0bab666d4beb91246236506b0e40", "input": "Question: To detect the occurrence of prerenal acute renal failure in a patient, the nurse should monitor the presence of: \n Options: <1> Signs of low cardiac output. <2> Hematuria <3> Urine cloudy and smelly. <4> Colic pain <5> Elevation of creatinine clearance.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-74833c764f2b49f48cb7f14928df0228", "input": "Question: A patient with an internal arteriovenous fistula in the left arm will recommend: \n Options: <1> Put on a compressive bandage for protection. <2> Perform elbow flexion and extension exercises to activate their maturation. <3> Feel the fistula daily to check that it works. <4> Clean the surrounding skin with an antiseptic every day. <5> Lift weight with that hand to achieve vascular remodeling.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9e12d40c25e0416d8cf9305b3ca3e88b", "input": "Question: A patient diagnosed with chronic renal failure has tingling and paresthesias in the legs. This is due to: \n Options: <1> Vascular alterations produced by hyperlipidemia. <2> Peripheral neuropathy associated with uremia. <3> Hyperphosphatemia secondary to renal osteodystrophy. <4> Decreased peripheral perfusion as a result of anemia. <5> Hypercalcemia produced by decreased glomerular filtration.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4ba97f6ef9754f1da4c3d3be2662ae98", "input": "Question: A distension is defined as: \n Options: <1> Soft tissue injury. <2> Forced movement of abrupt production. <3> Injury by stretching a muscle. <4> Injury of the joint capsule. <5> Interruption in the continuity of a bone.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-facf4b3b447f4ca38692de8c1d1fcb94", "input": "Question: For a patient with an acute episode of gout, the nurse should recommend: \n Options: <1> Avoid foods rich in fat and calories. <2> Apply ice packs to reduce joint pain. <3> Perform daily exercise. <4> Avoid the intake of foods rich in purines. <5> Periodically check the blood count and the white blood cell count.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3b37fea7c51343f094d23e36e5a81347", "input": "Question: An adequate recommendation for a patient with a recent diagnosis of osteoporosis is: \n Options: <1> Perform isometric exercises. <2> Give up smoking. <3> Take a diet rich in fiber. <4> Limit physical activity <5> Avoid the ingestion of bisphosphonates.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-15a047591166487a91e4446dbd08b672", "input": "Question: During your working day in the Surgery Unit, you receive a patient surgically removed from the Post-Anesthetic Recovery Unit. When evaluating it, observe that it carries a Penrose drain. Which of the following statements about this type of drainage is correct? \n Options: <1> It is an active drainage that acts by gravity. <2> It must be connected to a closed circuit collection bag. <3> It works by aspiration. <4> It is a passive drainage whose mechanism of action is by capillarity. <5> It is placed in the bile ducts.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-08e6f1be26434965947bb85c79abde94", "input": "Question: For wound care and depending on their evolution, there is a wide variety of dressings on the market. From the following statements, point out the correct one: \n Options: <1> The gauzes always keep the wound in humid conditions. <2> The hydrogel dressing is used to maintain a dry wound. <3> Transparent films are used for infected wounds. <4> Hydrocolloid dressings are used in moist environment cures. <5> The foam dressing is used to maintain a dry wound environment.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-70248ff1ebe94891a98415330e354c04", "input": "Question: When you assess the nutritional status of the patient in the preoperative period, you should know that if he suffers from a deficit of Vitamin C, he may present in the postoperative period: \n Options: <1> Problems in the synthesis of prothrombin. <2> Tachycardia. <3> Leukopenia <4> Healing problems in the wound. <5> Alteration in the metabolism of carbohydrates.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5be3554c70064110b09e59513cc505e5", "input": "Question: To measure the pulmonary wedge pressure (PEP) by means of a pulmonary artery catheter, it is advisable to take into account that: \n Options: <1> It is not necessary to inflate the ball. <2> The catheter should always be inserted with the balloon inflated, but at half the recommended volume. <3> The volume of balloon inflation is usually 1.5 ml of air. <4> The volume of inflation of the balloon is usually 3 ml of air. <5> You have to leave the balloon always inflated after making the determinations of PEP.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-68dcd8121d514bb6ac80f98906681cf5", "input": "Question: Central Venous Pressure (PVC) monitoring is a procedure performed frequently by nurses in the Critical Care Unit. Indicate the correct option regarding the performance of this hemodynamic measurement: \n Options: <1> It is only possible to perform it using electronic pressure transducers, expressing the measurement in cmH2O. <2> It is only possible to carry it out by using electronic pressure transducers, expressing the measurement in mmHg. <3> It can only be done through the distal lumen of a pulmonary artery catheter. <4> It can be done by using electronic pressure transducers and pressure gauges with a water column. <5> It is a good reflection of the functioning of the left ventricle.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bdbbf1f92b884e7ea484fe8576fde81c", "input": "Question: In a patient connected to invasive mechanical ventilation, when all movements are generated by the ventilator, supplying a certain volume with a constant flow during a preset time, without allowing the synchronization with spontaneous or additional respirations of the patient, we refer to: \n Options: <1> Assisted ventilation <2> Controlled mechanical ventilation. <3> Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation. <4> Spontaneous ventilation with continuous positive pressure. <5> Positive pressure at the end of expiration.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d36b086aa3f2462e860eaf47554cd8d5", "input": "Question: A 65-year-old man has advanced terminal cancer. What data would indicate that it is near the end of his life? Point out the best option: \n Options: <1> Abdominal distension. <2> Temperature of 38\u00ba C. <3> Urinary incontinence <4> Stertorous respiration. <5> Drowsiness.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-291c959e2c784fdea48a63d92ee8f867", "input": "Question: P. C. is a terminally ill patient with oral mucositis and pain, although he retains the ability to eat a solid diet. Which of the following actions would be indicated? \n Options: <1> Encourage him to suck pineapple chips. <2> Rinse the mouth with \u00be parts of 0.9% saline and \u00bc part of oxygenated water. <3> Make gargles with nystatin alternating with chlorhexidine. <4> Administer viscous lidocaine 2% before meals. <5> Provide a tremix diet.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2533089d853f434d9adfeaffdce670b1", "input": "Question: Of the following pollutants, which has a greater affinity for hemoglobin producing alterations in brain, myocardial and muscular tissue? \n Options: <1> Carbon monoxide. <2> Carbon dioxide. <3> Nitric monoxide <4> Sulfur dioxide. <5> Ozone.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-432d3d2794b94082b0eee4e3a50752ff", "input": "Question: A 18-year-old male with a dog bite wound on the lateral face of the right lower limb comes to a nursing consultation. The wound occurred 30 hours ago and affects the subcutaneous tissue, is shaped like a moon (about 5 cm long) and is deep. Considering that you have the complete childhood immunization schedule, what intervention would be indicated in relation to tetanus vaccination? \n Options: <1> It does not require any intervention. <2> Put a booster dose of the tetanus vaccine (dTe). <3> Administration of antitetanic gamma globulin (GGAT). <4> Administration of antitetanus gammaglobulin and booster dose of tetanus vaccine. <5> Administration of antitetanus gammaglobulin and reinitiate tetanus vaccination.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4d7f4d031bd448cdb02effa13a38a4e4", "input": "Question: Point out the secondary prevention measure that has been shown to be effective in colon cancer: \n Options: <1> Facilitate the realization of fecal occult blood test every year or biennially and / or sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy every 5 years in people with high risk. <2> Encourage the consumption of milk and other dairy products, fish and fruits. <3> Avoid the consumption of cooked meat very made or in direct contact with the fire. <4> Avoid the consumption of tobacco and the ingestion of alcohol. <5> All the previous answers are correct.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a7aa4cc9b41242faacc102c67ea8e902", "input": "Question: A 32-year-old pregnant woman of 16 weeks, a habitual consumer of cocaine and heroin with a history of failure in outpatient detoxification, goes to the comprehensive care center for drug addicts. He has no family support and says he wants to stop using drugs, but he needs support to do so. Which resource would be indicated? \n Options: <1> Detoxification hospital unit. <2> Therapeutic communities <3> Day centers. <4> Re-entry floors. <5> All the previous answers are correct.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2ddfa084f0c7441eae8e9c712fb4ad10", "input": "Question: A 57-year-old woman with a history of HTA grade 1, controlled with a low-sodium diet, a BMI 23 and an ex-smoker, attended the nursing consultation. Data from the last analysis: Total cholesterol 225 mg / dl; LDL cholesterol: 123 mg / dl and glucose 129 mg / dl. Of the following recommendations, which would be indicated for the control of cardiovascular risk? \n Options: <1> Regular anaerobic exercise with a minimum duration of 30 minutes per session. <2> Hypocaloric diet of 1500 kcal. <3> Encourage coconut consumption due to its hypocholesterolemic effect. <4> Promote the consumption of natural sterols, as well as mono and polyunsaturated fats and dietary fiber. <5> All the previous answers are correct.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-869e31190b8d4bd5a2c2b427de9abece", "input": "Question: The functional organizational structure formed by health and non-health professionals, who is responsible for health care in a comprehensive, shared and continuous manner in the basic health area, is called: \n Options: <1> Autonomic Health Service. <2> National system of health. <3> Clinic. <4> Primary Care Team. <5> Portfolio of Services.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6429da7883d745c0893e635ff594f595", "input": "Question: The probability that a person free of a disease develops it during a period of time, corresponds to: \n Options: <1> Chance. <2> Prevalence <3> Specificity <4> Forecast. <5> Risk.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b75811b2a78c4b25b2ab7d084c875104", "input": "Question: According to the General Health Law 14/1986 of April 25, the territorial framework of Primary Health Care is: \n Options: <1> The Health District. <2> The Health Area. <3> The Basic Health Zone. <4> The First Level of Assistance. <5> The Primary Care Center.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9ed39cc5b96442ccb753b86c696d8a04", "input": "Question: According to Berman et al., From the sanitary point of view, to the basic social group constituted by persons of feminine or masculine gender, young or adult, united by legal, friendship, related or not genetically and that others consider close friends, he calls you: \n Options: <1> Collective. <2> Informal system <3> Control group. <4> Citizenship. <5> Family.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8bc48d9eaa0e478e9f51392083ab7cbf", "input": "Question: The set of means and systems that facilitate the contact of the infectious agent with the recipient subject corresponds to: \n Options: <1> Source of infection. <2> Habitat. <3> Transmission mechanism. <4> Biotope <5> Reservoir.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8720de61a21040e393ce7e25e9b2c9e0", "input": "Question: Those avoidable inequalities, considered unfair in the access to health services between regions or between subgroups of population in the same country, corresponds to the term of: \n Options: <1> Social inequality in health. <2> Equity in health. <3> Social determinants. <4> Inequity in health. <5> Poverty.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-788a2917e4a5415193d15d6aabcbfffd", "input": "Question: In a program whose objective is to train adolescents so that they can choose health-oriented behaviors and help parents to promote the healthy adaptation of their children, the target population will be formed by: \n Options: <1> Parents of adolescents of both sexes residing in the basic health area. <2> Adolescents of both sexes and their parents residing in the basic health area. <3> Parents, teachers and caregivers of adolescents living in the basic health area. <4> The friends and teenage friends of the basic health area. <5> Adolescents of both sexes who reside in the basic health area.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-90e6c859dde046e090261a7da7a510d7", "input": "Question: In 1984, the process of healthcare reform began in Spain with the publication of: \n Options: <1> The General Law of Health. <2> The General Law of Social Security. <3> The Law of Cohesion and Quality of the National Health System. <4> The Royal Decree of Basic Health Structures. <5> The Royal Decree of National Health.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-648f94802fb048b5b54be307e5be940a", "input": "Question: Among the specific objectives that have been developed in order to make a health education intervention, aimed at providing people 65 years and older with the incorporation of preventive activities for heat stroke in daily self-care, identify the one that is INCORRECTLY formulated: \n Options: <1> Teach people of 65 and older the signs and symptoms of heat stroke, during the first two sessions, of the total 10. <2> Select the relevant footwear-dress to use during the hot season in the place of residence, at the end of the 3rd session. <3> Enunciate the activities that are most done every day and that are influenced by excess heat, at the end of all sessions. <4> Point to a list of 15 foods, which facilitate body hydration, at the end of the 2nd session and with a maximum of 3 errors. <5> Argue each of the actions that must be done when a heat stroke occurs, one week after the end of the intervention.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-52def11e35f74203a9a5f5d020b6d662", "input": "Question: A procedure to identify health problems is through the agreement of people who have qualified information about the community. Two of the most frequently used techniques are: \n Options: <1> The questionnaire and the programs. <2> The techniques by indicators and by criteria. <3> The Delphi technique and the Nominal Group technique. <4> The questionnaire and the community forum. <5> All the previous answers are correct.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f19011282b5548b3960bfbe7ff8411a8", "input": "Question: Primary prevention: \n Options: <1> It consists of avoiding the appearance or diminishing the probability of suffering from a certain disease. <2> It deals with the diagnosis and early treatment of the disease. <3> It acts when the disease has already been established but trying to delay its course. <4> It is aimed at identifying patients at risk of suffering unnecessary, unethical and unnecessarily invasive interventions. <5> The correct answers are 2 and 3.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fe1a1984888447e4ac78c86d32b66c03", "input": "Question: You are evaluating the site where 100 abandoned dogs are collected. Of the data coming from the observation they emphasize the situation of overcrowding of the animals, the environment full of dust and the state of excitation of the animals. While interviewing one of the workers, he informs her that he has been working for 6 years from 7:00 a.m. to 1:30 p.m., feeding and drinking the animals and cleaning the living quarters where they live. He has never felt bad, believes that no dog is going to bite him and that he knows nothing of the precautions and cares that must be maintained while he works. With the data you have, determines that there is a situation of: \n Options: <1> Personal oversight <2> Infective role performance. <3> Provision to improve self-care. <4> Risk of infection <5> Risk of contamination.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a8f5f08531334db3b3202dc3140deb6c", "input": "Question: Epidemiology allows early detection of changes in the incidence of a certain disease in the population. For this, the most correct thing is to use: \n Options: <1> The etiological investigation. <2> The description of the natural history of the disease. <3> Epidemiological surveillance. <4> The evaluation of the functioning of the services. <5> None of the previous answers is correct.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d5d7ac6ed0864ba6919ad6934c02dc4b", "input": "Question: According to the World Health Organization, the action taken on individuals to change their behavior is called: \n Options: <1> Health Impact Evaluation. <2> Education for health. <3> Participatory intervention in Health. <4> Empowerment <5> Educational Transition in Health.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5ea066b17a5b4fa292d02e71a472ce44", "input": "Question: The system that integrates the assistance and care provided by the family, neighbors or relatives without any contractual relationship and based on close personal relationships, corresponds to: \n Options: <1> Social care. <2> Comprehensive care system. <3> Informal care system. <4> Geriatric care. <5> Social benefit", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0efc9b1c81514b8191a8bd4360fcc108", "input": "Question: The primary prevention measures of sexually transmitted infections do NOT include: \n Options: <1> Perform anamnesis from age 12 to identify risky sexual behaviors and practices. <2> Encourage the correct and regular use of the male or female condom from the first sexual relationship. <3> Develop HBV vaccination campaigns in risk groups such as injecting drug users. <4> Performing frequent cytologies in sexually active women. <5> Redirect school sexual education programs towards a healthy and responsible sexuality.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eaf8cd2855354b3c98a1a271c3635842", "input": "Question: Is the implantation of the fertilized egg in a place other than the uterine endometrium called? \n Options: <1> Mola hidatiforme. <2> Septic abortion. <3> Previous placenta. <4> Ectopic pregnancy. <5> Abruptio placentae.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a8c6a401d80f4928a38a5ae827fc4164", "input": "Question: Reva Rubin identifies maternal behavior after delivery in three stages: \n Options: <1> Acceptance, Support and Abandonment. <2> Acceptance, Denial and Encounter. <3> Denial, Affirmation and Dependency. <4> Affirmation, Affirmation and Support. <5> Coping, Dependence and Help.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-11ee6990bbfc42d6818fc477571af85f", "input": "Question: Cardiac output (CG) increases between 40 and 50% during pregnancy. When does it return to normal values? \n Options: <1> One week before delivery <2> During labor <3> Seven to ten days after delivery. <4> At the end of the puerperium. <5> At the end of breastfeeding.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3ded60f1fbe641bf85fb67c0fa746e31", "input": "Question: When assessing the position held by the baby suckling, which of the following signs indicate that the position and grip of the baby is NOT correct? \n Options: <1> The chin touches the chest. <2> The mouth is very open. <3> Everted lips <4> Nose very close to the chest. <5> More areola visible above the mouth.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a5a459ded6274cebb8699b2fcc0dab4b", "input": "Question: A fetal heartbeat is heard in a 32-week pregnant woman. What Leopold maneuver should be done to know where the fetal dorsum is located ?: \n Options: <1> The first. <2> The second. <3> Third. <4> The fourth. <5> The fifth.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0fd66b3a86f3489aa6166d5779e9c85e", "input": "Question: After a normal low-level vaginal delivery, in a healthy woman with a healthy newborn, what is the best time to start breastfeeding? \n Options: <1> After birth, it is the moment of mother-child recognition. <2> After the first immediate care of the newborn of hygiene, identification and prevention, if this is stable. <3> After the birth and the end of the delivery care, because before the woman is unable to care for your child. <4> After the first two leaves of labor that require extreme surveillance of the woman because of the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. <5> After arriving at the plant, it coincides with the second period of reactivity of the baby and the best conditions for the woman to be able to interact with her child.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b36f226662224265a0ea9b1204733cbc", "input": "Question: When assessing the most appropriate contraceptive method for a person, the following should be taken into account: \n Options: <1> The Pearl index that reflects the percentage of non-pregnancies of a contraceptive method in relation to the number of cycles of use of this method. <2> The acceptability of the method that is determined by the absence of collateral defects. <3> The innocuousness of the method that is determined by the absence of health risks that its use may entail. <4> The motivation or sociocultural conditions such as the level of education. <5> The reversibility or surgical possibilities of recovering fertility after using the method.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6cb265a34b284ffc80a27af75a8f96e2", "input": "Question: What care should be planned when a woman reaches menopause? \n Options: <1> None, menopause is a normal period of the woman's reproductive cycle. <2> None, but it must be sent to gynecology so that hormone replacement therapy begins as soon as possible and does not suffer from climacteric symptoms. <3> You have to assess your general condition and plan preventive care for climacteric depression. <4> You have to plan prevention care for vasomotor symptoms, osteoporosis and obesity. <5> It is necessary to plan a detailed study of the hormonal levels that allow us to determine the medication and the most appropriate care for your hormonal deficit.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-67f898710ab34f3183d357bf3e544b2a", "input": "Question: From the following suggestions to the family about the school feeding for the prevention of obesity, indicate which is NOT recommended: \n Options: <1> Avoid chewing gum (chewing gum), even without sugar, because it is customary to have a full mouth between meals. <2> Increase the intake of fresh foods, vegetables and fruits. <3> Eat as a family, accompanied, at least some main meal of the 5 recommended daily. <4> Chop between meals to avoid being hungry at main meals. Enriched juices are recommended. <5> Try not to eat watching television, because distraction prevents enjoy the food and know what you eat.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7cc6fadb7edd4a17810f19cb6ed516b6", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following alterations does NOT correspond to the clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes in children: \n Options: <1> Weight gain. <2> Polydipsia <3> Constipation. <4> Polyphagy <5> Sweating", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ddbdbd84bd3430a8dfa557e906ebe74", "input": "Question: Point out the FALSE response regarding bronchiolitis: \n Options: <1> It is clinically manifested by cough, nasal discharge and respiratory distress. <2> It is the most frequent disease of the lower respiratory tract in the first two years of life. <3> Prolonged breastfeeding can act as a protective factor. <4> The bacterial etiology produces more severe symptoms than the viral etiology. <5> General measures are required such as respiratory isolation, oxygen therapy, fluid therapy and humidification of the environment.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3ca87d65040f4e61889dd454b5df185a", "input": "Question: After a normal term delivery it is observed that the baby has a heartbeat of 130 beats per minute, breathes with harmony and tranquility, has spontaneous movements, rosy color and good response to the stimulation of suction. What value will result in the completion of the Apgar Test? \n Options: <1> Apgar 7. Moderately depressed. <2> Apgar 8. Depressed. <3> Apgar 9. Satisfactory state. <4> Apgar 9. Moderately depressed. <5> Apgar 12. Satisfactory state.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-466861764cea4ff9b0f873d58a51d52c", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following options does NOT suppose a normal response of the child's motor development in its first year of life: \n Options: <1> By 3 months, he is able to hold his head when he is incorporated. <2> By 4 months, the trunk begins to straighten up although the balance is still immature. <3> By 8 months, he dominates the sitting position and frees his hands to hold objects while maintaining balance. <4> Towards 10 months, start some steps. <5> By 12 months, the act of running appears.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-af2b0f0f46f04f408f5cdb941ba045f0", "input": "Question: The game is one of the strategies used by the nurse in caring for children aged 2 years. Point out which of the following is favorable to the understanding of the disease process and therapy: \n Options: <1> Ride <2> Variations of cu-cu or hiding place. <3> Body silhouettes to paint or dolls to point. <4> Consoles of electronic games. <5> Cell phone.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7fec32efa43949f0889c4c705b2f6f68", "input": "Question: In relation to vaccines, indicate the correct option: \n Options: <1> The immunization schedule should be suspended during the summer months. <2> The vaccination calendar is fixed and immovable. <3> The appropriate storage temperature is between 2 and 8\uf0b0C. <4> Influenza vaccine should only be given to people older than 14 years. <5> All the previous answers are correct.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8473c450db8e4ee983823565c85efd0d", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following clinical manifestations are NOT specific to dehydration in the infant: \n Options: <1> Weightloss. <2> Fontanelle sunk. <3> Dry mucous membranes <4> Hypotension <5> Bradycardia", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8bae7afb1fd7404984ef6ac1a301d9c1", "input": "Question: In the scheme of the stages of Tanner's pubertal development, the stage or level 5 in women corresponds to: \n Options: <1> Light bulge of the breast button and increase of the areolar size. <2> Growth of the breast, presence of light pubic hair and roundness of the hips. <3> Slight mammary protrusion and beginning of roundness of the hips. <4> Full development of the breast and triangle of full pubic hair as in adult women. <5> The beginning of the thelarchy.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-08b93a3b7e834911bdd1a38a36a2ff33", "input": "Question: In the nursing consultation the Pfeiffer test is being applied to F. P. of 80 years. From this instrument it has been described that: \n Options: <1> Unlike other cognitive assessment scales, it only values \u200b\u200bmemory and orientation. <2> It is very sensitive to detect small changes in the evolution of cognitive deterioration. <3> The alteration of the test is sufficient to establish the diagnosis of dementia. <4> It is the most comprehensive and complete of all cognitive assessment scales. <5> It does not detect very mild cognitive impairments.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bc09d4f4465c423793caa35c046fbb84", "input": "Question: The 80-year-old family of F. G., who has very advanced dementia, wants to request legal incapacitation. It is known that legal incapacitation: \n Options: <1> It supposes the negation of the legal capacity of the person. <2> It aims to protect the person from potential abuse. <3> It limits the capacity to act and the legal capacity of the person. <4> It can be decreed by the doctor responsible for the patient. <5> It can not be requested by the patient's relatives.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e32b581b5be9419cba4023ab2d16c967", "input": "Question: In the elderly the total body water: \n Options: <1> It is half that in the adult. <2> It decreases fundamentally at the expense of the intravascular compartment. <3> It decreases mainly due to the reduction of extracellular fluid. <4> It decreases greatly as a result of the loss of muscle mass. <5> It represents 30% of body weight.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a34982ed28ba4e779c51b60b9e31e295", "input": "Question: The most frequent cause of irreversible blindness in people over 60 is: \n Options: <1> Macular degeneration <2> Open angle glaucoma. <3> Diabetic retinopathy <4> Acute glaucoma. <5> Retinal detachment.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6877542cb8c144359ff9f64318d8e666", "input": "Question: T. R. of 89 years, presents instability and has suffered a fall. Regarding falls in older people, it is correct that: \n Options: <1> Most falls are produced by performing dangerous activities. <2> The factors that most influence the risk of falls are the intrinsic factors influenced by the underlying diseases. <3> The factors that most influence the risk of falls are those related to the changes of aging. <4> It assumes a higher risk of falling down stairs than down stairs. <5> The factors that most influence the genesis of falls in fragile elderly are the extrinsic ones.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-38b5b89769ca4cf9a6146bb5b490e6e5", "input": "Question: What characterizes the physiological aging process of the musculoskeletal system? \n Options: <1> Synovial thinning. <2> Lumbar kyphosis more pronounced. <3> Breakage of the articular surfaces. <4> Shortening of muscular latency and relaxation periods. <5> Decrease in bone connective tissue.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c37b67eee672429aa8069c376bb5a69d", "input": "Question: What is the main cause of functional urinary incontinence in the elderly? \n Options: <1> Detrusor instability. <2> Obstruction due to fecalomas. <3> Laxity of the muscles of the pelvic floor. <4> Environmental barriers. <5> Urinary retention induced by medication.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bfed12ef7557473d841bff63aa785491", "input": "Question: Which of the following complications may present a geriatric patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and in treatment with Levodopa: \n Options: <1> Hypoglycemia <2> Urinary retention. <3> Postural hypotension. <4> Dehydration <5> Anorexy.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9197b69f583243a695bfe1e56e10303f", "input": "Question: Why is the presence of lentigo in older people? \n Options: <1> Cell dehydration <2> Small hemorrhages due to capillary fragility. <3> Hyperplasia of intraepidermal melanocytes. <4> Deficiency of collagen and elastin. <5> Lipofuscin deposits.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-75fb63a6743648fd991d815dfd8a9559", "input": "Question: With which of the following parameters is the concept of frailty identified in older people? \n Options: <1> Lower physiological reserve. <2> Dependence. <3> Advanced age. <4> Polypharmacy <5> Inability.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-269f0f4c5731468aa887a326df4740da", "input": "Question: The Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA): \n Options: <1> It is indicated for older people who live in the community but not for hospitalized patients. <2> It is validated specifically for older people. <3> It consists of anthropometric, biochemical and dietary items. <4> It is a reliable but complex nutritional screening tool. <5> It is formulated around 10 items exclusively referring to dietary and anthropometric parameters.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c2faf4dfd4494600a6e25c5fe99d9a4f", "input": "Question: J. C, 85 years old, has a history of osteoporosis. A potential complication is fragility fracture, highlighting that: \n Options: <1> A significant proportion of vertebral fractures are asymptomatic. <2> The Colles fracture is rare in people older than 65 years. <3> Fractures of the proximal third of the pertrochanteric femur are the less frequent fractures of the hip. <4> Half of the elderly who have a fall suffer a hip fracture. <5> The treatment of a proximal fracture of the femur will always be the prosthetic replacement.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f156711b05924d7786ed3b9c5893d42a", "input": "Question: Agoraphobia is an anxiety disorder that consists of: \n Options: <1> An anxiety crisis or panic attacks that usually occur in an unexpected way. <2> An intense and persistent fear of performing public performances. <3> The presence of obsessions or compulsions of a recurring nature that cause great losses of time. <4> An acute mental disorder with a low socioeconomic and health burden. <5> The fear and avoidance of crowded places or situations from which it is difficult to escape.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7dbbe1b7c7c14192a49a2808b4087537", "input": "Question: The General Law of Health (Law 14/1986, of April 25) favored the psychiatric reform in Spain because: \n Options: <1> It gave a letter of nature to the model of the asylum. <2> Defined the biomedical model of assistance to the psychiatric patient. <3> Institutionalized the community structure formed by interdisciplinary teams. <4> Regulated the factors and elements of the quality of care. <5> He adopted a paternalistic model of protection for the mentally ill.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-798b7c5f924c4e28987e084717cb8b5b", "input": "Question: Delusions are characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia that: \n Options: <1> They include alterations in sensoperception. <2> They involve psychomotor hallucinations. <3> They represent a false belief based on a mistaken interpretation of reality by the patient. <4> They consist of an inability of the individual to adapt to social norms. <5> They are equated with illusions.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-87bd8b71a06c4f18be98e0b1b5b4c6ba", "input": "Question: In the DSM-IV classification, bipolar disorder is included within mood disorders. Is defined as: \n Options: <1> Syndrome that involves a set of symptoms such as sadness, guilt or loss of vital impulse. <2> Decrease in the ability to obtain pleasure, which leads the person to isolation and unproductivity. <3> Disorder characterized by the presence of episodes of euphoria or depression alternating with eutimia phase. <4> Alteration induced by substances that produce an expansive or irritable mood. <5> Affective state of a relatively autonomous and lasting character over time.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6f36b6e421064a7b96c50fb396749d3a", "input": "Question: In disorders related to substance use, what is physical dependence? \n Options: <1> In a physical process of short duration. <2> In an intense sense of dissatisfaction for not being able to consume the substances. <3> In the action of consuming drugs producing a state of intoxication with psychoactive effect. <4> In a series of physical and psychic changes that take place after the administration of a substance. <5> In a state of physical adaptation manifested by intense physical disturbances when the administration of the drug is interrupted.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2017e379a5844671a406fd1ac3e76d59", "input": "Question: Among the competences to be developed by the mental health nurse within the multidisciplinary team is: \n Options: <1> Collaborate in the formulation of the medical diagnosis of the mental disorder. <2> Perform, exceptionally, research and innovation activities. <3> Promote, in the shortest possible time, the institutionalization of the patient. <4> Intervene in the promotion and prevention of mental health. <5> Practice an experiential nursing based on the observation of the signs and symptoms of mental illness.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-00df7bedd68549b2a2d0716ac344eec2", "input": "Question: Hallucinations are clinical manifestations of schizophrenia that: \n Options: <1> They occur without external stimulation of the sensory organ involved. <2> They are included within the negative symptoms of the disease. <3> They are characterized by the aggrandizement of oneself in a non-realistic way. <4> They need to take into account the cultural context of the person. <5> They are associated with the Minor Neurological Symptoms (NMS).", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-68eb102994c34529b878bf6204792d75", "input": "Question: The set of social mechanisms whose function is the transformation of specialized products in the form of health services for society, is called system: \n Options: <1> Sanitary. <2> Social. <3> Social insurance. <4> Liberal. <5> From the market", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6016eb22a9fe4411829216e38c421f16", "input": "Question: The assistance model consisting in the systematic coordination of the attention given to specific groups of patients, during an episode of care, to reach the expected clinical results, trying to achieve the lowest cost and the improvement of the quality of care, is called : \n Options: <1> Case Management <2> Complex Care <3> Advanced Practice <4> Portfolio of Services. <5> Health Needs", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3ba7f134ed9b47869a16dde1f6b09255", "input": "Question: In the field of management, the productive capacity of people that is manifested and measured by their performance, reflecting the knowledge, skills, attitudes and skills to perform an efficient and effective work, is called: \n Options: <1> Competition. <2> Leadership. <3> Competitiveness <4> Qualification <5> Motivation.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ccfe4858f92e4833bfdfd68540ec1f76", "input": "Question: A fundamental breakthrough in management took place through the creation, by a Yale University team, of a classification system for hospitalization episodes, which were called: \n Options: <1> International Classification of Diseases (CIE). <2> Minimum Basic Data Set (CMDB). <3> Record of Medical and Surgical Times (RTMQ). <4> Group of Related Diagnostics (GDR). <5> Functional Surgical-Medical Structure (EFQM).", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e83b808277c8426b8d7934b4e16a04ae", "input": "Question: According to the recommendations of the 2010 Guide of the Spanish Council of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation, when applying cardiopulmonary resuscitation maneuvers in an infant, the following should be done: \n Options: <1> Perform cardiac massage with both hands. <2> Achieve that the thorax descend between 5 and 8 cm in each compression. <3> Blow out as much air as possible when performing mouth-to-mouth ventilation. <4> Maintain a cardiac massage frequency around 200 beats per minute. <5> Use a 15: 2 compression and ventilation ratio.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-26c5f97eb7974f329230c24818b4f9cf", "input": "Question: Within the Interaction Thinking School, the model developed by: \n Options: <1> Faye Abdellah <2> Callista Roy. <3> Dorothy Johnson. <4> Rosmarie Parse <5> Hildegard Peplau.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-313a2d7a71694cfd8cf374d4cb9fc2f2", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements about aging corresponds to the psychosocial approach known as Theory of Continuity? \n Options: <1> Well-being in old age depends on newly acquired roles. <2> Aging successfully is related to the number of activities that are carried out. <3> As you get older it is necessary to voluntarily abandon certain activities. <4> Aging in a healthy way implies not dissociating from social roles. <5> The level of activity in old age is a function of the person's life trajectory.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-de3a145d26234e0d818f3caff62f5a2b", "input": "Question: The evaluation of a health program must consider: \n Options: <1> The need of the program. <2> The results achieved. <3> The performance of resources. <4> The fulfillment of the anticipated times. <5> All the previous answers are correct.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-44986feb39434b3c904c9421c124b616", "input": "Question: Among the rules of administration of Parenteral Nutrition, which is true: \n Options: <1> The route of administration of NP can be used to perform blood extractions. <2> The NP bag can be kept out of the refrigerator until it is administered. <3> The administration of other intravenous medications can be done through the same route as the NP. <4> The nutrient solution may be exposed to light. <5> The infusion will be done at a constant rate during the 24 hours.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9fe6872a85ac4dc19c713222e7f2f6c1", "input": "Question: The prodromal phase of a psychotic episode is characterized by: \n Options: <1> A deviation from emotional, cognitive, behavioral or social functioning and the presence of nonspecific symptoms. <2> Being a critical period during which the person should be treated. <3> The appearance of the first psychotic episode. <4> Be comparable to what is called the duration of untreated psychosis. <5> The functional recovery of the patient, which causes that it can be incorporated into working life gradually.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8e5f5a4d63624893bd0d1e7f12e1c2c2", "input": "Question: Regarding the newborn, point out the correct statement: \n Options: <1> Premature immature is one whose birth weight varies between 2,000 and 2,500 gr. and has a gestational age of less than 37 weeks. <2> Newborn of low weight is the one that weighs at birth less than 2,500 gr. and his gestational age is between 37 and 42 weeks. <3> Newborn pseudot\u00e9rmino is the one that weighs less than 2,500 gr. and her gestational age is greater than 37 weeks. <4> Premature babies are newborns weighing less than 2,500 gr. <5> Post-term newborn is the one with a gestational age greater than 40 weeks.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e5a617d033834fdd8ed317309c520e38", "input": "Question: The document that sets out the principles of Bioethics regarding the autonomy of people, beneficence and justice, and sets the basic requirements of informed consent, the assessment of risks and benefits and the selection of subjects is: \n Options: <1> The Declaration of Helsinki of 1964. <2> The Belmont Report of 1978. <3> The principles of the Biomedical Ethics of 1979. <4> The Oviedo Convention of 1997. <5> The Code of Ethics.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-682c9eaf60114b1a880ed544a477f522", "input": "Question: What is the name of the set of activities consisting of creating and maintaining an adequate environment in which individuals, working in groups, can carry out pre-established functions and objectives? \n Options: <1> Operationalize <2> Manage. <3> Objectify <4> To plan. <5> Assess.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fd87cb6c85364540b6a16637e6894876", "input": "Question: From the point of view of the metabolism of xenobiotics, what is the cause of the hepatotoxicity and the carcinogenic action of aflatoxins? \n Options: <1> Its hydrolysis releases aromatic amines. <2> Its metabolism of phase II generates a nitrenium cation, which is cytotoxic by reacting with DNA. <3> Its hepatic metabolism originates an epoxide, which forms a covalent bond with DNA guanine. <4> Your metabolism leads to a reactive species through a process of reductive bioactivation. <5> They facilitate the information of reactive oxygen species through a radical mechanism.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8fc799de231d4b20b3cb4c341f0f0f2f", "input": "Question: The infrared spectrum of procaine hydrochloride shows an intense band about 1700 cm-1. What information does this data provide about its structure? \n Options: <1> It has an aromatic ring. <2> It has a carbonyl group. <3> It is a tertiary amine. <4> It is an aromatic amine. <5> It is a salt.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2f522698613741edbdacd8b1ef808748", "input": "Question: The eudismic index is a parameter with pharmacological interest that expresses the relationship between: \n Options: <1> Two diastereomer drugs. <2> Two bioisostero drugs. <3> Two enantiomers <4> A drug and a prodrug, structural analog. <5> Two structural modifications, one hydrophilic and one lipophilic, of a certain drug.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c1ded9e4fff34a53a6e57d8816c094b7", "input": "Question: The local anesthetic procaine is a drug designed by pharmacodynamics of the: \n Options: <1> Morphine. <2> Melatonin <3> Tetracycline <4> Cocaine. <5> Noradrenaline", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c1cf879baa1a43568dcdffcbb438c475", "input": "Question: Mesna (sodium 2-mercaptoethanesulfonate) is used together with cyclophosphamide in antitumor therapy because: \n Options: <1> They form a ternary complex with DNA that prevents replication. <2> Mesna inactivates a toxic metabolite that results from the activation of cyclophosphamide. <3> Both are DNA alkylating agents. <4> The oxidizing properties of mesna increase the cytotoxicity of cyclophosphamide. <5> Mesna inhibits cytochrome P-450 that oxidizes and degrades cyclophosphamide.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-42e4cebc4a504da39e81326245d5bdb1", "input": "Question: Which of the following structural families of drugs act as neuroleptic agents? \n Options: <1> Benzothiazepines (diltiazem). <2> Butyrophenones (haloperidol). <3> Phenylpiperidines (pethidine). <4> Aryloxypropanolamines (atenolol). <5> 1,4-dihydropyridines (nifedipine).", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b47794b1232841bbaa15612b09810cb7", "input": "Question: Which of the following antitumor agents acts forming a covalent and irreversible complex with the thymidylate synthase and its cofactor, previous activation to the corresponding deoxynucleotide? \n Options: <1> Methotrexate <2> Bortezomib. <3> Cyclophosphamide <4> 5-Fluorouracil. <5> Taxol.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b75d4ee9698d4d5183f718801d8edc1e", "input": "Question: The antiulcer drug called omeprazole has in its structure: \n Options: <1> A benzimidazole heterocycle. <2> A thiol group. <3> A pyrazole heterocycle. <4> A dimethylamino group. <5> A thiozolic heterocycle.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-45ebfa52ff1b488fa11dfd377fa1e4dd", "input": "Question: Statins are used to reduce cholesterol levels and act as analogs of the transition state of an enzyme involved in its biosynthesis. What enzyme is it? \n Options: <1> 14-Alpha-demethylase. <2> Hydroxymethylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMGCoA) reductase. <3> Cyclooxygenase 2 (COX-2). <4> Squalene epoxidase. <5> Aromatase", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-386ff83dff9e4e5f90e27d6971ce2cb7", "input": "Question: Ciprofloxacin is an example of an antibacterial quinolone. What substituent does it carry over the nitrogen in position 1? \n Options: <1> Cyclopropyl. <2> Acetyl. <3> Phenyl. <4> It is unsubstituted. <5> Hydroxyl", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0caae06dc6b64b179c1501e4708382a0", "input": "Question: The muscle relaxant suxetonium (succinylcholine), which was designed from decamethonium by substitution of two ethylene groups by two ester functions, susceptible to a hydrolytic metabolism, is a: \n Options: <1> Prodrug <2> Hard drug. <3> Apolar drug. <4> Chiral drug. <5> Soft drug", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ca5e1f3524284bc9b11aa3d17b6c49e3", "input": "Question: Indinavir is a selective inhibitor of HIV protease because: \n Options: <1> By hydrolysis, the active drug is generated. <2> Rents irreversibly the active center of the enzyme. <3> Its structure mimics the transition state of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme. <4> It is a suicide inhibitor. <5> Its symmetric structure interacts effectively with the active center of the enzyme.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b9c5662af4304cb5b677ead2d51532ff", "input": "Question: The use of microorganisms to transform contaminants present in the environment into non-toxic products is called: \n Options: <1> Biodeterioration. <2> Bioremediation. <3> Bioleaching. <4> Bioconversion <5> Biosensor", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7faa5fd30a2749829c3c637e883cc7b5", "input": "Question: Transpeptidation is the step in the biosynthesis of peptidoglycan in which: \n Options: <1> The union of N-acetylmuramic acid with N-acetyl glucosamine occurs inside the bacterial cell. <2> The exit of the precursors from the cytoplasm to the outside takes place. <3> The binding of the precursor to the peptidoglycan occurs outside, by glycosidic bonds. <4> The binding, by means of interpeptide bridges, between peptidoglycan chains. <5> The autolisinas act forming pores in its structure.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-13728ecd1269454ea34205eab2d60730", "input": "Question: In the systematic examination of a pregnant woman at term (37 weeks of gestation), beta-hemolytic colonies are isolated from a vaginal smear, which are identified as Streptococcus agalactiae. What assessment would you make of this finding and what would be the most advisable therapeutic attitude to follow? ? \n Options: <1> It does not matter because it is part of the commensal microbiota of the vagina. <2> Birth by caesarean section is recommended. <3> The search for Streptococcus agalactiae in pregnant women is not indicated. <4> Immediate antibiotic treatment to the newborn. <5> Administer intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis during delivery to the pregnant woman.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a043b09560404ec98f4605fd9f985b32", "input": "Question: Quinolones are antibacterial compounds that target: \n Options: <1> The 50 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. <2> The plasma membrane. <3> The enzyme DNA polymerase. <4> The enzyme RNA polymerase. <5> The enzyme DNA gyrase.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2513448dc4d7472484bd41d619ba3955", "input": "Question: A 4-year-old boy with no history of vaccination against rabies is attacked spontaneously by a dog, causing numerous injuries to the neck and limbs that were unprotected. The animal flees and it is not possible to locate it. What is the initial attitude to follow with the patient to prevent a possible transmission of rabies? \n Options: <1> Administer specific antivirals against the rabies virus. <2> Administer the rabies vaccine. <3> Administer the vaccine plus anti-rabies immunoglobulin. <4> Administer anti-rabies immunoglobulin. <5> Administer the vaccine, more immunoglobulin, more antivirals.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4bb98a21dd604d74a9211e140383215c", "input": "Question: Which of the following staining techniques is important in the diagnosis of infections caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae? \n Options: <1> The capsule staining. <2> Staining of metachromatic granules. <3> The acid-alcohol resistance stain. <4> Negative staining <5> The staining of endospores.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-42843ab495c64141a83999123ae0a490", "input": "Question: The septic shock that can occur in the course of systemic infections due to Gram-negative bacteria is due to: \n Options: <1> Lipopolysaccharide. <2> Peptide-glucan. <3> Teicoic acids. <4> Flagellin <5> K. Antigen", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fc380fab73664c7da819b9d1e9a1d4b2", "input": "Question: Which of the following vertebrate viruses does it require during its multiplication cycle of a polymerase with reverse transcriptase activity? \n Options: <1> Herpes simplex virus type 1. <2> Smallpox virus <3> Varicella-zoster virus. <4> Hepatitis B virus <5> Epstein-Barr virus.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-675397d232d849db9427823c1bd73c54", "input": "Question: Clostridium perfringens can cause various infections, including: \n Options: <1> The anthrax. <2> Pseudomembranous colitis. <3> The gas gangrene. <4> Tetanus <5> The syndrome of scalded skin.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d4bcb22417b54839a803db6757c4ca39", "input": "Question: The medium that is used to detect the production of acetoin (butylene glycol) from pyruvic acid in the fermentation of glucose is called: \n Options: <1> Kligler. <2> Methyl red. <3> Voges Proskauer. <4> ONPG (ortho-nitrophenyl-galactopyranoside) <5> Beta-glucuronidase.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2220f9b501dc42bb943cc7ca97b68749", "input": "Question: From the point of view of microbial growth, which of the following statements is true in relation to the term colony? \n Options: <1> It is a formation that is not visible macroscopically. <2> Corresponds to a single cell. <3> It derives from a single cell. <4> It is usually formed in liquid culture medium. <5> It is always formed by the aggregation of different microbial species.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-213859a150fa4a46a3e7992e864d267b", "input": "Question: Thermolabile (LT) and thermostable (ST) enterotoxins are responsible for diarrhea caused by some strains of: \n Options: <1> Salmonella enterica <2> Vibrio cholerae <3> Campylobacter jejuni. <4> Yersinia enterocolitica. <5> Escherichia coli", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c547300dca0b44578ad3f1bc9a27c9c2", "input": "Question: In relation to the bacterial growth in liquid medium not renewed, which of the following statements is correct? \n Options: <1> The generation time is a constant parameter. <2> The phase of exponential growth is perpetual. <3> There is a direct relationship between the specific growth rate and the generation time. <4> There is an inverse relationship between the specific growth rate and the generation time. <5> The generation time and the specific growth rate are not related.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a4c4a7ed6e634dee85698a147656862d", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements about leishmaniasis in Spain is correct? \n Options: <1> It is eradicated. <2> It is anthroponotic. <3> It is associated with HIV. <4> It is transmitted by Lutzomyia. <5> It is exclusively visceral.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5fc65ebf9422490bb3b251f5635d4cab", "input": "Question: Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of Chagas disease? \n Options: <1> Amphotericin B. <2> Cotrimoxazole. <3> Ivermectin <4> Albendazole <5> Benznidazole", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4f799866f8cc460aaa4f5acbb11a0313", "input": "Question: Which of the following nematodes is a large intestine parasite? \n Options: <1> Trichuris trichiura. <2> Ancylostoma duodenale. <3> Trichinella spiralis. <4> Necator americanus. <5> Ascaris lumbricoides.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6632d7ab634b4a1bb282a09502eac4a0", "input": "Question: It is a larval stage in the biological cycle of trematodes: \n Options: <1> Procercoid <2> Plerocercoide. <3> Cercaria <4> Cisticerco <5> Cysticercoid", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2195109592bb46e88da58231c570bd00", "input": "Question: It is the etiological agent of cutaneous myiasis: \n Options: <1> Glossina palpalis. <2> Dermatobia hominis. <3> Simulimum damnosum. <4> Pulex irritans. <5> Tunga penetrans.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6494372d254e4ff19f91093f8f09239c", "input": "Question: With regard to pyrogens and biotechnological medicines, it is possible to say: \n Options: <1> They have no tendency to aggregate or form large units with high molecular weight. <2> Ion exchange chromatography procedures (using their positive charge) can reduce endotoxin levels. <3> Ion exchange chromatography procedures (using their negative charge) can reduce endotoxin levels. <4> Ion exchange chromatography procedures (regardless of their charge) can reduce endotoxin levels. <5> They are unstable under standard autoclaving conditions.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d8a16f079ea34cde9a9a334424c8a426", "input": "Question: With respect to those known as solubility enhancers in biotechnological drugs we can say: \n Options: <1> Which are not necessary given the good solubility of the active ingredients. <2> Which are necessary given the low solubility of the excipients. <3> They are not necessary in proteins, especially in non-glycosylated ones. <4> The use of lysine or arginine is often resorted to as exalting agents. <5> None of the above.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4050ae5da0cf4789bc384cbc38ee3228", "input": "Question: Among the equipment used for the mixing of powders are the rotary mixers, which are usually used when the powder: \n Options: <1> It has poor flow. <2> It flows freely. <3> It has an angle of repose> 90\u00ba. <4> It is high intensity. <5> It contains moisture.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-83e772b536c440af9fe36f131b6a7532", "input": "Question: Regarding the stability of the drugs of a proteinaceous nature of biotechnological drugs, we can say: \n Options: <1> Which is strongly dependent on pH. <2> That is little affected by ionic strength. <3> That being generally so high does not usually give problems in the formulation. <4> That its maximum value occurs at the pH value of lower solubility. <5> That has a slight dependence on the temperature.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-23487ed8f1b745189ea4275d2880f1ba", "input": "Question: Which of the following tests aims to determine the loss of mass of the tablets by abrasion processes? \n Options: <1> Hardness. <2> Disintegration <3> Friability. <4> Dissolution. <5> Uniformity of mass.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9bc0848ffdf04581b83db0f99f84080d", "input": "Question: When formulating tablets with active ingredients that are used at relatively low doses, it is necessary to add excipients whose primary function is to obtain a tablet of a reasonable size. What are these excipients called? \n Options: <1> Adsorbents <2> Binders <3> Disintegrators <4> Thinners <5> Lubricants", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e3cc2ad09de5440faf64cc919df818d9", "input": "Question: The protection of a functional group, susceptible to hydrolysis, by the formation of a complex constitutes a procedure for stabilization of drugs in solution. Among the excipients used for this purpose are those that are made up of different glucose monomers with a cyclic arrangement and are called: \n Options: <1> Cyclodextrins. <2> Sorbitol <3> Citrates <4> Glucuronates <5> Propylene glycols", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c722b1d6f81a476fa943e5f478b385f3", "input": "Question: Which of the following excipients acts as a plasticizer in hard gelatine capsules? \n Options: <1> Jelly. <2> Titanium dioxide. <3> Glycerin. <4> Sodium bisulfite. <5> For methyl aminobenzoate.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b397a6b72f31465785a94240455e38d5", "input": "Question: The limit of bacterial endotoxins established by the European Pharmacopoeia for water for injection is: \n Options: <1> 0.25 IU / ml. <2> 0.10 IU / ml. <3> 0 IU / ml. <4> 0.22 IU / ml. <5> 0.15 IU / ml.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7cb78a79e96d404fbc40f2d0e63df04a", "input": "Question: The method of choice for the sterilization of products stable to heat but sensitive to moisture is: \n Options: <1> Sterilization by dry heat. <2> Filtration. <3> UV radiation. <4> Autoclaved. <5> Sterilization by humid heat.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee55d93a3f664f9fa5451df13595eb93", "input": "Question: The cellulose acetate filter membranes are compatible with: \n Options: <1> Organic solvents. <2> Aqueous solutions <3> All solvents <4> Organic solvents, except nitrogen. <5> Nitrogen solvents.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1a93d753bcbd4a68aeb2087cb66b08d1", "input": "Question: In the compression process occurs: \n Options: <1> An aggregation of the powder to be compressed. <2> A decrease in porosity. <3> A decrease in interparticular contact. <4> An increase in porosity. <5> An unpacking of the particles.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ba59fbb303c048348719616c751bc082", "input": "Question: To proceed to the elaboration of suppositories by the method of discharge it is necessary to calculate the displacement factor that indicates: \n Options: <1> The weight, in grams, of drug that is displaced by one gram of excipient. <2> The volume of excipient that is displaced by 100 mL of drug. <3> The weight, in grams, of excipient that is displaced by 1mL of drug. <4> The weight, in grams, of drug that is displaced by 1 mL of excipient. <5> The weight, in grams, of excipient displaced by one gram of drug.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b4ac0595a91b4fec80ceb9404ab26488", "input": "Question: Counter Coulter\u00ae particle counter uses an electrolytic solution of: \n Options: <1> 0.9% lithium chloride in water. <2> Ammonium thiocyanate in hydrophilic solvent. <3> 15% lithium chloride in hydrophobic solvent. <4> 0.9% sodium chloride in water. <5> 0.9% sodium chloride in methanol.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ceb9fa6849da4465bba510b385c1f374", "input": "Question: Which of the following changes is the most potent stimulus for glucagon secretion? \n Options: <1> Gastric filling <2> Hyperglycemia <3> Hypernatremia <4> Pass from chyme to duodenum. <5> Hypoglycemia", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7a41518741574422ba5e3ee9e2db5c53", "input": "Question: Which of the following actions does insulin exert on liver tissue? \n Options: <1> It inhibits the uptake of glucose. <2> Activates lipolysis. <3> Inhibits the synthesis of fatty acids. <4> Activates glycogen synthesis. <5> Activates glycogenolysis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dbe6b764dfc94398905295ff4a31ee4a", "input": "Question: What proportion of insulin and C-peptide synthesize the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans? \n Options: <1> One molecule of insulin per C peptide <2> Two molecules of insulin for each peptide C. <3> One molecule of insulin for every two peptides C. <4> Peptide C is synthesized in C cells <5> There is a variable proportion between the synthesis of insulin and that of peptide C.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e8ce3969218d41bcb1d35802d772849e", "input": "Question: Which of the following actions is NOT specific to prolactin? \n Options: <1> It favors the renal retention of water and salt. <2> It favors the corpus luteum. <3> Stimulates milk production <4> Stimulates the hypothalamic secretion of the gonadotrophin releasing hormone. <5> Participates in the control of spermatogenesis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9153307bbce844d1b55bcdb857c8a658", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements related to growth hormone is false? \n Options: <1> Its secretion is increased during sleep. <2> It is secreted by the adenohypophysis. <3> It is a cyclic peptide of 8 amino acids. <4> It is hyperglycemic. <5> Stimulates the production of somatomedins.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0e6c8796b4fe40068edee4b83db606d4", "input": "Question: Which of the following functions is not typical of the stomach? \n Options: <1> Food storage. <2> Protein digestion. <3> Secretion of intrinsic factor. <4> Secretion of hormones <5> Amylase secretion.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e5d1f62f7ee24f7abf724c401af9e4d5", "input": "Question: Where are baroreceptors located that play a more important role in regulating blood pressure? \n Options: <1> Vessels of the medulla oblongata. <2> Coronary arteries <3> Vena cava <4> Carotid arteries. <5> Renal arteries", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a11679b41b424dc8acb1e024eb88f319", "input": "Question: What element plays a physiological role in the prevention of gastroesophageal reflux? \n Options: <1> Upper esophageal sphincter <2> Angle of His. <3> Hernia of Hiato. <4> Purkinje angle. <5> Pyloric sphincter", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-253098ccf94646689b0e2849b0420cc7", "input": "Question: Which of the following types of receptors is found in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia of the vegetative nervous system? \n Options: <1> Nicotinics <2> Muscarinic <3> Beta1-adrenergic. <4> Alpha1-adrenergic. <5> Gaba\u00e9rgicos.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dd393caab1f3446ba176ca31a959cb11", "input": "Question: Which of the following structures are in direct contact with the oval window on each of its sides? \n Options: <1> The eardrum and the tympanic scale. <2> The stirrup and tympanic scale. <3> The hammer and the vestibular scale <4> The anvil and the tympanic scale. <5> The abutment and the vestibular scale.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-20ca5a8e1e19435787a200b92edb467b", "input": "Question: Which of the following gases is the most abundant in the alveolar air? \n Options: <1> Oxygen. <2> Carbon dioxide <3> Water vapor. <4> Carbon monoxide. <5> Nitrogen.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3bae6d13cf8145668aa8e968630e3ea7", "input": "Question: Which of the following layers must pass through the sperm to reach the egg during fertilization? \n Options: <1> Endometrial zone <2> Pellucid zone. <3> Striated area. <4> Sticky zone <5> Myometrial zone.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1ce5deda9c05478f932641f21dec9822", "input": "Question: Which of the following agents has a vasoconstrictor effect? \n Options: <1> Endothelin <2> Nitric oxide. <3> Nitrogen. <4> Blastoestimulin. <5> Glycine", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eec019902c6047d38b4fc9d34ccbe217", "input": "Question: One of the following hormones inhibits lipolysis: \n Options: <1> Growth hormone (HGH). <2> Insulin. <3> Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). <4> Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). <5> Glucagon.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-968289b4c1b44a06814aa3b33ce99a31", "input": "Question: The loss of 3 genes of the alpha chain of globin is the main cause of: \n Options: <1> Fetal drooping <2> Alpha-thalassemic trait. <3> Cooley's disease <4> Hemoglobin disease H. <5> Silent alpha-thalassemia.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1c07f8bcb1284505a08a2cb37228af55", "input": "Question: A 25-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with pale skin, fatigue and malaise. It has slightly decreased values \u200b\u200bof mean corpuscular volume and hemoglobin, 70 \u03bcg / dl, 50 \u03bcg / dl ferritin, and a significant increase in the HbA2 fraction with normal HbF in hemoglobin electrophoresis. With these data it can be: \n Options: <1> Iron-deficiency anemia <2> Anemia of chronic processes. <3> Polycythemia Vera. <4> Beta Thalassemia Minor. <5> Chronic myeloid leukemia", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f80e427cdab64da8b7bd46d95da201eb", "input": "Question: Which of the following tests is more important for the diagnosis of acute leukemia? \n Options: <1> Karyotype <2> Medulogram <3> Hemogram <4> PET. <5> Lumbar puncture.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cfbe922f6bd846a9b7a0fb4c203b9d1c", "input": "Question: A 5-year-old child presents with a purpuric rash with petechiae, ecchymosis that appeared brutally along with epistaxis and gingivorrhagia. The data of the coagulation study were: Bleeding time (Duke)> 10 min; PLT 20,000 / mm3; null clot netraction; TP 13 sec (normal: 12\uf0b12 sec); APTT 61 sec (normal: 60\uf0b12 sec); TT 18 sec (normal: 18\uf0b12 sec); Fibrinogen 3.2 g / l (normal: 2-4 g / l); Positive platelet autoantibodies. With these data it can be: \n Options: <1> Hemophilia. <2> Werlhof disease. <3> Bernard Soulier syndrome. <4> Von Willebrand disease. <5> Thrombosis of Glanzmann.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-286971671f4f4726ae2316027088836b", "input": "Question: What thrombophilia study would be of interest to a woman with repeat abortions? \n Options: <1> Determination of fibrinogen. <2> C-reactive protein. <3> PAI-1. <4> Lupus anticoagulant. <5> Reptile time.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ff7d7557bfeb42d8b9c61c8fcbf58d29", "input": "Question: A woman attended a consultation with bruises, mucosal hemorrhages, marked thrombocytopenia (20,000 / mm3), with a normal coagulation study, no history of drug ingestion, and an increase in megakaryocytes in bone marrow without morphological abnormalities. What is the diagnostic suspicion? \n Options: <1> Primary immune thrombocytopenia. <2> Acute leukemia. <3> Hemophilia. <4> Trombasthenia of Glanzmann. <5> Purple of Sch\u00f6nlein-Henoch.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7784e072175847939d246d24a7a2af16", "input": "Question: What would be the pathophysiological mechanism that would explain the jaundice that can be observed in choledocholithiasis? \n Options: <1> Increase in bilirubin production. <2> Defect in the uptake of bilirubin by the hepatocyte. <3> Disorder in bilirubin conjugation. <4> Defect in the elimination of bilirubin by the hepatocyte. <5> Disorder in the conduction of bilirubin to the duodenum.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-46ea0d3f35724b7bb9ab7cf468b7809b", "input": "Question: The lesion at the level of the posterior roots of the spinal cord produces: \n Options: <1> Affectation of all forms of sensitivity in metameric and ipsilateral distribution. <2> Homolateral involvement of all forms of sensitivity below the point of injury. <3> Thermoanalgesia of metameric and bilateral distribution. <4> Thermoanalgesia below the lesion and contralateral. <5> Deep anesthesia below the lesion and contralateral.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-217b463b79c449f386f900e3f66036b8", "input": "Question: What is the arrhythmia that most often triggers sudden death in a context of acute ischemic heart disease? \n Options: <1> Extrasist. <2> Ventricular tachycardia <3> Ventricular fibrillation. <4> Atrial fibrillation <5> Autrioventricular block.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-35d94ba501364e109bc21b993a5bc67d", "input": "Question: The valvulopathy that triggers an overload of volume in both the left atrium and ventricle is: \n Options: <1> Mitral stenosis. <2> Mitral insufficiency <3> Aortic stenosis. <4> Aortic insufficiency <5> Tricuspid insufficiency.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e75f01cb1892469dabe1f82f4278cad8", "input": "Question: Hyponatremia is part of the clinical picture of: \n Options: <1> Addison's disease <2> Central diabetes insipidus. <3> Nephrogenic insipid diabetes. <4> Mellitus diabetes. <5> Febrile states.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7f91a4cef18749379cacf638acd6dc82", "input": "Question: The glomerulonephritis syndrome occurs with: \n Options: <1> Oliguria and hematuria. <2> Polyuria and dehydration. <3> Loss of sodium in the urine. <4> Thrombosis and infections. <5> Loss of glucose in the urine.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-52e1c3cfe9734a11ab9abc3802a9270b", "input": "Question: Pulmonary hypertension occurs as a consequence of: \n Options: <1> Bronchoconstriction and inflammation of the upper respiratory tract. <2> Bronchoconstriction and inflammation of the lower respiratory tract. <3> Bronchiectasis and pulmonary collapse. <4> Vasoconstriction of the arterioles of the systemic circulation. <5> Vasoconstriction of the arterioles of the pulmonary circulation.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1fc323290e1943718c136ad9eb8c167f", "input": "Question: Tamoxifen: \n Options: <1> It is used for the treatment of type 2 diabetes. <2> It is an inhibitor of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. <3> It is a progesterone receptor agonist. <4> It is an estrogen receptor antagonist. <5> Decreases cellular sensitivity to insulin.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c6ff0330e3284a9bb8adad8d25d0603c", "input": "Question: The \uf061-thalassemia can have its origin in: \n Options: <1> The deficit of ferroquetalase. <2> The deficit of HbA2. <3> The presence of HBH. <4> The presence of HbS. <5> The presence of methemoglobin.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7b485fafc7954252883b877c2cfb0718", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following disorders is a lysosomal disease: \n Options: <1> GLUT2 deficiency. <2> HSL deficiency (hormone-sensitive lipase). <3> Deficiency of LPL (lipoprotein lipase). <4> Basic amino acid transporter deficits. <5> Mucopolysaccharidosis", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6054b1693704465c90a44682a202151d", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following disorders will occur with jaundice: \n Options: <1> Dubin-Johnson syndrome. <2> Zellweger syndrome. <3> Hashimoto's thyroiditis. <4> Cushing's disease <5> Alcaptonuria.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2779efc8ed764cb0a48c4728ff30c5b3", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following deficits leads to a porphyria: \n Options: <1> Phenylalanine hydroxylase. <2> 21\uf061-hydroxylase. <3> ALA dehydratase. <4> Glucokinase. <5> Tyrosine hydroxylase.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-09dd95aa7bab455f91f11dc0e08641e8", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements of metamizol is FALSE? \n Options: <1> The relative risk of agranulocytosis is higher than with other NSAIDs. <2> The risk of producing aplastic anemia is low. <3> It presents a greater risk of producing gastric lesions than other NSAIDs. <4> They can potentiate the effect of oral anticoagulants. <5> If administered rapidly, intravenous can cause hypotension.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-202e12eb378f47e5a04640e22832880e", "input": "Question: Which of the following medications is an anti CD20 monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis? \n Options: <1> Alemtuzumab <2> Muromunab. <3> Abalizumab <4> Rituximab <5> Visilizumab.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e109428506b74587a590ec2b342993e7", "input": "Question: Which of the following anti-infectives can produce increased CPK associated with muscle pain and rhabdomyolysis? \n Options: <1> Amikacin <2> Daptomycin <3> Vancomycin <4> Linezolid. <5> Aztreonam", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2508d01be02147d2b0ac995207c1d5c9", "input": "Question: Which of the following anti-infectives is a reversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase that can lead to interactions with antidepressants that increase serotonin? \n Options: <1> Neomycin. <2> Teicoplanin <3> Linezolid. <4> Clindamycin <5> Meropenem.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c467bf4aabda4cd4a78ecf9cecd8e9fe", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements about colchicine is not true? \n Options: <1> Depolymerizes tubulin. <2> It can cause nausea and vomiting. <3> It is an uricosuric. <4> It is used in prophylaxis of recurrent attacks of gout. <5> It is an alkaloid.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-caecd98dc7f54a52a6203587031bd72a", "input": "Question: As is known, estrogenic treatment can give rise to various adverse effects. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect due to this pharmacological action? \n Options: <1> Edema. <2> Breast pain <3> Ovarian cancer. <4> Sickness. <5> Headaches", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5ab796414c3c43e9beef86b2a8af70b0", "input": "Question: Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of osteoporosis acts by binding to the RANK ligand? \n Options: <1> Alendronate. <2> Denosumab. <3> Calcitonin <4> Raloxifene. <5> Teriparatida.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d52b43d9837b4f50932c33a57d68bdbe", "input": "Question: Which of the following antimalarials is the one of choice for the treatment of a patient diagnosed with severe and multidrug-resistant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum? \n Options: <1> Sodium stibogluconate. <2> Primaquine <3> Chloroquine <4> Artemisinin <5> Quinine.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6e73bf62707e4540909fcf659783cea9", "input": "Question: Which of the following monoclonal antibodies presents as one of its main indications the treatment of chronic lymphoid leukemia? \n Options: <1> Trastuzumab. <2> Bevacizumab. <3> Denosumab. <4> Cetuximab <5> Rituximab", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d9c8b0d0584246d7b934fac3069c4077", "input": "Question: A patient suffers an infection by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the following penicillins would be of your choice? \n Options: <1> Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid. <2> Cloxacillin <3> Penicillin V. <4> Piperacillin-tazobactam <5> Ampicillin", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d25feaa9f5c3467281d48d8a21b1083f", "input": "Question: Male, 68 years old, presented with muscle cramps, hypotension, fasciculations and bronchoconstriction. He has been using organophosphorus pesticides in the garden. He has not used a mask or gloves. What would be the drug of choice for its treatment? \n Options: <1> Carbidopa. <2> Acetylcholine <3> Nicotine. <4> Flumazenil <5> Pralidoxime", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a9ba48e7d03543249c4d9e1a257c298d", "input": "Question: A 63-year-old man, who has been receiving an antidepressant for 3 years. He comes to the emergency room due to an intense hypertensive crisis, with tachycardia and headache. The patient reports that the day before he was watching the football game in a bar, and that he has taken a sandwich of cheese and sausages, and over 3 glasses of beers. What antidepressant could it be? \n Options: <1> Tranylcypromine <2> Fluoxetine. <3> Venlafaxine <4> Imipramine <5> Duloxetine", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a0d8c82d7791447a8e9f7788f592261a", "input": "Question: Indicate which drug, of which they are related, produces mydriasis and cycloplegia: \n Options: <1> Bethanechol <2> Timolol <3> Tropicamide <4> Edrophonium. <5> Pralidoxime", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1ff780fc105c46dbae15949061980a98", "input": "Question: One of the following effects is characteristic of morphine consumption: \n Options: <1> Mydriasis. <2> Eye flushed. <3> Excessive tearing. <4> Miosis <5> Increased intraocular pressure.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2d3de7fcd5254c2dbbd564f2958857e6", "input": "Question: One of the following statements is false in relation to the pharmacological effects of growth hormone: \n Options: <1> Acts directly on adipocytes to increase lipogenesis. <2> Stimulates the longitudinal growth of the bones. <3> It has anti-insulin actions in the liver. <4> Increase muscle mass <5> Many effects of growth hormone are due to insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1).", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-745ddf54ad444059b67dfb98333fe2b3", "input": "Question: Iron deficiency anemia is treated with oral or parenteral preparations: \n Options: <1> Only ferrous salts should be used orally. <2> Only ferric salts should be used orally. <3> Orally, the most appropriate form is the iron-dextran complex. <4> Orally, the treatment should last a maximum of fifteen days. <5> Only ferrous salts should be used parenterally.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-97ec957284314c7ea697e314d625705d", "input": "Question: Acetylsalicylic acid is a compound whose pKa is 3.5. What percentage of a dose of this product can be absorbed in the stomach fasting (pH 1.5)? \n Options: <1> Less than 10% <2> Between 10% and 20%. <3> More than 90% <4> Between 20% and 40%. <5> 50%", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c90ae340e4424e24bcd30d1b9de7d40a", "input": "Question: Beta-adrenergic receptor blocking drugs: \n Options: <1> They cause hypotension in individuals with normal blood pressure. <2> They increase the atrio-ventricular conduction velocity. <3> They cause negative inotropism. <4> They provoke a positive chronotropic effect. <5> They increase the secretion of renin.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-30b16374638b4b04a8d0c50767f088a4", "input": "Question: The access of drugs to the central Nervous System is conditioned by the existence of the blood-brain barrier (BHE) barrier: \n Options: <1> Increases its permeability in case of inflammation. <2> It is homogeneous throughout the encephalon. <3> It is traversed freely by fat-soluble drugs. <4> It is maximum in the chemoreceptor area of \u200b\u200bthe trigger. <5> Decreases its permeability in case of inflammation.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c2051723224e4fef99c8ac2536c0a855", "input": "Question: Woman, 63 years old, in treatment for bone cancer. He has intense pains so he uses morphine daily. Faced with complaints of constipation, it is proposed as a laxative of choice: \n Options: <1> Methylcellulose <2> Glycerin. <3> Loperamide. <4> Methylnaltrexone <5> Racecadotril.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7c388424d307428ea56126c030d13131", "input": "Question: In relation to clopidogrel, it is false that: \n Options: <1> It is structurally related to thienopyridines. <2> It inhibits adenyl cyclase, and therefore increases cAMP levels. <3> It has a low index of myelotoxicity in relation to ticlopidine. <4> It has a longer action in relation to ticlopidine. <5> In case of surgical intervention, it is recommended to interrupt the treatment at least one week in advance.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-36f279e1fb06405b82c5ce3b8b5e164a", "input": "Question: Of the indicated indications, which of them is authorized for the ACEI? \n Options: <1> Angioedema <2> Pulmonary hypertension in neonates. <3> Diabetic nephropathy <4> Benign prostatic hyperplasia. <5> Narrow angle glaucoma.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-41f679bdbb274775910ce5f49a886c26", "input": "Question: In patients with digitalized congestive heart failure, when administering a diuretic, it must necessarily be: \n Options: <1> A loop diuretic or high ceiling. <2> A thiazide. <3> An osmotic diuretic. <4> A potassium-sparing diuretic. <5> A diuretic carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-71fa640afc0d48f7a6cb34f051dbd259", "input": "Question: The sedation and drowsiness that mirtazapine produces are directly related to its interaction with the receptors: \n Options: <1> 5-HT1. <2> Adrenergic \uf0611 and \uf0612. <3> Histaminergic H1. <4> GABA <5> Muscarinic cholinergic", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9f1c05a15c2440099e20db1e5b796603", "input": "Question: With regard to the alkaloids derived from ergoline: \n Options: <1> They can be obtained by fermentation of pure Claviceps purpurea cultures and derived from phenylalanine and isoprene obtained by the mevalonic acid route (MVA). <2> They can be obtained by fermentation of pure cultures of Claviceps purpurea and derived from tyrosine and isoprene obtained by the DOXP route. <3> They can be obtained by fermentation of pure cultures of Claviceps purpurea and derived from tryptophan and isoprene obtained by the route of mevalonic acid (MVA). <4> They can be obtained by rye infection with Claviceps purpurea spores and derived from tryptophan and isoprene obtained by the DOXP route. <5> They can be obtained by wheat infection with Claviceps purpurea spores and derived from tyrosine and isoprene obtained by the mevalonic acid (MVA) route.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9c6ab47eb8274a08bd95dc42b2b4ded8", "input": "Question: Vinblastine and vincristine are: \n Options: <1> Indolemonoterpenic alkaloids, dimeric with antiarrhythmic activity. <2> Alkaloids derived from phenylalanine, monomeric with arrhythmic activity. <3> Indolemonoterpenic alkaloids, dimeric with antitumor activity. <4> Indolemonoterpenic, monomeric alkaloids with antitumor activity. <5> Alkaloids derived from phenylalanine, dimeric and with antitumor activity.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-457157d6be6043fb9c5aac200d0a7f3e", "input": "Question: An important factor to be taken into account in drugs with a high degree of binding to plasma albumin is the concentration of this protein. Indicate which of the following assumptions the concentration of plasma albumin is reduced: \n Options: <1> Hypothyroidism <2> Neurosis. <3> Psychosis. <4> Multiple myeloma. <5> Schizophrenia.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-44d5bfd09dc54a718653b1b978c94949", "input": "Question: The third generation cephalosporins: \n Options: <1> Your representative is cefepima. <2> They should be avoided in Enterobacter infections. <3> They are not useful in meningitis secondary to pneumococcus. <4> They are of choice in meningitis due to Listeria. <5> They should never be associated with an aminoglycoside.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a9da41bcdf2c4686a71d4ca401ecfed8", "input": "Question: The formation of the complex called Aminophylline improves the solubility of one of the following drugs: \n Options: <1> Theophylline <2> Digoxin <3> Ampicillin <4> Thioridazine. <5> Ciclosporin", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c4a08112795d462484e7765fbe7a3d96", "input": "Question: In the monocompartmental model, the shock dose for a drug that follows linear kinetics is administered in multiple doses orally and absorbed extraordinarily quickly; It can be calculated as: \n Options: <1> The ratio between the maintenance dose and the dosage interval. <2> The product of the maintenance dose by the rate constant of absorption. <3> The quotient between the dosing interval and the absorption rate constant. <4> The product of the maintenance dose by the accumulation factor. <5> The product of the dosing rate by the absorption rate constant.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b2298ff65cfc4f8dae890eb193e07333", "input": "Question: For bi-component drugs it is true that: \n Options: <1> The apparent volume of the distribution decreases with time from a maximum value to a value that becomes constant. <2> The apparent volume of distribution as a function of the area is greater than the apparent volume of distribution in the steady state of equilibrium. <3> The apparent volume of distribution is constant over time. <4> The so-called initial distribution volume is greater than the apparent volume of distribution in phase \uf062. <5> The apparent volume of distribution calculated by extrapolation is less than the apparent volume of distribution in the steady state equilibrium.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dc0ff63b79a54c50a0a154eafd8269c8", "input": "Question: It has been proved that the dissolution speed of the solvate that is formed when the griseofulvin and the chloroform are associated, is: \n Options: <1> Less than the unsolvated form of the drug. <2> Limiting step of the disintegration of the tablets in which the drug is formulated. <3> Greater than the unsolvated form of the drug. <4> Limiting factor of the distribution of the drug to the aqueous sectors of the organism. <5> Same as the unsolvated form of the drug.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ef09a7920d954b02928a0e10907c4d48", "input": "Question: Indicate the correct units of a zero order rate constant: \n Options: <1> mg-1. <2> h-1. <3> mg / h. <4> \uf06dg X h / mL. <5> mL / h.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1fdf649c23414dfb9d6f21085c87a8bb", "input": "Question: The following hepatic biotransformation reactions of drugs are type II, except for: \n Options: <1> Glucuronidation. <2> Desamination <3> Methylation <4> Conjugation with glycine. <5> Acetylation", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-91e019b05f604864ad12e0153f1edea0", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements about the steady-state infusion of a drug is true? \n Options: <1> The concentration reached in steady state of equilibrium depends exclusively on the clearance. <2> The time necessary to reach the steady state of equilibrium depends on the volume of distribution. <3> The concentration reached in a steady state depends exclusively on the elimination half-life. <4> The concentration achieved in the steady state equilibrium depends on the clearance and the infusion rate. <5> The time required to reach the steady state of equilibrium depends on the clearance.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-623def09cf8a43f781ccb391b15ed7b5", "input": "Question: To estimate the plasma clearance of a drug (CLIR) that presents a linear kinetic behavior and is excreted significantly in the urine, in a patient with renal failure (RI), it is necessary to know: \n Options: <1> Clearance of creatinine in the uremic patient (CLcrIR) and in individuals with normal renal function (CLcrFRN). <2> The renal clearance of the drug in patients with normal renal function (CLrFRN), CLcrIR and CLcrFRN. <3> The fraction of drug excreted in unaltered form in the urine (fr), the dose administered (D), CLrFRN, CLcrIR and CLcrFRN. <4> fr, CLcrIR and CLcrFRN and the plasma clearance of the drug in patients with normal renal function <5> fr, CLrFRN, CLcrIR, CLcrFRN and D.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1978b732bf4447f29bf793923ab7ed0e", "input": "Question: What would be the coefficient of hepatic extraction of a drug and its hepatic clearance if it is known that in a situation of equilibrium the concentration in arterial blood, from the entrance to the liver is 8 \uf06dg / mL and that of venous blood, from discharge to the same organ, is 4 \uf06dg / mL? Consider a hepatic flow of 90 L / h: \n Options: <1> 4.0 and 360 L / h. <2> 0.5 and 45 L / h. <3> 1.0 and 90 L / h. <4> 0.25 and 20 L / h. <5> 2.0 and 180 L / h.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dfd785789e1d4ef896ebfdde128f4421", "input": "Question: Grapefruit juice is: \n Options: <1> A potent enzyme inducer of cytochrome P450 (CYP3A4). <2> A potent enzyme inhibitor of cytochrome P450 (CYP3A4). <3> A promoter of the absorption of drugs administered orally. <4> An advisable food to increase the bioavailability of drugs of acidic nature. <5> A food without consequence in the kinetics of disposal of drugs eliminated by metabolism in which cytochrome P450 is involved.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ce1bf12fff854dde8050315f18bc50f6", "input": "Question: The hepatic clearance of a drug, mainly eliminated by metabolism, which has a high degree of hepatic extraction and a high binding to plasma proteins: \n Options: <1> It is significantly influenced by the hepatic blood flow. <2> It is significantly influenced by changes in the degree of plasma protein binding. <3> It is significantly influenced both by hepatic blood flow and by changes in the degree of plasma protein binding. <4> It will not be influenced by the hepatic blood flow or by changes in the degree of binding to plasma proteins. <5> It will depend on the absolute bioavailability of the drug.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-93a7f82675094781bf2b82a7268f7ace", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following compounds is a fibrous protein: \n Options: <1> Chymotrypsin <2> Cytochrome c. <3> Alpha-keratin <4> Lysozyme <5> Ribonuclease.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6ff447d5d950444a915f206707bbf657", "input": "Question: Thiamine pyrophosphate (PPT) is not coenzyme of: \n Options: <1> Pyruvate dehydrogenase (synthesis of acetyl CoA). <2> Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (citric acid cycle). <3> Transketolase (pentose phosphate pathway). <4> Transaldolase (pentose phosphate route). <5> Pyruvate decarboxylase (ethanolic fermentation).", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-af23222619994b399baee9a902861369", "input": "Question: Relating components of human milk and immune system, it is FALSE that: \n Options: <1> Lactoferrin protects against infections due to its ability to bind iron. <2> The casein peptides have antimicrobial and immunostimulant activity. <3> Cytokines modulate the immune system in childhood. <4> Complex oligosaccharides can be false receptors for bacteria in the intestine. <5> Lysozyme degrades the cell walls of gram-negative organisms.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-86e1caa9e9f543e982ed82716410a932", "input": "Question: Which enzyme uses FAD as a coenzyme? \n Options: <1> Isocitrate dehydrogenase. <2> Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. <3> Succinate dehydrogenase. <4> Malate dehydrogenase. <5> Lactate dehydrogenase.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6a9420775e1b4c5ca8ab185fe9ad43c2", "input": "Question: In relation to the consumption of dietary fiber, it is true that: \n Options: <1> It must be balanced (25% soluble and 75% insoluble, approximately). <2> The higher the consumption of fiber, the lower the water intake. <3> The products made with refined seeds have a high fiber content. <4> Legumes are a poor source of fiber. <5> In the adult, 10-15 g of fiber are recommended daily.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9f1f86282a4f42938a74f8f3a1f8af78", "input": "Question: It is a heteropolysaccharide: \n Options: <1> Hyaluronan <2> Cellulose. <3> Chitin <4> Dextran <5> Glycogen", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f4dc2acc8d9a4a25aa18cb16a2d38043", "input": "Question: The interaction between the urea cycle and the citric acid cycle is carried out at the level of: \n Options: <1> Uric acid. <2> Succinate <3> Ammonia. <4> Urea. <5> Fumarate", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-39ecabd712c848bf8315520b89f6e7a6", "input": "Question: Inhibitors of hydroxymethyl-glutaryl-CoA reductase (HMG-CoA reductase), such as statins: \n Options: <1> They increase intracellular cholesterol synthesis. <2> They cause a decrease in the number of LDL receptors present on the surface of hepatocytes. <3> They decrease the intracellular synthesis of triacylglycerides. <4> They diminish intracellular cholesterol synthesis and induce the expression of LDL receptors. <5> They increase the synthesis of steroid hormones.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5fc7a19a38de4d9baceda1642737addb", "input": "Question: Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH): \n Options: <1> It catalyzes the reversible transformation of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA and vice versa. <2> It catalyzes the irreversible carboxylation of pyruvate into citrate, and with it, its entry into the citric acid cycle. <3> It connects the degradation of carbohydrates, with the synthesis of acetyl-CoA and its entry into the citric acid cycle. <4> It allows the use of acetyl-CoA derived from the degradation of fatty acids for the synthesis of glucose. <5> It is activated in the presence of high concentrations of acetyl-CoA and NADH + H +.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-31d4f21d44b84c4dbf3f400d6d3db6f3", "input": "Question: Aspirin is an inhibitor of the synthesis of: \n Options: <1> Sterols <2> Prostaglandins <3> Phosphoacylglycerides. <4> Arachidonic acid. <5> Glycerophospholipids.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-168718f769e44ab08aff929e42d094de", "input": "Question: In response to an increase in the concentration of adrenaline and circulating glucagon: \n Options: <1> It activates the phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase and the degradation of glycogen. <2> It increases the intracellular concentration of cAMP, and therefore, the synthesis of glycogen. <3> It decreases the intracellular concentration of cAMP and the degradation of glycogen. <4> The phosphorylation of glycogen synthase and glycogen synthesis is activated. <5> Increases the intracellular concentration of ATP and glycogenesis.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-974de98746f8469b902cd5e7ab497dd7", "input": "Question: Which of the following metabolites is a gluconeogenic substrate: \n Options: <1> Ethanol. <2> Oleic acid. <3> Acetyl-CoA. <4> NADPH + H +. <5> Glycerol.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b072c8c2535d4f96863c174fd56ff935", "input": "Question: A carnitine deficiency is associated with: \n Options: <1> The inhibition of the mitochondrial respiratory chain. <2> The inhibition of protein catabolism. <3> An increase in renal protein catabolism. <4> A failure in the entry of muscle fatty acids into the mitochondria for oxidation. <5> A decrease in hepatic lipogenesis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7cb51ee41431408db603d8020c56801a", "input": "Question: The binding of O2 to hemoglobin: \n Options: <1> Follow a hyperbolic kinetics. <2> It favors the transition from Fe2 + to Fe3 + in the heme group of the protein. <3> Induces the deprotonation of the protein. <4> It is facilitated in the presence of 2,3bisphosphoglycerate. <5> It is carried out through a covalent interaction with Fe3 +.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-37e7151d8cf548a89d4ec79a94ce4127", "input": "Question: The toxic effect of antimycin and cyanide is due to its interaction with: \n Options: <1> The systems of transport of fatty acids into the mitochondria. <2> The cytochromes of the mitochondrial electronic transport chain. <3> The enzymes of glycolysis. <4> The dehydrogenase enzymes of the citric acid cycle. <5> The enzymes that catalyze the replication of DNA.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-01a9f8aa22644c6c81ca98d00e1b7ac9", "input": "Question: A coenzyme is: \n Options: <1> A molecule of an organic nature, necessary for the activity of an enzyme. <2> The inorganic part of an enzyme. <3> A molecule of a protein nature, necessary for the activity of an enzyme. <4> Any molecule of a non-vitamin nature that contributes to increase the activity of an enzyme. <5> An allosteric effect that modifies the spatial configuration of enzymes.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6dfe52b49a2546ac9476a9132c792f03", "input": "Question: To analyze the binding sites of proteins to DNA, the technique of: \n Options: <1> Western blot. <2> Immunoprecipitation of chromatin. <3> Matrix-assisted laser desorption (MALDI). <4> Fingerprint. <5> Denaturing gel electrophoresis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-202cc413a9e343e9a910c67cfa8208ad", "input": "Question: The sequencing of an oligosaccharide is done by: \n Options: <1> Degradation Edman. <2> Chromatography Whatman. <3> Patch-Clamp. <4> Mass spectrometry. <5> Capillary electrophoresis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-03baba338ebb47e39deb52c1ca028038", "input": "Question: What would happen if the DNA carried OH in carbon 2 'of the pentose? \n Options: <1> That instead of thymine should carry uracil. <2> That would be more sensitive to hydrolysis. <3> That instead of in the nucleus it would be in the cytoplasm. <4> That it could not form double helices. <5> That would give a higher absorbance value at 260 mm.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f44605ff29a9431aaa20e15dbc1abc5e", "input": "Question: What is the PCNA or nuclear cell proliferation antigen? \n Options: <1> It is a protein that prevents the double helix from forming in the replication bubble. <2> It is a protein that increases the ability to replicate long fragments of eukaryotic DNA polymerase. <3> It is the protein responsible for the elimination of positive superhelices. <4> It is the typical conformation of the DNA double helix in eukaryotes. <5> It is the enzyme responsible for copying the DNA of the telomeres.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6dd1d56551074706b5b749523cd88a69", "input": "Question: Which of the following situations would noticeably decrease the transcription of a gene? \n Options: <1> The presence of a repressor and an inducing molecule. <2> The binding of RNA polymerase to DNA. <3> The presence of a repressor and a correpressor molecule. <4> The presence of an activator and its signal molecule. <5> The presence of a mutated repressor that could not bind to DNA.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-244264228765455e9fc09e71c8c3eea2", "input": "Question: How is the correction of an erroneous amino acid incorporated in the process of translation in the ribosome carried out? \n Options: <1> There is no possibility of elimination of an amino acid in the synthesis of proteins. <2> Through the aminoacyl peptidase activity of the ribosome. <3> A dipeptidase removes the wrong amino acid, before proceeding with the synthesis. <4> Thanks to the fact that amino acids are energy-rich molecules. <5> There is a post-translational sequence review system.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f27a85aa41814fc380130c363f08e1c4", "input": "Question: The acetylation of the stories affects the transcription: \n Options: <1> Blocking the incorporation of other components of the transcription machinery. <2> Preventing the remodeling of chromatin. <3> Facilitating the action of helicases. <4> Decreasing the sensitivity of nuclear receptors. <5> Reducing the affinity of histones for DNA.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6f4a95e9514944f7a0c3bf0cf9785049", "input": "Question: The antibiotic tetracycline: \n Options: <1> It binds to the 30S subunit and inhibits the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. <2> Inhibits the peptidyltransferase activity of the 50S ribosomal subunit. <3> It binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits translocation. <4> It inhibits the initiation and originates an erroneous reading of the mRNA. <5> It causes premature termination by acting as an analog of the aminoacyl-tRNA.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cf6983d9dc3e4d43bbff2ba45787f382", "input": "Question: The \uf0622-microglobulin: \n Options: <1> It is a low molecular weight immunoglobulin. <2> It is found in high concentration in platelets. <3> It filters freely through the glomerulus and is secreted by the tubule. <4> It is absent in urine. <5> It is found on the surface of all nucleated cells.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-853527905ea745c89bb975a3cc07bf91", "input": "Question: The diagnostic sensitivity of an analytical magnitude for a certain disease is: \n Options: <1> 1 / specificity. <2> It depends on the prevalence of the disease. <3> It is the number of patients that give positive results among all possible individuals. <4> It is the quotient between the number of patients who give positive results for this magnitude and the total number of patients considered. <5> It is deducted directly from the minimum detectable value of this magnitude.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a785489a18ba43b19f205a59cf93fc6d", "input": "Question: In a plasma protein electrophoresis pattern, in what region will haptoglobin migrate? \n Options: <1> In the region \uf0611. <2> In the region \uf067. <3> In the region \uf0612. <4> In the region \uf0621 \uf0622. <5> In no position that it is not a protein.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ecf8768fa534c7fbd21b3f3491d6bd6", "input": "Question: Hemolysis in a serum sample interferes with the determination of the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) due to: \n Options: <1> The release of adenylate cyclase (catalyst enzyme of the reaction). <2> The interference produced by hemoglobin. <3> The high concentration of said enzyme in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes. <4> Hemolysis does not interfere in the determination of LDH. <5> The amount of lactate that is produced.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4f5f55a40cf240db805a06a54adcce67", "input": "Question: A dyslipidemia with phenotype IIa of Fredrickson may have its origin in mutations in the gene of: \n Options: <1> The LDL receptor. <2> Lipoprotein lipase (LPL). <3> The Apo CII. <4> The Apo A-II. <5> The Apo B-48.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e366b3eb8532427b8f43c8a5448442ab", "input": "Question: Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and mucous membranes due to increased levels of bilirubin) may be of cholestatic origin (pathway obstruction) or hepatocellular damage. Indicate the correct answer: \n Options: <1> In cholestatic jaundice we observed: persistent alanine aminotransferase (ALT) increase without elevation of gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT). <2> In hepatocellular jaundice there is a slight increase in GGT (<5 times the upper limit of reference) and a large increase in ALT (> 10 times the upper limit of reference). <3> In cholestatic jaundice, a decrease in direct bilirubin and prothrombin time is observed. <4> In hepatocellular jaundice, a decrease in alkaline phosphatase and activated partial thromboplastin time is observed. <5> In both jaundices we can observe a clear decrease in aspartate aminotransferase (AST).", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-74291868a97948f189022583c5acf22e", "input": "Question: The determination of fecal occult blood is useful when there is a suspicion of: \n Options: <1> Anemia due to iron deficiency. <2> Biliary cholestasis. <3> Helicobacter pylori infection. <4> Colon carcinoma <5> Celiac Disease.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2867434cca8a4a0a9ca54a782d75e62b", "input": "Question: A 58-year-old patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. The most indicated treatment would be: \n Options: <1> Interferon. <2> Hydroxyurea <3> Imatinib. <4> Rituximab <5> Busulfan.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-259c669af38142d5870fa0f07fffa0f0", "input": "Question: When in a laboratory report we observed that the patient presents an increase in the concentration of transferrin with a decrease in its saturation, we can think of: \n Options: <1> Pernicious anemia. <2> Sickle-cell anaemia. <3> Thalassemia major. <4> Hereditary spherocytosis. <5> Anemia due to iron deficiency.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-660b32b87b31407498610d52c7fd3110", "input": "Question: Base peak in a mass spectrum is called a: \n Options: <1> The largest or most intense peak. <2> The heaviest pair peak. <3> The lightest isotopic peak. <4> The peak that corresponds to its nominal mass. <5> The odd peak heavier.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d581c7d2e34d44d5bbb31d55a16a9c9f", "input": "Question: In ion exchange chromatography, the carboxylic acid functional group is used as: \n Options: <1> As a strong anion exchanger in ion exchange resins. <2> As a strong cation exchanger in ion exchange resins. <3> As a weak anion exchanger in ion exchange resins. <4> As a weak cation exchanger in ion exchange resins. <5> It is never used in ion exchange.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c137a5603e62492ab76f286a3514574d", "input": "Question: In a flight time analyzer in mass spectrometry: \n Options: <1> Ions with low m / z or lighter values \u200b\u200barrive more quickly at the detector. <2> Ions with high m / z or heavier values \u200b\u200barrive more quickly at the detector. <3> The ions do not reach the detector. <4> Ions with odd m / z ratio arrive more quickly at the detector. <5> The analysis time that is usually required is seconds.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-17d3e6719553433c978f5c78abe032a3", "input": "Question: The alkaline error in the glass electrode is due to \n Options: <1> The membrane responds to other anions besides the hydroxyl ion. <2> The membrane responds to other anions besides the hydrogen ion. <3> The membrane responds to other cations in addition to the hydrogen ion. <4> That the pH is higher than it really is. <5> This error is not described for the glass electrode.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-93dc37f14dcb4544a90d190815d1be75", "input": "Question: In capillary electrophoresis, in relation to the electroosmotic flow, it can be stated that: \n Options: <1> The flow profile is parabolic. <2> The flow profile is practically flat and / or uniform. <3> You can not know its form and direction. <4> The profile of the flow is always inverted. <5> The profile of the flow is never reversed.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-459b88ac2e084388be71333d8c208d8b", "input": "Question: HPLC (High Efficiency Liquid Chromatography) uses packings with a range of size or particle diameter typical of: \n Options: <1> 3-10 Armstrong. <2> 3-10 Nanometers. <3> 3-10 Millimeters. <4> 3-10 Micrometers. <5> 3-10 Centimeters", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1955dddd0e77495ab371ae0887abbda9", "input": "Question: The calibration curves used in chemical analysis: \n Options: <1> They represent the response of an analytical method to unknown concentrations of analyte. <2> They use standard samples that contain the solvent used in the analytical method, but without analyte. <3> They use a standard solution that allows knowing the response of the analytical method to the interfering species that exist in the reagents. <4> They are constructed by preparing samples of known analyte concentration (standards) and determining the response of the analytical procedure to these standards. <5> They are constructed using samples of unknown analyte concentration and measuring the response of the analytical procedure to them.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-920f61ec91d24bf3896c8e3db986d7d5", "input": "Question: The determined (or systematic) errors that can be committed in an analytical method: \n Options: <1> They cause the data to spread more or less symmetrically with respect to a mean value. <2> They have a definite value and an assignable cause, giving rise to a bias in the results of a series of measures. <3> They come reflected in the precision of a measurement. <4> They are never attributable to instrumental measuring devices. <5> They result in outliers, which differ greatly from the others in a set of duplicate measures data.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1a8e2af714554d82be992c47eebc2d33", "input": "Question: What does the amperometric detector measure in high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)? \n Options: <1> Potential difference. <2> Electric conductivity. <3> Thermal conductivity. <4> Electric resistance. <5> Intensity of electric current.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fbe58b7571554f6eba53927a36db00fd", "input": "Question: The deviation of Beer's law by the use of non-monochromatic radiation can lead to deviations from linearity when representing absorbance versus concentration due to: \n Options: <1> Different molar absorptivities of the absorbent species. <2> Very similar molar absorptivities of the radiations of the polychromatic beam. <3> That the radiant power of the incident beam is modified. <4> That the use of a polychromatic beam always implies significant differences with respect to a monochromatic one. <5> That the relation of incident and transmitted powers is different.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-23253d2109fd46828428a9bfd4a1ea19", "input": "Question: Which of the following chemical equilibria is heterogeneous? \n Options: <1> Acid-base balance. <2> Balance of complex formation. <3> Precipitation balance <4> Oxidation-reduction balance. <5> All those balances that take place in a single phase, usually liquid.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9f0913d32b01406e9e97e4d3a26f7ddd", "input": "Question: Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is a chelating agent widely used as a titrator in complexometric assessments that are characterized by: \n Options: <1> To make possible the EDTA titration of many metals in alkaline solutions an auxiliary complexing agent is used which prevents the metal ion from precipitating as hydroxide. <2> EDTA forms complexes of 1: 2 stoichiometry with some metal ions and therefore has a poor application in quantitative analysis. <3> It is important to choose an adequate pH to carry out the titration because metal-EDTA complexes are more stable at low pH than at high pH. <4> When evaluating a metal ion with EDTA, there is an excess of EDTA at the equivalence point. <5> When evaluating a metal ion with EDTA, there is an excess of metallic ion at the equivalence point.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4900b410b29643cc80d28010fa5d2c81", "input": "Question: Starch is a specific indicator used to indicate the endpoint in redox titrations with: \n Options: <1> Cerium. <2> Iodo. <3> Bromine. <4> Permanganate. <5> Dichromate", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f49df3b0f44d4cf9b1cf8e10cdd461e1", "input": "Question: In consecutive reactions of first order, the global kinetic constant: \n Options: <1> Presents units of concentration-1 time-1. <2> Presents units of time-1. <3> Equivalent to the ratio of the kinetic constants of each stage. <4> Corresponds to the sum of the kinetic constants of each stage. <5> Equivalent to the product of the kinetic constants of each stage.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-632b7b3b625f4a93997a48a9cbccb36f", "input": "Question: An ideal diluted solution is characterized by: \n Options: <1> All components comply with Raoult's law. <2> Only the solute complies with Raoult's law. <3> The solvent complies with Henry's law. <4> All components comply with Henry's law. <5> Only the solute complies with Henry's law.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e1823621958640d0917d0f662a7d89c3", "input": "Question: The triple point of a phase diagram of a component: \n Options: <1> Presents 3 degrees of freedom, according to the rule of the phases. <2> Presents 1 degree of freedom, according to the rule of the phases. <3> It is characterized because the liquid and gas phases are indistinguishable. <4> It is characterized because there are three phases in equilibrium. <5> It is characterized because there are four phases in equilibrium.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-752c5369c4344bd794af5cd77d44c566", "input": "Question: The entropy of a system: \n Options: <1> It is a state function. <2> It is an intensive variable. <3> Indicates the spontaneity of any process. <4> It is defined in the First Principle of Thermodynamics. <5> It varies according to the route traveled between the initial and final conditions.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0591255cf3c7450a83779034450cdff6", "input": "Question: The difference in solute concentration inside and outside the cell gives rise to an osmotic pressure: \n Options: <1> Whose measurement allows to determine molar masses of small molecules. <2> Due to the passage of solute through the cell membrane. <3> That corresponds to the pressure that must be applied to interrupt the passage of solvent through the membrane. <4> That causes a difference of chemical potential of the solvent on both sides of the membrane. <5> Whose effect is minimal and complicated to measure.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0940cf026426438e8b6a22cd6b909e2e", "input": "Question: According to the Arrhenius equation (k = A e-Ea / RT): \n Options: <1> The speed of a reaction is directly proportional to the temperature. <2> A high activation energy implies that the speed constant depends markedly on the temperature. <3> The pre-exponential factor or frequency factor (A) is dimensionless. <4> The activation energy depends on the temperature. <5> The activation energy is always negative.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-214c1ba038fd4186a194e3b2654fdb47", "input": "Question: The molecularity of an elementary reaction corresponds: \n Options: <1> At the initial concentration of reagent. <2> To the number of molecules that are found to react. <3> To the number of collisions of the reactants per unit of time. <4> At the final concentration of the product. <5> To the reaction between the reaction rate and the reagent concentration.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b0b9fef8b1144175a3752d3ef50ac8d3", "input": "Question: He has been considered the father of modern Toxicology for his clinical, pathological and forensic contributions to this science: \n Options: <1> Paracelsus <2> Claudio Bernard. <3> Richard Alzheimer. <4> Mateo Orfila. <5> Hippocrates", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0447a201226a416b9d8321b41a59e845", "input": "Question: The FAB (antibody fragments that bind antigens) are used as antidotes to poisoning by: \n Options: <1> Digoxin <2> Barbiturates <3> Derived amphetamines. <4> Salicylates. <5> Antihistamines", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d5f87fc61fd40f086e00cf0e8a175fa", "input": "Question: One of the following compounds produces liver damage as the main toxic effect: \n Options: <1> Diethylene glycol. <2> Methanol <3> Acetone. <4> Benzene. <5> Carbon tetrachloride.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-be50dfbd0aab4cf8a83f14201b1c8979", "input": "Question: Naloxone is used in the treatment of poisoning with: \n Options: <1> Opiates <2> Benzodiazepines. <3> Barbiturates <4> Tricyclic antidepressants. <5> Digit\u00e1licos.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0670989a1df1433e825ed75102f7468d", "input": "Question: The paraquat herbicide produces mainly: \n Options: <1> Lung damage <2> Hematological abnormalities. <3> Neurotoxicity <4> Ocular toxicity. <5> Ototoxicity", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dd53fc1ff88244248e956eeccf7bb2c0", "input": "Question: When performing the Ames test, what result would reveal that the compound is a mutagen? \n Options: <1> Abnormal division in mouse uterus cells. <2> Abnormal growth in mouse. <3> Proliferation of a hamster ovary cell culture. <4> Reversal in the growth characteristics of Salmonella. <5> No option is correct.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5386cfe67b734e98bf5f72f783b2d88d", "input": "Question: The most reactive oxygen radical species and, therefore, most dangerous is: \n Options: <1> Superoxide anion <2> Hydrogen peroxide. <3> Ion superoxide <4> Radical hydroxyl. <5> It depends on the tissue.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f6d69d0a148141e4b71641a4aa383426", "input": "Question: From among the following, indicate the most toxic substance according to the 50 lethal dose value: \n Options: <1> Strychnine. <2> Nicotine. <3> Morphine. <4> Botulinum toxin. <5> Curare.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a73e20774570424aa0eef53ff10944fa", "input": "Question: Cinnamaldehyde is an aldehyde present in: \n Options: <1> Camphor. <2> Vanilla. <3> Almond oil. <4> Jasmine oil <5> Cinnamon.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fe670ceaac894685a2228e07c6a953c7", "input": "Question: The reaction of ketones and aldehydes by the presence of their carbonyl group preferably gives: \n Options: <1> Nucleophilic substitution reactions. <2> Oxidation reactions to alcohols. <3> Nucleophilic addition reactions. <4> Reduction reactions to carboxylic acids. <5> They are not reactive towards nucleophiles.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cf93641e672846a1b5b84e16ea3bbb8b", "input": "Question: The reaction of benzene with tertbutyl chloride, in the presence of aluminum trichloride, is an example of: \n Options: <1> Nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction. <2> Electrophilic aromatic substitution. <3> Addition of halogens. <4> Acid catalyzed hydrolysis. <5> Obtaining alkyl halides.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6028f692ea9446a898bbb3d4cef5af0c", "input": "Question: Acid chlorides can be transformed into carboxylic acids: \n Options: <1> Through a hydrolysis catalyzed by an acid or a base. <2> Through a reduction reaction with lithium aluminum hydride. <3> Through a reduction reaction with sodium borohydride. <4> Through a reduction reaction with diborane. <5> It is not possible due to the lack of reactivity that characterizes acyl halides.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5879d143620f4888ae626ebecbc0d075", "input": "Question: The organometallic compounds are derivatives: \n Options: <1> With a radical nature. <2> With covalent bonds between carbon atoms and metal atoms. <3> With electronic deficit and electrophilic character. <4> Practically not reactive. <5> With essentially reducing character.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-63f4b7d7ebb94cb1ab0c058c031a60a3", "input": "Question: An amine, due to the pair of non-bonding electrons that nitrogen possesses: \n Options: <1> It can be considered as an electrophile. <2> It can be considered as a Lewis acid. <3> It can act as a nucleophilic reagent attack center. <4> It can be considered as a nucleophile. <5> It is an example of apolar product.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f2a59e91dc304604a75d6c4096ef1f25", "input": "Question: Which of the following hydrides has the highest normal boiling point? \n Options: <1> SiH4. <2> CH4 <3> HCl. <4> PH3. <5> HF", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4aa2e8e2d87f4d5aa14a5b0049794f7d", "input": "Question: Which of the following atoms provides the strongest hydrogen bond in the corresponding hydrides? \n Options: <1> F. <2> Cl. <3> OR. <4> S. <5> P.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d313fc800cd641cd911f1b3df92eb05e", "input": "Question: Rhombic sulfur, the most stable form of sulfur, is made up of molecules of the following type: \n Options: <1> S 2. <2> S 8. <3> S 4. <4> S 6 <5> Sn (n = 10-14).", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ed2c298c845842a989c3699b4b5767e4", "input": "Question: Which of the following molecules has triangular plane geometry? \n Options: <1> BF3. <2> NH3. <3> AsH3. <4> XeO3. <5> ClF3.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee669884fb2540e0b4bb126920e24687", "input": "Question: Which of the following molecules has a simple covalent bond? \n Options: <1> C2. <2> N 2 <3> O 2 <4> O 3. <5> F 2", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9d441acde5d54944b4d71f4427346a1e", "input": "Question: Which of the following molecules has the highest number of antibonding electrons? \n Options: <1> B2. <2> N 2 <3> Li2. <4> F 2 <5> O 2", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-83371776844d42bbb063de82f4ffbb15", "input": "Question: The covers of connective tissue that surround, protect and maintain the brain and spinal cord within the cranial cavity and the spinal canal are called meninges. Which of the following statements is correct? \n Options: <1> The meninges are not made up of connective tissue. <2> The pia mater adheres to the brain and spinal cord. <3> The arachnoid is the thickest and most external. <4> The dura adheres to the inner surface of the arachnoid. <5> The meninges only cover the brain.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3bead547d60f46acb9a0e9eb9b887c9e", "input": "Question: How is the pigmented and highly vascularized layer of the posterior wall of the eyeball called? \n Options: <1> Iris. <2> Choroid <3> Ciliary body. <4> Sclera <5> Retina.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3817c65e02504349b4eaf3ed8b93f1e0", "input": "Question: Which glands are located between the skin and the masseter muscle, in front and under the outer ear? \n Options: <1> Parotid glands <2> Submandibular glands <3> Sublingual glands <4> Mouth glands <5> Lieberk\u00fchn's glands.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c38f1a717ce6499a84ca615ac1957188", "input": "Question: The tube of very small diameter and about 6 meters in length that runs along the posterolateral side of the testicle and connects with the vas deferens, is it called? \n Options: <1> Prostate. <2> Epididymis <3> Urethra. <4> Ep\u00e9ndimo. <5> Seminiferous tubule.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d3ce381dde0e4084bc129b3b73808376", "input": "Question: Indicates which bone is the lesser trochanter: \n Options: <1> Fibula. <2> Tibia. <3> Humerus. <4> Femur. <5> Radio.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-30343e2f942c4c71988db1e2382f6056", "input": "Question: Which of the following muscles is an example of abductor? \n Options: <1> Pectoral major. <2> Trapeze. <3> Dorsal width. <4> Anterior rectus of the abdomen. <5> Deltoid.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aec1b4fc914d4cc3a32136c87edf03ff", "input": "Question: We took a simple random sample of 1000 people, and for each one we checked whether or not he got the flu in 2012 and whether or not he got the flu in 2012. We obtained two responses for each of the 1000 people. To evaluate if there is an association between these two qualitative variables (having flu or not) and (having been vaccinated or not) from the data of our sample: \n Options: <1> We draw a quantile-quantile graph. <2> We perform a t test for the difference of means. <3> We calculate the Pearson correlation coefficient. <4> We make a contrast of the signs for the difference of medians. <5> We make a contingency table and an independence test.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-93a4523e2e344a0fa4abd54302f03f57", "input": "Question: The square of Pearson's correlation coefficient is: \n Options: <1> The coefficient of variation. <2> The coefficient of determination. <3> The slope of the regression line. <4> The regression coefficient. <5> The covariance.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4ba95c172abc4a73bf94b42eda0d8b77", "input": "Question: The second quartile is the same as the: \n Options: <1> Arithmetic average. <2> Geometric mean. <3> Harmonic half <4> Fashion. <5> Median.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-67ccf068ae0a4acbbd0dc396ce9275b5", "input": "Question: Indicate the correct option regarding the quality of life of a patient who goes through three consecutive health conditions with utility values \u200b\u200bof 0.45 the first, 0.68 the second and 0.95 the third: \n Options: <1> The best quality of life corresponds to the third state of health through which it passes. <2> The best quality of life corresponds to the first state of health through which it passes. <3> The quality of life depends on the time you are in each state of health. <4> The utility does not serve to assess the quality of life. <5> In all three states the quality of life is very bad because they are values \u200b\u200bless than 1.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a2f28f548f9a4968a5bb40bcf6145f06", "input": "Question: Which of the following is NOT a complete economic evaluation? \n Options: <1> Cost minimization analysis. <2> Analysis of direct and indirect costs. <3> Cost-effectiveness analysis. <4> Cost-utility analysis. <5> Cost-benefit analysis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-14ac74fcec914cebae1ab495db3bfc53", "input": "Question: In accounting, which of the following elements should be included in the LIABILITIES of an estate? \n Options: <1> Credits in favor of third parties. <2> Quantities that customers owe. <3> Money in banks. <4> Money in credit institutions. <5> The store.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d31596e783634a8f971bd352594b1997", "input": "Question: The acronym ECM, in the labeling of medicines, has the meaning of: \n Options: <1> European Competency Medication [acronym in English]. <2> Marketing Container for Wholesalers. <3> Special Medical Control. <4> Mechanical Control Package. <5> Specialty of Massive Consumption.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6acd92c74b5842478cb30d7e34533e25", "input": "Question: In general, and in accordance with the state legislation on pharmacy offices, the minimum population module for the opening of these establishments is: \n Options: <1> 2,500 inhabitants per establishment. <2> 1,000 inhabitants per establishment. <3> 1,500 inhabitants per establishment. <4> 2,000 inhabitants per establishment. <5> 2,800 inhabitants per establishment.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ad4ae54db0f4fb48eb9f4294cc646b0", "input": "Question: The complementary drug protection certificate has a maximum duration of: \n Options: <1> Five years. <2> Seven years. <3> Ten years. <4> Fifteen years. <5> Twenty five years.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e267d965c56c43f787883b52243ed7ce", "input": "Question: What type of pathology corresponds to chronic granulomatous disease. \n Options: <1> Congenital agammaglobulinemia. <2> T cell deficit <3> Severe combined immunodeficiency. <4> Deficit in the microbicidal capacity of phagocytes. <5> Congenital neutropenia", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-edc3b44b0f344076bc8f40a60502d46e", "input": "Question: Type III hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by: \n Options: <1> The activation of mast cells. <2> The deposit of immunocomplexes. <3> The activation of macrophages. <4> Appearance of a neutrophil infiltrate. <5> Cytotoxicity reactions.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-078a7d717399433391d89cdf4f8b781d", "input": "Question: Of the following pairs of surface molecules, what is used by the virgin T lymphocytes to extravasate to the lymph node? \n Options: <1> CCR7 and L-selectin. <2> VCAM and L-selectin. <3> CCR7 and ICAM-1. <4> CCR9 and L-selectin. <5> CCR4 and VCAM-1.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c3cf8c64674548b1986e8bec9d3749a7", "input": "Question: The primary function of interleukin 2 (IL-2) is: \n Options: <1> Induce activation of macrophages. <2> Promote isotype changes in immunoglobulins produced by activated B cells. <3> Induce the synthesis of acute phase proteins by hepatocytes. <4> Promote the proliferation of T lymphocytes <5> Promote the proliferation of B lymphocytes", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1d6357c95f88412bb4f442c42aada61d", "input": "Question: What type of pathology corresponds to type I insulin-dependent diabetes? \n Options: <1> Congenital immunodeficiency. <2> Autoimmune disease. <3> IgE-mediated hypersensitivity. <4> Hypersensitivity due to immunocomplexes. <5> Immunoproliferative syndrome.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-803193fbdc584d968a45fa65a026814d", "input": "Question: The simultaneous expression of IgM and IgD as membrane immunoglobulins occurs in: \n Options: <1> B cells that respond to thymoindependent antigens. <2> B cells that respond to thymus-dependent antigens. <3> Activated B cells stimulated by Interleukin 4 (IL-4). <4> Immature virgin B cells. <5> Mature virgin B cells.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9e6e39a26e69467aa2f7760389e8891f", "input": "Question: Different cytokines induce the isotype change of the different classes of antibodies. Of the following cytokine / isotype pairs, choose the correct one: \n Options: <1> IL-4 / IgE. <2> IL-4 / IgM. <3> IL-5 / IgG. <4> IFN-\uf067 / IgM. <5> TGF-\uf062 / IgA.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-acb023d6b0824f998a0ede1c5cf6668b", "input": "Question: The Mantoux test (reaction to tuberculin) is: \n Options: <1> A delayed hypersensitivity reaction. <2> An immediate hypersensitivity reaction. <3> A hypersensitivity reaction by immunocomplexes. <4> A non-specific inflammation reaction. <5> A manifestation of autoimmunity.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b77b7febe3c74ce2a61fd9bcb3068e53", "input": "Question: In the Th2-B cooperation process, what does the Th2 cell recognize on the surface of the B cell? \n Options: <1> The antigen bound to a surface immunoglobulin. <2> A fragment of antigen bound to the CD21 molecule. <3> Several cross-linked antigen fragments. <4> A fragment of antigen bound to a class II histocompatibility molecule. <5> A fragment of antigen bound to a class I histocompatibility molecule.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-230852ff265e41f1b5fcffa7e196cd4a", "input": "Question: In which of the drugs with antiviral activity does the purine base called guanine appear? \n Options: <1> Lamivudine <2> Zidovudine <3> Ribavirin <4> Acyclovir <5> Didanosine", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8f7478543f98488fac61133a3dcc3269", "input": "Question: Streptococcus agalactiae, Escherichia coli and Listeria monocytogenes are the microorganisms most commonly found in meningitis in: \n Options: <1> Neonates <2> Immunocompromised. <3> Women. <4> Hospitalized patients. <5> Elderly.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-641d41dbbcd347a2bf98b6874342ae05", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following is an alteration of the pyrimidine metabolism: \n Options: <1> Thrombophilia <2> Phenylketonuria <3> Wilson's disease <4> Urine disease with the smell of maple syrup. <5> Orotic hereditary acidity.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c37a3ccc92d7450a869ffee9acc5a759", "input": "Question: The control of the acid-peptic disease is mainly achieved with PPIs (proton pump inhibitors). The PPIs: \n Options: <1> They induce the maximum inhibition of gastric secretion after 3-5 days. <2> They are less effective than H-2 antagonists. <3> They are used as monotherapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori. <4> They have a faster onset of action than H-2 antagonists. <5> They are not useful in the treatment of stress ulcers.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c6372994565047aa8be48914634b4929", "input": "Question: Transcription factors: \n Options: <1> They bind to chromatin by interaction with histone H2A. <2> They bind to RNA and regulate the start of transcription. <3> They join the DNA. <4> They are organized into nucleosomes. <5> They regulate DNA methylation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b8ca7f45e2df4d9cbfb50c1949e35d84", "input": "Question: As to the height of the plate (H) in a column chromatographic separation it can be said that: \n Options: <1> It is inversely proportional to the variance (standard deviation of the band). <2> It is directly proportional to the number of theoretical plates and inversely proportional to the length of the column. <3> It is directly proportional to the variance and inversely proportional to the distance traveled by the center of the band to the detector (L). <4> It is directly proportional to the variance and distance traveled by the center of the band to the detector (L). <5> It does not depend on the variance or the distance traveled by the center of the band.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-66d35061eec2451db2d9770c38add525", "input": "Question: The humerocubital joint is an example of: \n Options: <1> Saddle joint. <2> Condylar articulation. <3> Pivot joint (trochoid). <4> Hinge joint (trochlea) <5> Artrodia.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a186991d14a14339a29d9f78710ceca0", "input": "Question: In Spain, the body in charge of determining the special conditions of prescription and dispensing of medicines in the National Health System (S.N.S.) is: \n Options: <1> The Spanish Agency of Medicines and Health Products. <2> The National Institute of Consumption. <3> The General Directorate of the Basic Portfolio of Services of the S.N.S. and Pharmacy. <4> The General Technical Secretariat. <5> The General Directorate of Public Health, Quality and Innovation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5ed9bbdac3984a45bcef1253f3624846", "input": "Question: Of the following surface markers, one of them is expressed only in the virgin T lymphocytes, while the rest are also found in the population of activated T lymphocytes. Which? \n Options: <1> The adhesion molecule L-selectin. <2> The T lymphocyte receptor (TCR). <3> The integrin LFA-1. <4> The CD4 co-receptor molecule. <5> The integrin VLA-4.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bfe2dfeb40424217b7538a013e5443bb", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba1 40-year-old man with no relevant background. For 4 weeks, refers to diarrheic stools, associated with jaundice of skin and mucous membranes, coluria, hypocholia and pain in right hypochondrium, accompanied by weight loss (10 kg approx) and intense itching. In the analytical highlights: Total bilirubin: 15.3 mg / dl. Alanine aminotransferase: 70 U / l Aspartate aminotransferase: 85 U / l. Serology for negative hepatitis and elevation of CA 19-9. Abdominal CT is performed. 3 axial sections are shown. In relation to the findings of the radiological test, which of the following statements is true? \n Options: <1> A tumoral mass is observed in the head of the pancreas that causes biliary and ductal dilatation compatible with adenocarcinoma. <2> Presence of diffuse thickening of the pancreas with arcuate Wirsung compatible with lymphoplasmacytic pancreatitis. <3> A tumoral mass is identified in a vesicular infundibulum compatible with vesicular adenocarcinoma. <4> Voluminous tumor lymphadenopathies are observed in the hepatic hilum that produce dilation of the bile duct. <5> Presence of multiple solid focal liver lesions compatible with diffuse liver metastases.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c51a7c601a6b4ca2b38f87eebc3054ca", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 1 In the previous patient, which of the following treatments is indicated? \n Options: <1> Biliary drainage through retrograde endoscopic and systemic chemotherapy. <2> Duodenopancretectomy cephalic with vascular resection. <3> Hepatic embolization with charged spheres of chemotherapy. <4> Bilirubic-hepatic bile drainage and systemic chemotherapy. <5> Treatment with corticoids.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f5abce04975649d89e711a322e4ffe81", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba2 A 67-year-old woman with a history of poorly controlled hypertension, undergoing insulin treatment for diabetes mellitus and controlled by a hematology service for the study of myelodysplastic syndrome. Three weeks ago, a pustular lesion with necrotic borders began to grow, causing a large ulcer to appear with the appearance shown in the attached image. Intense pain. Which of the following diagnoses do you think is most likely? \n Options: <1> Specific cutaneous infiltration of its myeloproliferative process. <2> Necrobiois lipoidica. <3> Ulcer due to diabetic microangiopathy. <4> Pyoderma gangrenosum. <5> Hypertensive ulcer.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a4c8622c26cf42d68dc8ee514413ab2b", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba2 The same type of pathology can occur in other contexts. Point out which of them is more likely: \n Options: <1> Hypothyroidism <2> Hyperthyroidism. <3> Ulcerative colitis <4> Scleroderma <5> Glucagonoma", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e806f700f64c4589b8530d3b2366948f", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba3 A 64-year-old woman with no history of interest, with progressive dyspnea of \u200b\u200bseveral weeks of evolution, whose frontal chest radiograph suggests a practically definitive radiological diagnosis. What would this be? \n Options: <1> Pulmonary thromboembolism with infarcts. <2> Pneumonia due to Pneumocystis jiroveci. <3> Alveolar proteinosis. <4> Pulmonary edema. <5> Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fea092b2b1f9487aa4e8d29a85dea0eb", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 3 In relation to the suspected diagnosis you have established, what would be the most appropriate confirmation test? \n Options: <1> Determination of pulmonary capillary pressure, using a Swan-Ganz catheter. <2> Bronchoalveolar lavage. <3> Thoracic computed tomography (pulmonary arteries). <4> Determination of eosinophils in peripheral blood. <5> Determination of anti-HIV antibodies.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-da1e0b3011a546f5b01c25e48a5244e7", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba4 70-year-old man, active smoker, who underwent a chest radiological study as a preoperative protocol for prostatic hypertrophy. What would be the fundamental semiological finding of this radiological image? \n Options: <1> Encapsulated left pleural effusion. <2> Tumor of the anterior soft tissues of the thorax. <3> Collapse of the left upper lobe. <4> Anterior mediastinal mass. <5> Elevation of the left diaphragmatic dome.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1c6baa64d8894b0a8d069e9ee085083f", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 4 What would be the most likely radiological diagnosis to justify this finding? \n Options: <1> Central bronchogenic carcinoma. <2> Left phrenic paralysis. <3> Anterior thoracic wall abscess. <4> Left pleural mesothelioma. <5> Anterior mediastinal lymphoma.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c48d1cc214fe4c65a92d8ccf920b9898", "input": "Question: Question linked to image no. 5 A 41-year-old man referred for presenting for more than 5 years bilateral alternating gluteal pain predominantly nocturnal, which interferes with sleep and relieves with mobilization. It is accompanied by stiffness for more than 1 hour after inactivity. Denies pain, swelling or deformity to another level. It provides elementary analytics without alterations except PCR 11.5 mg / dl (N <5) and the attached radiograph. The objective radiological alteration and the most probable diagnosis would be: \n Options: <1> Fracture of Looser- Osteomalacia. <2> Bilateral sacroiliitis - Ankylosing spondylitis. <3> Coexistence of lytic and blastic lesions Paget's disease. <4> Blastic lesions - Prostatic adenocarcinoma with bone metastases. <5> Osteosclerosis - Lymphoma.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e41c3a73d2b8483988d8b2113256163b", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 5 In relation to this patient, which of the following treatments would not be useful? \n Options: <1> Indomethacin <2> Etoricoxib. <3> Systemic corticosteroids <4> Physiotherapy. <5> Adalimumab.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d148787ea3744a3891b0884dfa1613b1", "input": "Question: Question linked to the image n\u00ba6 A friend of his 37 years shows him the photograph of his own right hand that is shown in the image A. He had made a cold day in November and tells him that after a few minutes regained its normal color With a magnifying magnifying glass, look at the B image in the nail bed. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Systemic sclerosis <2> Acrocyanosis <3> Livedo reticularis. <4> Raynaud's disease. <5> Cold agglutinin disease.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-91b0a6e67c73448f91da59ea02eeb6eb", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba6 Which of the following medications would you not recommend: \n Options: <1> Nifedipine <2> Sildenafil <3> Prazosin <4> Atenolol. <5> Losartan", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e001b6f989884632b9e1a293dab8819b", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba7 A 31-year-old patient, with no previous history of interest, consulted due to muscle weakness of a few months of evolution that has progressively made it difficult for her to go up and down stairs. Physical examination is notable for the desquamative papuloerithematous lesions seen in the figure. To achieve the diagnosis, a muscle biopsy is performed, among other tests, which can be seen in the figure. What do you think is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Vasculitis type panarteritis nodosa. <2> Systemic lupus erythematosus. <3> Dermatomyositis <4> Myositis with inclusion bodies. <5> Sarcoidosis", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2c94e4e9a5bc4c0baceeedafcbb0ae8f", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 7 Among the complementary tests that could help us better define the clinical picture of the patient are all but one. Point it out \n Options: <1> Thoracoabdominal CT. <2> Gynecological exploration. <3> Autoantibodies that include ANA and antisintetase. <4> Electromyography <5> Arteriography of the renal arteries.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7c68d0ab196048969acc5c6ff0ffdba4", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba8 A 75-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and hyperuricemia. In treatment with ACE inhibitors and allopurinol 100 mg daily. He went to the emergency room for a picture of several days of evolution of inflammatory rhythm pain in the small joints of the hands of progressive course together with daily fever of up to 37.8\u00baC. It has raised yellowish lesions on the skin around the interphalangeal and metatarsophalangeal joints that in recent days have left a yellowish liquid through the skin. On examination, it presents inflammatory signs at the proximal and distal interphalangeal levels of both hands. A simple x-ray of both hands is performed (see image). Which of the following statements is true in relation to the diagnosis of this patient? \n Options: <1> The drainage of yellowish whitish material through the skin is synonymous with infection and requires the initiation of antibiotic treatment immediately. <2> If the analysis of the synovial fluid showed a cell count between 2000 and 60,000 / \u03bcl, it would be a septic polyarthritis and specific treatment should be started immediately. <3> To establish the diagnosis of tophaceous gout, it is essential that uric acid levels are well above the reference range in all determinations. <4> To confirm the diagnosis, a complete study of the fluid is recommended. <5> The diagnostic technique of choice is arthroscopy.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b4238edc35284b93b7f05091d976fb7e", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 8 In relation to the previous case, how would you approach the initial treatment of this patient? \n Options: <1> The treatment is the use of allopurinol at a minimum dose of 800 mg daily, so the dose used by the patient should be increased early. <2> During the acute phase, the treatment is NSAIDs, which can be associated with colchicine. <3> Given the severity of the lesions, intravenous colchicine should be used. <4> If synovial fluid has a cell count above 3000 cells / \u03bcl, treatment with parenteral antibiotics should be initiated with coverage against Staphylococcus Aureus and Streptococcus spp. And maintained at least 6 weeks. <5> In this disease, systemic or intraarticular steroids have not proven their efficacy.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-36f0f3f03bd846dbafc973666f35d4cb", "input": "Question: Question linked to image no. 9 A 64-year-old patient complains of easy fatigability after a few months of evolution and loss of appetite, although she has not observed any weight loss. We are struck by the facies that it presents when we observe it (see image). Before proceeding with the interrogation and the clinical examination, we come up with a diagnostic hypothesis. Which of the following analytical tests do you think would guide us best in our diagnostic suspicion? \n Options: <1> TSH <2> CK <3> Hemogram, iron, ferritin. <4> Proteinuria <5> ANA.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-09ccdbfd2d3d4979a568017d895fdfd0", "input": "Question: Question linked to image no. 9 To rule out situations that may simulate the patient's manifestations and establish a differential diagnosis, we must continue with the interrogation. One of the following habits or antecedents would be difficult to relate to the facial alterations observed. Point out which one. \n Options: <1> Habit of stretching the hairs (trichotillomania). <2> A sexually transmitted disease <3> Contact with people or geographic areas with leprosy. <4> Drug intake. <5> History of hyperuricemia.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-be9e63b684874c3ea56053f22b2f4edd", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba10 A 74-year-old man, asymptomatic, who in a routine laboratory test has leucocytes 37,000 / mL, hemoglobin 15,7 g / dL, platelets 190,000 / mL. In the examination, adenopathies and organomegalies are not appreciated. An extension of peripheral blood is made (image). What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Viriasis <2> Chronic myeloid leukemia <3> Monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance. <4> Chronic lymphatic leukemia. <5> Myelodysplastic syndrome", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-468e5057d04a4bf891db4c287fe3bdf8", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba10 Given this clinical picture, what would be the most appropriate treatment? \n Options: <1> Do not treat; wait and see. <2> Interferon. <3> Chlorambucil and prednisone. <4> Inhibitors of bcr / abl (imatinib). <5> Cyclophosphamide, vincristine and prednisone.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cc7782ed747c49d7a8854f5a316776b2", "input": "Question: Question linked to the image n\u00ba11 The ultrasound image presented to him corresponds to a 37-year-old woman who consulted for non-traumatic right back pain associated with fever. Based on that background and the sonographic findings, point out the correct answer: \n Options: <1> An enlarged gallbladder with a double-walled sign is observed. <2> The findings suggest perinephric abscess with free perirenal fluid. <3> The image does not provide enough data to help the diagnosis. <4> The image suggests a large parapelic cyst; It is a minor find. <5> Ultrasound suggests obstruction of the urinary tract.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-38d1162ecf9c47c6af33e451ce936db4", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba11 In relation to the treatment of this patient, indicate the correct answer: \n Options: <1> It would be necessary to perform evacuation puncture guided by CT of the perinephritic collection and prescribe broad spectrum antibiotic therapy. <2> Urinary diversion is the key in the initial management of cases with hydronephrosis and deterioration of renal function or infection. The definitive treatment will depend on the etiology. <3> Before making therapeutic decisions we must continue the study by abdominal CT. <4> It is an acalculous cholecystitis and requires an urgent cholecystectomy. <5> At present, the level of evidence suggests that non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) no longer represent the first analgesic step in the treatment of patients with nephritic colic who go to an emergency department.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e5bc5ecdb12c47d0a911c43f32660c93", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba12 An 88-year-old woman with a history of Alzheimer's dementia, mitral insufficiency and persistent atrial fibrillation, enters a hospital due to a deterioration in her general condition that is attributed to a urinary tract infection. The peripheral venous routes are not accessible and it is decided to channel a central vein through a peripheral vein (cephalic vein) guided by ultrasound. Once the technique is done, it is verified that the blood flows back normally through the catheter. The patient did not present any complications during the maneuver and a catheter control X-ray was later performed. Where do you think the distal end of the catheter has been located? \n Options: <1> Right subclavian vein <2> Right jugular vein <3> Vena cava superior. <4> Right basilic vein. <5> Brachiocephalic trunk.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6022d3b91b384214bb3214455566319e", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 12 What is the most reasonable attitude at this time ?: \n Options: <1> Remove the entire catheter and reinsert it. <2> Extract about 10 cm the catheter and install the appropriate treatment. <3> Channel another central venous line through the jugular vein. <4> Leave it as it is because it can be used to monitor central venous pressure. <5> We can not use the catheter because it has perforated the vein and it is located in the lung.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f55e7f5d5e7c4ca49222f8817c122665", "input": "Question: Question linked to the image n\u00ba13 A 12-year-old boy who goes to primary care Pediatrics for fever, vomiting, abdominal pain and diarrhea. On cardiopulmonary auscultation, he presents with an ejection systolic murmur II / VI in a pulmonary focus with a fixed second unfolded noise, the remainder being the normal physical examination. For the evaluation of the murmur the pediatrician performs an ECG that is shown below. In relation to the interpretation of it, please indicate below the correct answer: \n Options: <1> It is a normal ECG. <2> He presents a first-degree atrioventricular block as the only alteration. <3> It presents a left extreme QRS axis. <4> It presents a QRS axis deviated to the right with an rsR' pattern. <5> There are clear signs of left ventricular hypertrophy.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f39c7e39f47c45b6860235f2e7c8a389", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 13 What would be the suspicion of the pediatrician and what other complementary tests would be done to confirm it? \n Options: <1> I would suspect an innocent murmur and I would not do any more tests. <2> Given that it presents a left anterior hemiblock, it could be a partial atrioventricular canal (CIA ostium primun and cleft mitral), so a chest radiograph and an echocardiogram were performed. <3> Given that it presents a right axis and a rsR' pattern, an ostium secundum atrial septal defect could be treated and a chest X-ray and an echocardiogram were performed to confirm it. <4> It would be necessary to consider the implantation of a pacemaker. <5> As there are data of left ventricular hypertrophy, he would perform a family study to rule out hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-42c889d68f724e0281d26e592cec2f91", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba14 A 75-year-old woman consulted for abdominal pain and increased abdominal perimeter. It does not refer previous history of liver disease. On physical examination, the abdomen is bulging with central tympany and changing dullness in the flanks. There are no masses or visceromegalies. In the analysis, only a hemoglobin figure of 10.9 g / dL, VCM 92 fl, with normal leukocytes and platelets stands out. Biochemistry and normal hepatic profile. By means of paracentesis, amber ascitic fluid with an albumin gradient of 0.7 and cytology suspected of malignancy is extracted. TAC (image) is provided. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Peritoneal pseudomyxoma. <2> Krukenberg's tumor. <3> Peritoneal mesothelioma. <4> Ovarian adenocarcinoma. <5> Colon adenocarcinoma.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e9b68a0d8d324e8cbe23b7f71f6a7b26", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba14 Once the diagnosis of suspicion has been confirmed. What is the most correct therapeutic behavior? \n Options: <1> Cytoreductive surgery and chemotherapy with taxol-carboplatin. <2> Gastrectomy with double adnexectomy. <3> Laparoscopy with peritoneal washes and infusion of mitomycin and 5-fluorouracil. <4> Systemic chemotherapy with cisplatin and pemetrexed. <5> Laparoscopic surgery and chemotherapy with oxaliplatin and 5-fluorouracil (FOLFOX).", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-44f7fdf63ba34f23bf664a744ed0e500", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba15 A 67-year-old patient who reported a decrease in unilateral visual acuity and rapidly evolving metamorphopsia. The attached retinography presents the image of the affected eye. The most likely diagnosis would be: \n Options: <1> Macular degeneration associated with exudative age. <2> Retinal detachment. <3> Retinitis pigmentosa <4> Central vein thrombosis of the ischemic retina. <5> Equatorial choroidal melanoma.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-71d54d4991724c5593fea2f2e6f450fe", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba15 The following diagnostic test that is most appropriate to perform in this patient is: \n Options: <1> Angiofluoresceingraphy. <2> Visual evoked potentials. <3> Vitreous sampling using vitrectomy. <4> Nuclear magnetic resonance. <5> Computerized field.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-38002e085fd1455fb203ee49d72449a5", "input": "Question: Question linked to the image n\u00ba16 Patient of 48 years smoker. Consultation due to symmetrical and bilateral reddening in both feet accompanied by burning pain (image). The general examination, the neurological examination and the peripheral pulses are normal. The analytical highlights: Hb 16.8 g / dl, leukocytes 12,400 / mm3, platelets 720,000 / mm3. Biochemistry: Glucose 87 mg / dl, Creatinine 0.7 mg / dl, Protein 7.5 g / dl, Calcium 9.4 mg / dl, GOT 40 U / L, GPT 35 U / L, GGT 64 U / L, FA 124 U / L, LDH 187 U / L, VSG 24 mm / h. Hemostasis and normal immunoglobulins. Serology against hepatitis B and C negative virus. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Livedo reticularis. <2> Erythromelalgia. <3> Buerger's disease <4> Systemic mastocytosis. <5> Mixed cryoglobulinemia.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4be8dca566ef4da89fd02f9781d07af8", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 16 Which of the following will support the diagnosis of the underlying disease? \n Options: <1> Cutaneous biopsy. <2> Microangiography <3> Determination of cryoglobulins. <4> Serum tryptase. <5> JAK 2 mutation study.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d9537f83e7c04d5fb09e1fa94f0439da", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba17 The following figure describes the survival function of the variable progression free of disease (Progression-free Survival, PFS) by the Kaplan-Meier method of two groups of patients. Group A: patients treated with the best support treatment (Best Suportive Care, BSC). Group B: patients who in addition to BSC receive Panitumumab. Data complementary to the figure: patients with disease progression: Group A = 184/232 (79%), Group B = 161/231 (70%). Percentage of censures: Group A = 24/232 (10%), Group B = 38/231 (16%). Log-rank test p <0.0001. Hazard Ratio [95% CI]: 0.54 [0.44-0.66]. Which of the following statements is correct: \n Options: <1> The gain in terms of the median time to progression in Group B does not exceed two weeks in relation to Group A. <2> To interpret the results of these two survival curves, it is necessary and sufficient to evaluate and contrast the percentages of progression, that is, 79% in Group A versus 70% in Group B. <3> The ratio of medians in time to progression of the two treatment groups is 0.54. <4> The log-rank test evaluates the average difference in the follow-up time. <5> The results of the log-rank test and the Hazard Ratio estimate (95% confidence interval, 95% CI), are not compatible since the first one indicates that the differences are significant while the second indicates that they are not.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d5a5d44f0a3462aa228ea4208bde674", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba17 Which of the following statements is correct: \n Options: <1> All the patients in the study except one had progression of the disease at 50 weeks of follow-up. <2> Since the survival curves overlap at the end of the follow-up time, the results should not be described as statistically significant. <3> The reduction of the risk of progression of the disease in group B (BSC + panitumumab) is 46% with respect to group A (BSC alone). <4> The average time to progression is the best estimator of the effect of the treatments and the difference between groups should be indicated to evaluate its relevance. <5> The Hazard Ratio analysis is not acceptable since the percentage of censorships is different between groups, p <0.0001.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-25ce7322275945b68eafb1796b050b74", "input": "Question: The placenta is a derivative of: \n Options: <1> The zona pellucida. <2> The trophoblast. <3> The ectoderm <4> The mesoderm <5> The primitive line.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-482163eb209e4e1f9ef1268c6e6c8aed", "input": "Question: Juan is 60 years old, smokes 2 packs / day for years and has been talking about persistent cough for 6 months. Check that your left eyelid is more droopy and that the pupil of that eye is smaller. Juan says that the medial part of his left hand is numb and less powerful. Your doctor checks for palpebral ptosis and left miosis; check that you can close both eyelids with symmetry and that both pupils respond correctly to the light. He also checks that he does not sweat through the left side of the face, that he feels less the puncture on the inside surface of that hand and that he has less strength in the grip of that hand. Regarding the ocular symptomatology, where is the lesion located? \n Options: <1> The sympathetic fibers, at some level that would span from the hypothalamus to the Clark-intermediate column of the dorsal medulla. <2> The left common ocular motor nerve in the mesencephalon. <3> The nucleus of Edinger-Westphal, above the nucleus of the left ocular motor nerve. <4> The parasympathetic fibers, at some level that would extend from the EdingerWestphal nucleus to the constrictor muscle of the left pupil. <5> The tarsal muscle exclusively.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ab4937fc9a6143eeab50539af75693fa", "input": "Question: What root predominantly depends on the sensory innervation of the first toe? \n Options: <1> L3. <2> L4. <3> L5 <4> S1 <5> L2.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8121ddc27db2469ea25d9f72fd6749c8", "input": "Question: The human papilloma virus (HPV) is involved in the pathogenesis of: \n Options: <1> Cervical cancer <2> Endometrial cancer. <3> Ovarian cancer. <4> Breast cancer <5> Burkitt lymphoma.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-71829743839c452c9513562441db4bcc", "input": "Question: Hepatocytes in ground glass are characteristic of: \n Options: <1> Chronic hepatitis by HBV. <2> Chronic HCV hepatitis. <3> Chronic hepatitis by VH delta. <4> Toxic hepatitis. <5> Hepatitis for alcohol.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2fdb03f8d6324ce5a46fb4ed4ec9edb9", "input": "Question: The most common pancreatic cancer is: \n Options: <1> The intraductal mucinous papillary tumor. <2> Pancreatic neuroendocrine carcinoma. <3> The pancreatic cystadenocarcinoma. <4> The malignant insulinoma. <5> Ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a3c97c9538414fc691720b7c866b443d", "input": "Question: A 20-year-old man, with symptoms of ataxia, headache and solid-cystic mass in the right cerebellar hemisphere, underwent surgery, resecting a lesion that histologically shows cells with long and fine cytoplasmic processes, a fascicular and microcystic pattern, and numerous vessels and fibers. Rosenthal. The most likely antimopathological diagnosis is: \n Options: <1> Pilocytic astrocytoma. <2> Pleomorphic Xanthoastrocytoma. <3> Central neurocytoma. <4> Liponeurocytoma <5> Prion disease.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-04e67369e8814db1985398758f9b42ca", "input": "Question: A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and moderate heart failure attended the clinic due to a persistent and dry cough that started as a sensation of itching in the throat. In the analytical hyperkalemia is observed. What is the drug suspected of causing the clinical and analytical alteration of the patient? \n Options: <1> Hydrochlorothiazide. <2> Bisoprolol. <3> Furosemide. <4> Enalapril <5> Hydralazine", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a197695f83534de89eeb5ca873fdba22", "input": "Question: What factors depends on the apparent volume of distribution of a drug ?: \n Options: <1> Its degree of binding to plasma and tissue proteins and its elimination half-life. <2> Of its distribution coefficient and its elimination half-life. <3> Of its elimination half-life and its elimination constant. <4> Its degree of binding to plasma and tissue proteins and their distribution coefficient. <5> Of its constant elimination and its clearing.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a9ca0b7dbcae4e8c90eba2b7e8860691", "input": "Question: What is a prodrug? \n Options: <1> A drug of series of a therapeutic class. <2> A drug that has been withdrawn from the market. <3> An inactive product that is enzymatically converted to an active drug. <4> A compound of natural origin from which one or more drugs are obtained by hemisynthesis. <5> A drug that lacks activity but enhances the action of others.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-862bce0365f741f689c19a73262aede3", "input": "Question: Which of the following pairings between anticoagulant drug and mechanism of action is INCORRECT? \n Options: <1> Heparin - cofactor of antithrombin III. <2> Acenocoumarol - inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase. <3> Dabigatran - inhibits thrombin. <4> Rivaroxaban - inhibits factor Xa. <5> Warfarin - inhibits the absorption of vitamin K.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9ab6c876ab05401da038495423870624", "input": "Question: Orally administered proton pump inhibitor drugs: \n Options: <1> Neutralize hydrochloric acid from gastric secretion. <2> They dye the stools black. <3> They block the histaminergic receptor. <4> They block the gastrin receptor. <5> They require enteric cover.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-23b61e6fb2ee4f94a5930b88fd583bfa", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following statements about vascular smooth muscle is FALSE: \n Options: <1> Its main function is to maintain the tone of the vessels. <2> It is contracted by an increase in the intracellular calcium concentration. <3> Its contraction is controlled by the binding of calcium to troponin. <4> Its tone is controlled by the autonomic nervous system. <5> The endothelium modulates vascular smooth muscle tone.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-13a57513c9fb4dc5a6b13c5bb2f9bbfd", "input": "Question: In a clinical trial of an antineoplastic drug, a significant increase in plasma levels of LDL (low density lipoproteins) is observed. Indicate among the following statements which is correct in the interpretation and consequences of this fact: \n Options: <1> LDL represents the transport mode of cholesterol from the intestine to the liver. Therefore, they reflect a greater incorporation of cholesterol from lipid intake. <2> LDL is involved in the reverse transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver. Therefore, high levels are beneficial for lowering plasma cholesterol levels. <3> LDL are rich in triglycerides and low in cholesterol. An increase in plasma LDL reflects an increase in de novo synthesis and / or ingestion of triglycerides. <4> An increase in plasma LDL levels is beneficial because it protects the arteries from the formation of atherosclerotic plaques. <5> LDL transport cholesterol from the liver to peripheral tissues, where they enter the cells through endocytosis processes.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7b8b716f00c045038d4433f5c78739a8", "input": "Question: The glomerular filtration rate increases when: \n Options: <1> Increases the resistance in the glomerular afferent arteriole. <2> Decreases the resistance in the glomerular efferent arteriole. <3> Increases the activity of the renal sympathetic nerves. <4> Obstruction of the urinary tract occurs. <5> Decreases the concentration of plasma proteins.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-893fc5f984d74e2c896af3a8d4ebd59f", "input": "Question: A thirty-five-year-old man (index case) affected by ataxia and with clinical manifestations for three years, presents an expansive trinucleotide CAG mutation in heterozygosis in the ATXN1 gene. The molecular diagnosis is of spinocerebellar ataxia type 1 (SCA1; 6p22.3) and in the genetic report it is said that the disease is of complete penetrance throughout life. In genetic counseling, the risks of transmitting the disease to their offspring will be explained to the index case. What follows from the above? \n Options: <1> Being the male index case, all female descendants will inherit ataxia; but no male child. <2> The mutation will be transmitted to 50% of the descendants of the index case, who will develop ataxia from some point in their life. <3> The mutation will be transmitted to 25% of the descendants of the index case, who will develop ataxia from some point in their life. <4> The ataxia will be transmitted throughout the life of the index case affecting all of its offspring. <5> If the partner of the index case carries another SCA mutation (for example, in SCA36, great genetic heterogeneity), ataxia will be suffered by 25% of the descendants from some point in their life. If the couple is not a carrier, the ataxia will not be transmitted.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e11960503b0942b2b4d830758a6d0518", "input": "Question: A 30-year-old man (index case) affected by Leber's optic atrophy presents the mutation of the mitochondrial genome LHON11778A. In genetic counseling you will be informed of the risks of transmitting the disease to your offspring. What information is correct? \n Options: <1> The index case will transmit the disease to all its male descendants (hol\u00e1ndrica inheritance). <2> The disease will be transmitted to 50% of the descendants of the index case, regardless of their sex. <3> The disease will be transmitted to all descendants of the index case, as it is of paternal inheritance. <4> The disease will be transmitted to female descendants; but to no man. <5> The disease will not be transmitted to the descendants of the index case, because it is of maternal inheritance.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-183a758fabdf4655b9830a75edac4839", "input": "Question: What are the possibilities, in each pregnancy, of parents bearing a mutation in the CFTR gene, having a child with cystic fibrosis? \n Options: <1> 0.01. <2> 0.1 <3> 0,25. <4> 0.5. <5> one.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c111d33727894d098e2e740340cf85e6", "input": "Question: Which of the following answers is true about the HLA molecules? \n Options: <1> They are very polymorphic nuclear proteins. <2> They are divided into molecules of class IgG, IgA and IgM. <3> They join peptides and present them on the cell surface. <4> They interact with cytokines to modulate the immune response. <5> They are monomorphic.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-12f266f980614c1daa3c6492d2cbe791", "input": "Question: In which of the following clinical contexts is NOT the use of intravenous gammaglobulins recommended? \n Options: <1> Substitute treatment in humoral immunodeficiencies (defect in the formation of antibodies). <2> Prevention of monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance (MGUS). <3> Treatment of Kawasaki syndrome. <4> Management of inflammatory / autoimmune neurological pathologies (Sd. Guillain-Barr\u00e9, multiple sclerosis). <5> Therapeutic management of immune thrombocyanic purpura (ITP).", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fb44e6988afd45cf93c98829f27b7fe9", "input": "Question: Among the biological advantages of fever is NOT found. \n Options: <1> Inhibits bacterial growth. <2> Increases bactericidal activity of phagocytes. <3> Stimulates the alternative route of the complement. <4> It stimulates the synthesis of acute phase proteins and immunoglobulins. <5> It produces serum iron sequestration.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2436f6d6269143d8b7e1329cfed2e540", "input": "Question: Which of the following cytokines exert an anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effect? \n Options: <1> Interleukin-1 alpha, interleukin-1 beta. <2> Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, Tumor necrosis factor-beta. <3> Interleukin-17, Interleukin-22. <4> Interleukin-10, Transforming growth factor beta. <5> Interleukin 2, Interferon-gamma.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4e29c5817be647828fbc86bf7ea44aca", "input": "Question: The reactivation of a latent cytomegalovirus in an immunosuppressed patient can lead to a severe systemic picture. How would the ethological diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Detecting the specific IgG in the serum. <2> By urine culture in an advanced cell line. <3> By chain reaction of quantitative polymerase in the blood. <4> By detection of antigen in the urine. <5> By detection of specific IgM in the serum.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5d633e0bbd54447498ffd12aba618bb9", "input": "Question: In routine clinical practice, in patients infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who are undergoing antiretroviral treatment, the laboratory tool that is used to, in the short term, know if the treatment is being effective is: \n Options: <1> The levels of CD4 T lymphocytes, which increase rapidly if the treatment is being effective. <2> Anti-HIV antibody levels, which decrease when a combination of antivirals is effective. <3> P24 antigenemia, which increases in effective treatments. <4> Plasma viral load (HIV RNA per ml of plasma), which decreases to undetectable levels in effective treatments. <5> The intensity of the bands observed in the Western blot, which disappear if the treatment is effective.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-41c62bfa99d9465f8df8310a5465af63", "input": "Question: Which of the following hepatitis viruses is a subsidiary of treatment with viral protease inhibitors? \n Options: <1> The hepatitis C virus <2> The hepatitis B virus <3> The hepatitis A virus <4> The hepatitis E virus <5> The TTV virus.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d1f73cebbf324f9aa6f9b4d60526d0ec", "input": "Question: Which of the following pathogens is the cause of cat scratch disease? \n Options: <1> Bartonella henselae. <2> Mycobacterium tuberculosis. <3> Mycobacterium avium complex. <4> Toxoplasma gondii. <5> Epstein Barr virus.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-498c0a73795b473ba4259d6f8c86da1b", "input": "Question: Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex includes the bacillus that causes human tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis hominis, Koch's bacillus), as well as other mycobacteria, among which are the following, except one: \n Options: <1> Mycobacterium bovis. <2> Mycobacterium africanum. <3> Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG). <4> Mycobacterium microti. <5> Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3e69f2d6983643cead56da6ad0a65017", "input": "Question: An 82-year-old patient comes to the clinic due to sudden and frequent dizziness, without prodromes, of short duration and that subside spontaneously, without ever presenting syncope. The physical examination and the baseline electrocardiogram are normal. In an ambulatory record of the electrocardiogram during 24 hours, short duration phases of absence of P waves before the QRS are detected with an escape rhythm of the atrio-ventricular junction with narrow QRS at 40 bpm and a wave at the beginning of the ST segment corresponding to a retrograde P. No periods of asystole greater than 3 seconds are detected. Before this you would say: \n Options: <1> The patient has an atrioventricular block of 3rd degree and requires the implantation of a pacemaker. <2> The absence of periods of asystole> 3 seconds excludes a cardiac cause of dizziness. <3> A pharmacological treatment that would increase conduction in the atrio-ventricular node would be indicated. <4> The patient presents a sinus dysfunction with sinoatrial block and requires implantation of a pacemaker due to the presence of symptoms. <5> The alterations detected in the ambulatory electrocardiogram are typical of patients of this age and there is no indication of therapeutic intervention.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-71eb40f848814e409999b759b995260f", "input": "Question: A 82-year-old hypertensive woman on treatment with atenolol, hydrochlorothiazide and digoxin. He goes to the emergency room for atrial fibrillation and is administered verapamil i.v. Complete atrioventricular block is evidenced in ECG. What is the most likely cause of this clinical situation? \n Options: <1> Digitalis intoxication by pharmacokinetic interaction by verapamil. <2> Hypokalemia due to the administration of thiazide and digoxin. <3> Pharmacodynamic interaction of beta-blocker, digoxin and verapamil. <4> Hypotensive effect of the thiazide diuretic. <5> Cardiac arrhythmia due to verapamil.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c9b9d1e2523e4d26afffd459cf7496ba", "input": "Question: A 45-year-old woman with a history of a heart murmur detected in the pediatric age. Enter the Emergency Department for symptoms of palpitations, easy fatigue and malignant edema. Physical examination reveals absence of cyanosis. Oxygen Saturation by pulse oximeter 97%. TA: 120/80 mm Hg. Irregular heart rate at 100 bpm. Systolic ejection murmur (2/6) in pulmonary focus. 2nd R unfolded, wide and fixed. No death rattles. Slight hepatomegaly (2-3 cm). Slight malleolar edema. ECG: complete arrhythmia due to atrial fibrillation at 100 bpm. AQRS: + 120\u00ba. Conduction disorder of the right branch of the bundle of His. What is your diagnostic orientation? \n Options: <1> Ventricular communication. <2> Aortic stenosis. <3> Mitral stenosis. <4> Interauricular communication. <5> Persistent ductus arteriosus.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8fd53d396d874bb3968d3d5928cbb305", "input": "Question: In which patient would an urgent coronary angiography be performed? \n Options: <1> 66-year-old diabetic woman with a single episode of pain at rest and elevation of troponins. <2> A 77-year-old man admitted for two 30-minute episodes of pain with a decrease in the ST segment on the ECG during the episode of pain. <3> A 55-year-old man who, after a week of treatment with double antiaggregation, underwent an isotopic ergometry showing extensive ischemia in the anterior face. <4> A 65-year-old woman with pain at rest and positive clinical ergometry in the third stage of Bruce. <5> A 55-year-old patient admitted for chest pain and dyspnea saturating 80% despite the administration of oxygen and with an ECG with ST-segment depression in the anterolateral aspect that does not revert with the administration of intravenous nitroglycerin.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c250d05702334e53b562d59500b0e378", "input": "Question: What electrocardiographic alteration is interpreted as a subendocardial lesion? \n Options: <1> The reversal of the T wave. <2> The supra-leveling of the ST segment. <3> The tipped T wave. <4> The presence of Q wave <5> The rectilinear depression of the ST segment.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-627d52357506434f9fac0d62ef7ad5e4", "input": "Question: A 52-year-old patient who reported dyspnea of \u200b\u200bmedium effort for 6 months. He has not presented angina or syncopes. The physical examination and diagnostic tests show the existence of an average aortic transvalvular gradient of 55 mmHg and a calculated area of \u200b\u200b0.7 cm2. Ejection fraction of 65%. The treatment that should be indicated to this patient is: \n Options: <1> Diuretics and more frequent controls by a specialist. <2> In case of increasing dyspnea on exertion, a percutaneous dilatation of the aortic valve with a balloon catheter should be performed. <3> Replacement of the aortic valve with a prosthesis / bioprosthesis. <4> Replacement of the aortic valve by a homograft. <5> Implantation of a percutaneous valve.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-18c329fb5d074cafbb7d29ce1ef8c9d7", "input": "Question: When it comes to pericardial tamponade, which of the following statements is NOT correct? \n Options: <1> Chest radiography is very useful for diagnosis. <2> The jugular venous registry allows to objectify a very deep collapse. <3> The presence of a paradoxical arterial pulse is common. <4> Right atrial collapse is very sensitive for diagnosis. <5> Right ventricular collapse is very specific for diagnosis.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4f827e76bdcc404f8e80cd46e955ac31", "input": "Question: The following patients are sent to the hypertension clinic. Indicate which one you would NOT suspect secondary hypertension. \n Options: <1> 25 year old woman with an abdominal puff. <2> Hypertension with hypokalemia in a 50-year-old man who does not take drugs. <3> A 55-year-old woman with a body mass index of 28 and dyslipidemia. <4> A 78-year-old woman who has not been controlled with 3 drugs for 3 months. <5> Man of 60 years with daytime sleepiness, morning headache and snoring.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9003d6ee628f44a8b3dcf8c7594f2a9a", "input": "Question: In the treatment of heart failure: \n Options: <1> Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARA II) have shown superiority over angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and should be the first therapeutic option. <2> Aldosterone antagonists have not shown prognostic improvement, being contraindicated in patients with advanced systolic dysfunction and functional grade IV. <3> Beta-blockers have been shown to decrease mortality in patients with decreased ejection fraction. <4> Cardiac resynchronization pacemaker therapy is indicated in patients with systolic dysfunction whenever the QRS is narrow (less than 120 msg). <5> The implantation of automatic defibrillators is contraindicated in patients with ventricular dysfunction, especially if it is caused by ischemia.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cd1d70a42f8247d9abf2293965e01e62", "input": "Question: In a patient with symptoms of heart failure who have a disproportionately high ascites in relation to peripheral edema, the most likely etiology would be: \n Options: <1> A severe aortic stenosis. <2> A dilated cardiomyopathy with significant left ventricular dysfunction. <3> A primary pulmonary hypertension. <4> An obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. <5> A constrictive pericarditis.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-347b1b6e1fdd43debf21670c54d22a62", "input": "Question: In choosing the type of cardiac valvular prosthesis (biological or mechanical) to be implanted in a patient, various aspects and characteristics of the patient and the prosthesis must be considered. In view of the aforementioned, point out the INCORRECT statement: \n Options: <1> Permanent anticoagulation is necessary in mechanical prostheses. <2> In general, biological prostheses are indicated in young patients, with long life expectancy. <3> Biological prostheses would be indicated in cases that present a formal contraindication for anticoagulation. <4> The rate of structural deterioration of a biological prosthesis is inversely proportional to the age of the subject. <5> Biological prostheses do not require permanent anticoagulation.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1c6a172d78b2475ea525a6b20b038f22", "input": "Question: Acute ischemia of a limb consists of a sharp decrease in arterial perfusion. It is important to differentiate between thrombosis and arterial embolism to be able to indicate the most appropriate treatment. Which of the following is correct? \n Options: <1> The presence of embolic focus and distal pulses in the contralateral limb leads to the suspicion of arterial thrombosis. <2> If the patient has a history of claudication and the clinic is of sudden onset, we will suspect arterial embolism in the first place. <3> If the contralateral limb has all the pulses present and the clinic starts slowly, we will suspect an arterial thrombosis. <4> If the clinic starts abruptly in a patient with embolism focus, we will suspect arterial embolism. <5> If the patient is a carrier of a previous arterial derivation, we will suspect arterial embolism.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-09c7b3af7bb94322aa3bee62e357bfd7", "input": "Question: The characteristic Rovsing sign in acute appendicitis consists of: \n Options: <1> Pain in the epigastric pressure when applying a firm and persistent pressure on McBurney's point. <2> Acute pain that appears when the appendix is \u200b\u200bcompressed between the abdominal wall and the iliac crest. <3> Passive rebound sensitivity in the abdominal wall. <4> Loss of abdominal sensation when contracting the muscles of the abdominal wall. <5> Pain at McBurney's point when compressing the lower left quadrant of the abdomen.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-47f32b522cf2434ca5523ae842394c06", "input": "Question: Regarding the Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors (GIST), it is true that: \n Options: <1> These are tumors of epithelial origin, located mainly at the level of the mucosa of the digestive tract. <2> The mutation of the c-kit gene, which codes for a tyrosine kinase receptor, is characteristic of these tumors. <3> The treatment of localized tumors smaller than 2 cm is fundamentally medical, with the use of Imatinib. <4> They are tumors that only exceptionally bleed. <5> The most frequent localization of these tumors is the small intestine.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b4f4a9520b21484dbb31a5a328831487", "input": "Question: A 45-year-old man underwent a truncal vagotomy and antrectomy with Billroth II reconstruction, for suffering from a chronic peptic ulcer disease with pylorus-duodenal stenosis. Six weeks after the surgery, he reported that shortly after (less than half an hour) of the ingestions he presented with a nauseating state, asthenia and sweating, dizziness and abdominal cramps, usually accompanied by diarrheal descent. Which of the following is the most appropriate attitude for its initial management? \n Options: <1> Apply treatment with a somatostatin analog (octeotide). <2> Follow specific dietary measures. <3> Perform a test treatment with a benzodiazepine. <4> Perform the search for a probable neuroendocrine tumor (eg, carcinoid). <5> Indicate surgical treatment to perform an anti-peristaltic gastro-jejunostomy in Roux-en-Y.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ed8fdb032acb41e8a96c651f76b3fc55", "input": "Question: Within the congenital anomalies of the abdominal wall are the omphalocele and gastroschisis. Both entities are defects of the wall. What is the difference between them? \n Options: <1> Omphalocele occurs at the umbilical level and gastroschisis at the epigastric level. <2> The defect, in the case of gastroschisis, is larger than the omphalocele. <3> In the omphalocele, a peritoneal sac covers the abdominal contents and not gastroschisis. <4> Omphalocele, unlike gastroschisis, is frequently associated with intestinal atresia. <5> Unlike the omphalocele, in gastroschisis the surgical treatment can be deferred.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-98c14e23b0614b4b8833456c7970a3e4", "input": "Question: A 78-year-old woman went to the Emergency Department for pain in the left iliac fossa of 24 hours of evolution associated with fever and occasional vomiting. On examination, pain is palpated selectively in the left iliac fossa with a feeling of occupation, defense and positive decompression. Upon suspicion of acute diverticulitis. Which of the following statements is correct? \n Options: <1> The safest and best performing complementary scan is the enema with barium contrast. <2> In the case of a pelvic abscess, the placement of a percutaneous drainage guided with CT or ultrasound is indicated. <3> If surgical intervention is necessary after the acute episode is resolved, the laparoscopic approach is contraindicated. <4> In the case of acute uncomplicated diverticulitis, elective sigmoidectomy is indicated after the first acute episode has been cured. <5> If generalized peritonitis occurs, the most appropriate surgical technique is the practice of a derivative colostomy without resection of the affected sigmoid segment.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5ef411135308449a8da2607201bf9069", "input": "Question: Regarding intestinal polyposis, which of the following syndromes is NOT hereditary? \n Options: <1> Gardner syndrome. <2> Cronkhite-Canada syndrome. <3> Turcot syndrome. <4> Juvenile polyposis <5> Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cfe5985757604e19b6a2793ae937280e", "input": "Question: A 55-year-old man, the father of a celiac son, with iron deficiency anemia and a recent increase in the rhythm of deposition, has been determined to have a negative HLA-DQ2 and HLADQ8 allele. Which diagnostic study is the most appropriate in this case? \n Options: <1> Determination of IgA anti-transglutaminase antibodies. <2> Upper digestive endoscopy with taking of duodenal biopsies. <3> D-xylose test. <4> Evaluate the response to a gluten-free diet. <5> Colonoscopy", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9e85b242e82a4eaa8a3f3652a14d165b", "input": "Question: A 37-year-old woman with an extensive ulcerative colitis has a severe outbreak where treatment with prednisone is started at a dose of 1 mg / kg. After a week of treatment, the patient does not show improvement. What is the next therapeutic measure to perform? \n Options: <1> Subtotal colectomy of urgency and in a second time proctectomy and ileoanal reservoir. <2> Associate an immunosuppressant such as azathioprine. <3> Associate mesalazine in doses of 4 grams per day oral and rectal triamcinolone 1 application every 12 hours <4> Endovenous cyclosporine 2 mg / Kg. <5> Treatment with etanercept (an anti-TNFa antibody) should be assessed.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4e14f9fed4044a1ca97bb7285e1f9c29", "input": "Question: In a liver transplant patient who is receiving immunosuppression with tacrolimus, which of the following antibiotics markedly increases the levels of the immunosuppressant and should therefore be avoided? \n Options: <1> Amoxicillin clavulanic. <2> Ciprofloxacin <3> Erythromycin. <4> Cefuroxime <5> Norfloxacin.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c34ca552c1964e679c7daa0c3621bef7", "input": "Question: What disease would we suspect in a young patient who reported a frequent history of dysphagia to solids and liquids with impaired food repeated, without clinical symptoms of pyrosis and in which multiple oral esophageal rings with normal mucosa (trachealized appearance) are observed in oral endoscopy? \n Options: <1> Herpetic esophagitis. <2> Eosinophilic esophagitis. <3> Candidiasic esophagitis. <4> Cytomegalovirus esophagitis. <5> Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bf5ba25bbff24fefbbcb06dd41b8bc44", "input": "Question: In the pathophysiology of peptic ulcer. What is the FALSE? \n Options: <1> Much of the gastro-duodenal ulcers can be attributed to H. pylori infection or mucosal injury by NSAIDs. <2> H. pylori is not related to the development of gastric lymphoma. <3> The transmission of H. pylori occurs from person to person via oral-oral or fecal-oral. <4> A lower educational level and a low socioeconomic status predispose to higher rates of colonization. <5> The incidence of gastric adenocarcinoma is higher in patients with H. pylori.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b907428509f047fda616f3b502ea2e4c", "input": "Question: A 65-year-old woman with a history of joint pains treated with anti-inflammatories, who is referred for a study due to anemia. In the complementary studies it presents 3.164.000 red blood cells, Hto. 32%, Hb 11 g / dl, VCM 69 fl, Leukocytes 7800, Platelets 370,000, PCR 0.29 mg / dl, Fe 20 ng / ml, Ferritin 18 ng / ml, Glucose 105 mg / dl, GOT, GPT, GGT , F. Alkaline, total Bilirubin, Cholesterol, Creatinine, Calcium and Phosphorus normal. Ac. Anti-transglutaminase and negative antigliadin Ac. Gastroscopy: hiatus hernia of 3 cm, rest without alterations. Colonoscopy: up to blind, isolated diverticula in sigma. Intestinal transit without alterations. Ultrasound of the abdomen without alterations. Which of the explorations listed below do you find most appropriate to complete the study? \n Options: <1> Jejunal biopsy <2> Arteriography <3> Endoscopic capsule <4> Radioisotopes. <5> Pelvic MRI.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b37a331aef144d97a8b8628b5c377f1c", "input": "Question: A patient goes to a hospital emergency department presenting frank hematemesis. In the initial assessment the patient is pale and sweaty, has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and a systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg. Which of the following actions would NOT be performed in the initial care of this patient? \n Options: <1> Ensure adequate oxygenation of the patient. <2> Channel two heavy gauge peripheral routes. <3> Use the hematocrit as an index of blood loss. <4> Replace the blood volume with crystalloid solutions. <5> Place a nasogastric tube.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a919a55dd0c1450db39ea4ac98b2e790", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements about focal nodular hyperplasia of the liver is true? \n Options: <1> It is considered that its appearance is related to the consumption of contraceptives. <2> The risk of breakage hemoperitoneum is similar to that of the adenoma. <3> There is a risk of tumor degeneration. <4> It behaves as a focal hypovascular lesion in computed tomography with contrast administration. <5> In the histological study of the lesion, in addition to hepatocytes, bile ducts and other liver cells can be observed.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9241808678064628bef481e6c386a6f4", "input": "Question: A 50-year-old woman attended the emergency department for asthenia, anorexia, weight loss, jaundice, fever and abdominal pain. It does not refer to recent history of blood transfusion, risky sexual contacts or addiction to parenteral drugs. Usual consumption of 60 grams of alcohol per day during the last five years, consumption that has increased during the previous month due to family problems. Temperature 38.5\u00baC, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg. Physical examination shows temporo-spatial disorientation, malnutrition, asterixis, jaundice and painful hepatomegaly. No ascites or peritoneal irritation data. Laboratory tests include leukocytes 15,000 / microliter with 90% polymorphonuclear cells, red blood cells 3 million / mm3, hemoglobin 10 g / dl, mean corpuscular volume 115 fl, bilirubin 15 mg / dl direct predominance, AST (GOT) 300 IU / L, ALT (GPT) 120 IU / L, GGT 635 IU / L, prolongation of prothrombin time greater than 50%. What is the most likely diagnosis of the condition presented by the patient? \n Options: <1> Liver abscess. <2> Acute cholecystitis. <3> Acute cholangitis <4> Alcoholic hepatitis <5> Acute pancreatitis", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a6d5dac386474343b039bc698205f74c", "input": "Question: A 17-year-old boy, an athlete with no history of interest, goes to the doctor for occasional conjunctival jaundice. Denies drug intake and abdominal pain. In the analyzes performed, normal ALT, AST, GGT, and FA were observed, with total bilirubin of 3.2 mgr / dl and direct bilirubin of 0.4 mgr / dl. It does not have anemia and the liver is ecographically normal. What is your diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Rotor syndrome. <2> Coledocolithiasis <3> Dubin-Johnson syndrome. <4> Acute hepatitis <5> Gilbert's syndrome.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d5bb7d4acaf04196980d666b98b0ccf5", "input": "Question: In the presence of a patient with Crohn's disease who is going to start treatment with biological anti-TNF therapy (antibodies against tumor necrosis factor alpha), which of the following diagnostic tests is not necessary before initiating such therapy? \n Options: <1> Evaluation of the immune stage by lymphocyte count. <2> Serology of hepatitis B virus (HBV). <3> Tuberculin test. <4> Chest x-ray. <5> Serology of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0154e59fe3f145aab428fa1b0c0defcd", "input": "Question: The initial procedure of choice to investigate a possible obstruction of the biliary tract is: \n Options: <1> Hepatobiliary ultrasound. <2> Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). <3> Colangio Magnetic Resonance. <4> Computed tomography. Abdominal CT <5> Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee4019294a374a01a6f35c323887b4e3", "input": "Question: 54-year-old man who comes to review in his company. A body mass index of 32.8 kg / m2 and fasting blood glucose of 138 mg / L are detected. One month later, glycemia 130 mg / dL. What therapeutic recommendation would you make in the first place? \n Options: <1> Administration of metformin. <2> Prescribe a sulfonylurea. <3> Behavioral changes: Diet and physical exercise. <4> Insulin before each meal. <5> Take acarbose at night, before going to bed.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f3e9002d3efb4b498ebe30058b3e4609", "input": "Question: A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus of 10 years of evolution performs treatment with metformin and sitagliptin. Does little physical exercise and performs a proper diet. In the last 6 months he has lost weight and has more asthenia. Their glycemic controls have deteriorated, going from basal glycemia of 110-140 mg / dl to glycemias of 170-200 mg / dl, as well as their glycosylated hemoglobin, which has gone from 7.1 to 8.5%. The most appropriate therapeutic measure to perform is: \n Options: <1> Increase the intake of protein and long chain carbohydrates in the diet to improve asthenia and weight loss. <2> Associate a dose of basal insulin with the treatment. <3> Associate acarbose treatment. <4> Replace sitagliptin with pioglitazone. <5> Replace metformin with glimepiride.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-430ba4494bbe4240a58677c9d19f15c2", "input": "Question: A 70-year-old woman, worried about her risk of having a stroke, comes to our office because her mother died of this cause a year ago. He has a history of high blood pressure and type 2 diabetes mellitus, so he is being treated with glipizide, aspirin, enalapril and atorvastatin. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day and does not exercise regularly. On examination, a blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg is detected. The analytical highlights a hemoglobin A1c of 8% and an LDL cholesterol of 110 mg / dl. Which of the following is associated with a greater reduction in stroke risk? \n Options: <1> Achieve optimal levels of hemoglobin A1C. <2> Achieve an optimal control of blood pressure. <3> Add an antioxidant to the treatment. <4> Abandon tobacco <5> Achieve optimal levels of LDL.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9a5c272e6a2641b3abb1094271a8f0c8", "input": "Question: A 63-year-old woman attended the emergency service referring to intense headache with signs of meningeal irritation, bilateral visual alterations and ophthalmoplegia. A CT scan was performed showing space-occupying lesion in a 2 cm sella turcica compatible with pituitary adenoma with signs of intratumoral hemorrhage, with deviation of the pituitary stalk and compression of the glandular tissue. Indicate which of the following answers is INCORRECT: \n Options: <1> The diagnostic suspicion is a pituitary apoplexy. <2> Treatment should be started with corticosteroids at high doses and observe the evolution, since this treatment could reduce the volume of the lesion and avoid intervention. <3> Treatment with glucocorticoids should be considered to avoid secondary adrenal insufficiency that compromises the patient's vital prognosis. <4> The presence of ophthalmoplegia and visual defects are indications to intervene without delay by urgent surgical decompression. <5> After the resolution of the acute condition, the development of panhypopituitarism is frequent.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b8651dc06cdb4ed89db9568e22df047d", "input": "Question: A 45-year-old woman came to the consultation sent from Surgery with the diagnosis of a neuroendocrine tumor diagnosed after partial pancreatectomy due to a 2-cm tumor in the tail of the pancreas. The tumor had been detected by chance on an abdominal CT scan requested to complete the study of a simple liver cyst. Interrogating the patient, the background is irregular rules, being in amenorrhea for 6 months, and repetitive colic of recurrence from the age of 20 for those who have required lithotripsy on several occasions. In addition, he has a family history of renoureteral colic. What is your diagnostic suspicion? \n Options: <1> A multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 or Wermer syndrome. <2> A multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 A or Sipple syndrome. <3> A multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B. <4> Somatostatinoma. <5> A neuroendocrine tumor producing PTH.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-82a5eed1244a4498a064a72e591dde81", "input": "Question: A 54-year-old patient with an alcoholic intake of 110 g / day, admitted due to chronic diarrhea and the appearance of muscle cramps in recent days. In the analytical one, glucose stands out 320 mg / dL, Urea 25 mg / dL, Creatinine 0.75 mg / dL, Potassium 2.5 mmol / L (3.5-5.1), Calcium 2.0 mmol / L (2 , 2-2.5), Phosphorus 0.52 mmol / L (0.87-1.55) Magnesium 0.25 mmol / L (0.66-0.99) and Albumin of 28 g / L (3552) With what would initiate the treatment? \n Options: <1> Insulin. <2> Potassium. <3> Calcium. <4> Match. <5> Magnesium.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-403806a1110a435197f2181aa9ac962f", "input": "Question: A calcium figure of 11 mg / dL (normal less than 10.5 mg / dL) is found in a 30-year-old patient during a routine business examination. The PTH determination was 45 pg / ml (VN 10-55 pg / ml). The story is anodyne, except for the fact that the mother and the paternal grandfather were diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism and intervened, although they remained hypercalcemic. Which test is most useful to confirm the diagnosis? \n Options: <1> 25-OH D. <2> 1,25-OH 2D. <3> Calcium / creatinine ratio in urine. <4> Tubular reabsorption of phosphates. <5> PTHrP.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-034ce2fc5840456c8084007efdbf02b6", "input": "Question: What drugs are useful to stop endogenous hypercortisolism? \n Options: <1> Ketokonazol. <2> Methimazole <3> Octreotide. <4> Fludrocortisone <5> Propylthiouracil.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c3fb8bef94c14fb9a7d79f1b0cf3b040", "input": "Question: A 71-year-old man presented with severe pancytopenia without any immature cells and with a medullar study suggestive of severe aplastic anemia. What would be the fundamental therapeutic approach? \n Options: <1> Treatment with methylprednisolone at a dose of 1 g / Kg / day for 5 days. <2> Study of siblings and if any is HLA compatible, allogeneic transplant of hemopoietic progenitors. <3> Immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine and antitimocitic immunoglobulin. <4> Hemotherapeutic support. <5> Chemotherapy and if autologous transplant response of hemopoietic progenitors.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cdbe8bb081224010b33f0746972e0f87", "input": "Question: In a 29-year-old woman the following parameters are in the course of a routine analysis: Hb 11.5 g / dL, VCM 70 fl, HCM 28 pg, Ferritin 10 ng / mL, leukocytes 5,200 / mm3, platelets 335,000 / mm3. Physical examination is normal. The most indicated exploration in this situation is: \n Options: <1> Gynecological exploration. <2> Study of occult blood in stool. <3> Radiological study of the digestive system. <4> Electrophoresis of hemoglobins. <5> Test of Coombs.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f3af36988ac24b549ff70556343e6875", "input": "Question: A 68-year-old patient who consulted for edema and asthenia. In the analytical carried out, creatinine of 5 mg / dl, hemoglobin of 10 gr / dl and marked serum hypogammaglobulinemia at the expense of IgG, IgA and IgM are observed. A urinalysis reveals the presence of kappa light chains. What is your diagnostic suspicion? \n Options: <1> Disease due to deposit of light chains kappa. <2> Nephrotic syndrome. <3> Amyloidosis <4> IgA myeloma with Bence Jones preoteinuria. <5> Myeloma of light chains.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-88ad9c91e4c64714b2e84ebc7f51d6ec", "input": "Question: A 67-year-old patient on ticlopidine treatment went to the emergency department with headache, asthenia and petechiae in the lower extremities. In the analytical sample hemoglobin 8.2 g / dl, VCM 100 fl, platelets 25000 / ul and leukocytes 7500 / ul with normal formula. The number of reticulocytes is high and in the blood smear numerous schistocytes are observed. The coagulation studies (APTT, TP and Fibrinogen) are normal. In the biochemistry highlights LDH 2700 IU / l and bilirubin 2.6 mg / dl. What is the most likely diagnosis of the patient? \n Options: <1> Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura. <2> Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. <3> Medullary aplasia. <4> Drug-induced thrombocytopenia. <5> Disseminated intravascular coagulation.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1f886aa3c1d74fbdb657c3b067182ae5", "input": "Question: A 72-year-old man with a pathological fracture in the left femur goes to the Emergency Department. After the surgical intervention, the diagnostic study was performed to find out the underlying pathology with the following findings: hemoglobin 9.5 g / dl, total protein 11 g / dl, (VN: 6-8 g / dl), serum albumin 2 g / dl, (VN 3.5-5.0 g / dl), beta 2 microglobulin 6 mg / l (VN 1.1-2.4 mg / l), serum creatinine 1.8 mg / dl (VN: 0 , 1-1.4 mg / dl). Indicate what would be the diagnostic tests necessary to confirm the most probable diagnosis: \n Options: <1> Radiological bone series and bone marrow aspiration. <2> Serum and urinary electrophoresis and renal function tests. <3> Bone marrow aspirate and serum calcium concentration. <4> Bone marrow aspiration and serum and urinary electrophoresis. <5> Biopsy of the pathological fracture and radiological bone series.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4a28e52695b34a239c24ae13f0a1851e", "input": "Question: A 19-year-old girl with no medical history of interest, except for a self-limiting flu-like illness 3 weeks before, who went to the Emergency Department for petechiae and spontaneously occurring bruising. On physical examination, the patient is in good general condition, afebrile, normotensive and oriented in time and space. Petechiae disseminated by EEII and small abdomen and ecchymoses are observed in decubitus areas. No enlarged adenopathy or splenomegaly. The analysis carried out offers the following findings: Hb 12.6 g / dL, Leukocytes 5,500 / mm3, platelets 7000 / mm3. The study of the peripheral blood smear offers a normal erythrocyte morphology, normal differential leukocyte count and the platelet count is concordant with the autoanalyzer figure without observing plaque aggregates. Biochemistry, proteinogram, beta 2 microglobulin and normal LDH. What do you think is the most appropriate initial treatment of the following? \n Options: <1> Platelet transfusion. <2> Rituximab in weekly schedule. <3> Cyclophosphamide in pulses of 4 days every 21 days. <4> Plasmapheresis daily. <5> Prednisone at 1 mg / day for 2-3 weeks.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1d3755f512e04d7d8e9f55bbd21a6fcc", "input": "Question: A 34-year-old man consulted for fever and malaise. In the clinical history, homosexual relationships were collected for 4 months with a new partner. 2 months before the current consultation, she had an ulcerous lesion on the glans, painless, with bilateral inguinal adenopathies, all self-limiting. Serological studies are requested with the following results: HIV negative, RPR 1/320, TPHA 1/128. What treatment would you indicate in this patient? \n Options: <1> None. <2> Intravenous penicillin G, 24 MU every day for 14 days. <3> Penicillin Benzatine 2.4 MU intramuscular, three doses in three consecutive weeks. <4> Ceftriaxone 2 grams intramuscular in a single dose. <5> Penicillin Benzatine 2.4 MU intramuscular in a single dose.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-373499eda3134154890502f6c7358c85", "input": "Question: A patient under chemotherapeutic treatment for leukemia is admitted for pneumonia for which treatment with cefepime has been prescribed. A thorax Rx / CT scan shows an infiltrate with the sign of the halo and meniscus lunate. The lesion is peripheral and a transthoracic puncture is indicated for sampling. Until you have definitive histological and microbiological results, what antimicrobial would you add to the treatment? \n Options: <1> Ganciclovir <2> Caspofungin <3> Fluconazole <4> Piperacillin-tazobactam <5> Voriconazole", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5af281832e9047b1bd379b1b3bbbb616", "input": "Question: A 54-year-old man diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 came to our clinic. He reported fever of 40\u00baC with chills and shivering, arthromyalgia and headache, which is why he started treatment with paracetamol. The painting began 24 hours before his return to Spain. After 3 days, he presented with a generalized maculo-papular rash that progressed to the formation of more intense petechiae in the lower limbs. It provides analytics where leukopenia stands out with 3,200 / mm3 and platelets 91,000 / mm3 and mild elevation of aminotransferases. Thickness, peripheral blood smear, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and malaria antigen are negative. What is the most likely suspected diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Coronavirus infection. <2> Lymphocyte choriomeningitis. <3> Dengue. <4> Chikungunya virus infection. <5> Encephalitis of Saint Louis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0c903fc8e94a47628c07a5042c880403", "input": "Question: A 53-year-old woman consulted for a fever of 15 days of evolution, without symptoms of infectious focality. On examination, a painful hepatomegaly was detected 5 cm from the costal margin and the spleen was palpated 14 cm from the left costal margin. The hemogram shows Hb 8.5 g / dL, Leucocytes 630 / mL (lymphocytes 63%, monocytes 20%, neutrophils 17%) and platelets 35,000 / mL. The biochemistry shows a moderate elevation of the liver biochemistry, LDH is normal and a polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia (3.5 g / dL) is observed in the proteinogram. She has a history of HIV infection known for 10 years and irregular adherence to antiretroviral treatment, with recent determinations of CD4 lymphocytes 350 cells / mL and viral load of HIV 154 copies / mL. During the last 3 months she has been treated for seronegative symmetric polyarthritis with 10-20 mg / day of prednisone. Which of the following statements is correct? \n Options: <1> Perform a bone marrow biopsy, since the most likely diagnosis is visceral leishmaniasis. <2> Pancytopenia is justified by cirrhosis associated with virus C and would not perform further tests. <3> Probably it is a medullary toxicity by prednisone that would treat with withdrawal of the drug and filgastrim. <4> I would request a determination of ANAs to rule out disseminated systemic lupus. <5> It would intensify the antiretroviral treatment, since it is probable that all the manifestations that it presents are due to HIV.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-37cd3cb68f2d4470bd4990fbfdeb2615", "input": "Question: A 70-year-old patient diagnosed three years ago with multiple myeloma who is in a period of neutropenia after a cycle of chemotherapy. It enters due to fever, cough and yellowish expectoration. The chest radiograph shows a condensation image in the right hemithorax. The most likely diagnosis is: \n Options: <1> Post-chemotherapy toxic pneumonitis. <2> Pneumococcal pneumonia <3> Pneumonia due to aspergillus. <4> Viral pneumonia due to community respiratory virus. <5> Cytomegalovirus pneumonia.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-37fbb26a0feb4f83b405c6c687f85e11", "input": "Question: A 50-year-old man with a chronic bronchitis who was admitted for a pneumonic episode with a blood culture positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae, with a CMI at penicillin of 0.0125 mg / l. Treatment with 2 million penicillin is started every 4 hours. On the fifth day it continues with a fever of 38\u00baC. Which of the following decisions do you think is right? \n Options: <1> I would change the treatment to ceftriaxone because of its greater efficacy. <2> I would add a quinolone to the treatment. <3> I would switch to amoxicillin / clavulanic acid. <4> It would rule out the presence of a pleural empyema. <5> I would continue with the same treatment, assuming that it is simply a problem of time.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-76ad44ed342c48a88f12bc9ad2857197", "input": "Question: A 17-year-old boy referred to a health center referring to a 39-degree fever of 48 hours of evolution with a sore throat. The family doctor consults the history of the patient where it does not cost any previous illness. The patient did not report cough and the examination performed by his family doctor reveals the presence of bilateral whitish tonsillar exudate and anterior cervical adenopathies enlarged and painful on palpation. What would be the treatment of choice for this patient? \n Options: <1> Penicillin V or amoxicillin. <2> Amoxicillin clavulanic. <3> Doxycycline <4> Ciprofloxacin <5> Metronidazole", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-67f813282ae94e88881cfe14a2a0380b", "input": "Question: Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted by tick bite? \n Options: <1> Lyme's desease. <2> Recurrent fever due to Borrelia hispanica. <3> Mediterranean botanical fever. <4> Rocky mountain spotted fever by R. rickettsii. <5> Exanthematic typhus", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-01d68c1919f4497cabd751aa2f48b786", "input": "Question: A patient with a history of excessive alcohol consumption has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis due to cough, fever, expectoration, and isolation in the Mycobacterium tuberculosis sputum culture. The patient has begun treatment with isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol and pyrazinamide, with adequate tolerance. A report of resistance to rifampicin of M. tuberculosis isolated in the sputum is received 20 days after the start of treatment. What regime would you select based on this report? \n Options: <1> Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide for 12 months. <2> Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide for 12 months and streptomycin for two months. <3> Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide for 12 months and a quinolone for two months. <4> Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide and a quinolone for 18 months. <5> Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide for 18 months and streptomycin and a quinolone for two months.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7f3e4f7a56984c9abd74e8676ffae70f", "input": "Question: A 20-year-old girl comes to the clinic with an acute fever, cervical adenopathy and skin rash. According to the patient, 3 weeks ago, she had a sexual relationship that could be at risk for contracting the HIV virus. Does it indicate which of the following answers is true? \n Options: <1> A negative HIV-1 / HIV-2 serology performed using the ELISA technique rules out the possibility that the patient has been infected with the HIV virus. <2> The clinical process suffered by the patient does not match that of acute HIV infection. <3> If the patient's ELISA test was positive, it would not be necessary to do anything else for the diagnosis of HIV infection. <4> The ELISA technique has a high sensitivity for the diagnosis of HIV infection, but its specificity is even greater. <5> If the ELISA test to diagnose HIV in the patient was negative, we could determine by the PCR technique the viral load in blood.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e7c87b1a3a314af88640a423e29863dd", "input": "Question: A 16-year-old boy who consulted due to pultulose tonsillitis, fever up to 38.5\u00baC, painful cervical adenopathies, non-pruritic macular exanthema in the thorax and mild hepatosplenomegaly, 4-5 days old. The Paul-Bunnell test and the IgM for the Epstein-Barr virus are positive. During his admission he develops a continuous fever of up to 40\u00baC, pancytopenia, icteric hepatitis and coagulopathy of progressive intensity. One week after admission, he was transferred to the ICU due to confusion and respiratory failure. The blood cultures and a urine culture are negative, the CSF is normal and the chest plate does not show infiltrates. Procalcitonin is normal, but PCR and ferritin are very high. From the statements below, what would be the most correct diagnostic and therapeutic approach? \n Options: <1> It has a bacterial sepsis of undetermined origin and should be administered ceftriaxone and supportive treatment. <2> It has a bacterial sepsis of undetermined origin and should be administered vancomycin, ceftacidime and supportive treatment. <3> It is an infectious mononucleosis of severe course and glucocorticoids must be administered. <4> It is an infectious mononucleosis of severe course and treatment with acyclovir should be started. <5> Perform a biopsy / aspirate of bone marrow and if hemophagocytosis is confirmed, start treatment with immunosuppressants.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e9556dd4693347c7aa73dd48483f48f1", "input": "Question: 30-year-old man without a history of interest. He came to the clinic because of the presence of small erythematous-violaceous lesions that appear elevated on palpation, in the pretibial region. The analytical study shows a blood count and coagulation study without alterations and in the biochemistry, creatinine and ions are also within the range of normality. The study of urinary sediment demonstrates hematuria, for which the patient had already been studied on other occasions, without obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Regarding the entity that you suspect in this case is FALSE that: \n Options: <1> In 20% to 50% of cases there is an elevation of the serum IgA concentration. <2> In the renal biopsy the mesangial deposits of IgA are characteristic. <3> The existence of proteinuria in the nephrotic range is frequent. <4> It is considered a benign entity since less than 1/3 of the patients progress to renal failure. <5> Skin biopsy allows the diagnosis to be established in up to half of the cases.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0bb139f8ff5646eab89418977027875c", "input": "Question: A 72-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure in stage 5. If a pulmonary thromboembolism is suspected, indicate which diagnostic test would be contraindicated: \n Options: <1> Transthoracic echocardiogram. <2> Pulmonary scintigraphy <3> Pulmonary angioCT. <4> Electrocardiogram. <5> Chest x-ray.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-53f4aa88c1cb47f598bcea7124b98808", "input": "Question: Except in patients whose chronic renal failure is due to diabetic nephropathy or tubulointerstitial nephropathy, the arterial blood gas pattern that you would expect to find in a patient with chronic renal failure would be: \n Options: <1> pH 7.30, HCO3 18 mEq / L, Cl 116 mg / dL, because metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap is characteristic. <2> pH 7.46, HCO3 18 mEq / L, Cl 116 mg / dL, because hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis is characteristic. <3> pH 7.456, HCO3 18 mEq / L, Cl 100 mg / dL, because metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap is characteristic. <4> pH 7.46, HCO3 30 mEq / L, Cl 90 mg / dL, because metabolic alkalosis with normal anion gap is characteristic. <5> pH 7.45, HCO3 23 mEq / L, Cl 100 mg / dL, because metabolic alkalosis with normal anion gap is characteristic.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b9442616a07b4c4a9090eaf03857e40a", "input": "Question: Regarding the definition of chronic kidney disease, one is INCORRECT: \n Options: <1> It requires persistent presence of structural or functional alterations of the kidney for at least 2 months. <2> It includes alterations in urine as proteinuria, independently of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). <3> It includes a lower GFR of 60 ml / min / 1.73m2 of body surface regardless of the presence or absence of other markers of kidney damage. <4> It is classified into 5 stages according to the TFG. <5> The preparation for renal replacement therapy should be done in stage 4.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f1248a07a1fe47108a6a93388559f31d", "input": "Question: A 38-year-old man consulted for dyspnea and hemoptysis. Blood tests have creatinine 7 mg / dl, urea 250 mg / dl and anti-MBG (anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies) positive high titer. A renal biopsy was performed, showing crescents in 75% of the glomeruli, and in the immunofluorescence a linear Ig deposition pattern appeared. Which of the following is the correct answer? \n Options: <1> It is an Ig A Nephropathy with acute renal failure. <2> The performance of plasmapheresis would be indicated. <3> It is a membranous glomerulonephritis. <4> Mycophenolate mofetil is the initial treatment of choice. <5> Glomerular involvement is caused by the presence of circulating immune complexes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2891307a3c7743e0ac2cc29057e49af9", "input": "Question: In a renal transplant patient, which of the following characteristics is the characteristic of acute renal rejection? \n Options: <1> Interstitial infiltrate of B lymphocytes. <2> Preferably infiltrated with T lymphocytes in the renal interstitium and in the renal tubules. <3> Fibrosis and tubular atrophy. <4> Proliferative glomerulonephritis without affecting the interstitium. <5> Presence of circulating antidonant antibodies and renal infarcts.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b203d3aa01674ffcb7ddd14d7f4d727e", "input": "Question: Regarding benign prostatic hypertrophy, it is NOT true that: \n Options: <1> Abdominal ultrasound is a non-invasive method to assess prostate size and post-voiding residual. <2> It can cause increases in PSA levels. <3> Rectal examination is a method to estimate prostate size. <4> Treatment with 5-alpha reductase inhibitors decreases symptoms. <5> It is a precancerous lesion.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-343dbf2380e542c0bc3dd7bbed69e8b9", "input": "Question: Before a 49-year-old man, asymptomatic, with a family history of a father who died of prostate cancer, a PSA (Specific Prostate Antigen) of 5.9 ng / ml was identified in a routine company control, with a PSA ratio free / Total PSA of 11% and that in a digital rectal examination there is an increase in consistency in the right prostatic lobe, what is the following clinical indication? \n Options: <1> Ask the patient to perform a transrectal ultrasound and prostate biopsy. <2> Perform a abdominopelvic CT scan. <3> Start treatment with 5 alpha reductase inhibitors to halve PSA levels. <4> Start combined treatment of LHRH analogues and antiandrogens. <5> Perform a bone scan.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a589e98229fd469eac5f755a6c688d94", "input": "Question: A 54-year-old man is diagnosed with a left kidney tumor suggestive of renal cell carcinoma. In his preoperative analytical study, elevated levels of GPT, alkaline phosphatase and alpha-2-globulin and elongated prothrombin time are detected. The liver is enlarged diffusely, but without defects of hepatic infiltration. The most probable justification for these findings is due to: \n Options: <1> Liver metastases. <2> Intrahepatic tumor thrombosis. <3> Acute hepatitis <4> Presence of hepatotoxic substances produced by the tumor. <5> Hemochromatosis", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b45add9ccd194e0dbba81653793e8f39", "input": "Question: A 55-year-old asthmatic patient goes to the ER with an exacerbation. One hour after the administration of supplemental oxygen and two nebulizations of salbutamol the patient does not improve. On examination, he breathed at 42 rpm with supraclavicular drainage and presented disseminated inspiratory and expiratory wheezing. The peak flow has dropped from 310 to 220 L / min. A gasometry extracted with oxygen at 28% shows a pO2 of 54 mmHg and a pCO2 of 35 mmHg. Which of the following attitudes seems LESS indicated? \n Options: <1> Increase oxygen flow. <2> Administer 80 mg of methylprednisolone iv. <3> Nebulize ipratropium bromide together with salbutamol every 20 minutes. <4> Administer intravenous magnesium <5> Start non-invasive mechanical ventilation.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8572551188de410394e2dda31c19b00e", "input": "Question: Faced with a 23-year-old patient who went to the emergency room on a Friday morning after a street fight, with clear signs of enolism and knife injury (stabbing) at the level of III right intercostal space 3 mm from the sternal margin, actively bleeding and hemodynamically unstable associated with marked hypophonia of all right hemithorax. Which structure of the following should you think may be injured? \n Options: <1> Right primitive carotid artery. <2> Right internal thoracic artery. <3> Right subscapular artery. <4> Upper right thyroid artery. <5> Thigh superior thymic artery.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-36774057a4fe4ab8b587760a860fd3d3", "input": "Question: Regarding COPD, which one is FALSE? \n Options: <1> Smoking is the most important factor in the development of COPD. <2> Contrary to asthma, there is no inflammatory component. <3> The genetic factor to develop better documented COPD is the deficit of alpha1 antitrypsin. <4> Acropachies are not characteristic of COPD and their presence should suggest associated bronchiectasis or bronchopulmonary carcinoma. <5> Spirometrically, obstruction is detected by a FEV1 / FVC ratio of less than 0.70.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b764b5ff6449425ea3ab8477c24a5fcd", "input": "Question: In a patient with mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in stable phase, polyglobulia and respiratory insufficiency are evident. The chest radiograph shows no noticeable alterations. Which of the following procedures would you consider to carry out in the first place to rule out the coexistence of other diseases that may justify the described findings ?: \n Options: <1> Respiratory polygraphy <2> Echocardiogram. <3> Thoracic computed tomography. <4> Pulmonary scintigraphy <5> Puncture of bone marrow.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-619b71442ca34322b83e285950ea3650", "input": "Question: A 24-year-old woman is found lying on the street by some passers-by. When the emergency team arrived, they found it with an oxygen saturation of 88% breathing ambient air and a punctiform pupil examination. It is transferred to the nearest hospital emergency, where arterial blood gas analysis shows: pH 7.25, PaCO2 60 mmHg, PaO2 58 mmHg, bicarbonate of 26 mEq / L and excess of bases of -1. In blood sodium is 137 mEq / L and chloride 100 mEq / L. From a gasometric point of view, the patient has: \n Options: <1> Partial respiratory failure. <2> Metabolic acidosis. <3> Pure respiratory acidosis <4> Respiratory alkalosis due to lack of chlorine. <5> The gasometry can only be of venous blood.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bdb6f08512004bb4b0681a2dc845d74a", "input": "Question: A 50-year-old patient with a pleural effusion with the following characteristics: straw appearance, pH 7.3, ratio of pleura / serum proteins 0.8, ratio of LDH pleura / serum 0.9, Gram and Ziehl negative, total lipids, cholesterol and normal triglycerides, cells mesothelial <5%, intense lymphocytosis without atypia, ADA 64 U / l. What diagnosis do you suggest? \n Options: <1> Pleural empyema <2> Pleural effusion due to heart failure (transudate). <3> Pleural mesothelioma. <4> Tuberculous pleural effusion <5> Secondary effusion to pulmonary infarction.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-24f725d615fd4ed9a457e9a8ffea1d93", "input": "Question: In a patient with hepatic cirrhosis and ascites, which develops a pleural effusion with the following data in the pleural fluid: LDH 45 U / L (serum 220 U / L), protein ratio pleura / serum 0.3 and ratio LDH pleura / serum 0.2. What would be the right attitude? \n Options: <1> The study of the fluid with cell count, glucose, pH, ADA, cholesterol and culture should be expanded. <2> Blind pleural biopsy. <3> Diagnostic video-assisted thoracoscopy. <4> Empirical antibiotic therapy for suspected parapneumonic effusion. <5> Continue the treatment of your liver disease.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7bc24ba0b60d4c20bb0bfc2cf5e555f1", "input": "Question: In the functional examination of a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, all findings are expected to be LESS one: \n Options: <1> FEV1 less than 80%. <2> DLCO decreased. <3> FEV1 / FVC ratio lower than 0.7. <4> Lung volumes decreased. <5> Negative bronchodilator test.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-962fba326725488d9a7193c10f2b37f5", "input": "Question: The most common cause of mildmoderate hemoptysis is: \n Options: <1> Bronchiectasis <2> Bronchogenic carcinoma <3> Hemorrhagic diathesis. <4> Pulmonary infarction. <5> Pneumonia.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-76de58759d814e7bbe4d3cb681a20314", "input": "Question: A 65-year-old man with a history of pancreatic cancer undergoing chemotherapy. Emergency consultation for pain and edema of the entire lower limb from the groin. Which diagnostic test is more cost-effective to confirm the diagnostic suspicion? \n Options: <1> Dimer D. <2> Magnetic resonance. <3> Phlebography <4> Venous Doppler ultrasound. <5> Helical CT", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5b08c6cfeb4c4301a0424713883580bd", "input": "Question: A 40-year-old woman who consulted for approximately 20 episodes a day of intense pain, left periocular of 15 minutes duration, accompanied by intense lacrimation and rhinorrhea. Your scan and magnetic resonance are normal. Your treatment of choice would be: \n Options: <1> Indomethacin <2> Lamotrigine <3> Verapamil <4> Prednisone. <5> Lithium carbonate.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2ae88fdb5fd2423e863e011a37b1d6e1", "input": "Question: Indicate in what clinical situation would NOT indicate beginning interferon beta in a patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis: \n Options: <1> Multiple recurring outbreaks. <2> Bad response to corticosteroids in outbreaks. <3> Having suffered a single outbreak of the disease with sequelae. <4> Be over 50 years old <5> A progressive primary clinical form.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7506b30b22bc4dad832a0eff4e98b0f4", "input": "Question: What drug should be recommended for the treatment of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy? \n Options: <1> Phenobarbital. <2> Valproic acid. <3> Oxcarbazepine <4> Diphenylhydantoin. <5> Topiramate.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1dcca99ca3ad47089bde24767117550e", "input": "Question: After a traffic accident, a 38-year-old patient enters the ICU in a coma. After several days the patient does not improve neurologically and CT shows hemorrhagic punctate lesions in the corpus callosum and cortico-subcortical union. What is your diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Acute subdural hematoma. <2> Thrombocytopenic purpura. <3> Cerebral hemorrhagic contusion. <4> Severe diffuse axonal injury. <5> Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cf16b667c9df454a824b7d395b4d79fe", "input": "Question: In the treatment of patients with Alzheimer's disease, which of the following treatment options do you consider most appropriate? \n Options: <1> The initial treatment of any type of urinary incontinence with drugs such as oxybutynin is of choice due to its anticholinergic effects. <2> Treatment with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. <3> For the treatment of associated depression prioritize the use of tricyclic antidepressants. <4> The typical neuroleptics at high doses. <5> Estrogen replacement therapy.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-770db8def9e243668d7ef03b42da1033", "input": "Question: A 76-year-old man consulted for cognitive deterioration, slowness and awkwardness of movements, of eight months of evolution. The family reported that the patient had visual hallucinations, so his Primary Care physician prescribed low doses of risperidone, with a significant worsening of motor status. In view of these data, what is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Alzheimer disease. <2> Dementia due to Lewy bodies. <3> Frontotemporal dementia. <4> Vascular dementia <5> Occasional Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9f1367863dca4d328b70d6b2351aa0da", "input": "Question: What sign or symptom is NOT typical of Guillain-Barr\u00e9 syndrome? \n Options: <1> Facial paralysis. <2> Sphincter alteration. <3> Hiccup or tendinous tendon reflex. <4> Muscular weakness. <5> Dysautonomia", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0c8c58439dcb4a75aa3130a75bbed455", "input": "Question: Which of the following clinical signs is NOT seen in the lesions of the lower motor neuron? \n Options: <1> Paralysis. <2> Amyotrophy <3> Fasciculations. <4> Arreflexia <5> Hypoesthesia", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1d70365ed13b4cdab67258d380b9ca42", "input": "Question: An 80-year-old man is admitted with a sudden picture of aphasia and right hemiparesis. As background highlights, hypertension, well controlled diet and cognitive impairment in the last year under study by his neurologist. Emergency cranial CT demonstrates a left frontal lobar hematoma without contrast enhancement. What is the most likely cause of the hematoma? \n Options: <1> Arteriovenous malformation masked by the acute hematoma. <2> Chronic arterial hypertension. <3> Vasculitis isolated from the nervous system. <4> Brain tumor. <5> Amyloid cerebral angiopathy (congophilic angiopathy).", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d42ceff54ac5498c9df60b282be824c2", "input": "Question: NOT true about Rheumatoid Arthritis: \n Options: <1> Early diagnosis, intensive treatment and close control of the disease are essential. <2> Methotrexate is the drug of first choice to control the activity of the disease. <3> The rheumatoid factor is typical of the disease and is a mandatory criterion for diagnosis. <4> The specificity of citrullinated peptide antibodies is very high and has a prognostic value. <5> Biological drugs, such as anti TNF, have revolutionized the treatment.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-83e998c8b499446793c16d74fe79ef93", "input": "Question: A 75-year-old woman, with menopause at 52 years of age, with no family or personal history of a fracture, diagnosed with temporal arteritis, who is going to start treatment with prednisone at high doses and with an expectation of treatment for at least one year. The delay of densitometry (DXA) in its center is 4-5 months. Preventive treatment of osteoporosis is proposed. Among the following, which is the most appropriate attitude ?: \n Options: <1> Request DXA and wait for the result. <2> Assess absolute risk of fracture using the FRAX questionnaire without BMD and treat only if it is high. <3> Start treatment with bisphosphonates and vitamin D (800 IU / day). <4> Administer calcium supplement (1g) and vitamin D (800 IU / day). <5> Assess if you have osteopenia on the radiographs and treat if it is present.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e031a681099a49048d73293d6d96be8a", "input": "Question: The diagnosis of sarcoidosis is based on: \n Options: <1> Clinical-radiological compatible picture and presence of non-caseating granulomas in one or more organs, with negative cultures of mycobacteria and fungi. <2> Elevation of the serum level of the angiotensin conversion enzyme in a patient with a compatible clinical-radiological picture. <3> Characteristic radiological findings in high-resolution computed tomography of the chest in a patient with clinical suspicion. <4> Presence of lymphocytic alveolitis with predominance of CD4 + lymphocytes in bronchoalveolar lavage in a patient with a compatible clinical-radiological picture. <5> Finding of granulomatous cellularity in a fine needle aspiration puncture (FNAP) of an affected organ in a patient with a compatible clinical-radiological picture.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-19e4e6ec523145d2898be892bb395296", "input": "Question: The treatment of choice of Giant Cell Arteritis (Tertiary Arteritis or Horton's Arteritis) corticodependiente is: \n Options: <1> Etanercept. <2> Endovenous cyclophosphamide. <3> NSAID <4> Methotrexate <5> Rituximab", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f31ddd66c8d44bd4b82472096f4e972d", "input": "Question: A 14-year-old boy, 158 cm tall and weighing 76 kg, who came to our clinic for presenting for 4 months, without a previous traumatic event, mechanical pain in the right inguinal region, presented in the current clinical exploration, lameness with March with slight attitude in external rotation of said lower limb and limitation of hip flexion in neutral rotation. The diagnosis of suspicion will be: \n Options: <1> Fracture of the femoral neck. <2> Proximal femoral epiphysiolysis. <3> Perthes disease. <4> Still's disease <5> Transient synovitis of the hip.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-432e910afb9d454d8ba7901467a03128", "input": "Question: A 56-year-old woman presents, after a casual fall to the floor, pain, deformity and increased volume in the left arm, with impossibility for the dorsal flexion of the hand. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Trocheter fracture in the left humerus. <2> Diaphyseal fracture of the left humerus with radial nerve injury. <3> Supraconcondylar fracture of the humeral palate with median nerve injury. <4> Fracture of the anatomical neck of the humerus with radial nerve injury. <5> Fracture of displaced epitrochlea with ulnar nerve injury.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ebd234d08f804e44a9786de9c1efe216", "input": "Question: A 70-year-old man presents, for a few months, without previous trauma, lumbar pain, difficulty walking, loss of strength and paresthesias in lower limbs, having to stop a few meters after starting it. The patient is increasingly inclining the trunk forward. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Osteoporotic lumbar vertebral fracture. <2> Central herniated disc L5-S1. <3> Spondylodiscitis. <4> Stenosis of the lumbar canal. <5> Degenerative lumbar scoliosis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ce7878db08dd487ca3cd850e8aa7773e", "input": "Question: A 36-year-old patient who came to the emergency room for pain and swelling in the epiphyseal region of the right tibia. The radiographic image is lytic, eccentric and insufflates the cortex. In which tumor lesion will one have to think as more probable? \n Options: <1> Osteosarcoma. <2> Tumor of giant cells. <3> Encondroma. <4> Osteoid osteoid <5> Chondrosarcoma.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-255e94a53e0a470088063f35731f5230", "input": "Question: A 78-year-old woman is undergoing surgery to implant a definitive pacemaker for atrio-ventricular block. His personal history includes high blood pressure, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus and morbid obesity. The procedure is long and laborious due to the obesity of the patient and is carried out through infiltrations with local anesthetic. At forty-five minutes after the beginning of the intervention, she begins to show agitation and progressive disorientation. She says she is dizzy and does not see or hear well. Physical examination shows a discrete bilateral mydriasis, shivering and distal tremors in the upper extremities. What would be the most logical attitude to follow in this clinical picture? \n Options: <1> Neurological symptomatology leads to toxicity due to local anesthetics. The administration of local anesthetic should be interrupted, intravenous diazepam or midazolam administered, the procedure completed as soon as possible and the patient placed under clinical observation. <2> The symptomatology is clearly compatible with an acute ischemic stroke. The neurological examination must be completed once the implantation of the pacemaker has been completed and treatment with low molecular weight heparin has begun at a dose of 0.5 mg per kg per day, after an urgent CT scan. <3> The clinical picture is compatible with an anxiety crisis caused by pain during implantation of the pacemaker. The correct treatment includes a greater infiltration with the local anesthetic to relieve pain and the administration of intravenous diazepam for its anxiolytic effects. <4> Given the clinical history of the patient, it is most likely that she is suffering from an acute coronary syndrome. An electrocardiogram should be performed, obtain a CPK-MB determination and notify Cardiology to initiate the appropriate treatment. <5> An urgent determination of blood glucose should be made, since the clinical picture could correspond to a diabetic ketoacidosis.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ddcbe7174e4e483dabfb96c22b44f0d3", "input": "Question: 84-year-old man with severe respiratory failure secondary to carcinomatous lymphangitis associated with gastric cancer. A companion of his service has begun, that same day, treatment with oral morphine 10 mg / 4 hours. The patient is restless, at 34 breaths per minute, O2 saturation is 80% with an FiO2 of 28%. What should his attitude be? \n Options: <1> Withdraw treatment because it may worsen respiratory failure. <2> Increase the doses up to 20 mg / 4 hours according to evolution. <3> Increase oxygen flow to 35%. <4> Change the treatment of morphine by scopolamine. <5> To add to a treatment of a risperidon.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ec896900f3c64bc6a3279d54a00e40ac", "input": "Question: Which of the following circumstances does NOT define a patient with chronic pathology? \n Options: <1> A 66-year-old woman diagnosed with hypertension, Crohn's disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic retinopathy. <2> 75-year-old ex-smoker, FEV1 75%, IMC 25, creatinine 1.2, anxiety-depressive syndrome. Pfeiffer 30 and Barthel 100. <3> An 82-year-old man diagnosed with osteoarthritis, with Barthel 40, hypertension and pharmacologically controlled dyslipidemia and Alzheimer's disease. <4> A 55-year-old ex-smoker, diagnosed with symptomatic peripheral arteriopathy and ulcerative colitis. <5> A 70-year-old man with enolism, portal hypertension and immobilized at home for 5 years by ACV.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-da002ec9721e4458a77bfb3672455dff", "input": "Question: A woman of 90 years of dementia, incontinent and immobilized by hemiparesis presents a sacral ulcer of grade III. In the examination we see that he is in bed on a wet pad and with a feeding tube that is well placed. He is afebrile and has a normal pulse and blood pressure. It has a 4 x 4 cm sacral ulcer that extends into the fascia with green exudate and normal skin surrounding the ulcer. What is the first priority in the care of this patient? \n Options: <1> Start treatment with antibiotics. <2> Cultivate the decubitus exudate. <3> Apply semi-moist bandages of saline three times a day. <4> Make postural changes to the patient every two hours. <5> Place a permanent urinary catheter.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4aa25b1ece964c8998b37c0f7bd0de0f", "input": "Question: Which of the following is a more reliable marker of malnutrition in the elderly patient? \n Options: <1> Weight loss of 1 kg in the last month. <2> Body mass index greater than 24. <3> Difficulty swallowing, chewing and / or lack of appetite. <4> Albumin 4.5 gr / dl. <5> Mini Nutritional Assessment less than 17.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3f89358adcba4b598b6df73746573963", "input": "Question: One patient is diagnosed with a 4 cm lung cancer without pleural contact in the right upper lobe. The extension study reveals the presence of metastasis in right parahilar nodes, without evidence of distant metastasis. The staging of the tumor will be: \n Options: <1> Stage I. <2> Stage IIA. <3> Stage IIB. <4> Stage IIIA. <5> Stage IIIB.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-11bde615a0e5461eb27fc7711a69f022", "input": "Question: In relation to the treatment of a non-smoking woman with non-small cell lung carcinoma, stage IV adenocarcinoma, which of the following statements is correct? \n Options: <1> The determination of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutation is required. <2> Entry Gefitinib is the standard treatment without EGFR determination. <3> It has a standard treatment based on camptothecins. <4> Any type of standard chemotherapy is valid. <5> There is no predictive factor for this disease.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-75810c6cd4834771812bbaba4d680416", "input": "Question: 80-year-old woman who consults for presenting, for 1 month, progressive increase of the abdominal perimeter. During the previous 4-5 months note asthenia, anorexia and weight loss not specified. On physical examination, tension ascites and malleolar edema are seen, with no other relevant signs. Ultrasonography and CT scan of the abdomen demonstrate the presence of ascites, of homogeneous density, without appreciating peritoneal implants or abdominal or pelvic masses. Liver, pancreas, adrenal glands, spleen and kidneys without significant findings. Paracentesis is performed through a thick needle, obtaining a somewhat yellowish, dense and gelatinous fluid with difficulty. What is the most likely etiology? \n Options: <1> Hydropic decompensation secondary to liver cirrhosis. <2> Chylose ascites due to non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. <3> Peritoneal tuberculosis. <4> Peritoneal metastasis of adenocarcinoma. <5> Ascites secondary to constrictive pericarditis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cfa5af47406c46cc9220a8f0e6441d26", "input": "Question: As for the agonizing rattles (pre-mortem rales), it is true that: \n Options: <1> It is a situation well tolerated by the family. <2> They originate a silent breathing. <3> They are treated with morphine. <4> They are treated with prokinetics. <5> They are treated with scopolamine.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b19a175fe9bf4eb8a89ca25a7cec8e7f", "input": "Question: In relation to intoxication by anticholinergic agents, point out the correct answer. \n Options: <1> In its treatment, atropine is used. <2> The presence of grade III or IV encephalopathy, acute renal failure and severe coagulopathy indicate liver transplantation. <3> Dantrolene is indicated in case of seizures. <4> The basic treatment consists of the repeated administration of activated charcoal and support measures. <5> The decrease in plasma cholinesterase confirms the diagnosis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e0b8e4a7fac04b4ca6033c6aaa6852ce", "input": "Question: A 67-year-old man, a schizophrenic in medical treatment, is treated in a city in southern Spain on August 15 for presenting fever and deteriorating levels of consciousness. On examination, she presented a Glasgow coma score of 5 points, tachypnea at 45 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry of 75%, rectal temperature of 41 \u00baC, and in the laboratory the CPK is 30,000 U / L. A lumbar puncture is performed that is normal. Point out the correct answer: \n Options: <1> Cooling by immersing the patient in a bathtub with ice is the safest method to reduce the temperature. <2> It is not necessary to sedate the patient, intubate them and connect them to mechanical ventilation. <3> Liver involvement is rare in this pathology. <4> In case of hypotension, dopamine should be used at doses higher than 10 micrograms / kg / minute. <5> The cerebellum is especially sensitive to elevated temperature above 40 degrees.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7c0041cd8d83455b93b29de11deba109", "input": "Question: Given the suspicion of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, how would you start the complementary exams? \n Options: <1> Digestive transit. <2> Gastric pHmetry <3> Simple radiology <4> Ultrasound <5> Isotopic study", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ea911c80e3134b3f9b6a6fee104dd6cd", "input": "Question: 0 months previously healthy with acute gastroenteritis of one day of evolution and signs of mild dehydration, without blood or mucus in the stool and without oral intolerance. What is the initial choice treatment in our environment? \n Options: <1> Intravenous rehydration, absolute diet 8 hours and start feeding with astringent diet. <2> Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq / L) and continue with your usual diet. <3> Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq / L), maintain regular feeding and oral amoxicillin for 10 days. <4> Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq / L) and start feeding with lactose-free formula. <5> Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq / L), maintain regular feeding and loperamide 7 days.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-838d733626e94962bab82965fb657635", "input": "Question: In relation to classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia indicate the correct answer: \n Options: <1> The lack of treatment causes a progressive postnatal virilization. <2> For the diagnosis, a stimulation test with ACTH is necessary. <3> In the male sex, the external genitalia are ambiguous at birth. <4> In the female sex, the external genitalia are normal at birth. <5> Prenatal treatment with glucocorticoids prevents the disease.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7841c662f2e34e05b73e54a1cca3910a", "input": "Question: Which of the following associations (disease - symptom or clinical sign) is incorrect? \n Options: <1> Measles - Koplik spots. <2> Sudden exanthema - Fever. <3> Infectious erythema - Anemia due to spinal aplasia. <4> Varicella - occipital adenopathies. <5> Scarlet fever - Fever and dysphagia.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ef23c0ef9c10469ca650748b72fee93b", "input": "Question: Infant of 1 month of life who goes to the hospital emergency department referred by his pediatrician for jaundice. He has been referring for 10 days and has been increasing. In the blood test, a total bilirubin of 7 mg / dl stands out, with indirect bilirubin being 1.5 mg / dl. The most likely cause, among the following, of this jaundice is: \n Options: <1> Biliary tract atresia <2> Jaundice due to breastfeeding. <3> Isoimmunization 0-A late onset. <4> Gilbert's disease. <5> Hereditary spherocytosis.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f378e86e13e94442a8e78832ee2fefdf", "input": "Question: Point out the correct answer in relation to breastfeeding: \n Options: <1> It is important that the mother disinfect her nipple well before starting each feeding. <2> The first feeding of breastfeeding should not be done before 6 hours of life. <3> Breastfeeding requires a fixed and strict schedule: one feeding every 4 hours. <4> Breastfeeding should not occur after 12 months of life. <5> The WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding until 6 months of age.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c3e558155add4d529359b311c3083094", "input": "Question: A 4-year-old boy comes to the Health Center who, 5 minutes earlier, begins with angioedema on his face, conjunctivitis, nasal congestion and hoarseness, coinciding with the intake of a spoonful of yogurt that was mistakenly given him at school. Among the background is diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy. The examination revealed mild hypotension, heart rate 110 beats / min, Sat O2 93%, pale and somewhat sweaty, with disseminated wheezing. What is the first treatment of choice? \n Options: <1> Induce vomiting. <2> Adrenaline subcutaneous 1/1000. <3> Adrenaline 1/1000 intramuscular. <4> Intramuscular methylprednisone. <5> Nebulized salbutamol.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-64b64252005343fe9802a42dda7d3782", "input": "Question: Woman of 40 weeks of gestation in labor with 6 cm of dilation. Presents fetal decelerative pattern in cardiotocographic record so it is decided to perform a fetal blood microtome to assess fetal well-being. Result pH 7.22. The correct behavior is: \n Options: <1> Severe acidosis Caesarean section urgent. <2> Prepatological value, repeat take in 15-20 minutes. <3> Moderate acidosis, repeat take in 1-2 hours. <4> Value in normal limits, leave natural evolution of childbirth. <5> Repeat at the time, possible error in obtaining the shot.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0253212a967e4015a8991f24d807df8b", "input": "Question: A 32-year-old woman asks for preconceptional advice. The patient reports that she underwent cervical conization due to a high-grade intraepithelial lesion (H-SIL) and that she subsequently suffered three miscarriages between 20 and 22 weeks of gestation. He does not have living children. On all three occasions he went to the Emergency Department with a sensation of weight in the hypogastrium and there it was found that he arrived with a dilatation of 8 cm and with prominent amniotic membranes. I had never felt contractions. What advice would you give for the next pregnancy? \n Options: <1> I would recommend prophylaxis with atosiban orally throughout the pregnancy. <2> It would offer lung maturation with corticosteroids from 19-20 weeks of gestation. <3> I would recommend performing a cervical cerclage programmed from the 14th week of gestation. <4> I would advise you not to try more pregnancies because of the high risk of recurrence. <5> I would recommend resorting to assisted reproduction techniques.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e7f51cff28a04bed91cc343fd9af7cb1", "input": "Question: Point out the INCORRECT response regarding infection by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and pregnancy: \n Options: <1> The scheduled cesarean does not reduce the vertical transmission rate of the virus. <2> The pregnant woman will be offered the possibility of performing antiretroviral treatment whatever her stage of the disease, in order to prevent the vertical transmission of the virus. <3> Vertical transmission of the virus is associated with maternal viral load. <4> HIV serology must be offered to every pregnant woman at the first consultation, whatever the time of pregnancy. <5> Women infected with HIV have an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, intrauterine fetal death and intrauterine growth retardation.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-650fb375e9864b9b88fba6cc2e8b978e", "input": "Question: A 27-year-old woman, pregnant for 10 weeks and with persistent severe allergic asthma. Currently, it is adequately controlled with daily inhaled budesonide and inhaled salbutamol at the request of rescue. Go to your consultation concerned about the possible teratogenic effects of your antiasthmatic medication. Which of the following would be the correct attitude? \n Options: <1> Since asthma improves during pregnancy in most patients, it is best for the patient and the fetus to discontinue anti-asthmatic treatment. <2> Suspend budesonide because it has been linked to an increased risk of fetal malformations and replace it with an oral antileukotriene (montelukast). <3> Remove the current treatment and replace it with oral prednisone at the lowest possible dose. <4> Maintain the current treatment and reassure the patient about its side effects and the need for adequate control of asthma during pregnancy. <5> Replace budesonide with an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody (omalizumab) for its greater safety in pregnancy as it is not a drug.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2311b9f1a5b74c88b44abf2c6af412f7", "input": "Question: Which of the following is currently the only contraindication for conservative surgical treatment in breast cancer? \n Options: <1> Prior radiotherapy. <2> Tumor of 4 cm. <3> Axillary metastasis. <4> Multifocal tumor <5> Pregnancy of 32 weeks.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a05fe0e120e1438aa42c57dc1ee2c554", "input": "Question: A 16-year-old woman consulted for primary amenorrhea. It presents a normal female development of secondary sexual characteristics. The levels of estradiol and testosterone are normal. In the gynecological examination, agenesis of the vagina is appreciated. Ultrasound is performed and there is absence of uterus. The ovaries are normal ultrasound. No left kidney is seen. The most likely diagnosis is: \n Options: <1> Rokitansky syndrome. <2> Morris syndrome. <3> Congenital adrenal hyperplasia. <4> Polycystic ovarian syndrome. <5> Kallman syndrome.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d8b368860ed49b5ab27b8a22e179639", "input": "Question: Homosexual male of 30 years of age HIV (+) who participates as a volunteer in a help center for patients with AIDS. According to her clinical history she received diphtheria toxoid (Td) 6 years ago, the MMR vaccine in childhood and adolescence, and hepatitis B three years ago. He is currently asymptomatic with a CD4 count greater than 200 cls / \u03bcl. What vaccines should we recommend? \n Options: <1> Seasonal influenza, pneumococcal, tetravalent meningitis and hepatitis A. <2> Seasonal flu, Td, pneumococcal and tetravalent meningitis. <3> Templavalent meningitis, pneumococcal and seasonal influenza. <4> Td, tetravalent, pneumococcal meningitis. <5> Viral triple, seasonal flu, pneumococcal.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5884c6962e9e4cb99034e54fee9ca42c", "input": "Question: In order to check the efficacy of a treatment to stop smoking, a control group (placebo) is compared with a treated group. For groups to be comparable it is important that they do not differ much in the age of the participants. We are informed that the average age in the control group is 52 years and that in the treated group it is also 52 years. From this information we can say that: \n Options: <1> The groups do not differ with respect to the distribution of the age variable. <2> If the study is well designed, it can not give us the same average age in both groups. <3> To compare the distribution of the age variable in both groups, it would be convenient to know a measure of dispersion as the standard deviation in addition to the mean. <4> For the final conclusion it does not matter the distribution of age in both groups, only if the treatment is effective or not. <5> If, in addition to the mean, the median and the fashion agree, we can affirm that the groups do not differ with respect to the distribution of the age variable.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cc17d09d324f49f59fbff5ab92a5411d", "input": "Question: A pediatrician wants to study overweight in children of 14 years, according to the values \u200b\u200bof the BMI (body mass index). To estimate the necessary sample size, it proposes a confidence level of 95% and a precision of 1 unit of BMI. What other parameters do you need to know to determine the sample size? \n Options: <1> The average BMI in the population. <2> The variance of the BMI. <3> The mean and standard deviation of the BMI. <4> The size of the population and the average BMI. <5> The standard deviation of the BMI and the population size.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d3d7e127720b4ad48396440855abea67", "input": "Question: The Pearson correlation coefficient indicates that there is a statistical association between two variables when: \n Options: <1> Its value is positive. <2> Its value is between -1 (minus one) and 1 (one). <3> Its value approaches zero. <4> Its value is equal or very similar to the sample size used for its calculation. <5> Its value approaches its possible extreme values, -1 (minus one) or 1 (one).", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-00128b9408704324ac0a183848965719", "input": "Question: If you want to estimate the effects of an intervention, you will use: \n Options: <1> A transversal design. <2> A retrospective design <3> An ecological study. <4> A randomized clinical trial. <5> An observational design with random selection of the participants.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-64d37ef4b56449a893f3bdceaf9430e4", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements about the meta-analysis is correct? \n Options: <1> The objective of the meta-analysis is to quantitatively summarize the results of the studies carried out. <2> The meta-analysis is a large clinical trial. <3> It would be desirable to avoid negative clinical trials, as well as unpublished ones, to prevent selection biases. <4> By definition, all meta-analyzes are a reliable source of evidence, the quality of the trials being irrelevant or if they include the results of randomized clinical trials. <5> The meta-analysis will correct the errors of carrying out the tests.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c32417ff4502419585ebc7fdb2658232", "input": "Question: Point out the correct definition: \n Options: <1> The Necessary Number to Treat (NNT) is the inverse of the Relative Risk (RR). <2> The Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) can clearly differentiate the big risks and benefits of the small ones. <3> The Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) is a measure of the therapeutic effort that clinicians and patients must make to avoid negative results of their illnesses. <4> The Number Necessary to Damage (NND) is calculated by dividing the unit by the Number Needed to Treat (NNT). <5> The Absolute Risk Reduction (RRA) is calculated by the absolute difference of the episode rate in the control group minus the episode rate in the intervention group.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-71f2a5ee9a0d485cbde79661e826432e", "input": "Question: In a cohort study, the number of new cases of disease per person per unit of time is: \n Options: <1> The annual incidence. <2> The cumulative incidence or probability. <3> The prevalence rate <4> The density or incidence rate. <5> The relative risk of developing the disease.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2b1b68ab47624b5892266f143b15fd7d", "input": "Question: In a clinical study to evaluate the efficacy of a new medication in the treatment of migraine crisis (point out the CORRECT): \n Options: <1> Strict inclusion criteria increase the external validity of the study. <2> Strict exclusion criteria reduce the internal validity of the study. <3> Control with a placebo arm increases the external validity of the study. <4> Masking reduces the internal validity of the study. <5> Randomization increases the internal validity of the study.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5e7388b8ef454c2aa31511e677121191", "input": "Question: We want to know if coffee consumption can be associated with neonatal malformation, so a control case study is designed. We interview a group of women who have had children with malformations and the same in a group of mothers without children with malformations. The interviews will be conducted by two interviewers trained through a previously validated questionnaire. In addition, interviewers ignore whether the interviewee is a case or a control. What kind of bias can we introduce? \n Options: <1> Information bias <2> Memory bias <3> Interviewer bias <4> Selection bias <5> Ecological fallacy", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-513507c0212d449ab4b3fade3ea18bb4", "input": "Question: We want to study if Vitamin D can increase the incidence of breast cancer. In our area we have a population registry of cancer. To achieve our goal, all women diagnosed with breast cancer are selected from the register we have and each case pairs with two controls. What study design has been chosen? \n Options: <1> Prospective cohort study. <2> Cases and controls study. <3> Case-control study nested. <4> Retrospective cohort study. <5> Ecological study", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-863df88f27e340fdb820cd11bc41b58b", "input": "Question: We want to conduct a study to assess the effect of exposure to alcohol consumption on pancreatic cancer. It is possible that the relationship may be affected by the effect of exposure to tobacco use. If you only want to analyze the effect of alcohol consumption, what type of bias can occur? \n Options: <1> Exposure bias <2> Diagnostic bias <3> Performance bias <4> Bias due to surveillance effect (or Hawthorne). <5> Confusing bias", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dd6c42e97c354d8eacb85f3256b68c03", "input": "Question: A study is conducted to evaluate the relationship between lung cancer and exposure to silica. 400 patients diagnosed with lung cancer are selected from the provincial tumor registry and 400 healthy people are chosen randomly from the population resident in the province. The result of the evaluation of this relationship is OR = 1.67; 95% CI = 1.27 - 2.21. It is true: \n Options: <1> There is no relationship between exposure to silica and lung cancer. <2> With this study, the relationship between silica and lung cancer can not be evaluated. <3> It is a randomized experimental study with a positive association between exposure to silica and lung cancer. <4> These data show that there is no statistical significance between exposure to silica and lung cancer. <5> It is a case-control study with a positive association between exposure to silica and lung cancer.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-21e9e1805be54e679772312c60f8a5f7", "input": "Question: Regarding the designs of clinical trials to demonstrate efficacy of antidepressants, which of the following is FALSE? \n Options: <1> The inclusion in the design of clinical trials of secondary safety variables is important in order to establish the therapeutic location of the drugs studied. <2> In studies of depression it is not considered ethical to use a control group with placebo. <3> The efficacy of antidepressants is measured by the proportion of subjects with a predetermined percentage reduction in specific depression scales, such as Hamilton's or Beck's. <4> Due to the great variability of the response between one study and another, comparisons between active drugs with a noninferiority design do not allow to conclude efficacy in a robust way. <5> Although clinical improvement can be seen in one or two weeks, it usually takes 4 weeks of follow-up in clinical trials to establish significant differences.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0db64eb35dac49b08ac07009f68c9c2b", "input": "Question: Regarding the phases of the clinical development of a drug, which of the following characteristics does NOT correspond to a clinical trial in phase 2? \n Options: <1> They are exploratory therapeutic studies. <2> They are performed in a large number of patients (between 100 and 1000). <3> They are used to delimit a range of therapeutic doses. <4> The informed consent of the patients is required for their inclusion in the study. <5> They are usually of short duration.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e5101e5599cc45c297b5a0115d92b52c", "input": "Question: A randomized phase III clinical trial compared the efficacy of a new analgesic (experimental) with a control treatment (tramadol) in patients with chronic pain. The working hypothesis was that experimental treatment reduces pain more than tramadol. The effect of the two treatments was determined at 48 hours by reducing the score marked by the patient on an analog - visual scale from 0 to 100 mm. The mean reduction in the tramadol group was -27 and in the experimental group of -31. The hypothesis was contrasted for the differences, with the corresponding statistical test and a value of p = 0.03 was obtained. Regarding the previous study, which of the following conclusions seems more correct? \n Options: <1> The study demonstrated clinically relevant differences. <2> The differences in the analgesic effect between the two treatments studied were significant. <3> The benefit - risk of the experimental treatment was better than that of tramadol. <4> The experimental treatment was 20% better than tramadol. <5> We can recommend the widespread use of experimental treatment, because it is more effective than tramadol in the treatment of chronic pain.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4fccc3cc270b4e40a660b92b5d75af54", "input": "Question: A clinical trial is conducted in hypertensive patients to assess the effectiveness of a new drug in reducing the occurrence of heart failure. The Relative Risk (RR) of heart failure in relation to the usual drug is 0.69 with a 95% CI of 0.31 to 1.17. What do these results mean? \n Options: <1> The new drug decreases the risk of heart failure significantly. <2> The new drug is very effective and should be marketed. <3> The reduction of the risk of heart failure with the new drug is clinically irrelevant. <4> There are no statistically significant differences between the effect of the drugs studied. <5> The new drug increases the risk of heart failure but not significantly.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dd38a5c9ae9247d29043553c2a59add9", "input": "Question: If we define the cut-off point to diagnose renal failure through the Glomerular Filtering Index (GFR) as 15 ml / min instead of 60 ml / min it is increasing: \n Options: <1> The sensitivity of the IFG. <2> The specificity of the IFG. <3> The Positive Predictive Value of the IFG. <4> The Negative Predictive Value of the IFG. <5> The internal and external validity of the IFG.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c098d3ecbe8d41fb9afab51dfc21c8f5", "input": "Question: We have two tests to diagnose a serious prognosis disease. Test A has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 60% and test B has a sensitivity of 70% and a specificity of 99%. We have an effective treatment but that produces important adverse effects and also has a very high cost. What test would we choose to make the diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Test A because it will detect less false positives. <2> Test A because it has a higher sensitivity. <3> Test B because it will detect more false positives. <4> Test A because it will detect more false negatives. <5> Test B because it has a greater specificity.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bc90918e0ef049e98858ee740ec8cddb", "input": "Question: What type of economic evaluation analysis in health compares the costs of the results of different health interventions measured in years of life adjusted for quality (QALY)? \n Options: <1> Analysis of minimization of costs. <2> Cost effectiveness analysis. <3> Cost utility analysis. <4> Cost benefit analysis. <5> Analysis of the cost of health.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-22f01764032647ff9cef75ca1da17db0", "input": "Question: How would you define quality of care? \n Options: <1> The quality of care is the set of rules to ensure that things are done well. <2> The quality of care can be defined as the absence of incidents in the care of the sick. <3> The quality of care can be defined as the satisfaction of the needs and aspirations of patients-clients, both real and perceived, with the least consumption of resources. <4> The quality of care is defined through the implementation of improvement actions that ensure compliance with the objectives of the Quality Plan of the Health Center. <5> The quality of care is to treat the sick with all possible means.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-053acec3258b4c29ad60a97d34a48138", "input": "Question: A 45-year-old patient with a moderate smoking habit, no drinker, no other history of interest who has been diagnosed with squamous carcinoma of the oropharynx cT1N2b. It is pending decision of treatment in committee. What infectious agent would you be interested in confusing before proposing the treatment? \n Options: <1> Helicobacter pylori. <2> Herpes Simplex virus type 2. <3> Human papilloma virus. <4> Epstein Barr virus. <5> Cytomegalovirus.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b8739001a1a04be588da4bf8850edc17", "input": "Question: A 25-year-old woman with no history of interest or toxic habits who went to the emergency room due to severe pain in her right ear, total inability to open her mouth, sudden onset and no previous history of trauma. It refers to the use of a discharge plate due to a nighttime dental clenching habit. What is your diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Dislocation of the mandibular condyle in front of the joint eminence. <2> Acute joint blockage (anterior dislocation of the articular meniscus). <3> Mandibular condyle fracture. <4> Fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint. <5> Bony ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-66f2504ef8664a0ab97926bf4d206187", "input": "Question: If a patient presents a facial paralysis that does not affect the musculature of the forehead we should think that the lesion is: \n Options: <1> At the supranuclear level. <2> In the geniculate ganglion. <3> In the stylomastoid foramen. <4> In the pontocerebellar angle. <5> In the internal auditory canal.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ce14a78a5af4ff9a0c640db7849e791", "input": "Question: The association of advanced age, diabetes, otalgia that does not progress favorably despite the treatment and paralysis of the VII cranial nerve lead to think of one of the following clinical pictures as the first option: \n Options: <1> Nasopharyngeal carcinoma <2> Granular myringitis. <3> Diffuse labyrinthitis. <4> Carcinoma of the temporal bone. <5> Malignant external otitis", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-12e883b25b2d49ceba6981b5b5e8ccdd", "input": "Question: In what type of hearing loss is the phenomenon of recruitment or recruitment characteristic? \n Options: <1> Transmission hearing loss. <2> Mixed hearing loss. <3> Central hearing loss. <4> Retrocochlear hearing loss. <5> Cochlear hearing loss.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2148e575aac2446cab1be3f1b0ad3748", "input": "Question: In the presence of a patient with suspected blistering pemphigoid, which of the following tests should we perform to confirm the diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Dermatoscopy. <2> Cultivation of the contents of a blister. <3> Skin biopsy for culture. <4> Skin biopsy for histological study and direct immunofluorescence. <5> Analytical with determination of antinuclear and anti DNA antibodies.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-615e269486874ab2ad8ea004afb2b494", "input": "Question: A 24-year-old boy who, after 3 days of high-risk sexual contact, has numerous pustular, small, very pruritic lesions that progress to minute erosions affecting the entire glans and inner face of the prepuce. Indicate which is, among the following, the most probable diagnostic orientation: \n Options: <1> Genital candidiasis <2> Chancroid. <3> Secondary syphilis <4> Balanitis by Trichomonas. <5> Fungal infection by dermatophytes.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-40e93545a796468292a3bbb5426e8923", "input": "Question: What is the most important prognostic factor in Stage 1 Melanoma? \n Options: <1> Serum LDH level. <2> Tumor thickness measured in the Breslow index. <3> The presence of clinical or histological ulceration. <4> Number of metastases. <5> The mitotic index. The mitotic index.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bb5fd4cfa52040288a85d1c9d9a37e72", "input": "Question: The most frequent cause of irreversible visual loss in the Western world in people over 50 is: \n Options: <1> Diabetic retinopathy. <2> Simple chronic glaucoma. <3> Macular degeneration associated with age. <4> Retinal detachment. <5> Waterfalls.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4ec1d2a52d2b448fa83681448fce6f5d", "input": "Question: A 23-year-old woman goes to the emergency room because she is very nervous after an argument with her partner. In his clinical history several similar demands are reflected in the previous year, in two of them after an autolytic gesture. There are also frequent conflicts in relationships, work changes and family discussions. She says she feels misunderstood by everyone including the psychiatrists who care for her. The diagnosis would be: \n Options: <1> Borderline personality disorder. <2> Disorder of the histrionic personality. <3> Dysthymia <4> Dissociative disorder <5> Depersonalization disorder.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a3a7532509a84abe9065fce29dd2352b", "input": "Question: 50-year-old woman who for 1 month has a depressed mood, anhedonia, memory loss, easy crying, loss of energy, sense of worthlessness and guilt, marked weight loss and early awakening, as well as inability to perform their tasks usual at home. In separation proceedings for 3 months. Point out the most appropriate diagnosis: \n Options: <1> Dysthymia <2> Pseudodementia <3> Depressive adaptive disorder. <4> Episode of major depression. <5> Minor depression", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-45b0b4f2128b488184ac6a0739f9a97f", "input": "Question: A 43-year-old man smokes 20 cigarettes a day, who comes to his clinic taken by a family member, because he has been sleeping for a few days, less than 3 hours a day, without mentioning fatigue. He adds that he has begun to spend large amounts of money, compromising family finances. It is verbose, with acceleration of thought and megalomaniacal appearance. As a personal history, there are no diseases of interest except for a depressive episode 5 years ago. He does not believe that anything happens to him, but he has agreed to go to the consultation with the intention of seeking help to quit smoking. There is no consumption of other toxins and the analytical and neurological examination do not provide abnormal data. In this patient, taking into account his most probable diagnosis, which treatment would be the LESS indicated: \n Options: <1> Bupropion. <2> Valproic acid. <3> Lithium carbonate. <4> Risperidone. <5> Olanzapine.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f1404f210ef14660a43e9dd45a7dfbda", "input": "Question: All of the following are common complications of untreated generalized anxiety disorder EXCEPT: \n Options: <1> Consumption of alcohol and drug abuse. <2> Psychosomatic disorders. <3> Depressive disorders. <4> Psychotic disorders <5> Suicidal behavior", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a039f5c1c08b455cae6077df3d955a73", "input": "Question: Which of the following factors is NOT associated with good prognosis of conversion disorder? \n Options: <1> Acute start <2> Presence of stressors clearly identifiable at the beginning of the disease. <3> High IQ <4> Absence of other psychiatric disorders and legal processes. <5> Presence of convulsions and tremors.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b404027f3d3c4d768ab80bc1c772bd79", "input": "Question: Which of these statements is FALSE regarding stupor? \n Options: <1> It is an alteration of consciousness. <2> It can occur in melancholy. <3> It supposes a reversible state by moderate stimuli. <4> The term is used in states of mutism and reduction of motor activity. <5> In Neurology it is a state that precedes coma.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fcec17888c804137b571d1efb87b9fb4", "input": "Question: A 26-year-old woman with no previous psychiatric history, she went to the ER brought by her parents, who explained that she had been overactive, nervous, insomniac for a few days. They explain that he obsessively reviews the house's electrical installation in search of video cameras and microphones. In the interview, she tells us that she is being watched by the Police because she is a galactic correspondent with special powers. Which of the following options should NOT be considered as a differential diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Obsessive compulsive disorder <2> Schizophrenia. <3> Manic episode. <4> Psychosis due to the consumption of toxic substances. <5> Brain tumor.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-30f02c25cccd4ff2ad3fc3cfb71c2ea6", "input": "Question: We serve a patient who has just suffered a traffic accident. She is conscious and when taking the constants she has a systolic blood pressure of 70 mmHg and a heart rate of 45 beats / minute. In addition, the skin of the extremities is hot. What is the most likely cause of the shock? \n Options: <1> Hypovolemic shock <2> Intrinsic cardiogenic shock. <3> Neurogenic shock <4> Septic shock. <5> Obstructive cardiogenic shock.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9f737bedd0994483a6cefe4ddc676d6b", "input": "Question: A 44-year-old patient who suffers a traumatism due to a high intensity traffic accident. Upon admission to the hospital, he is conscious and oriented and manifests pain at the cervical and pelvic level as well as functional impotence in the right lower limb. The physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg with 100 beats / minute, an abolition of the vesicular murmur in the lower third of the right hemithorax and dullness to the percussion thereof. The chest radiograph shows a right pleural effusion, also in the lower third. Which of these statements do you think is correct? \n Options: <1> It is a large pulmonary hemorrhage so the patient must be operated on urgently by thoracotomy. <2> Since it is an intrathoracic hemorrhage, spontaneous hemostasis is expected, so no therapeutic measures are indicated. <3> Drainage of the pleural cavity with a heavy gauge catheter and monitoring of the patient is indicated. <4> The simple needle-evacuator with needle is the treatment of choice. <5> It is most likely a chylothorax, so a treatment with restriction of heavy chain triglycerides should be established.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ed1c8b2d9e554608bf6594935d20cc99", "input": "Question: A 19-year-old man consulted for a 24-hour history of pain, swelling and functional impotence of the right knee accompanied by a fever of 38\u00baC. Physical examination reveals inflammatory signs and joint effusion in the right knee. The analytical data show a leukocytosis with neutrophilia and an elevation of the C-reactive protein. The syndromic diagnosis of acute monoarthritis is made. What is the most likely etiologic diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Arthritis by microcrystals. <2> Reactive arthritis <3> Bacterial infectious arthritis. <4> Infectious arthritis due to mycobacteria. <5> Rheumatoid arthritis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-824590ae48924b088f143bc83877563e", "input": "Question: A 29-year-old woman, obese, with no history of interest, who consulted for a bilateral, intense, pulsatile headache lasting one month, accompanied by horizontal diplopia and episodes of monocular amaurosis of seconds duration. The exploration is normal, except for the presence of bilateral papilledema. Which of these tests do you think will allow you to fully confirm your diagnosis ?: \n Options: <1> Ultrasound of supra-aortic trunks. <2> Magnetic resonance of the skull. <3> Electroencephalogram. <4> Lumbar puncture. <5> Visual evoked potentials.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ef352bd95bbd4ae9ab29d430441282a9", "input": "Question: All the following diseases can be accompanied by palpable splenomegaly, EXCEPT one. Indicate the latter: \n Options: <1> Non-Hodgkin lymphoma. <2> Multiple myeloma. <3> Tricholeukemia. <4> Gaucher disease. <5> Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a674d9f3514d4adfb47ba0b9641ff4d3", "input": "Question: Adolescent of 16 years who consults for primary amenorrhea. He does not have medical-surgical history of interest. On physical examination, we found female secondary sex characteristics, female external genitalia, with stage III-IV breast development, scanty pubic and axillary hair. He presents a stature in the 90th percentile for his age. The plain radiograph reveals a bone age of 15.8 years. The analytical study reveals an estradiol of 50 pg / ml, and high gonadotropins. Which of the following clinical entities would be compatible with the diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Klinefelter syndrome. <2> Kallman syndrome. <3> Constitutional growth retardation. <4> Congenital adrenal hyperplasia. <5> Complete androgenic insensitivity syndrome.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ab09f23e078d446cae7a01903432b1f4", "input": "Question: Which of the following parenteral vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy? \n Options: <1> Vaccine against tetanus. <2> Vaccine against measles. <3> Vaccine against whooping cough. <4> Vaccine against hepatitis B. <5> Vaccine against the flu.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-69afa0273d7b459a999803bf0b03bb65", "input": "Question: In a patient with liver cirrhosis, which of the following is the most useful procedure for measuring the response of ascites to diuretic therapy? \n Options: <1> Measure the volume of urine for 24 hours. <2> Measure the abdominal perimeter daily. <3> Determine each week the albumin gradient between serum and ascites. <4> Record the weight every day. <5> Evaluate natriuresis every 48 hours.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9011118a1a80417691456c12c1f2f50c", "input": "Question: The area that acts as a connection between automatic emotional responses and the control of complex behaviors, guiding behavior to control the manifestation of emotional responses, is: \n Options: <1> The angular gyrus of the limbic system. <2> The convolution or lobe of the insula. <3> The prefrontal orbitofrontal or ventromedial cortex. <4> The thalamus <5> The cortex of somatosensory association.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d1e1c02121d42b2af58d37c3db2ffa7", "input": "Question: The reinforcement circuit can be activated by electrical stimulation of the mesolimbic system, originating in the ventral tegmental area and projecting: \n Options: <1> To the hippocampus, inhibiting the release of dopamine. <2> To the nucleus accumbens, causing release of dopamine. <3> To the prefrontal cortex, stimulating the release of glutamate. <4> A mesencephalic reticular formation, causing release of glutamate. <5> To the pituitary, inhibiting the release of dopamine.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e2760c0a0a3e4bc7aa05e664f92be5b6", "input": "Question: The islets of Langerhans of the pancreas secrete and release: \n Options: <1> Cholecystokinin <2> Insulin and glucagon. <3> Vasopressin <4> Adrenaline and noradrenaline. <5> Prolactin", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7bb7eabe610a45aba1bc1c1761fdcf50", "input": "Question: Exposure to androgens in a sensitive or critical period, at the beginning of development, causes masculinization of the sexual and behavioral organs. This effect has received the name of: \n Options: <1> Motivational effect <2> Effect of pheromones. <3> Activating effect. <4> Organizer effect. <5> Biological effect", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b4ee7a9cf4fc4ca9bc42096951e6ccac", "input": "Question: When the behaviors learned by repetition, such as driving, become automatic and routine, they become controlled by: \n Options: <1> The primary motor cortex <2> The prefrontal cortex. <3> The ganglia or basal nuclei. <4> The central nucleus of the amygdala. <5> The hippocampus.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-02870d1e06e24867b1a2931e4a128766", "input": "Question: The neurofibrillary tangles are anomalous structures that are observed in Alzheimer's patients and that consist of: \n Options: <1> Neurons in process of extinction by accumulations of intertwined filaments of tau protein that alter the transport of substances in the cytoplasm. <2> Extracellular deposits containing a nucleus of beta-amylase protein surrounded by degenerating axons and dendrites. <3> Proteins that serve to facilitate the production and transport of a cerebral neurotropic factor. <4> Accumulation of astrocytes and microgliocytes with the ability to react to external pathogens. <5> Proteins produced by a defective gene that increases the likelihood of Parkinson's disease.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-005d1699a0214f1cb975a4c88bf42a27", "input": "Question: In the preoperative period (2-6 years) the child usually thinks that the things of nature (rivers, mountains, etc.) have been built by the human being. This feature is called: \n Options: <1> Animism. <2> Realism. <3> Artificialism <4> Utilitarianism. <5> Pre-operative error", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ea1b42da505742179f5bc74cd7232e65", "input": "Question: The pattern of attachment that is observed more frequently in children is: \n Options: <1> Anxious attachment <2> Anxious avoidant attachment. <3> Ambivalent attachment <4> Secure attachment <5> Detachment.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fe5b6c6e489f445693e285ac4762f396", "input": "Question: From Piaget's epistemology, individuals are able to construct new schemes because they have inherited two intellectual functions that are: \n Options: <1> Reinforcement and punishment. <2> Organization and adaptation. <3> Assimilation and accommodation. <4> Self-regulation and assimilation. <5> Primary and secondary circular reaction.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7f614a769ec244df883c3268c36c2831", "input": "Question: If I can not learn my new phone number because I always see the first three digits of the old one, what is the name of that type of interference? \n Options: <1> Proactive <2> Retroactive. <3> Coactive <4> Reactive <5> Protoactive", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-77292b7abc9241249ca50e9e5b66340a", "input": "Question: What are the characteristics that favor intrinsic motivation? \n Options: <1> Self-determination and competence. <2> Condescension and complexity <3> Routine and condescension. <4> Novelty and unpredictability. <5> Simplicity and reward.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d0255cd6bc84136942854c417cd7faa", "input": "Question: What are the attributions to failure that are most likely to produce helplessness? \n Options: <1> The internal, unstable and general attributions. <2> The internal attributions, stable and specific. <3> The external, stable and general attributions. <4> The internal, stable and general attributions. <5> The external attributions, stable and specific.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-577190386878485eaad4833cf60831df", "input": "Question: What kind of memory can we use to plan what we have to do to arrive on time for an appointment next Tuesday? \n Options: <1> Prospective report. <2> Autobiographical memory <3> Episodic memory. <4> Semantic memory <5> Procedural memory.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f95aab2463cb4ed6813803a98a0df08a", "input": "Question: Which of the following emotions facilitates more exhaustive behaviors? \n Options: <1> Sadness. <2> Go to. <3> Disgust. <4> Guilt. <5> Rage.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-05c17820b81d4ed1a65524b90b668af6", "input": "Question: The minimum amount of auditory stimulation needed to begin to identify the lyrics of a song is a threshold: \n Options: <1> Absolute. <2> Subliminal. <3> Differential. <4> Relative. <5> Musical.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eda828382c4d4c128fda9867c9376392", "input": "Question: What kind of learning manifests itself without obvious reinforcement? \n Options: <1> Latent learning. <2> Vicarial learning. <3> Learning by insight. <4> Instrumental learning <5> None.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c71386db65704f7f86b28c7880c4e239", "input": "Question: If I propose to a friend to solve a problem like the tower in Hanoi, I will be proposing a problem of: \n Options: <1> Transformation. <2> Induction of structures. <3> Ordination. <4> Social relationships. <5> Complex analogies", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a51a385a65114f58b31261f52168db64", "input": "Question: What sleep disorder with onset in childhood and adolescence has a lower family incidence? \n Options: <1> Kleine-Levin syndrome. <2> Narcolepsy <3> Circadian rhythm disorder, delayed sleep type. <4> Night terrors. <5> Somnambulism.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e2d68cca0c744568822721111853a4ba", "input": "Question: What feature or dimension of attention is most relevant when the child looks for a red paint in his school case full of other colors? \n Options: <1> Orientation. <2> Flexibility. <3> Concentration. <4> Alert. <5> Persistence.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a683a0b7d37b4450a4a752fdef7702aa", "input": "Question: Which of the following is NOT a component of dry bed training for bedwetting? \n Options: <1> The use of the alarm. <2> The positive practice <3> The programmed awakening. <4> The positive reinforcement. <5> The sphincteric exercises.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ac73945626e4628b8932396eafd26b2", "input": "Question: According to Rehm's theory, what failure of the self-control process explains to a greater extent the pessimistic view of life in adolescent depression? \n Options: <1> Selective attention to immediate consequences. <2> The establishment of unrealistic goals. <3> The erroneous attributions. <4> Deficit self-reinforcement. <5> The excessive punishment.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ea1b33b09a5647cf9452da75212e4a37", "input": "Question: What degree of mental disability corresponds to an IQ of thirty-six? \n Options: <1> Mental disability limit. <2> Mild mental disability. <3> Moderate mental disability. <4> Severe mental disability. <5> Deep mental disability.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7551b248b82f4516965eadd8782949fb", "input": "Question: In what phases of the dream do the enuretic episodes occur? \n Options: <1> In the phases of light sleep. <2> In the phases of deep sleep. <3> In the phases of paradoxical sleep. <4> In the dream phases. <5> Indistinctly in any phase of the dream.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f27eee3a07c84ef2bab82cb20cfe2a93", "input": "Question: With what explanatory theory of childhood phobias is the Napalkov effect more closely related? \n Options: <1> The theory of the two factors of Mowrer. <2> The theory of the incubation of Eysenck. <3> The theory of social learning of Bandura. <4> The bioinformational theory of Lang's emotion. <5> The anxiety sensitivity theory of Reiss.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8e5ec82d7620448abec5bc9581849832", "input": "Question: On Tuesday after dinner an eight-year-old boy asks permission to play with the video game console, but the parents refuse because it is too late and he has to go to bed the next day. The child starts giving the murga until the parents give in. According to the theoretical approach of Patterson's family coercion process, what happens to the parental giving behavior? \n Options: <1> It is punished positively. <2> It is punished negatively. <3> Extinguishes. <4> It is reinforced positively. <5> It is reinforced negatively.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2257882c60934fccb7ed827c58a9be7b", "input": "Question: What mineral deficit has been especially observed in pica cases? \n Options: <1> Calcium deficit <2> Zinc deficit. <3> Lead deficit <4> Potassium deficit <5> Sodium deficit", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-48fac579f39e4fd7ac02d275ef2f9fa6", "input": "Question: In what kind of tasks do the attentional problems characteristic of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder manifest themselves? \n Options: <1> Simple, novel and targeting tasks. <2> Complex, novel and capacity tasks. <3> Simple, routine and selection tasks. <4> Complex, novel and organizational tasks. <5> Complex, routine and surveillance tasks.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fa73ba66fe1f47ebacfab015e8d4e56f", "input": "Question: A teenager with obsessive-compulsive disorder phones the Toxicological Information Service to ask if he can safely use an insecticide for cockroaches. What is the name of this escape behavior? \n Options: <1> Ascertainment. <2> Rationalization. <3> Reinsurance. <4> Ritualization <5> Testing.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-82812a0306084044997629d5a8d6639b", "input": "Question: What author proposes that the structure and functions of the personality are organized in three levels: dispositional traits, personal interests or concerns and life history? \n Options: <1> Pelechano <2> Singer. <3> Coast. <4> McAdams. <5> Pervin.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3938ccc8de8949abbecd919e5f91d250", "input": "Question: According to the theory of social learning of J.B. Rotter, both general and specific expectations are: \n Options: <1> Goals or objectives. <2> Innate predispositions. <3> Judgments or beliefs. <4> Objective odds <5> Incentives or reinforcers.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cd77337750fb4f789dbae08dc25ff6e4", "input": "Question: What construct refers to the degree to which people are able to express commitment, control and challenge in their actions, thoughts and feelings? \n Options: <1> Coping strategies. <2> Resistant personality <3> Subjective well-being. <4> Type A behavior pattern <5> Extraversion", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c1d1c4e055cf40229b16fb8e1f48dd27", "input": "Question: The Life Orientation Test (LOT developed by Scheier and Carver in 1985) is a test that measures: \n Options: <1> General expectations related to optimism. <2> Psychological well-being throughout the life cycle. <3> Emotional coping styles. <4> Orientation and sexual preferences. <5> Positive emotions and happiness.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b59cb79e617a4c249dc8697c6a51e0df", "input": "Question: Within the framework of the Theory of Self-Discrepancy (E.T. Higgins), aspects of the self that contain information about aspirations, goals, expectations or desires are called: \n Options: <1> I Real. <2> I Ideal <3> I should. <4> Selfconcept. <5> Ego.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c65a7da23e764d15ae398e1692febbe4", "input": "Question: Which author proposes a personality model with dimensions of temperament and character ?: \n Options: <1> H.J. Eysenck <2> J.A. Gray. <3> P.T. Costa and R.R. McCrae. <4> C.R. Cloninger. <5> G. Kelly.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c17336c4f57e4563a2617d41e293d270", "input": "Question: The Big Five are dimensions of personal functioning that have been obtained from the analysis of: \n Options: <1> The behavior registered in the laboratory. <2> The genetic polymorphisms of the individual. <3> The common language present in the dictionary. <4> Observation in the clinical context. <5> The electrical functioning of the Nervous System.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e2900f988012463c929bfd50f050e827", "input": "Question: For R.B. Cattell, the T data would correspond to the information collected through: \n Options: <1> Self-reports <2> Third party evaluation scales. <3> Objective tests. <4> A questionnaire like the 16PF. <5> The grid technique.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9059b0f32c974f7cb70f1368011a28a8", "input": "Question: Taking into account the relationships between the theory of the four temperaments and the personality model of H.J. Eysenck, an angry temper will correspond to a person: \n Options: <1> Introverted and Stable Emotional. <2> Apathetic and Stable Emotional. <3> Introverted and Unstable Emotional. <4> Extroverted and Unstable Emotional. <5> Introverted and Anxious", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b4c1e81c16ac4226a0b94d840969a905", "input": "Question: What characteristics increase the reliability of the psychophysiological evaluation? \n Options: <1> The law of initial values. <2> The autonomic balance and homeostasis. <3> The latency and duration of the answers. <4> The control of environmental artifacts and the organism. <5> The reactivity", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bf7aeddb92f84296a517905e2f69ddb0", "input": "Question: What characterizes the objective techniques of psychophysiological evaluation? \n Options: <1> They are tests with a high ecological validity. <2> Environmental factors (e.g., light, temperature) can affect the reliability of the record. <3> The anxious subjects usually have the same level of activation as the non-anxious ones. <4> Subjects with different anxiety disorders usually have similar patterns of activation at baseline. <5> Subjects with different anxiety disorders usually have similar responses to different stimuli.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3965b7bf003c47d59b53deb58bec1f4b", "input": "Question: Reactivity is considered a source of error when using Observation as a method of obtaining information. Where does it come from? \n Options: <1> From the context in which the Observation is generated. <2> Of the observed subject. <3> Of the chosen procedure. <4> From the observer. <5> Of the type of instrument chosen.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fbe15840294e43ee91140006e751d927", "input": "Question: The psychological report must have the possibility of: \n Options: <1> Be written as the format of a structured interview. <2> Use any psychological test even if they are not adapted and measured in our country. <3> Be replicated or contrasted <4> Be binding for the Judge (in case of judicial Report). <5> Be impersonalized", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3937e88a2fd24230a331f21c078bf94d", "input": "Question: The verbal type report can also be considered as: \n Options: <1> The Barnum Effect. <2> A return interview. <3> A structured interview <4> As a simple recount of the data obtained from the tests. <5> A report of this type is never advisable.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d427574177844cb68bbc955535bc3c72", "input": "Question: Following the classification of Pervin (1979) and Campbell (1953-1957) on the methods of collecting information, point out one of the techniques representative of the psychometric methodology: \n Options: <1> The Wechsler Intelligence Scale. <2> Incomplete sentences, by Kelly and Fisher. <3> Thematic Appreciation Test, by Murray. <4> Test of Personal Construct, by Kelly (1955). <5> The autorregistros.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-00dd1e07ccdd4daabcd5b6f896157e02", "input": "Question: In what kind of technique can the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Assessment Questionnaire be framed? \n Options: <1> Self-report <2> Scalar techniques. <3> As a self-registration technique. <4> Within the projective techniques. <5> Of personal constructions.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9313ab8f146340deaef04a1222554dc8", "input": "Question: From which model of the psychological evaluation are the grid techniques and others appropriate to evaluate the meanings of the subject? \n Options: <1> Constructivist or constructionist model. <2> Behavioral Model <3> Clinical-dynamic model, Medical-psychiatric perspective. <4> Correlational model. <5> Clinical-dynamic model, Psychoanalytical perspective.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b232b8bb16ed4d2eb983a952fb821e68", "input": "Question: What model of psychological evaluation jointly contemplates the basic objectives of: Description, Classification, Comparison and Prediction? \n Options: <1> Clinical-dynamic model, medical-psychiatric perspective. <2> Humanist Model <3> Clinical-dynamic model, Psychoanalytical perspective. <4> Behavioral Model <5> Psychometric, Correlational or Attribute Model.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7cbe6a03ac3c49b4849266bd537e600f", "input": "Question: What is the model of psychological evaluation whose basic assumption is that abnormal behavior is associated with endogenous or internal factors, whether biological or intrapsychic, whose object of study is the symptom, which will allow us to build syndromes and subsequently be able to apply a treatment? \n Options: <1> The Behavior model. <2> The model of the Attribute. <3> The Clinical-dynamic model, Psychoanalytical perspective. <4> The Clinical-dynamic model, Medical-Psychiatric perspective. <5> The Constructivist model.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8451243432734f9fbb09ef45092da320", "input": "Question: In the history of the Psychological Evaluation, the Aristotelian Physiognomy makes its influence felt in the later works of the authors: \n Options: <1> Krestschmer and Sheldon. <2> Binet and Simon. <3> Discards <4> Juan Huarte from SAN. Juan. <5> Hermann Rorschach.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-306def68eded4ee995befac4f054e32f", "input": "Question: Which statement is correct regarding the objective techniques in psychological evaluation? \n Options: <1> The Electroencephalograph allows to collect responses from the somatic nervous system. <2> The Purdue manual precision device allows the central nervous system to collect responses. <3> Most of the answers that measure these techniques are easily controllable by the evaluated. <4> The administration, registration and punctuation is usually done using devices. <5> The polygraph allows to collect cognitive responses.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-32ddecaa54134f92bf9bd643ae350aa5", "input": "Question: To assess social development in childhood and adolescence, what factors influence the selection of suitable procedures? \n Options: <1> The availability of instruments that allow obtaining valid and reliable measures in this area. <2> The age of the child and his / her linguistic expression skills. <3> The nature of the behavior or ability to be evaluated, the level of development and the form of manifestation of the behavior, individually or in a group. <4> The skills and experience of the evaluator with the procedures and evaluation techniques commonly used in this area. <5> Access to standardized tests according to age, sex and special conditions.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d1c39950a6b0482b8959ec41b8d9a36f", "input": "Question: With respect to which psychological problems are the correlations between the different informants consulted in child evaluation higher? \n Options: <1> Internalized problems. <2> Behavioral problems <3> Personality problems. <4> Socialization problems <5> In relation to the temporary start and intensity of the problems reported.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f2872fabb53644e1b27a5a3a329ec711", "input": "Question: Which of the following tests fits within the G-Factor Tests? \n Options: <1> The test of primary mental abilities (PMA). <2> The test of progressive matrices (Raven). <3> The battery of differential abilities (DAT). <4> The McCarthy scales (MSCA). <5> The Bayley scales of child development.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-113b2a43d536479791f8a9ab58629456", "input": "Question: What are the advantages of the inventories usually used in child assessment? \n Options: <1> They provide standardized scores and reduce evaluation costs. <2> They facilitate obtaining detailed information about the problem. <3> They provide eneatipos. <4> They allow to gather information from different areas related to the current problem. <5> They can be applied to both adults and children.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-278914b316f2494292dca611e381cda1", "input": "Question: What aspects characterize the evaluation of children's problems compared to the evaluation of adults? \n Options: <1> Employ techniques and instruments with psychometric guarantees of reliability and validity. <2> Use especially observation, emphasize overt behaviors and emphasize the external determinants of them. <3> Enable the planning of the subsequent treatment. <4> Ensure the confidentiality of the information obtained. <5> Carry out the evaluation through the application of different techniques and instruments.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1d31f9cd353947d08eba9fe197fe3db9", "input": "Question: The response trend is an important source of error that diminishes the quality of: \n Options: <1> Projective techniques. <2> The semi-structured interview. <3> The methodology of the Observation. <4> The Self-reports. <5> The Objective Techniques.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1685d77a18f64ca4bb36debffbbdfb31", "input": "Question: What attitude should the evaluator show in the first interview? \n Options: <1> You must start using closed questions. <2> You should use questions that go from the particular to the general. <3> You must take care of the verbal aspects (intensity, tone, etc.) to promote communication. <4> You should not focus on the problem or problems that you are consulting. <5> It must interrupt the interviewee and limit their interactions.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-959a717219b94e129fe502ce80220613", "input": "Question: Given the purpose of the interview, what would be the CORRECT response? \n Options: <1> The diagnostic interview has as a priority objective to guide. <2> The research interview has as a priority objective to operate a change. <3> The therapeutic objective of the therapeutic interview is to establish a diagnosis. <4> The vocational orientation interview has as a priority objective to advise on future studies or professions. <5> The main objective of the consultative interview is to investigate the evaluation technique itself.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-34f0c24866014487bc464c985ebd2143", "input": "Question: What quality criteria must a psychological assessment instrument meet? \n Options: <1> Validity, or degree to which the scores of a test are free of measurement error. <2> Reliability, or degree to which the scores of a test are free of measurement error. <3> Have a coefficient of internal consistency above 0.40. <4> To have a low proportion of the variance observed explained by the real variance. <5> Include a high error variance.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7ede9a56bfae4a1faf1abf187fac0979", "input": "Question: Within the Psychological Evaluation, the Self Registers, as a strategy to obtain information, how can they be considered? \n Options: <1> As a type of Experimental technique. <2> As a type of Self-reports. <3> As a modality of objective techniques. <4> As an Observational technique. <5> As a modality of the Semantic Differential of Osgood.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ccb6da1ac7a443c99d51bf39780d310e", "input": "Question: What characteristic is true with respect to the tests referred to the criterion? \n Options: <1> The purpose is to describe the subject in the continuum of some trait. <2> The objective is to maximize individual differences. <3> The scores obtained only have meaning in relation to the results of the normative group. <4> They allow to interpret the scores in absolute sense, without reference to any group. <5> The items are usually derived from some feature theory.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d9b86996344d493ba215c2d2b86421a7", "input": "Question: Which of the following reliability calculation methods can not be carried out with a single application of the test? \n Options: <1> Alpha coefficient of Cronbach. <2> Guttman-Flanagan. <3> Rulon <4> Method of parallel forms. <5> Method of the two halves.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-af79ddb0d9b04957890aa58a1a40e7cb", "input": "Question: In a frequency distribution, how do we call the number of times a variable value or any other lower value repeats in the sample? \n Options: <1> Proportion. <2> Accumulated absolute frequency. <3> Accumulated percentage. <4> Absolute frecuency. <5> Accumulated relative frequency.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ad2f0327df80458fac17c14f588e32f5", "input": "Question: Which of these equalities is INCORRECT? \n Options: <1> Decil 1 = Centil 10. <2> Quartile 1 = Percentile 25. <3> Quartil 2 = Centil 20. <4> Decil 5 = Medium. <5> Quartile 3 = Centil 75.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-951c38e726c1458694a84708bb8249d4", "input": "Question: What is the sampling model whose principle is to directly access the natural agglomerations of units in the population? (workers in factories, students in universities ...): \n Options: <1> Stratified sampling. <2> Simple random sampling. <3> Conglomerate sampling. <4> Systematic sampling. <5> Sampling in time.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a0a64da98e524fb6a9410d6bf36c442e", "input": "Question: Which of these graphical representations would you use to examine the relationship between two or more quantitative variables? \n Options: <1> Sectors diagrams. <2> Scatter plot. <3> Histogram <4> Chart of boxes. <5> Bar chart.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee9fa56fd0924899ab641c44948685e4", "input": "Question: Which of the following multivariate analysis techniques analyzes the covariation presented by a set of metric variables, susceptible of being synthesized in a set of common factors that lie behind them? \n Options: <1> Multiple discriminant analysis. <2> Multiple linear regression <3> Multivariate analysis of variance. <4> Factorial analysis. <5> Analysis of structural equations.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8587d2018cd7487cb174220527663c36", "input": "Question: What kind of validity does the degree of confidence refer to, with which it can be inferred that the cause-effect relationships between the variables of an investigation are interpretable in the sense suggested by the researcher? \n Options: <1> Internal validity <2> External validity <3> Discriminant validity <4> Ecological validity <5> Construct validity", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6dcacd128b0a4935b046f59b13033c8a", "input": "Question: The Latin square designs are a type of: \n Options: <1> Random designs. <2> Block designs. <3> Intra-subject designs. <4> Mixed designs <5> Unifactorial designs.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-738fbc529ed54044b41db66c22a23464", "input": "Question: In a quasi-experimental design: \n Options: <1> There is no specific intervention by the researcher on the independent variable or treatment. <2> Spontaneous behavior is studied in natural situations. <3> It constitutes the maximum degree of intervention and internal control. <4> Study groups can not be organized by random assignment. <5> It represents the maximum degree of naturalness and the minimum internal control.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f2d65f27de0e47b4b0959108ad9ba1ca", "input": "Question: What conclusion is reached in Asch's theory about the effects of context on social perception? \n Options: <1> If a trait is defined as central, it will be central in any context. <2> Traits, peripheral or central, are independent of the context in which they appear. <3> The same trait can be central in one context and peripheral in another. <4> The final impression is the result of the sum of each of the features separately. <5> The final impression is the result of the arithmetic mean of the values \u200b\u200bof each of the features separately.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-feb9f71622494e37a0db425471efbfc9", "input": "Question: On certain occasions, when we form an impression of others, we are influenced by our beliefs about the traits that go together in people. What theories put this fact in relief? \n Options: <1> Implicit Theories of the Personality. <2> Theories of Corresponding Inferences. <3> Theories of the Integration of Information. <4> Theories of the Central Traits. <5> Theory of Social Identity.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-037c93db2b01424a96695c8850844871", "input": "Question: What is the tendency to think that others behave as oneself in a certain situation? \n Options: <1> Perceptive selection. <2> Last attribution error. <3> False consensus. <4> Self-centered attribution error. <5> Confirmatory trends", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-da647fe82a43437b8158eb4b0938bc8c", "input": "Question: Imagine that you are in the supermarket with your neighbor and notice that you have a bruise on your eye. What heuristic would be applied if it overestimates the possibility that it is due to a problem of abuse? \n Options: <1> Representativeness <2> Availability / Accessibility <3> Simulation. <4> Anchoring-Adjustment. <5> False consensus.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-381624b59be844d59a64f31bfae7f80b", "input": "Question: What theory would explain our need to reduce or eliminate the psychological distress produced when we have to choose between two equally attractive alternatives? \n Options: <1> Ingenuous Theory of Action. <2> Theory of Cognitive Dissonance. <3> Theory of Social Comparison <4> Theory of the Psychological Reactance. <5> Theory of the Cognitive Response.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a7d989d14df04ba5b99e047759a84809", "input": "Question: According to Ajzen's Theory of Planned Action, what would be the direct determinant of the behavior? \n Options: <1> The intention. <2> The definition of the situation. <3> The definition of the event. <4> The attitude towards behavior. <5> The perceived behavioral control.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-71ffb2875a4549199cf7612091b4a5d8", "input": "Question: In relation to the process of formation of impressions, what does the phenomenon of Perceptual Defense refer to? \n Options: <1> Low threshold to perceive threatening stimuli. <2> Low threshold of recognition before stimuli that satisfy our needs. <3> High threshold to perceive threatening stimuli. <4> High threshold of recognition before positive stimuli. <5> Low threshold to perceive both negative and positive stimuli.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a19f849dd9b243c2afce6bd74b52855a", "input": "Question: Point out the CORRECT statement about the treatment program for the challenging defiant disorder created by Barkley: \n Options: <1> Its main scope of application is the classroom. <2> It makes an intensive use of modeling. <3> It is a training program for parents. <4> Comorbidity with ADHD discourages the application of this program. <5> It consists of twelve steps.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dcf9aec4b03147e488a41cfea5d29ede", "input": "Question: For what kind of interventions in the problems of child and youth behavior has Patterson's theory of coercion served as a conceptual model? \n Options: <1> For the training of parents of children with behavioral disorders. <2> For rehabilitation interventions based on cognitive-behavioral. <3> For interventions carried out in therapeutic communities. <4> For referral programs that try to avoid the stigmatizing effects of labeling. <5> For the economies of tokens carried out in prisons and reformatories.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c452546f51d64691b04853639a42d187", "input": "Question: For which of the following children's problems has the effectiveness of the symbolic modeling technique been demonstrated? \n Options: <1> Childhood depression <2> Behavioral disorders associated with ADHD. <3> The autism <4> The shyness. <5> The selective mutism.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d11a697c580f412dbbfbcfbe82fa3f94", "input": "Question: On what model are the intervention programs most successful in the early treatment of childhood autism based? \n Options: <1> In the applied analysis of behavior. <2> In the neomediational behaviorism. <3> In the theory of social learning. <4> In Lacanian psychoanalysis. <5> In the theory of attachment.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d84fba73bd09462e97e0d978cf7c109e", "input": "Question: What technique, based on the theory of social learning, is considered well established for the treatment of childhood fears? \n Options: <1> The practice reinforced. <2> The self-instructions of courage. <3> The modeling <4> Modeling with participation. <5> The live exhibition.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-669483a958894da69498287e3c3fe357", "input": "Question: What are the components of the habit inversion procedure for the treatment of tics? \n Options: <1> The self-registration of tics and relaxation. <2> Self-control and contingency management by parents. <3> Exposure with response prevention and cognitive restructuring. <4> The training in increasing awareness of the occurrence of tics and the practice of a competitive response. <5> Relaxation and the practice of a competitive response.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a359de94e72843919edd6f9da0a2251c", "input": "Question: Which of the following is an advantage of the alarm method for the treatment of enuresis? \n Options: <1> Its mechanism of action is well known. <2> It does not require awakening the child on a scheduled basis throughout the night. <3> It acts faster than desmopressin. <4> It does not require extra fluid intake (overlearning) as part of the treatment protocol. <5> Acts faster than dry bed training.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b4cd852ac79748b0aa1112037c807224", "input": "Question: The program of Deblinger and Heflin (1996) for the treatment of minors who have suffered sexual abuse is based on different modules, among which is: \n Options: <1> The training in coping skills. <2> Active avoidance of aversive situations. <3> Flood. <4> Avoidance of stereotyped behaviors. <5> Overcorrection", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-64dbd0d2d9a140ae9c70212b31fe0882", "input": "Question: The treatment of choice for Post Traumatic Stress Disorder in childhood is: \n Options: <1> The cognitive restructuring. <2> The exhibition, both in imagination and live. <3> No treatment has been proven more effective than the rest. <4> Planning of pleasant activities and training in social skills. <5> The relaxation technique alone has proven to be more effective than the rest.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1c430d7295ff4b118ec67685b77f1d23", "input": "Question: With what author or authors is the Motivational Interview associated? \n Options: <1> Marlatt and Gordon. <2> Hunt and Azrin. <3> Carroll. <4> Miller and Rollnick. <5> Prochaska and Diclemente.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bea1705f09e643aebf3a96d6c4928f41", "input": "Question: For what type of addiction has the community reinforcement program plus incentive therapy been proven to be a well-established treatment? \n Options: <1> Alcohol. <2> Cocaine. <3> Heroin. <4> Tobacco. <5> Cannabis", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dd7cc00698054f5f9d5c6fc4f137381c", "input": "Question: In the treatment of alcoholism, what is Exposure Therapy based on the behavior of drinking? \n Options: <1> In the Respondent Conditioning. <2> In operant conditioning. <3> In social learning. <4> In the Saciation. <5> In Cognitive Reatribution.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3e2a5e6372c44f7db8a667078ddd5619", "input": "Question: From the behavioral cognitive perspective, for the treatment of schizotypal personality disorder it is recommended: \n Options: <1> Exposure therapy <2> The operating techniques. <3> Interpersonal therapy <4> The training in mindfulness. <5> The training in social skills.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-999d6b28909c462980da12afe66b74be", "input": "Question: The therapy based on mentalization focuses on: \n Options: <1> The promotion of the relaxation of the maladaptive functioning pattern. <2> The transferential interpretations that emerge in the relationship between patient and therapist. <3> The promotion of motivation to relate to significant others and establish safe limits. <4> The regulation of emotions. <5> The ability to acquire a sense of self and others in terms of subjective states and mental processes.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-91de53e6dd314912b5e2735f2642bfa1", "input": "Question: Young's schema therapy for personality disorders derives from: \n Options: <1> The therapy of acceptance and commitment. <2> The emotive rational therapy. <3> Cognitive therapy of Beck. <4> Cognitive assessment therapy. <5> Interpersonal therapy", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fd1d02104b764e4188d9f6f0235675a9", "input": "Question: Among the strategies of Emotional Regulation, which of the following would be an acceptance strategy within cognitive-behavioral therapies? \n Options: <1> Distraction. <2> Behavioral Activation <3> Exposure with Prevention of Response. <4> Emotional Expression Adjusted. <5> Emotional Inhibition.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d1effad238c6467e8a7026d77898dd53", "input": "Question: Acceptance and Commitment Therapy is structured around two central concepts, what are they? \n Options: <1> Experiential Avoidance and Personal Values. <2> Acceptance and Validation <3> Activation and Commitment <4> Experiential Avoidance and Cognitive Restructuring. <5> The emotional Vulnerability and the cognitive defusion.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-10d2c4d8453f49cc8f1498f7cce7060f", "input": "Question: When training in self-instruction is done in young children, which of the following indications may NOT help the success of the training? \n Options: <1> Begin training with play activities. <2> Work with two children. <3> Use imagination techniques. <4> Encourage the child to memorize and mechanically use the self-instructions. <5> Combine with reinforcement techniques.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e58e83dde24748fc8da7f642ba1ae814", "input": "Question: What is the last phase in the basic procedure of self-instruction training of Meichenbaum? \n Options: <1> Masked self-instructions (in a low voice). <2> Cognitive modeling <3> Covert self-instructions. <4> Self-instructions aloud <5> Participant cognitive modeling.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-017ff3db821a43f2aec31efadf0c4c69", "input": "Question: At what stage of problem-solving therapy are the principles of quantity, deferment of judgment and variety used? \n Options: <1> Decision making. <2> Orientation towards the problem. <3> Definition and formulation of the problem. <4> Generation of alternative solutions. <5> Implementation and verification of the solution.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4d2ef0899453486983e22c3bfbfc375f", "input": "Question: Regarding the molding technique, which of the following characteristics is TRUE? \n Options: <1> A structured environment is required. <2> It can be carried out forward and backward. <3> It implies the successive application of reinforcement and extinction. <4> The successive approximations are necessarily part of the final behavior. <5> The goal behavior can be simple or complex.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b9517df97777430c89831511e5ad5c33", "input": "Question: Regarding the use of virtual reality on display, what is the correct answer? \n Options: <1> It totally replaces the real exposure. <2> Any real stimulus can be programmed with accuracy virtually. <3> Virtual reality allows the therapist to build a clinically meaningful environment. <4> Studies indicate better results than imaginative techniques. <5> Patients usually do not present difficulties in the virtual context.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f8565941945947c9b7d9656e41fbe2f0", "input": "Question: Regarding the prevention of relapses in major depressive disorder, current data indicate that the cognitive therapy of Beck's depression: \n Options: <1> It is an effective treatment. <2> It is an effective treatment only if it is applied in combination with antidepressant medication. <3> It is a less effective treatment than the continuation antidepressant medication. <4> It is a treatment that has not yet been examined in its efficacy compared to the continuation antidepressant medication. <5> It is effective for the acute treatment of major antidepressant disorder, but not to prevent its relapse.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e4d8462e83d64fe392e2ac68eee20a38", "input": "Question: Currently, which of the following behavioral treatments is considered an effective treatment for major depressive disorder? \n Options: <1> The applied relaxation. <2> The problem solving therapy. <3> The Flood. <4> Interpersonal therapy <5> The arrest of thought.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e0e1f47d53ad4f5587599039a1b9bdb4", "input": "Question: In which four problem areas does interpersonal therapy for depression focus? \n Options: <1> Interpersonal disputes, sexual relationships, interpersonal deficits and mother-child relationships during childhood. <2> Interpersonal deficits, mother-child relationships during childhood, sexual relations and role transition. <3> Mourning, interpersonal disputes, role transition and interpersonal deficits. <4> Sexual relations, mother-child relationships during childhood, relationship problems and current family problems. <5> Grief, mother-child relationships during childhood, interpersonal disputes and sexual relationships.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e9b77f71fbc040b3b9387ff8d2f1c599", "input": "Question: What is interpersonal therapy of social rhythm (or interpersonal and social rhythm therapy)? \n Options: <1> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of dysthymic disorder. <2> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of severe major depressive disorder. <3> A therapy resulting from combining interpersonal therapy, behavioral activation therapy and social problem solving therapy. <4> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy for patients with major depressive disorder who have serious problems in their social relationships. <5> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of bipolar disorder.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-38a0a8170e8a4f8fba875eab18f32a7d", "input": "Question: Point out the INCORRECT RESPONSE on the psychological treatment protocol for social phobia proposed by D.M. Clark, A. Wells and collaborators: \n Options: <1> He resorts frequently to behavioral experiments. <2> It includes the abandonment of security behaviors. <3> It is applied almost always in group format. <4> Use techniques to modify the distorted self-image. <5> The patient is encouraged to ask other people about their beliefs.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d83ac7cfe8f4412a8ae68b7bffc4179", "input": "Question: What cognitive technique is used in Rational Emotive Behavior therapy to help people who have intellectual difficulties? \n Options: <1> Reduction to the absurd. <2> Cognitive distraction <3> Training in social skills. <4> Rational-emotive imagination. <5> Training in self-instructions.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5c84ea3ec8fc4bfe83541f801457eaa9", "input": "Question: What aspect related to the therapeutic style would NOT a therapist adopt in Rational Emotive Behavioral Therapy? \n Options: <1> Promote catharsis. <2> Be active and directive. <3> Be verbally very active <4> Be didactic <5> Be nice.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f0bb0ee4db3840ccbc33add029fff8ed", "input": "Question: When the person only observes the behavior of the model and learns its behavior or patterns of action, without reproducing it during the training session, what type of modeling is it? \n Options: <1> Modeling in vivo. <2> Participant modeling <3> Symbolic modeling <4> Passive modeling <5> Modeling self-instructions.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b2c4e865ff94444396e1822b882c0abb", "input": "Question: What model of Family Therapy states that the change occurs when the pathological family game is replaced by another less harmful game? \n Options: <1> Therapy of the group of Milan. <2> Palo Alto MRI Therapy. <3> Therapy focused on solutions. <4> Structural therapy <5> Strategic therapy", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9c7cf2d6e96c4bb18e2b8ca0089ad311", "input": "Question: What is the use of the descending arrow technique in the cognitive therapy of depression? \n Options: <1> To identify the assumptions and beliefs (cognitive schemes) that underlie the patient's depressive problems. <2> To program an increasing number of pleasant activities. <3> To identify situations of high risk of relapse. <4> To name the cognitive distortions that the patient commits. <5> To establish the agenda or agenda of the session.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1bf357a8db4242ba841a432b09432cfc", "input": "Question: What do behavioral treatments for major depressive disorder have in common? \n Options: <1> The use of exposure techniques to stressful situations. <2> The main objective of modifying maladaptive beliefs and assumptions that make a person vulnerable to depression. <3> Which are unstructured therapies and without a limited number of sessions. <4> The main objective of increasing the positive reinforcement received by the depressed person. <5> The main objective of relating depression to problematic interpersonal situations.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f059a4dc215a4831992092b5f69587fc", "input": "Question: In the treatment of major depressive disorder, what are the advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) compared to tricyclic antidepressants? \n Options: <1> They are more effective. <2> They have been used for a longer time, while tricyclic antidepressants are more modern and are not well known. <3> They have fewer side effects. <4> Its efficacy has been proven in controlled studies, while tricyclic antidepressants have not yet been evaluated in controlled studies. <5> They have no clear advantage.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-12593a5885a742c787359b366d9dbad7", "input": "Question: Among the differences in the treatment of affective disorders between Beck's cognitive therapy and interpersonal therapy, which of the following is CORRECT? \n Options: <1> Interpersonal therapy has been applied to the treatment of bipolar disorder, but Beck's cognitive therapy has not yet. <2> Beck cognitive therapy is a structured therapy with a short number of sessions, while interpersonal therapy does not. <3> Beck's cognitive therapy was created by a psychiatrist, while interpersonal therapy was created by a psychologist. <4> Interpersonal therapy is based on the notion of emotional attachment of evolutionary psychology, while Beck's cognitive therapy does not. <5> Beck's cognitive therapy is one of the psychological treatments that have well established efficacy in major depressive disorder in adults, while interpersonal therapy has not yet.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1cb92b86fdc4455ca6633abf290c3663", "input": "Question: Which of the following interventions is NOT part of the training in defecatory habits for the treatment of corporpresis? \n Options: <1> The use of enemas to achieve initial disimpaction and prevent constipation. <2> The establishment of a specific time of the day to carry out the defecation on a regular basis. <3> Positive contingent punishment to defecation in inappropriate places (underwear). <4> Provide restrictions and dietary recommendations. <5> The reinforcement for keeping the clothes clean at the end of the day.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6928b8cc7fff448688003d0570b47dfe", "input": "Question: In the treatment of depression, therapy or training in social skills focuses mainly on improving classes or repertoires of behaviors that are especially relevant for depressed individuals and among which is the positive assertion. What kind of behavior does the positive assertion refer to? \n Options: <1> Behaviors that allow the person to defend their rights and interests. <2> Conduct to initiate conversations, ask questions and perform appropriate self-revelations. <3> Conduct regarding the expression of affection, approval and praise towards other people. <4> Behaviors to impose one's own interests over the interests of others. <5> Behaviors to generate positive emotions when a person is alone.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0183540c3e2948da88cca8dcfa50ceab", "input": "Question: For which disorder is the technique of fading stimulated frequently used? \n Options: <1> Enuresis <2> The selective mutism. <3> Childhood asthma <4> Posttraumatic stress disorder secondary to sexual abuse. <5> The encopresis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2398aa6f11c14e70bdccdc851cc1dcfa", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements about the technique of emotive images is FALSE? \n Options: <1> It is a variant of systematic desensitization. <2> It was developed to treat phobias of small children or with difficulties to relax. <3> It is a multicomponent program for the treatment of childhood phobias. <4> It is usually induced an inhibitory response to anxiety other than relaxation. <5> It can be used for the treatment of medical fears.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b5fde7dc182b44e1af2b52bb65ac3222", "input": "Question: Which of the following alternatives is CORRECT in relation to the treatment of sleepwalking? \n Options: <1> Early intervention is recommended since it is a disorder that usually becomes chronic. <2> It does not require any intervention since the safety of the child is never in danger. <3> The technique of programmed awakenings has been used successfully. <4> The child is usually asked to draw the dreams he has during the episodes to reduce the anguish. <5> Do not try to reassure the child and take him back to bed because of the danger of waking up in that state.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4269d6fe3d3c4efca7b7f65ad6e3e7c1", "input": "Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of the psychopharmacological treatment of ADHD? \n Options: <1> To reduce motor distress, anxiolytic drugs are usually used. <2> Among its possible side effects are the worsening of behavior at the end of the day (rebound effect) and the intensification of existing tics. <3> The effect of methylphenidate is maintained in the medium term once the treatment has been interrupted. <4> It can improve attention and decrease hyperactivity but is not effective in managing impulsive behaviors. <5> When it is effective in improving attention and controlling hyperactivity, psychological intervention is unnecessary.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-483e785e92894c4a94ac3201cabfcf05", "input": "Question: One of the most effective techniques included in psychological intervention programs for primary female orgasmic dysfunction is: \n Options: <1> Vacuum therapy <2> The exhibition in imagination. <3> The pubococcygeus muscle training. <4> The systematic desensitization. <5> The stop and start technique.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6d95f7448822405baab667502386570d", "input": "Question: In the first stage of Fairburn's behavioral cognitive treatment for bulimia nervosa, one of the objectives is: \n Options: <1> Modify maladaptive social interaction patterns. <2> Establish effective communication patterns. <3> Work on the suppression of diet follow-up. <4> Modify adaptive family functioning patterns. <5> Present the model that explains the maintenance of the problem.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-47a7448de4b049b8a92085b2f80cb10e", "input": "Question: One of the well-established goals of the treatment of anorexia nervosa is: \n Options: <1> Substitute the food restriction for physical exercise. <2> Get family support and provide family advice. <3> Carry out intensive and brief interventions. <4> Enhance self-help strategies from the beginning of treatment. <5> Separate the patient from his family environment while the treatment lasts.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dfedaf9761934c36b3bd25e73c5ec625", "input": "Question: There is consensus that the treatment of eating disorders should have an approach: \n Options: <1> Psychodynamic <2> Of family therapy. <3> Cognitive. <4> Multidisciplinary <5> Pharmacological.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cb55835148c74732a0ad9408aa3c5a5d", "input": "Question: Which of the following treatments has NOT been shown to be effective in the treatment of schizophrenia? \n Options: <1> The assertive community treatment. <2> Protected employment procedures for labor rehabilitation. <3> The integrated programs of cognitive rehabilitation. <4> The psychoeducational family intervention. <5> Psychoanalytic therapy of limited time.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-da319773b8094b2781986a6e5bcabef6", "input": "Question: The evaluation of the expressed emotion construct is especially significant in the treatment of schizophrenia when the following intervention is applied: \n Options: <1> Behavioral cognitive of psychotic symptoms. <2> Training in Social Skills. <3> Family intervention <4> Cognitive rehabilitation <5> Work rehabilitation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1cbeb032e97c42178754f0a5af7efdb7", "input": "Question: In the pharmacological treatment of hallucinations and delusions, what is the correct answer? \n Options: <1> Between 30-50% of people with psychosis treated with antipsychotics continue to experience difficulties derived from clinical symptoms. <2> Antipsychotics act on the positive symptoms of psychosis, but mainly eliminate the negative symptoms. <3> The extrapyramidal side effects they cause are intractable. <4> When an antipsychotic does not improve symptoms, changing the treatment is not advisable. <5> It is advisable not to combine it with psychological treatment until the psychotic symptoms have disappeared.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9e9e835f1f274ca0b947915dc7c5eae8", "input": "Question: What kind of drug is clozapine? \n Options: <1> An anxiolytic <2> An antidepressant <3> An antipsychotic <4> A benzodiazepine <5> A hypnotic", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-80a18e21df7a4a66b51828dfb21a24e9", "input": "Question: Is the goal of focusing techniques for the treatment of auditory hallucinations? \n Options: <1> That patients are distracted from hallucinations. <2> That patients gradually rearrange the origin of auditory hallucinations to themselves. <3> That patients do not listen to voices. <4> That patients with hallucinations take medication. <5> That patients do not think about hallucinations.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9596149ae59845bb9e92c30152df5c66", "input": "Question: In the field of schizophrenia, indicate which of the modules of social skills to live independently is NOT part of the program developed by Liberman and collaborators: \n Options: <1> Module of reintegration in the community. <2> Module of control / handling of substance abuse (dual pathology). <3> Module of interpersonal and intimate relationships. <4> Module of leisure and free time. <5> Crisis management module.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0567e934bb98416d89b63fb1f21fc59a", "input": "Question: The psychological treatments in bipolar disorder share several therapeutic objectives, among which is NOT: \n Options: <1> Train patients in the detection of the initial symptoms that precede the disorder. <2> Replace the need for a long-term pharmacological treatment. <3> Teach patients strategies to cope with stressful stimuli that can trigger or exacerbate symptoms. <4> Improve adherence to pharmacological treatment. <5> Provide patients with techniques to manage the initial symptoms, thus preventing them from getting worse.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4d98bd2957a64c19b31cecb3d1490e2e", "input": "Question: Phototherapy or light therapy is used for the treatment of: \n Options: <1> Crisis of panic. <2> Major depression <3> Bipolar disorder. <4> Post-traumatic stress disorder. <5> Seasonal affective disorder.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-74d94c10aa1c47f7b2f2935f80ec2e49", "input": "Question: One of the following elements of cognitive-behavioral therapy for panic disorder (or panic disorder) has been especially questioned and its utility has been minimized. Indicate which: \n Options: <1> Interoceptive exposure. <2> Education. <3> Live exhibition. <4> Training in breathing. <5> Cognitive restructuring.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-791aaa123cf148c28ab6b43f33589860", "input": "Question: Which of the following drugs has shown in controlled studies that can increase the effectiveness of exposure therapy in the treatment of specific phobias? \n Options: <1> Alprazolam <2> Quetiapine <3> D-cycloserine. <4> Bupropion. <5> Buspirona.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2d2b82a878334f80ae7189d1299364db", "input": "Question: In which of the following anxiety disorders is considered that there is no pharmacological treatment of choice? \n Options: <1> Obsessive-compulsive disorder <2> Panic disorder (anguish disorder). <3> Social phobia. <4> Specific phobia. <5> Post-traumatic stress disorder.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e13703244fe640ceb0d9e10e8c3de100", "input": "Question: Systematic training for the redirection of attention to aspects or positive external stimuli to counteract the excess of self-consciousness, is part of the psychological treatment protocols especially for: \n Options: <1> Obsessive-compulsive disorder <2> The agoraphobia. <3> Anxiety disorder (panic disorder). <4> Social phobia <5> Post-traumatic stress disorder", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c7a72ea880d7483d966906fe7e720127", "input": "Question: The psychological treatment of generalized anxiety disorder focused on addressing negative beliefs about concerns (eg, that worries are uncontrollable) and positive dysfunctional beliefs about the usefulness of caring (eg, that worry improves outcomes) known as: \n Options: <1> Emotion regulation therapy. <2> Metacognitive therapy <3> Behavioral therapy based on acceptance. <4> Integrative therapy <5> Somatic awareness therapy", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eea26513a9b749ee88f31d315fd2238e", "input": "Question: Which of the following drugs would be the most indicated initially in a patient with an obsessive-compulsive disorder? \n Options: <1> Buspirona. <2> Risperidone. <3> Alprazolam <4> Clomipramine <5> Methylphenidate", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c9e3852f2a8644b28febc0a901ab41e5", "input": "Question: Benzodiazepines reduce anxiety because they work as: \n Options: <1> Antagonists of GABA receptors. <2> GABA receptor agonists. <3> Antagonist of noradrenergic receptors. <4> Noradrenergic receptor agonist. <5> Antagonists of serotonergic receptors.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2e015f6fc8964fad941741fc8b355310", "input": "Question: What are the leaders of the Structural / Strategic School of Systemic Therapy? \n Options: <1> O'Hanlon and Weiner-Davis. <2> Haley and Minuchin. <3> Weakland and Fisch. <4> Keeney and Ross. <5> Stierlin and Weber.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2945e22a347b4c76a3801b16acc8c14c", "input": "Question: What psychoanalytic author worked in a different way to Freud, sitting face to face, with sessions once a week and his treatment rarely exceeding one year? \n Options: <1> Alfred Adler <2> Carl Jung. <3> M. Klein. <4> A. Freud <5> J. Lacan.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7a1ece507c4744ebbdda6b00990d2e5f", "input": "Question: Which of the following psychopharmacological treatments would NOT be indicated in the long-term treatment of a person diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder? \n Options: <1> Pregabalin <2> Venlafaxine <3> Escitalopram. <4> Alprazolam <5> Duloxetine", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ece735bf89594b3594bb5bdfee6f80a3", "input": "Question: With which author is associated the development and evaluation of cognitive-behavioral therapy in group as a gold standard treatment for social phobia? \n Options: <1> Clark. <2> Wells <3> There is. <4> Beck. <5> Heimberg.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2db4c5a709b74291aa08099406cc5da5", "input": "Question: The best strategy to provide information to patients with cancer is: \n Options: <1> Do not inform them so that the patient does not despair. <2> Give them all the possible information to reduce to the maximum the uncertainty that the situation causes. <3> Focus exclusively on providing information relevant to the aspects directly linked to the disease. <4> Adapt the information to the informative demands of the patients. <5> Limit to offering information to family members so they can provide it at the right time to the patient.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b37afd5c727f4567bd6f4a4550339f00", "input": "Question: Which of the following alterations is found within the alterations of the corporal conscience? \n Options: <1> Twilight state. <2> Asthenic-apathetic stadium. <3> Hypnotic dissociation. <4> Astereognosia <5> Automatism.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d892b103158d479aa5292264ec8b2398", "input": "Question: What is the most commonly used term to designate the most intense degree of distraction and the complete absence of attention? \n Options: <1> Attentional perplexity. <2> Attention indifference. <3> Hyperprosexia. <4> Mental absence <5> Aprosexia.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cedd912e7f6f4c0a8b38aa2fb61fb1bc", "input": "Question: What type of anomalies are the Micropsy and autometamorphopsia? \n Options: <1> Abnormalities in the perception of quality. <2> Abnormalities in the perception of size / shape. <3> Abnormalities in the perception of intensity. <4> Perceptive deception. <5> The same perceptual distortion.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-385e5e62f97d4f13acf0ced1e7cbd4d4", "input": "Question: What kind of image appears when the individual does not fixate his attention on it and, on the contrary, disappears when he concentrates on the experience? \n Options: <1> Consecutive images <2> Mnemic images. <3> Hallucinoid images. <4> Abnormal images <5> Parasitic images", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2f25a85b0c6c4b75a357bcfcf99acf6e", "input": "Question: What is one of the differences between Alzheimer's and subcortical patients (especially Huntington and Parkinson's)? \n Options: <1> The ability to semantically encode the information seems to be preserved in the subcorticals, while Alzheimer's seems quite deteriorated. <2> There is greater loss of recognition memory in the subcorticals. <3> The rate of forgetfulness is slower in Alzheimer's. <4> Retrograde amnesia is temporarily graded in subcortical patients. <5> There is less loss of recognition memory in Alzheimer's.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f8d9add099e449fdb26782687745c3b5", "input": "Question: In the case of epileptic seizures, which of these data would allow us to state that it is hysterical crisis, and not epileptic seizures? \n Options: <1> The presence of apnea. <2> That the EEG record is normal. <3> They appear both when the individual is alone or accompanied. <4> Bites appear on the tongue or injuries due to falls. <5> Urinary incontinence appears.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-71ffb2ffae5d4333b090fa2b9458aa49", "input": "Question: Tics can be associated with altered behaviors that arise at a certain time. When the symptoms appear between 35 and 45 years, according to Shapiro's classification, to what tic we refer? \n Options: <1> Simple acute tic. <2> Chronic simple tic. <3> Huntington's Korea. <4> Chronic multiple tic. <5> Multiple tic of the adult.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5b0f3cc890cc44bf986df571d6e0c835", "input": "Question: What is the psychomotor disorder that can appear in an individual who has used phenothiazines for a prolonged period of time? \n Options: <1> Acute dyskinesia <2> Hypermymy <3> Hypomimia <4> Mannerisms. <5> Tardive dyskinesia", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-152435fcfb7d496ab307fba3b1c11ce0", "input": "Question: According to the Scale of Thought Disorders, Language and Communication (Andreasen, 1979), what is the definition of Distracted Speech: \n Options: <1> Answers of a longer duration than adequate and that provide little information. <2> The patient stands in the middle of a sentence or idea and changes the subject in response to immediate stimuli. <3> The patient responds obliquely, tangentially or even relevantly. <4> A pattern of spontaneous speech in which ideas slip away from each other. <5> The patient speaks quickly and it is difficult to interrupt him.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-16688379deaf4a6eb98f04c43998f69d", "input": "Question: The characteristic of delusions that refers to the maintenance of delirium over time, despite the evidence against is: \n Options: <1> The intensity or conviction. <2> The unmodifiable, incorrigibility or fixity. <3> Presence of cultural supports. <4> Concern. <5> Communication deviation.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bec6c665d22b4342bcc017521f381e25", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following is a Primary Delirium according to Jaspers: \n Options: <1> Delirious intuition. <2> Delirious control. <3> Ritual delirious. <4> Delirious crisis. <5> Delusional obsession", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0f41b0f24d554d3cb1ca152cd21d8bdc", "input": "Question: The delirious atmosphere is defined as: \n Options: <1> The delirious interpretation of a normal perception. <2> A self-referential idea, of great importance for the patient. <3> Subjective experience that the world has changed in a subtle but sinister, disturbing and difficult or impossible to define way. <4> The delirious construction of a memory. <5> A rational and easily modifiable idea about an environmental issue.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6e96867ef61f46128382c9abae351c06", "input": "Question: The bodily delusion idea is defined as: \n Options: <1> Delusional idea whose main content refers to the functioning of one's own body. <2> Delusional idea that the subject has lost or will lose all or almost all his physical possessions. <3> Ideal delirious in which the feelings, impulses, thoughts or acts are lived as if they were not their own and were imposed by some external force. <4> Delusional idea whose content implies an exaggerated assessment of personal importance, power, knowledge or identity. <5> Delusional idea about the non-existence of the self.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-656f1d640cc04b3b898000640643aae7", "input": "Question: At what stage is the person when they begin to balance the positive and negative consequences of drug use and, as a result, begin to consider stopping consumption, but basically maintain their ambivalence in this decisional balance? \n Options: <1> Stadium of action. <2> Contemplation stadium. <3> Relapse stadium. <4> Pre-contemplation stadium. <5> Post-relapse stadium.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9349ec5eae7c4b73890a3cf9b5ee12c3", "input": "Question: What name does the episode receive with psychotic symptoms that occur after a strong alcohol intoxication in which the individual has been consuming large doses of alcohol for several days? \n Options: <1> Delirium tremens. <2> Partial amnesias. <3> Alcoholic hallucinosis <4> abstinence syndrome. <5> Korsakoff syndrome.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-03257bcaff9e433b841b05ceedb1ac31", "input": "Question: When memory adapts to the presence of a drug (eg, subsensitizing receptors, synthesizing new membrane proteins) in such a way that the ability of the drug (eg, in alcohol to disrupt neuronal membranes) is increasingly minor, we are talking about: \n Options: <1> Psychological tolerance <2> Cross tolerance <3> Metabolic tolerance <4> Pharmacological tolerance. <5> Reduced tolerance", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7e027da46a1d4ecab48b8df956d774fd", "input": "Question: The oppressive / tightening pain, of light to moderate intensity, of bilateral localization and that does not worsen with routine physical activity, is what occurs in: \n Options: <1> Pelvic pain <2> The burnout. <3> Asthma. <4> Irritable bowel syndrome. <5> Tension headache.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9586644732bd452e8f16ba1a6634beb5", "input": "Question: The afferent neural activity of the peripheral nocioceptors is modulated in the dorsal horn of the marrow, which acts as a door that prevents or does not allow the passage of nerve impulses that come from the nocioceptors and the cortex, refers to? \n Options: <1> The peripheral nervous system. <2> The theory of the door. <3> Chronic stress <4> The theory of climbing. <5> The biological process of relaxation.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ceb78c227a242edbbe38149dc4160fc", "input": "Question: What favors the appearance of atherosclerotic plaques? \n Options: <1> Stress. <2> Asthma. <3> Angina of the chest. <4> Cannabis <5> Physical exercise.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-72c647aa2be045fbb791a3582228189e", "input": "Question: What is the model that states that health behaviors are determined by the perception of personal susceptibility to the disease and the perceived severity of the consequences of the disease? \n Options: <1> The reasoned action. <2> The one about health beliefs. <3> The one of the psychosomatic medicine. <4> The vulnerability to stress. <5> The placebo effect.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b03a580575a7479785b4bb82d51ddd95", "input": "Question: What do we mean when a doctor believes firmly in his treatment, even though controlled studies have proven ineffective, the results obtained with it will be better, his patients will be better, and will have more patients? \n Options: <1> The opposing process of Solomon. <2> The floor effect. <3> The Asher Paradox <4> The effect of contemplation of Prochaska. <5> The theory of the control door.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bfb7b141b9e14295b4cf875df79672dd", "input": "Question: When the organism passes successively through the phases of alarm reaction, resistance phase and exhaustion phase, we refer to: \n Options: <1> The autonomous nervous system. <2> The placebo effect. <3> Electrokinesiological biofeedback. <4> Restrictive anorexia nervosa. <5> The general adaptation syndrome.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-365a3fe1abfc49aba5d9542a101eee92", "input": "Question: Among the predictors of a poor prognosis in schizophrenia are: \n Options: <1> Positive symptoms and late emergence. <2> Do not have precipitating factors and have a good premorbid fit. <3> Early emergence and identifiable precipitating factors. <4> Being married and with a poor support system. <5> A bad premorbid adjustment and negative symptoms.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-50cda2283522403095ede42d4d8dbe99", "input": "Question: Among the criteria of DSM-IV for the diagnosis of Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder, are: \n Options: <1> A general pattern of concern for order, perfectionism, mental and interpersonal control at the expense of effectiveness, as well as a tendency to delegate to other tasks or work. <2> It shows rigidity and stubbornness, as well as a tendency to squander money. <3> Concern for details, rules, rules, lists, order, organization, schedules, until losing sight of the main objective of the activity. <4> Lax dedication to work and productivity, excluding leisure activities, unscrupulous in matters of morals and ethics. <5> Tendency to get rid of useless objects, even if they have a sentimental value. Miserly style in terms of expenses, both for him and for others.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-073941f7f18b4c609ed4e206cc07f4aa", "input": "Question: Which of the following beliefs is part of the nuclear schemes of a schizoid personality disorder, according to the model of Cognitive Therapy? \n Options: <1> I'm better than the others. <2> The others are fools. <3> Being controlled by others is intolerable. <4> I need people to survive. <5> The others do not compensate me.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-366e115440a94c5da952a82293c3defa", "input": "Question: The negative symptomatology of schizophrenia seems to be caused by: \n Options: <1> The excessive activity of some dopaminergic neural circuits. <2> The excessive activity of the GABAergic neurons. <3> The existence of brain damage. <4> Have a gene for schizophrenia that causes negative symptoms. <5> Insufficient activity of the serotonergic neurons of the frontal lobe.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-993c6fd3b564438d843e555bd9cecd3d", "input": "Question: What works best to improve compliance with medical treatments through psychological intervention? \n Options: <1> Leave the patient complete freedom to organize his treatment once we explain what is the cause of his illness and its treatment. <2> That he knows how to do a thorough functional analysis of his behavior and to do it with all his problem behaviors, especially those related to his behavior of pain and discomfort. <3> Negotiate the changes, provided that the therapeutic allows it, that the patient perform the least amount of behavior in the minimum possible times and sequentially setting goals or tasks. <4> Train him in the processes of denial, negotiation, coping, memory and despair. <5> Control stressful life events that relate to your life, especially at the family level, and your illness.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cd3a5b4f82394273a47867e7d130e199", "input": "Question: According to DSM-IV-TR, obsessive-compulsive disorder and obsessive personality disorder share nominal similarities, but how do clinical manifestations differ? \n Options: <1> Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not characterized by the presence of obsessions or compulsions. <2> Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by the presence of obsessions without compulsions. <3> Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by the presence of compulsions. <4> The obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not characterized by the presence of obsessions or compulsions for at least 6 months. <5> Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not characterized by the presence of obsessions or compulsions for at least 1 year.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ea232a2f56144eb49a4c806d128edb3e", "input": "Question: When the individual is unable to remember important personal information, usually a traumatic or stressful event, what disorder can we think of, within the group of dissociative disorders (DSM-IV-TR)? \n Options: <1> Dissociative identity disorder. <2> Dissociative trance disorder. <3> The generalized amnesia. <4> The dissociative amnesia. <5> The dissociative leak", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c1e04a60aab0480a842825152578dc3d", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements is true with respect to dyspareunia? \n Options: <1> This disorder only affects women. <2> The essential feature is the involuntary contraction of the perineal muscles of the external third of the vagina, against the introduction of the penis, fingers, tampons, or speculums. <3> This disorder appears throughout life, can not be acquired. <4> This disorder consists of genital pain during intercourse, although it may appear before or after intercourse. <5> This alteration does not cause discomfort in interpersonal relationships.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b6d77581c4994e1eaecbd93cd17c1959", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements regarding Eating Disorders is true? \n Options: <1> In restrictive type anorexia nervosa there are compensatory strategies of a non-purgative nature, such as dieting / fasting and intense exercise. <2> The patient with anorexia nervosa does not have episodes of binge eating in any case. <3> The patient with bulimia nervosa, unlike the patient with anorexia nervosa, does not intend to lose weight. <4> Alterations in eating behavior do not affect patients' cognition. <5> Interpersonal relationships are one of the few areas that are not altered in eating behavior disorders.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-61c544fd678146c2b0df66964879db01", "input": "Question: When should the diagnosis of distress disorder not be made, according to criterion C of the DSM-IV-TR? \n Options: <1> When panic attacks are recurrent. <2> When the crisis of anguish is unexpected. <3> When the crisis of anguish is accompanied by the appearance, during a minimum of one month, of persistent worries of suffering new crises. <4> When the crisis of anguish is accompanied by the appearance, during a minimum of one month, of possible implications or consequences. <5> When panic attacks are considered secondary to the direct physiological effects of a disease.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-295deaa0a45d4b73b920482d4b8f92ba", "input": "Question: Depersonalization disorder, according to the DSM-IV-TR, is part of: \n Options: <1> The schizophrenic disorders. <2> Dissociative disorders <3> Somatoform disorders. <4> Disorders of the mood. <5> Personality disorders", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-77d48aa6d597492690633a9336fcfba5", "input": "Question: What is the essential characteristic of dissociative disorders, according to the DSM-IV-TR? \n Options: <1> An alteration of the integrating functions of consciousness, identity, memory and perception of the environment, which may be this sudden or gradual, transitory or chronic alteration. <2> The presence of one or more identity or personality states that control the behavior of the subject recurrently with the inability to remember important personal information. <3> The persistent and recurrent sensation of distancing of the mental processes and of the own body with the conservation of the sense of reality. <4> The inability to remember important personal information of a traumatic nature. <5> The presence of sudden and unexpected trips away from home with the inability to remember one's past, confusion about one's identity and assumption of a new identity.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-57c41b6ab5af46018c85baaf427ec10e", "input": "Question: What is the most common course of somatization disorder (DSM-IV-TR)? \n Options: <1> It is an acute disease. <2> It is a chronic disease that always remits completely. <3> It is a chronic and fluctuating disease that rarely remits completely. <4> It is very common for a year to pass and the individual suffering from this disorder no longer seek medical help for unexplained somatic symptoms. <5> It is not a fluctuating disease but it is not considered chronic.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8789038434974835b2ea20babab19475", "input": "Question: When criteria for the diagnosis of a type of phobia appear in which there is fear of situations such as public transport, tunnels, bridges, elevators, airplanes, cars or enclosures, having a peak of greater incidence in the second childhood and another half From the third decade of life, we can think about what diagnosis of the DSM-IV-TR? \n Options: <1> Social phobia. <2> Situational specific phobia. <3> Specific phobia environmental type. <4> Separation anxiety. <5> Anxiety crisis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-34338e46a01c4acfb44329163682e4ca", "input": "Question: Criterion A for the diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder (DSM-IV-TR) is met for obsessions and compulsions, obsessions are defined by the following characteristics, except for one of them, what is the FALSE? \n Options: <1> Thoughts, impulses or recurrent and persistent images experienced, at some point of the disorder, as intruders and cause significant anxiety or discomfort. <2> Thoughts, impulses or images are not reduced to simple excessive concerns about real-life problems. <3> The person tries to ignore or suppress those thoughts, impulses or images or neutralize them. <4> The person does not recognize that these thoughts, impulses or obsessive images are the product of their mind. <5> The person recognizes that these thoughts, impulses or obsessive images are the product of his mind and do not come taxes.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bc4fbd2541804c22b0e3a2237eec9e93", "input": "Question: Within which diagnosis, of the DSM-IV-TR, is premenstrual dysphoric disorder framed? \n Options: <1> As a mixed disorder of anxiety and depression. <2> As a depressive disorder not specified. <3> As a dysthymic disorder. <4> As a cyclothymic disorder. <5> Anxiety disorder not specified.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-255d56ebd83a41268069b2558ad282a6", "input": "Question: When two or more major depressive episodes occur, separated by a period of at least two months, during which the individual does not become depressed, what is diagnosed? \n Options: <1> Major depressive disorder. <2> Dysthymic disorder. <3> Cyclothymic disorder <4> Major recurrent depressive disorder. <5> Depressive episode", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-008c1ff861264077967e97fe11589ce6", "input": "Question: In what disorder of eating behavior, the personality of patients is characterized as impulsive people, with a tendency to make quick decisions and act unpredictably? \n Options: <1> Anorexia nervosa of restrictive type. <2> Pica. <3> Obesity. <4> Bulimia nervosa. <5> Night dining", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c1bf525bff7f464fa8faa72db71356b8", "input": "Question: Which of the following characteristics defines an endogenous depression? \n Options: <1> Its course is continuous. <2> There is an evening worsening. <3> There is an early awakening. <4> There is a good response to placebo. <5> A neurotic personality intervenes in the etiopathogenesis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-caeb5046648646f9a5018c437402fed4", "input": "Question: What mental disorder is defined by the presence of binge eating together with the use of inappropriate compensatory methods to avoid weight gain? \n Options: <1> Anorexia Nervosa without amenorrhea. <2> Binge eating disorder. <3> Bulimia nervosa. <4> Obesity. <5> Compulsive dining", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b78162ac080c43d0b673c929f27c767f", "input": "Question: In anorexia nervosa, and in relation to menstrual / reproductive function, which of the statements is true according to the DSM-IV-TR criteria? \n Options: <1> The existence of amenorrhea is a basic diagnostic criterion. <2> We do not consider that the amorrea is significant until the patient has presented it for at least one year. <3> The amorrea, when it exists, is always primary, never secondary. <4> Amorrhea is a characteristic of this disorder but not a basic diagnostic criterion. <5> Without the presence of amorrea, anorexia nervosa can be diagnosed.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-109ab8a8b9d842b0b981b417fd157d0f", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements regarding Bipolar II Disorder is true? \n Options: <1> The essential feature is a clinical course characterized by one or more manic episodes or mixed episodes. <2> The presence of a manic or mixed episode prevents the diagnosis from being made. <3> Episodes of mood disorder induced by substances or due to medical illness are considered valid to establish the diagnosis of bipolar II disorder. <4> The information that other people offer does not help much to establish the diagnosis. <5> Bipolar II disorder is characterized by the appearance of one or more major depressive episodes accompanied by at least one manic episode.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-974f16f1cb52408d90ef805c80ee08f2", "input": "Question: What is called brief, sudden, simple muscle contractions that resemble shocks or shocks that affect muscles or muscle groups? \n Options: <1> Hemiballismic movements. <2> Athetosic movements. <3> Spasmodic movements. <4> Myoclonic movements. <5> Dystonic movements.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-09575066174f4da0b5026cf161cff691", "input": "Question: The Research Diagnostic Criteria (ICD-10) for the crisis of anguish: \n Options: <1> They are identical to the DSM-IV, there is no variation. <2> They are identical to those of DSM-IV, except that ICD-10 includes dry mouth and requires that at least one of the symptoms present be palpitations, sweating, tremors or dry mouth. <3> They differ in their entirety from those of the DSM-IV. <4> The ICD-10 Diagnostic Criteria do not require the appearance of a minimum of crisis. <5> The ICD-10 Diagnostic Criteria do not require a period of duration.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f67f7fc564014d57a3af6a9c3c9c60cb", "input": "Question: The brain alterations that characterize Alzheimer's disease are: \n Options: <1> Hyperactivation of the dopaminergic neurons of the basal ganglia, causing neuronal death. <2> Degeneration of the hippocampus, and of the cortex of the frontal and temporal lobes. <3> Deterioration of the serotonergic neurons of the parietal and occipital lobes. <4> Presence of Lewy bodies in all subcortical white matter. <5> Accumulation of denatured prion proteins that cause inflammation in the frontal and parietal lobes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-14d52b6f755d4e3ab9343bd2028ec8f7", "input": "Question: The degenerative neurological disorder that occurs as a result of degeneration and loss of nigrostriatal dopaminergic neurons is called: \n Options: <1> Phenylketonuria <2> Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy or TSE. <3> Multiple sclerosis. <4> Huntington's disease <5> Parkinson's disease", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f05cc996f1fe44f8892629bd4667b759", "input": "Question: Driving aphasia is characterized by: \n Options: <1> He speaks fluent and meaningful, relatively good compression and altered repetition. <2> He speaks not fluent, relatively good comprehension and repetition altered. <3> He speaks fluent with little meaning, altered compression and altered repetition. <4> He speaks not fluid, altered understanding and altered repetition. <5> He speaks fluent with little meaning, good comprehension and unaltered repetition.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dc8e72cace1140299578e51a6e472ac1", "input": "Question: The inability to recognize faces, preserving the sense of sight, is called: \n Options: <1> Binocular disparity <2> Hemiplegia <3> Dysphasia <4> Prosopagnosia <5> Apraxia", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e2b9a9e6c171423192f0c8bfe3e84ed4", "input": "Question: If a patient presents both a major depressive disorder and partner problems, the data currently available indicates that in these cases, between Beck behavioral therapy and Beck cognitive therapy, the psychological treatment of choice would be: \n Options: <1> Either of the two therapies, since both are equally effective in reducing depressive symptomatology and in improving the satisfaction of the couple. <2> Beck's cognitive therapy of depression, since it is more effective than couple's behavioral therapy in reducing depressive symptoms. <3> Behavioral couple therapy, since Beck's cognitive therapy is not effective for depression when there are couple problems. <4> Behavioral couples therapy, since it is just as effective as Beck's cognitive therapy in reducing depressive symptoms, but it improves the satisfaction of the couple more. <5> Beck's cognitive therapy, since couples behavioral therapy has not empirically demonstrated its efficacy for depression.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-71be5ad9c5d64ac7b0d1478a1b50a532", "input": "Question: What is the name of the set of dysregulations of the neurovegetative nervous system and of the basic psychic functions, which persist for a long period of time, months or years, after achieving abstinence? \n Options: <1> Cross tolerance <2> Korsakoff syndrome. <3> Acute intoxication. <4> Late withdrawal syndrome. <5> Dual disorder.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-226ae83f49f54969ac3be2a52c0bb915", "input": "Question: What do you usually associate with the cataplexy characteristic of narcolepsy? \n Options: <1> With sleep paralysis. <2> With intense emotions. <3> With hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations. <4> With daytime sleepiness. <5> With irregular schedules.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8904ec079994473ca3176010041d4d14", "input": "Question: What consonantal sounds of Castilian are later acquired due to their difficulty of articulation, causing a phonological disorder? \n Options: <1> African, liquid and nasal. <2> Fricatives, nasals and occlusives. <3> Liquids, fricatives and affricates. <4> Nasals, occlusives and affricates. <5> Occlusives, fricatives and liquids.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b907d893c52e4cdab05d44a7ce703b4f", "input": "Question: The brainstem or brainstem is the part of the Nervous System formed by: \n Options: <1> The mesencephalon, the protuberance and the medulla oblongata. <2> The spinal cord and the 31 pairs of cranial nerves. <3> The thalamus and the spinal cord. <4> The telencephalon, with the cerebral hemispheres. <5> The corpus callosum and the limbic system.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0e7a9bfb585641e583cd5b4206caef28", "input": "Question: What allows to get a negative reinforcement? \n Options: <1> Decrease reinforced behavior. <2> Eliminate reinforced behavior. <3> Increase reinforced behavior. <4> Extinguish reinforced behavior. <5> It does not change the behavior.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6af8c5d9b5a04c27a5dbd86031c9bdeb", "input": "Question: What characteristic increases the veracity of self-reports? \n Options: <1> Request information about past events. <2> Request information about events about which the evaluated person has little experience. <3> Use generic and open questions. <4> Request information on topics that involve little to the evaluated. <5> Use specific and unambiguous questions.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9299d50a47164defabc1087fcc49ea2f", "input": "Question: In which of the following anxiety disorders is a therapist more likely to use interoceptive exposure as a psychological treatment technique? \n Options: <1> Obsessive-compulsive disorder <2> Generalized anxiety disorder. <3> Panic disorder (or panic disorder) <4> Post-traumatic stress disorder. <5> Social phobia.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-193ab789232445ce8fa1c017352785e6", "input": "Question: The alteration of the reading process in which the global recognition of the words is affected, being preserved the ability to recognize the letters of the words, is called: \n Options: <1> Direct dyslexia <2> Phonological dyslexia <3> Superficial dyslexia <4> Alexia pure. <5> Alexia anomic.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8e6cd553c2594e298601a5a386885acf", "input": "Question: What factors / differential variables in childhood determine the evaluation of children? \n Options: <1> Diversity and heterogeneity of psychological problems. <2> Disparity of information provided by different sources consulted (parents, teachers, etc.). <3> Influence of sex and age in the appearance of children's problems. <4> Shortage of instruments and evaluation techniques sensitive to the characteristics of the child. <5> Evolutionary character of the child, infantile plasticity that makes the child sensitive to the influences of the environment and interpretation by adults of the problem to be evaluated.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4a24e96089b6454fb119afe9d424770a", "input": "Question: The main pharmacological treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder or OCD is: \n Options: <1> Dopamine agonists. <2> NMDA receptor blockers. <3> Inhibitors of monoamine oxidase or MAOIs. <4> Selective serotonin or 5-HT reuptake inhibitors. <5> Neuroleptics", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f7f023481de5433384d0215dfd378cae", "input": "Question: An Au-Ag alloy: \n Options: <1> It is interstitial, and can occur in any composition. <2> It is substitutional, and can occur in any composition. <3> Gold and silver can not be alloyed. <4> A small amount of gold can be dissolved in silver, up to a limit of close to 10%, but not in a greater proportion. <5> A small amount of silver can be dissolved in the gold, up to a limit close to 10%, but not in a greater proportion.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-43a2846cd31d4f5182a510d49c7207c0", "input": "Question: Graphite is a conductor because: \n Options: <1> The valence band has electronic vacancies. <2> The driving band has electronic vacancies. <3> Both bands have electronic vacancies. <4> The banned band is very big. <5> The band gap is zero.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-35d893a377a3461693b69b875b919087", "input": "Question: Vulcanization is a chemical reaction: \n Options: <1> What is done in the forges. <2> Which causes crosslinking of the polymer chains. <3> That desentrecuuza the polymer chains. <4> To prepare composite materials. <5> Which leads to the development of volcanoes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d1b3bbf87d1346a0872b55b698626430", "input": "Question: If the normal reduction potential of the pair Zn2 + / Zn is -0.76 V: \n Options: <1> Aqueous solutions of Zn2 + at pH = 0 release oxygen. <2> Putting metallic Zn in aqueous solution at pH = 0 releases oxygen. <3> Aqueous solutions of Zn2 + at pH = 0 give off hydrogen. <4> By putting metallic Zn in aqueous solution at pH = 0, hydrogen is evolved. <5> Zn2 + dismutates in aqueous solution at pH = 0.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-37213fcfe51747dabb04d409fda60a58", "input": "Question: The tungsten is a very important element from the technological point of view, which is used, among other things, in the steel industry. But his interest extends to other scientific fields, due to: \n Options: <1> Which is one of the essential elements for life are human beings and animals. <2> Which is liquid in the range 27\u00baC-2500\u00baC, which explains its use in high temperature thermometers. <3> Its inability to react with oxygen even at such high temperatures as heating to red. <4> Its total resistance to fluoride even at temperatures as high as heating to red. <5> Its great mechanical resistance.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a71dfede06c742d5b1fe442d7715a2cd", "input": "Question: The atomic mass of carbon is: \n Options: <1> The mass of 6.02.1023 carbon atoms, all of them being from the 12C isotope. <2> The mass of 6,022,103 carbon atoms, averaged according to the natural abundance of its isotopes. <3> The twelfth part of the mass of a carbon atom of the 12C isotope. <4> The sum of the mass of 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons. <5> The mass of 12 protons.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3a2acd486f2643ffa7e25c4713a5e961", "input": "Question: The alkali halides, MX: \n Options: <1> They are solids that melt below 100\u00baC. <2> They form crystals of intense colors. <3> They can be obtained by reaction of the M2CO3 carbonates with the aqueous solutions of the HX hydrogen halides. <4> None of them can be found in nature. <5> They are liquid at room temperature.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5eda6531501b46ffa663a9672a6a58e5", "input": "Question: Which of these species is a free radical? \n Options: <1> The molecule NO. <2> The O2 molecule. <3> The N2O molecule. <4> The OH- anion. <5> The ClO- anion.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-76639b57a2ae4ed98e2894eaf32c3218", "input": "Question: Ammonia usually used in the laboratory: \n Options: <1> It is a pure compound, liquid at environmental temperature and pressure. <2> It is a gaseous ammonia solution in water, very diluted, because ammonia is very little soluble in water. <3> It is a solution of gaseous ammonia in water, very concentrated, because ammonia is very soluble in water. <4> It is a gaseous ammonia solution in ethanol, because pure gaseous ammonia is insoluble in water. <5> It is a saturated solution of ammonium chloride in water.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9ef7b8fa458e4a578422936dfdd2a326", "input": "Question: The standard equilibrium constant for a reaction between ideal gases: \n Options: <1> It depends on the initial quantities of the reagents. <2> It takes different values \u200b\u200bif the reaction is carried out at different pressures. <3> It depends on the volume of the vessel in which the reaction is carried out. <4> It only depends on the temperature. <5> It depends on the nature of the gases.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0b5e365bbbbb4692a2fc7963e8023be5", "input": "Question: The antitumor agent cis-platinum: \n Options: <1> It is a flat square complex of Pt (II) with 2 molecules of ammonia and 2 chloride anions located in cis. <2> It is a flat square complex of Pt (IV) with 2 molecules of ammonia and 2 chloride anions located in cis. <3> It is an octahedral complex of Pt (IV) with 2 molecules of ammonia in cis and 4 chloride anions in the other positions. <4> It is an octahedral complex of Pt (II) with 2 chloride anions in cis and 4 ammonia molecules in the other positions. <5> It is an alkene with two Pt atoms in the two cis positions with respect to the double bond.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-65ea6dfc3e914c7d98c3e380fb71400c", "input": "Question: Sodium metal reacts violently with water because Na: \n Options: <1> Oxidize the water to oxygen, and the reaction is very exothermic. <2> It reduces the water to hydrogen, and the reaction is very exothermic. <3> Oxidizes the water to oxygen, and when a gas is generated, the entropy increases enormously. <4> It reduces the water to hydrogen, and the reaction is very endothermic. <5> It combines with water giving rise to an explosive hydride.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8f90a1fa67fc4555ae56de4c3c50929f", "input": "Question: The number of molecules per unit cell is a structure centered on all faces is: \n Options: <1> A. <2> Two. <3> Three. <4> Four. <5> Six.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-af37ece4465d40cc927d375e4981610e", "input": "Question: Regal water dissolves gold because of its two components: \n Options: <1> Sulfuric acid acts as an oxidant and hydrochloric acid forms a soluble chlorinated complex of Au3 +. <2> Hydrochloric acid increases the oxidizing power of nitric acid. <3> Nitric acid acts as an oxidant and hydrochloric acid forms a soluble chlorine complex of Au3 +. <4> Hydrochloric acid acts as an oxidant and nitric acid forms a soluble complex of Au3 +. <5> Nitric acid acts as an oxidant and hydrochloric acid forms a soluble chlorinated complex of Au2 +.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8e3262dc2c194cf8995f2121d6936ebe", "input": "Question: A light-emitting diode: \n Options: <1> It is the same as a photovoltaic cell. <2> It is the inverse of a photovoltaic cell. <3> It is the same as a photovoltaic cell. <4> It is the inverse of a photovoltaic cell. <5> It is equivalent to a photochemical cell.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c817fc2e59b14b5d987c8cc0940ff29e", "input": "Question: In the most general case, the wave function of a quantum mechanical system: \n Options: <1> It is defined for each electron and only depends on the coordinates of that electron. <2> It depends on the spatial coordinates of all the particles that make up the system and time. <3> It never depends on time. <4> It is found as a solution to the equations of motion proposed by Newton. <5> It can always be decomposed into sum of equations for each of the particles that make up the system.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5751beedfbcd46a5819804edab111c7c", "input": "Question: The equation of speed of a chemical reaction: \n Options: <1> It must be determined from kinetic measurements and can not be deduced directly from the stoichiometry of the reaction. <2> Allows the units of s-1 (s = second) to be assigned to the velocity constant. <3> It depends on the total reaction order that, in turn, is obtained from the stoichiometric coefficients of the products. <4> Report in detail about the reaction mechanism. <5> It depends on the experimental conditions of the process.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5adf0e58e2794a379186af79f066aac3", "input": "Question: The nitrogen: \n Options: <1> It is a highly reactive gas at room temperature. <2> Nitrogen molecules are constituted by two atoms linked together by a single bond. <3> It has a higher reactivity than other isoelectronic molecules such as CO, CNo or NO +. <4> At a sufficient temperature, it reacts with H2 to give NH3. <5> It barely forms binary compounds with the rest of the elements of the Periodic Table.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fd3fbe5254724a60b5bd02cc15e74932", "input": "Question: The number 0.0670 has: \n Options: <1> 5 significant figures. <2> 4 significant figures. <3> 3 significant figures. <4> 2 significant figures. <5> 1 significant figure.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4e0a3d5002b84d15b93cb60e8af81d54", "input": "Question: The Pearson correlation coefficient: \n Options: <1> It is always greater than 1. <2> It is always less than 1. <3> It is between 0 and 1. <4> It is between -1 and 0. <5> It is between -1 and 1.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f7fb4c728ef84804956afc41c30da628", "input": "Question: Separations by capillary zone electropheresis (CZE) are characterized in that the electrophoretic medium: \n Options: <1> It is always formed by 1.0 M HCl. <2> It is always formed by NH3 1.0 M. <3> It is homogeneous throughout the capillary. <4> It is not homogeneous throughout the capillary. <5> It has a pH gradient throughout the entire capillary.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d698cd3605a64d6684ef63d0f25e078e", "input": "Question: Linear scanning polarography uses a working electrode of: \n Options: <1> Drops of mercury <2> Iodine drops <3> Platinum. <4> Calomelanos <5> Drops of cerium nitrate.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-708deb574c64463dabc80ceacf1673bd", "input": "Question: Iodine is poorly soluble in water (\uf0bb 0.001M). Therefore, to obtain useful solutions as an analytical reagent it is dissolved in: \n Options: <1> 0.1 M potassium nitrate <2> Perchloric acid 0.01 M. <3> Excess of calcium nitrate. <4> Potassium iodide. <5> Hot water.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5603709f82b74831af0847b67da0bc9d", "input": "Question: The determination of cyanide by the Liebig method is based on the addition of a silver nitrate standard solution: \n Options: <1> Until complete precipitation of silver cyanide. <2> Until the precipitation of silver cyanide begins. <3> Until the appearance of a red precipitate of silver chromate. <4> Until the AgCN complex is quantitatively formed. <5> Until the precipitation of silver iodide, yellow.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9c4d61cab6eb4801b74760e0a21eed34", "input": "Question: When the electromagnetic radiation passes from the air to a medium like glass its wavelength: \n Options: <1> It remains unchanged. <2> Increase approximately 10 nm. <3> Increase approximately 100 nm. <4> It decreases approximately 1 nm. <5> It decreases approximately 200 nm.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-927bf259b0a343369b15faebfada2027", "input": "Question: In an evaluation the redox indicator In (ox) + ne- \uf0ab In (network) is used, whose normal potential is E0. The color change will occur: \n Options: <1> To the potential of the equivalence point. <2> To the value of E0. <3> In the interval E0 \uf0b1 0.059 / n. <4> In the interval E0 (ox) - E0 (network) if it is evaluated with a reducer. <5> At the potential of 0.059 / n.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c213f322d7a54193be00ecbe8977fa1c", "input": "Question: When an experimental design is carried out, it is fundamentally sought: \n Options: <1> Know better the average of the results obtained and repeated in an experiment. <2> Know better the median of the results obtained in an experiment. <3> Identify better the factors that can affect the experiment. <4> To better identify the regression equations in an experiment. <5> To know better the standard deviation of the different data in the experiment.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0d96a47cedf244509d79b3f15000af82", "input": "Question: The gas used to generate the ICP plasma (coupled induction plasma) is: \n Options: <1> Hydrogen for being diatomic, chemically inert and with a low ionization energy. <2> Oxygen because it is diatomic, highly reactive and with a high ionization energy. <3> Argon, being monatomic, chemically inert and with a high ionization energy. <4> Xenon, being monatomic, highly reactive and with a low ionization energy. <5> None of the above is correct, because the gas used is helium.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-051b95d5c26c48d7ae0e5f1bd3dbc1ac", "input": "Question: In the titration curve of a diprotic acid, the three points whose pH only depends on the dissociation constants are: \n Options: <1> The starting point and the equivalence points. <2> The first point of equivalence and the two points of semi-neutralization. <3> The first semi-neutralization point and the two equivalence points. <4> The starting point, the first semi-neutralization point and the first equivalence point. <5> The starting point and the two semi-neutralization points.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cba11258ddd14baa84a49565fc4fa214", "input": "Question: The validation of an analytical method includes: \n Options: <1> Validate the analytical process as a whole, validate the range of concentrations in which it is applied and validate the method in each of the matrices to which it will be applied. <2> It only includes validating the range of concentrations in which it is applied. <3> It only includes validating the method in each of the matrices to which it will be applied. <4> It is only necessary to validate the treatment stages of the samples prior to the analytical measurement. <5> It is only necessary to validate the instrumentation by means of suitable calibrations.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-11271adb48664d6296667b28327992cc", "input": "Question: In an electrochemical cell, the supporting electrolyte serves to: \n Options: <1> That the principle of electroneutrality in the dissolution is fulfilled. <2> That their ions are electrolized preferably in order to prevent the consumption of electroactive substance. <3> That in the cell there is transport by migration, in order to achieve greater sensitivity. <4> That the solution has an adequate electrical conductivity. <5> Encourage transport by diffusion of the electroactive substance.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-53073b8e35b14543af2cca23620c650e", "input": "Question: The traceability of an analytical method can be demonstrated: \n Options: <1> Carrying out the study of its selectivity. <2> By comparison with a reference method, use of certified reference materials and / or analysis of added samples. <3> Checking that the limit of detection of it is very low. <4> Evaluating the linearity of the calibration, whose most appropriate criterion is the correlation coefficient. <5> Making replicated measurements of the patterns and carrying out the analysis of the variance.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b518ae37201b4b58aeaa87534a801dc5", "input": "Question: A selective calcium electrode is characterized by having: \n Options: <1> A membrane that is a solid crystal. <2> An internal solution of 0.1 M HCl <3> An internal silver electrode. <4> A membrane of silver salts. <5> An internal aqueous solution of CaCl 2 saturated with AgCl.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-90de5898620f4633aae32236754401cd", "input": "Question: Potentiometric titration of chloride with a silver electrode, using a silver ion standard solution: \n Options: <1> It is based on the formation of silver complexes in the presence of a high concentration of chloride. <2> Follow the Nernst equation, in which the variation of the potential varies linearly with the concentration of silver ion. <3> It shows an equivalence point where pAg does not depend on the chloride concentration. <4> It gives rise to potential variations that depend on the amount of AgCl formed. <5> It provides a titration curve in which the jump of pAg does not depend on the concentration of chloride.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1ca00222e45e48beae77496b7ecb052f", "input": "Question: The alkaline error is defined as: \n Options: <1> Error that is committed when a strong base is valued. <2> Error that presents a glass electrode when the medium is very basic. <3> Error that is committed when a strong acid is valued. <4> Error affecting a reference electrode. <5> Own error of liquid membrane electrodes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-91e29c7adc3b41ee9baf6f886a2ecd8c", "input": "Question: The loss of linearity of the calibration line when the fluorescence intensity is used as an analytical parameter may be due to: \n Options: <1> Changes in solvent density as the concentration of fluorescent analyte increases. <2> Dissolved oxygen, due to its diamagnetic character, which favors intersystem crossing. <3> The presence of static inhibitors of the incident radiation. <4> Internal conversion, in which the energy absorbed can be transformed into heat energy. <5> Self-absorption, to the internal effect of bucket and to the formation of dimers and excimers.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e7f72ae2db9c49fbae8b91b76e282cd1", "input": "Question: A columbim\u00e9trica valuation: \n Options: <1> It is always done at controlled potential. <2> Always use a platinum macroelectrode. <3> It does not need a system indicating the end point. <4> You need the current to be controlled. <5> You always need the titrant to be added from a burette.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7276b5584bf24019bcbe39420f0c0826", "input": "Question: Liquid chromatography using linked stationary phases can be divided into normal phase and reverse phase phases. In this context it can be said that: \n Options: <1> The main separation mechanism in reverse phase is the distribution, while adsorption also plays a very important role in the normal phase. <2> In normal phase chromatography, a large number of non-polar stationary phases can be used. <3> The main separation mechanism in normal phase is the distribution, while the adsorption plays a very important role in the reverse phase. <4> In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is polar and the non-polar eluents. <5> In reverse phase chromatography, a large number of polar stationary phases can be used.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f7ecd0588dd044619d9f12b4d6c6b0d2", "input": "Question: Many of the properties of liquid chromatography (HPLC) and capillary electrophoresis (CE) have to do with its flow profile. In this way, the flow profile is: \n Options: <1> Laminate in HPLC and turbulent in CE. <2> Straight in CE and turbulent in HPLC. <3> Hyperbolic in EC and parabolic in HPLC. <4> Laminar in CE and electroosmotic in HPLC. <5> Parabolic in HPLC and flat in CE.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cb599ae5fb014c6a9629418a65b239cc", "input": "Question: The corrector Zeeman: \n Options: <1> It is widely used in Molecular Fluorescence to correct the internal filter effect. <2> It is a basic corrector in atomic absorption spectrometry, which is based on the property that atoms have in the form of atomic vapor of unfolding their electronic energy levels when subjected to an intense magnetic field, originating different emission lines for each transition electronics. <3> It is based on the phenomenon of self-absorption that occurs when the hollow cathode lamp is subjected to high currents and is widely used in atomic absorption spectrometry. <4> It is based on the emission of continuous radiation in the ultraviolet region of a deuterium lamp, used as a background corrector. <5> It is a corrector of chemical interferences, widely used in atomic emission spectrometry.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5201dffcd86f494d862c78c0b39acd6c", "input": "Question: When we inject 1 nanoliter (nL) sample we are referring to the injection of: \n Options: <1> 10-1 L. <2> 10-3 L. <3> 10-6 L. <4> 10-9 L. <5> 10-12 L.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1182a3b1378c44f6bf4443466bc85991", "input": "Question: For the determination of polychlorinated biphenyls is an environmental sample by gas chromatography, the most appropriate detector would be: \n Options: <1> Of flame ionization. <2> Of electronic capture. <3> Thermoionic <4> Of photoionization. <5> Amperometric.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f96c2f72aff24c2a99033a553c0ccaf3", "input": "Question: Gas chromatography combined with mass spectrometry (GC-MS) is the most commonly used chromatographic coupled technique. The main difficulty of the coupling is in: \n Options: <1> The analysis of molecular ions in the same place where they are generated. <2> The production of highly fragmented ions with accelerated electron generation. <3> The increase in the output flow rate of the chromatograph, which can not exceed nL / min. <4> The obtaining of the bidimensional spectrum that allows the separation in function of the relationship q / r. <5> The introduction into the high vacuum of the mass analyzer, of a compound that is at an atomospheric pressure.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0abd6769478142059ec8ed7a6f98aade", "input": "Question: For the analysis of traces of inorganic constituents, in samples of organic nature, a preliminary treatment of the sample is needed, which normally consists of: \n Options: <1> Dissolve the sample in cold water. <2> Dissolve the sample in hot water. <3> Dissolve the sample between 30 and 70 \u00baC. <4> Heat the sample between 400 and 700 \u00baC. <5> Heat the sample in 0.1 M hydrochloric acid.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3210ebb49f714c189bdbf69d3f1e16a1", "input": "Question: Linear sweep voltammetry is characterized by: \n Options: <1> To be a technique based on a stationary diffusion regime. <2> To be a voltammetric technique based on a pure diffusion regime. <3> Use a rotating electrode as working electrode. <4> Use a hanging drop electrode as the working electrode. <5> Have an electrode preconcentration stage.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ea53e85c23ea4c6a88d4b0216e6044b8", "input": "Question: In suppression ion chromatography: \n Options: <1> A single column is used and the conductivity of the mobile phase is kept very low. <2> The eluent must be able to be removed selectively after separation and prior to the conductometric measurement. <3> The eluent incorporates a regenerating solution of strong acid flowing in the same direction as the mobile phase. <4> Weak exchangers are used from polystyrene polymers. <5> A mobile phase with ionic conductivity gradient is used.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d94736126fed4cbeb5012ee05a44c100", "input": "Question: Voltammetry of anodic redissolution: \n Options: <1> It is always carried out with mercury film electrodes. <2> It uses an oxidation process with chemical agents. <3> It is based on the formation of mercury salts in the electrode. <4> It does not need background electrolyte. <5> It has an electrodeposition stage.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c703815c760844419f0006f6db0c3757", "input": "Question: The near infrared is the area of \u200b\u200bthe electromagnetic spectrum comprised between: \n Options: <1> 100-250 nm. <2> 200-450 nm. <3> 600-750 nm. <4> 800-2500 nm. <5> 3000-8000 nm.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e869eb401af545cf8f3953733ba7929a", "input": "Question: The voltammetric methods of anodic redissolution: \n Options: <1> They are based on the preconcentration of analytes on the surface of an electrode and are characterized by their low sensitivity, since the surface of the electrode is very small. <2> They apply exclusively to the determination of traces of metals by oxidation on a mercury electrode. <3> They require the application of a stage of accumulation and another of redisolution in which intensity-time curves are recorded. <4> They are used for the determination of metals that, once deposited, are oxidized electrochemically. <5> They are based on the variation of the potential that the working electrode experiences as the deposited substance is redissolved.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3c87eaa158994481847198c38414fae7", "input": "Question: The thermal conductivity detector was one of the first used in gas chromatography and still has a lot of application. Consists in: \n Options: <1> A source that is heated by electricity, whose temperature at a constant electrical energy depends on the thermal conductivity of the gas that surrounds it. <2> A metallic surface on which ions collide, producing emission of electrons or other ions, with the consequent variation in conductivity. <3> An air / hydrogen flame where organic compounds are pyrolyzed producing ions that lead to a change in conductivity. <4> An emitter of beta radiation that allows the measurement of the conductivity of the eluent that leaves the chromatographic column. <5> A source of thermal ionization that produces positive and negative ions that change the conductivity of the gas passing through the detector.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bf5a92547f7447129a64a64fdcbe1c3b", "input": "Question: The electrolytic cells: \n Options: <1> They always have three electrodes. <2> They always have two compartments separated by a salt bridge. <3> They can have a single compartment. <4> They always have a reference electrode. <5> They always use platinum electrodes.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-018221b6634e4f4dbb0c005746cec883", "input": "Question: In some sample treatments, the solid phase extraction technique is used. Said technique: \n Options: <1> It has the advantage that solvents are not required. <2> It is applied by contacting the solid sample with the stationary phase contained in a cartridge. <3> It does not require the application of pressure or vacuum. <4> It allows carrying out the preconcentration of large volume samples. <5> It is characterized by the high consumption of solvents.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e76359b19be147cfa1992d7fb6553740", "input": "Question: Which of the following transducers are not suitable in Atomic Mass Spectrometry? \n Options: <1> Electron multiplying channels. <2> Faraday Cup <3> Photo plates. <4> Scintillation detectors. <5> Photomultiplier tubes.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3f9226587b0e4a478f3f06f99e0f52a3", "input": "Question: The proteins can exhibit a fluorescent emission spectrum due to the presence of the following intrinsic fluorophores that absorb radiation in the UV-next region: \n Options: <1> Alanine, valine, glycine. <2> Tryptophan, tyrosine, phenylalanine. <3> Serine, methionine, asparagine. <4> Cysteine, alanine, methionine. <5> None of the above is correct, proteins never exhibit fluorescence.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9ff6ddfb581a48d7a4856f043853d99e", "input": "Question: In a potentiometry at zero intensity the electrode: \n Options: <1> Indicator always measures balance potentials. <2> Indicator measures the half-wave potential. <3> Indicator can measure a mixed potential. <4> Reference is always a calomel platinum electrode. <5> Indicator is always a platinum electrode.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-27384f3aa6b74ab18849680196ad4a66", "input": "Question: A microelectrode is characterized by: \n Options: <1> Give answers in steady state. <2> Always need an inert electrolyte. <3> Always need a potentiostatic system. <4> Do not need a reference electrode. <5> Always need agitation.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c371de3d994e4923a270c7f2fe08f731", "input": "Question: A parameter of great importance in chromatography is the equivalent height of theoretical plate (H). The van Deemter equation describes the behavior of a filler column for gas-liquid chromatography, where H = A + (B / u) + Cu, so that: \n Options: <1> C is the parameter that is taken as a measure of the quality of the filling of the column. <2> A is the coefficient that collects the contribution of longitudinal diffusion. <3> B is the parameter that is related to the resistance to the transfer of matter that opposes the stationary phase. <4> u is the linear velocity of the mobile phase. <5> B is canceled in columns without filling.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7c9c06309d394073851d84de41c3e528", "input": "Question: Ethidium bromide is a molecule that has a very low fluorescence yield in solution. However, its quantum yield increases remarkably when: \n Options: <1> It is atomized. <2> It is interspersed between consecutive base pairs of the DNA double helix. <3> The aqueous solution containing it is oxygenated. <4> It binds to a heavy metal forming a complex. <5> It is oxidized by the action of the enzyme glucoxaoxidase.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dac1368498a14488bc60f0d8b041b1c4", "input": "Question: Which of the following detectors is used in Infrared Spectroscopy? \n Options: <1> Photomultiplier tube. <2> Flame ionization detector. <3> Potentiostat. <4> Proportional counter <5> Deuterated triglycine sulfate crystal.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8940c098f931434185c98465d51a643c", "input": "Question: The determination of mercury by the cold vapor generation technique is based on the reduction of mercury in acid solution and the entrainment of the elemental mercury obtained to the absorption cell for analysis by atomic absorption. The most commonly used reducers are: \n Options: <1> SnCl2, for inorganic mercury and Na BH4 for both organomercury compounds and inorganic mercury. <2> Citrate, both for inorganic mercury, and organomercuriales. <3> Glutathione, especially suitable for all mercury species. <4> CaH2, for organomercurials and KMnO4 for inorganic mercury. <5> Na2SO3, for all mercury species.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6a4579b3467c40169d64e5a67bd010a5", "input": "Question: In chromatography, the dead time can be defined as: \n Options: <1> The time between the injection of a sample and the appearance of a solute peak in the detector. <2> The factor that indicates the amount of time a solute spends in the stationary phase in relation to the time spent in the mobile phase. <3> The time it takes for a non-retained species to pass through a chromatographic column. <4> The time it takes for the analyte to pass through the chromatographic detector. <5> The relationship between the average linear velocity and the packing length of the column.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-35d501fef5a94c48924b801f8e4be0ca", "input": "Question: It is very common the use of rotary valves of 6 doors or routes, alternately switchable, for the injection of samples in liquid chromatography of high resolution. Which of the following answers is correct? \n Options: <1> In the injection position, the mobile phase flow is maintained towards the column without passing through the loop. <2> In the loading position, the loop in charge of housing the sample remains open to the atmosphere whereby the sample can be deposited by means of a syringe. <3> In the loading position, the mobile phase flow is maintained towards the column by previously passing through the loop. <4> In the loading position, the sample is inserted into the column without disturbing the moving phase step towards the loop. <5> In the injection position, the entire internal volume of the loop is directed to the waste while the mobile phase carries the sample.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9a2528b2e31e4c64b9edbd0155827cbc", "input": "Question: A particle charged in solution moves when it is placed in an electric field. The speed acquired by the solute under the influence of the applied voltage is the product of the apparent mobility of the solute and the applied field. With regard to this mobility, it can be stated that: \n Options: <1> A neutral particle of small size will have a smaller mobility than a neutral one of large size. <2> A macromolecular polymer will have greater mobility than the corresponding monomer. <3> A large particle with a small charge will have great mobility. <4> A small particle of great load will have great mobility. <5> A charged micelle will have less mobility than another micelle of the same size but neutral.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-690eb65d2073405e847644f7c33f0ce4", "input": "Question: In the quantitative analysis by gas chromatography, to minimize the uncertainties that are introduced with the injection of the sample, the flow velocity and the variations in the conditions of the columns is used: \n Options: <1> Manual estimation of chromatographic peak heights. <2> The normalization of the areas. <3> The method of standard additions. <4> An external calibration <5> The internal pattern method.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e0f0dbf99bcc4024925323c90d2220da", "input": "Question: The use of monolithic columns and continuous beds in liquid chromatography is already very common. To this end: \n Options: <1> Microporous membranes are used so that the interaction between a solute and the matrix takes place in the final part of the pore. <2> A separation medium is introduced with a greater degree of continuity than the stationary particle phase so that the mobile phase is forced to traverse the large pores of the medium, improving mass transport. <3> Monodisperse particles are used as a stationary phase in order to improve mass transfer. <4> Flexible organic gels are used from microporous polymers in order to decrease the flow rates. <5> Columns filled with small particles of polymerized silica are used.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8692c160447b40228adedc6c483d618b", "input": "Question: The pH that provides a 0.01 M solution of benzoic acid (pKa = 4.2) is: \n Options: <1> 1.1. <2> 2.1. <3> 3.1. <4> 4.1. <5> 4.2.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-67eef28966834d1fa1c054440aeb654f", "input": "Question: In the technique of atomic absorption spectrometry, the use of an electrothermal atomizer instead of the flame provides: \n Options: <1> Greater accuracy <2> Greater precision. <3> Greater sample consumption <4> Longer analysis times. <5> Greater sensitivity", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6f3f85673c884fe581557e6896bb4816", "input": "Question: The reactivity of various carbonyl groups is determined by their relative stability. The order of reactivity towards nucleophiles is: \n Options: <1> Amides> Esters> Ketones> Aldehydes. <2> Aldehydes> Ketones> Esters> Amides. <3> Amides> Ketones> Aldehydes> Esters. <4> Aldehydes> Esters> Ketones> Amides. <5> Amides> Ketones> Esters> Aldehydes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cef39464dbbe4cbdbc576146cc9f68a5", "input": "Question: The reaction of a halogenated derivative with triphenylphosphine leads to a salt of: \n Options: <1> Sulfonium. <2> Diazonio. <3> Ammonium. <4> Pyridinium <5> Phosphonium", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-da9bd801c9574d5e9f46586668ebf3ba", "input": "Question: The Baeyer-Villiger oxidation is an important procedure to transform ketones into: \n Options: <1> Acids <2> Aldehydes. <3> Esters. <4> Ethers <5> Alquenos", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6ec1920fa08e4ac4924952104aa6c739", "input": "Question: Primary amines give condensation reactions with aldehydes and ketones producing: \n Options: <1> Iminas. <2> Enaminas <3> Amides <4> Hydrazines <5> Purines.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-40b09f056c9c436eb0318702c5e0e044", "input": "Question: The first stage of the mechanism of dehydration of cyclohexanol with H2SO4 is: \n Options: <1> Loss of OH-. <2> Formation of an ester sulfate. <3> Protonation of alcohol. <4> Loss of H + by alcohol. <5> Elimination of H2O from alcohol.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0bd2a4ae06ef404ba3f064c04bb81dae", "input": "Question: How many stereoisomers of 3-methylcyclohexane-1,2-diol can exist? \n Options: <1> Four. <2> 5. <3> 6 <4> 7 <5> 8", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-92562b06188649dca89a18f48adfc85e", "input": "Question: The six-membered cyclic ether with an oxygen atom is called: \n Options: <1> Oxolane <2> Oxano <3> Dioxane <4> Oxirano. <5> Oxetano.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d2fc219741944fc59c5f939879c054bd", "input": "Question: The reaction of trans-2-butene with m-chloroperbenzoic acid (mCPBA) gives: \n Options: <1> A mixture of diastereoisomers. <2> (R) -3-Cloroperbenzoate 2-butyl. <3> cis-2,3-Dimethyloxacyclopropane. <4> trans-2,3-Dimethyloxacyclopropane. <5> (\uf0b1) -3-Cloroperbenzoate 2-butyl.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bcf246673c6344fd9fb9a953d8b06972", "input": "Question: The dehydrogenation of alkylbenzenes is not a convenient laboratory method, but it is used in an industrial way to convert ethylbenzene to: \n Options: <1> Cumeno <2> Toluene <3> Styrene <4> Phenol. <5> Naphthalene", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-380ab21c96c34ec080f0f2c0ca9639ee", "input": "Question: Pyridazine is an aromatic heterocycle that contains in its structure: \n Options: <1> A nitrogen <2> Two nitrogens <3> Three nitrogens <4> Four nitrogens <5> No nitrogen", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-de34c2e5fd834e8ba5df31c6d31bdb7f", "input": "Question: In the oxaciclohexane-type conformer of sugar \uf062-D - (+) - glucopyranose: \n Options: <1> One of the OH- groups is axial, but the remaining substituents are equatorial. <2> The CH2OH group is axial but the remaining groups are equatorial. <3> All groups are axial. <4> All groups are equatorial. <5> The CH2OH group is equatorial but the remaining groups are axial.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a62cc6c5a31f4474b59436c3fba26d51", "input": "Question: When cyclopentanone is reacted with pyrrolidine, it forms: \n Options: <1> Amine. <2> Amide. <3> Enamina. <4> Acetal <5> Oxima.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-47277e4da3394f73ba7a078c280c41d4", "input": "Question: The reaction in which a vinyl halide or aryl reacts with a terminal alkyne in the presence of cuprous iodide and a Pd (0) catalyst is known as the reaction of: \n Options: <1> Suzuki <2> Heck <3> Stille <4> Sonogashira. <5> Sharpless.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-64a27ed4738b46b69ecdd1aed5366063", "input": "Question: Histidine and histamine are two compounds with biological importance that have in common as a structural unit: \n Options: <1> Pyridine <2> Piperidine <3> Triazine <4> Phenol. <5> Imidazole", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-02c8897ad70a4df69f161e21e01ec6fc", "input": "Question: The reaction conditions for transforming nonanamide into octanamine and carbon dioxide are: \n Options: <1> H2, metallic catalyst. <2> Excess of CH3I, K2 CO3. <3> Cl2, NaOH, H2O. <4> LiAlH4, diethyl ether and then hydrolysis. <5> CH2N2, diethyl ether.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2de56bf9fad04b889ad832b17bf7dc4e", "input": "Question: The number of nodes of the LUMO (unoccupied orbital of lower energy) of 1,3-butadiene is: \n Options: <1> None. <2> One. <3> Two. <4> Three. <5> Four.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bac582b394ba4f3a9ec04b605fe882d2", "input": "Question: The reaction of 3-methylcyclohex-2-enone with lithium dibutyl caprate and subsequent addition of chlorotrimethylsilane gives: \n Options: <1> [(3-Butyl-3-methylcyclohex-1-en-1-yl) oxy] trimethylsilane. <2> [(1-Butyl-3-methylcyclohex-2-en-1-yl) oxy] trimethylsilane. <3> Nothing. <4> 3-Butyl-3-methyl-2- (trimethylsilyl) cyclohexanone. <5> [(6-Butoxy-3-methylcyclohex-1-en-1-yl) oxy] trimethylsilane.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7f4970d658484057a0524d4e6ccc83a6", "input": "Question: The selectivity in the nucleophilic opening that occurs in the substituted oxacyclopropanes is called: \n Options: <1> Enantioselectivity <2> Diastereoselectivity. <3> Regioselectivity <4> Mesoselectivity <5> None of them.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-41311bf0bc32417aba0ec9b19c30cb33", "input": "Question: The reaction of 3-nitrobenzaldehyde with NaBH 4 in aqueous methanol gives: \n Options: <1> 3-Aminobenzaldehyde. <2> 3-nitrobenzoic acid. <3> 1-Methyl-3-nitrobenzene. <4> 3-Nitrobenzoate sodium. <5> (3-Nitrophenyl) methanol.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-26dcde8cece14a29a610277aff3061d8", "input": "Question: At 30 \u00b0 C, butylamine reacts with ethyl acrylate in KOH / EtOH and gives: \n Options: <1> N-Butylprop-2-enamide. <2> Prop-2-potassium enoate. <3> 3- (Butylamino) ethyl propanoate. <4> No new compound is formed. <5> Butene, ethanol and prop-2-enamide.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d074611334af44d480496cf99492ec37", "input": "Question: Reactions that use copper (I) salts as reagents to replace the nitrogen in the diazonium salts are called reactions of: \n Options: <1> Sandmeyer <2> Chichibabin <3> Peterson. <4> Gabriel. <5> Diels-Alder.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7b663a5d72e14765be3be2a34696472d", "input": "Question: The reactions in which the kinetics does not depend on the nucleophilic concentration, are reactions: \n Options: <1> Radicals <2> SN1. <3> Pericyclic. <4> SN2. <5> None of the above.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ba3c1799e81a4f78bcb27c32b232201f", "input": "Question: The hydroxy acids can be esterified intramolecularly by forming: \n Options: <1> Lactams <2> Nitrones. <3> Imidas <4> Carbamates. <5> Lactones.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-169c753f292c4d0494ca8d2319772751", "input": "Question: The reaction conditions for the preparation of 2-methyl-1-methoxypropan-2-ol from 2,2-dimethyloxirane are: \n Options: <1> The reaction with methanol in an acid medium. <2> There is no effective synthetic route. <3> The reaction with methylmagnesium bromide and subsequent hydrolysis. <4> The reaction with sodium methoxide in methanol. <5> The reaction with triphenylphosphine.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2280f883fad144f6ba15ce4164c1aa92", "input": "Question: Cyclopentadiene is so reactive that leaving it at room temperature slowly dimerizes by a reaction of: \n Options: <1> Friedel-Crafts. <2> Diels-Alder. <3> Markovnikov. <4> Suzuki <5> Gabriel.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ffe6571817194810bcd05d88ea3e3976", "input": "Question: Friedel-Crafts alkylation reactions lead to products that: \n Options: <1> They facilitate diazotization reactions. <2> They facilitate the reactions of formation of ethers. <3> Activate the aromatic ring against other substitutions. <4> They deactivate the aromatic ring against other substitutions. <5> None of the above.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-08221848c580459e8d7a5f7be6c9ef6d", "input": "Question: The oxygen of the ethers as that of the alcohols can be protonated to generate: \n Options: <1> Iminium ion. <2> Alkaloxonium ions. <3> Peroxides <4> Piranos. <5> Enaminas", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a7ad214cc2b7488fa77fe47a97deacd8", "input": "Question: The organometallic react with the nitriles giving: \n Options: <1> Amino acids. <2> Lactones. <3> Alcohols <4> Ketones <5> None of the above.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-234ed353f94a448eae23ae2d5d64edec", "input": "Question: Isopropyl alcohol is prepared from petroleum by hydration of: \n Options: <1> Isobutene <2> Eteno <3> Penteno <4> Buteno. <5> Propene", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-41b445ba58e8465e867d182c73cbd8f5", "input": "Question: Isoprene is: \n Options: <1> 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene. <2> 2-methyl-2-butene. <3> 2-methyl-1-butene. <4> 2-ethyl-1,3-butadiene. <5> 2-ethyl-2-butene.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eca33fd83013443c86a2ec74ec06c2a7", "input": "Question: What is the maximum number of stereoisomers of an aldohexose? \n Options: <1> two. <2> Four. <3> 8 <4> 16 <5> 32", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a1adc855136345a581c0c3ef476d80fa", "input": "Question: The reaction of peroxycarboxylic acids with the carbonyl group of ketones produces: \n Options: <1> Acids <2> Esters. <3> Alcohols <4> Ethers <5> Amides", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e4387529124d4712bbd991c1b091c2eb", "input": "Question: The lithium aluminum hydride reacts with the carboxylic acids to give: \n Options: <1> Esters. <2> Ketones <3> Tertiary alcohols. <4> Secondary alcohols <5> Primary alcohols.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ab15d5db82084023a99aeddb6888b96c", "input": "Question: The groups with resonant electroacoustic effect are: \n Options: <1> Deactivators and ortho / para-leaders. <2> Activators and ortho / para-leaders. <3> Deactivators and meta-leaders. <4> Activators and meta-leaders. <5> Deactivators and do not orient to any position.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dc030959d1664bd985e49b09b5da4291", "input": "Question: Which halogens react with methane by a radical chain reaction generating haloamines? \n Options: <1> Fluor and chlorine. <2> Bromine and chlorine. <3> Fluor, chlorine and bromine. <4> Everyone. <5> Iodo.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-47c04e7fa07d4b6fb4f37ab04a5c1ea6", "input": "Question: The reduction of nitriles with diisobutyl aluminum hydride (DIBAL) provides, after the corresponding aqueous acid treatment: \n Options: <1> Amines <2> Acids <3> ketones. <4> Aldehydes. <5> None of the above.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-09c05f8f100e4a71bafdb8bee81106b4", "input": "Question: Markovnikov's rule predicts regioselectivity in the reactions of: \n Options: <1> Nucleophile substitution. <2> Electrophilic aromatic substitution. <3> Electrophilic addition. <4> Nucleophilic addition. <5> Oxidation of alcohols.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-22f24254c47844b6a4d47d93545815fd", "input": "Question: The lithium dialkyl-heptarate reacts with alkyl halides to produce, by formation of carbon-carbon bonds between the alkyl group of the halide and the alkyl group of the dialkyl acetate: \n Options: <1> Alcanes. <2> Alquenos <3> Alquinos. <4> Aromatics <5> Piranos.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b04de5d84e6c4d21904cb0b655f7beaa", "input": "Question: The treatment of 1-hexyne with 1 mole of hydrogen bromide results in: \n Options: <1> 1-bromo-1-hexene. <2> 1-bromo-2-hexene. <3> 1-bromo-3-hexene. <4> 2-bromo-1-hexene. <5> 2-bromo-2-hexene.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f8ca8630f2a249939a6fdc65c990570c", "input": "Question: The chemistry of diazonium salts provides the main synthetic method for preparing aryl fluorides by a process called: \n Options: <1> Reorganization of Claisen. <2> Gabriel's reaction. <3> Diazotization reaction. <4> Sandmeyer reaction. <5> Schiemann reaction.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c0da947906214fcbb16ab3ea00cce922", "input": "Question: The terpene that contains 10 carbon atoms and is derived from two isoprene units is called: \n Options: <1> Diterpene <2> Monoterpene <3> Sesquiterpene <4> Triterpene <5> Meroterpeno.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-66f9d4067a514ccb9453f154b6da0a02", "input": "Question: Choose among the following phrases the one that most appropriately defines a concerted reaction: \n Options: <1> Reaction in a single stage in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time. <2> Reaction in several stages in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time in the slowest stage. <3> Reaction in which the speed of all stages is identical. <4> It is an equilibrium reaction in which K = 1. <5> Reaction in several stages in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time in the fastest stage.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c362fb95b64141359e355ca66ac51f49", "input": "Question: The liver converts ethanol into: \n Options: <1> Methanol <2> Acetone. <3> Acetaldehyde <4> Hydrogen peroxide. <5> Glycerol.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-59cf62730e6e4a4b8c33867dc69f7452", "input": "Question: The deoxyribonucleotides are synthesized: \n Options: <1> From the ribonucleotide triphosphate. <2> From the ribonucleotides diphosphate. <3> From NADPH. <4> By oxidation of ribonucleotides. <5> For DNA polymerase III.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-769f4a3652a943ebba55725a4ac4b02f", "input": "Question: Which of the enzymes contains manganese? \n Options: <1> Glutathione S-transferase. <2> Glutathione reductase. <3> Peroxidated glutathione. <4> Superoxide dismutase. <5> Catalase", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e37f60ad271043fab009c58e2978a102", "input": "Question: In which of the following types of enzymatic inhibition does the value of Vmax not decrease? \n Options: <1> Competitive <2> Not competitive <3> Acompetitive <4> Mixed <5> It decreases in all of them.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-557709f6c846458db802056f28bd1931", "input": "Question: According to the N-terminal end rule, the N-terminal residue of a protein determines: \n Options: <1> Its folding rate. <2> Its intracellular concentration. <3> Its intracellular location. <4> Your average life <5> Your translation rate", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-28fa306ee669442dbd19617ad958611f", "input": "Question: Glutathione fulfills everything that follows except: \n Options: <1> It is a dipeptide. <2> Eliminates peroxides and free radicals. <3> Participates in the detoxification of compounds. <4> Acts as a cofactor of some enzymes. <5> Protects against oxidative stress.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fa1847d4a53640d1a29642c3313a10af", "input": "Question: With respect to the characteristics of the amino acids, indicate which of the following statements is false: \n Options: <1> Amino acids are amphoteric substances that can act as acids or bases. <2> The side chains of the amino acids can be apolar, polar without charge or they can be charged at certain pH values. <3> The side chain of the wing can undergo a process of phosphorylation. <4> The proteins are constituted by Lamino Acids. <5> The amino acids Ser, Thr and Tyr can form ester bonds with a phosphate group.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7bc3a1ff827848d3bc14e3a4fa0f3d55", "input": "Question: COMPLETE: in the Krebs cycle 4 oxidation reactions occur, in 3 of them the final acceptor electron is ___ and in the other is ___: \n Options: <1> FAD / FMN. <2> NAD + / FMN. <3> NADP + / FAD. <4> NAD + / FAD. <5> FAD / NAD +.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-36144603e3394a3eac2e86f6707e6008", "input": "Question: The unwinding and supercoiling of DNA are controlled by the: \n Options: <1> Helicasas <2> Topoisomerases <3> DNA ligases. <4> Telomerases <5> DNA polymerase", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4e52c8b0963a4cdbbc5e4ee977277a76", "input": "Question: Which of the following definitions of fluorimetry is correct? \n Options: <1> Fluorimetry is less sensitive than spectrometry. <2> Fluorimetry is less specific than spectrometry. <3> Unsaturated cyclic molecules are frequently fluorescent. <4> The fluorescence is directly proportional to the temperature. <5> None of the options is correct.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0b29e5bd4a50440b9dd6df28b3a17758", "input": "Question: Which of the following compounds provides nitrogen atoms to the purine and pyrimidine rings? \n Options: <1> Aspartate <2> Carbamoyl phosphate. <3> Carbon dioxide. <4> Glutamine <5> Tetrahydrofolate.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-af6161da038345bebf83617cffc0a7d3", "input": "Question: What will be the charge of the glutamic amino acid at pH 7? \n Options: <1> It will not have a net charge. <2> It will have negative net charge. <3> It will have positive net charge. <4> Its side chain will be protonated. <5> Your \u03b1-amino group will be deprotonated.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ccd748bd51d64b7e9e1e1d42efc53db4", "input": "Question: The HDL: \n Options: <1> They are rich in triglycerides. <2> They lack minority apoproteins. <3> They transport cholesterol from the tissues to the liver. <4> They are activated by A-III. <5> They transport essential fatty acids.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-16d7f0b0342d461ebaa5127c2f1224a9", "input": "Question: The great diversity of immunoglobulins is mainly due to the recombination of: \n Options: <1> Epitopes. <2> Light chains <3> Heavy chains <4> Exons <5> Introns", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7c34aaf90e3e4f08a35b56024f9be1ae", "input": "Question: The term isocratic is used in high pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC) when: \n Options: <1> The mobile phase is at a constant temperature. <2> The stationary phase is in equilibrium with the mobile phase. <3> The mobile phase consists of a single solvent with a constant composition. <4> The flow rate of the mobile phase is regulated. <5> All the options are correct.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e1d49f6d82bd4c0b943066f814335d7f", "input": "Question: The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) encompasses three processes. Select sequence order: \n Options: <1> Extension \u2192 Fusion \u2192 Denaturation. <2> Fusion \u2192 Denaturing \u2192 Extension. <3> Denaturing \u2192 Fusion \u2192 Extension. <4> Denaturing \u2192 Extension \u2192 Fusion. <5> Extension \u2192 Denaturation \u2192 Fusion.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-343cfd4a43694b628a61cab3569475c8", "input": "Question: All of the following statements that describe restriction endonucleases are true EXCEPT: \n Options: <1> They do not provide single chain ends in complementary pieces of DNA. <2> They are limited by the methylation of the recognition sequences. <3> They recognize palidromic sequences. <4> They break both chains in the DNA duplex. <5> They are specific to short symmetric sequences.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fbfe2f1d866e4722ae37c6a51f17c888", "input": "Question: Acetylation of histones affects transcription: \n Options: <1> Blocking the incorporation of other components of the transcription machinery. <2> Preventing the remodeling of chromatin. <3> Facilitating the action of helicases. <4> Decreasing sensitivity to nuclear receptors. <5> Reducing the affinity of histones for DNA.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-299973ab79724ea3b5020745cf4f8088", "input": "Question: What group of amino acids, when they are part of the proteins, can be phosphorylated? \n Options: <1> Val, Ser, Thr. <2> Phe, Ala, Gly. <3> Val, Glu, Asp. <4> Tyr, Ser, Thr. <5> Lys, Ser, Ile.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8f7d65528ea24c65876c90efccab43fa", "input": "Question: The aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases: \n Options: <1> They participate in the synthesis of the TRANs. <2> They participate in the maturation of the precursors of the TRANs. <3> They are responsible for the synthesis of amino acids. <4> They are responsible for the interpretation of the genetic code. <5> They synthesize parts of the ribosomes.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0025fc09bc9449a586c91dcf9b128558", "input": "Question: A key reaction in the regulation of gene expression is acetylation / desatethylation in the histones of some of its residues: \n Options: <1> Serina <2> Threonine <3> Lysine <4> Tryptophan <5> To the girl.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ccc53d5c65034feb941197b2c86674bc", "input": "Question: During DNA replication: \n Options: <1> The two strands are synthesized continuously. <2> Ribozymes intervene. <3> The deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates are oxidized. <4> A primasa intervenes. <5> The two strands remain joined by hydrogen bonds.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-59f8811e6e0843198c29c225b6dbdfea", "input": "Question: Which amino acid serves as a starting point for the synthesis of porphyrins (heme group)? \n Options: <1> Valina <2> To the girl. <3> Asparagine <4> Lysine <5> Glycine", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-664c3ef67ba94cb68147a07d27849d54", "input": "Question: What pair of modified amino acids is very common in collagen? \n Options: <1> 4-Hydroxy-proline and 5-Hydroxy-lysine. <2> Histamine and 5-Methyl-lysine. <3> Carboxyglutamate and 4-Hydroxy-proline. <4> S-Adenosyl-methionine and 5-Methyl-proline. <5> Methyl-Phenylalanine and Histamine.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-07f8ed75d6094b78bb4ca6b94788c590", "input": "Question: The electron transport molecules: \n Options: <1> They are coenzymes of a nucleotide nature. <2> They exchange electrons in oxidation-reduction reactions. <3> They are molecules capable of oxidation and reduction. <4> FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) and FMN (flavin mononucleotides) are electron transport molecules. <5> All are true.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f424acb4f41d4c1f949bc21353e348b5", "input": "Question: Which of these compounds directly donates the 2nd amino group to the urea cycle? \n Options: <1> Aspartic. <2> Glutamic <3> Glutamine <4> Glycine <5> Ornithine", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5b56393350dd45348f9f7722f6e32fc2", "input": "Question: The mitochondrial complex \u03b1-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase needs all the following compounds EXEPT: \n Options: <1> CoA. <2> FAD. <3> NAD +. <4> NADP +. <5> Thiamine pyrophosphate.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-755dd54f21264db1afed8cb3256aa4cd", "input": "Question: Which of the following strands of DNA has the same nucleotide sequence (except the change of T per U) as its primary transcript? \n Options: <1> The leading thread. <2> The Watson strand. <3> The Crick strand. <4> The mold thread. <5> The coding strand.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0b7527f4a4ea4e36b0430d5af3ab917f", "input": "Question: The term DOMAIN refers to: \n Options: <1> The ends of the polypeptide chains of a protein. <2> Compact segments of globular proteins, which are structurally independent and have specific functions. <3> Combinations of alpha helices and beta sheets without a particular function. <4> Each of the individual polypeptide chains of an oligomer. <5> The structure of fibrous proteins.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4fa49c1d849a44f79a891e9f5629ac07", "input": "Question: In prothrombin, the conversion reaction of glutamate to \u03b3-carboxyglutamate is dependent on: \n Options: <1> Vitamin K. <2> Vitamin D. <3> Vitamin A. <4> Vitamin C. <5> Vitamin E.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eb6ef81d7cb647cba56858e58e76b03a", "input": "Question: Pyruvate carboxylase is allosterically activated by one of the following compounds, what is it? \n Options: <1> Pyruvate. <2> Acetyl-CoA. <3> Malate. <4> Oxalacetate. <5> NAD +.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1292821ca11a4731912b635f4238d49e", "input": "Question: Which of the following values \u200b\u200bis closest to the estimated value for the standard free energy increase of ATP hydrolysis? \n Options: <1> - 1.4 Kcal / mol. <2> - 2.6 Kcal / mol. <3> + 3.5 Kcal / mol. <4> - 7.0 Kcal / mol. <5> + 7.0 Kcal / mol.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-87df42e95c2d44ef8c401126b3dc28d7", "input": "Question: What amino acids can be bound to a sugar by an O-glycosidic bond? \n Options: <1> Ser and Thr. <2> Cys and Ser. <3> Asn and Thr. <4> Lys and His. <5> Val and Leu.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0432a9cd5a3046929b81ee2ba953fdd0", "input": "Question: In the alcaptonuria the defective enzyme can be: \n Options: <1> Dihydrobiopterin reductase. <2> Tyrosine aminotransferase. <3> p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase. <4> Homogentisic 1,2-dioxygenase. <5> Fumarilacetoacetasa.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7beb1e4824ee45c3b7db08762bdb0201", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble: \n Options: <1> Vitamin E. <2> Vitamin D. <3> Vitamin K. <4> Vitamin B. <5> Vitamin A.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fc6ae8f5c6bd4bff9a1c3565e676914f", "input": "Question: Which of the following steps is not part of gluconeogenesis? \n Options: <1> Oxalacetate to pyruvate. <2> Pyruvate to oxaloacetate. <3> Glucose-6-P to glucose. <4> Fructose-1, 6-bisP to fructose-6-P. <5> Oxalacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d99cce7969604422a877e4a6ca44e0ab", "input": "Question: The carboxypeptidases A and B: \n Options: <1> They are endopeptidases. <2> They are excreted by exocrine cells of the intestine. <3> They are excreted by exocrine cells of the stomach. <4> They are synthesized by endocrine cells of the liver. <5> They are synthesized by exocrine cells of the pancreas.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c1ec780a850449cf93c3ac7f6514717d", "input": "Question: With respect to the peptide bond, indicate which of the following statements is FALSE: \n Options: <1> It has partial character of double bond. <2> Form a small dipole. <3> Its formation involves the elimination of a molecule of water. <4> The peptide chain rotates freely through the peptide bond. <5> In an amide link.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3cfde433d2f64e91b2b3a431dd477692", "input": "Question: In collagen, what is the amino acid that is repeated every three residues? \n Options: <1> Glycine <2> To the girl. <3> Proline <4> Lysine <5> Hydroxyproline", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ac7f21faa10479bb60642b8bff8e674", "input": "Question: An unknown enzyme that affects DNA has been isolated from E. coli. When a solution of this enzyme is mixed with supercoiled plasmid DNA, its only effect is to relax DNA. At the end of the exposure to the enzyme solution, the plasmid DNA is covalently closed and is still circular. This enzyme is one: \n Options: <1> Restriction endonuclease. <2> Primasa <3> Reverse transcriptase <4> Helicasa <5> Topoisomerase", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3ddcfc293f58419b8c31f2df0d7ca4ef", "input": "Question: With respect to the control points of the expression of eukaryotic genes, indicate which of the following statements is false: \n Options: <1> Modification of the gene structure. <2> Regulation of transcription. <3> Ripening of RNA <4> Maturation of DNA. <5> Stability of RNA.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-02b1ac73a62a48d2926d6e3d25bedfd0", "input": "Question: Indicate the net charge of an amino acid with a neutral R group for a pH value below its pI: \n Options: <1> Negative net charge. <2> Positive net charge. <3> Without charge. <4> It is necessary to know the exact pH value to answer this question. <5> It is necessary to know the concentration of the amino acid to answer this question.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6d5b58437568415db66373ab543a19fb", "input": "Question: The RNA Polymerase I of eukaryotes transcribes the genes of: \n Options: <1> The precursors of mRNAs. <2> The precursors of the TRANs. <3> The ribosomal RNAs 18S, 5,8S and 28S. <4> All precursors of cellular RNAs. <5> The catalytic RNAs.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-788f9fc578e3483ba0e4bbdd4e42fee4", "input": "Question: The degree of fluidity of the biological membranes depends on the percentage of: \n Options: <1> Lipids with hill. <2> Glycolipids. <3> Sphingolipids <4> Free fatty acids. <5> Unsaturated fatty acids.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-02a3c4c2edf8484e8fa84c9dc84bcb10", "input": "Question: Where does glycosylation take place in a eukaryotic cell? \n Options: <1> In the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi Apparatus. <2> Only in the Golgi Apparatus. <3> In the mitochondria and the Golgi Apparatus. <4> Only in the endoplasmic reticulum. <5> In the endoplasmic reticulum and the plasma membrane.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5f5c3b9bcf1a4b4786f3b2e05e58087e", "input": "Question: In what type of reaction does the cytochrome P-450 of the liver typically intervene? \n Options: <1> Hydration. <2> Reduction. <3> Hydrolysis. <4> Esterification <5> Hydroxylation", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c82ab390f81d417fa969495dc76a496a", "input": "Question: The clinical sensitivity of an analytical parameter (test) is defined as: \n Options: <1> The mean concentrations of this test in healthy patients. <2> A pathological concentration of the test in the presence of the disease. <3> A pathological concentration of the test in the absence of the disease. <4> A normal concentration of the test in the absence of the disease. <5> A normal concentration of the test in the presence of the disease.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3193a4bc1fd64941911f28695d604b88", "input": "Question: What is the relationship between turbidimetry and nephelometry? \n Options: <1> Nephelometry is the inverse of turbidimetry. <2> Turbidimetry is more sensitive than nephelometry. <3> Nephelometry can be measured with a conventional spectrophotometer. <4> Both technologies measure the dispersion of light. <5> Both technologies are the most sensitive and used in clinical laboratories.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-38731cbcc33241cf948a186ef22c7552", "input": "Question: How does the increase in temperature affect the reaction between antigen and antibody? \n Options: <1> Increases the reaction rate and decreases binding affinity. <2> It decreases the reaction rate and increases the binding affinity. <3> Increases the reaction rate and binding affinity. <4> Decreases the reaction rate and binding affinity. <5> None of the above options is correct.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ec7aa981e466459e9eb57205f62e09d2", "input": "Question: Which of the following modifications is not part of the maturation process suffered by the precursors of the tRNAs? \n Options: <1> Modification of bases. <2> Elimination of the 5'-end leader sequence. <3> Elimination of the final segment of the 3 'end. <4> Addition of CCA to the 3 'end. <5> Polyadenylation of the 3'-end.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cc52efc7dbf6401fb61790a4faab244e", "input": "Question: The proofreading activity of DNA Polymerase: \n Options: <1> It is a 5'-3'exonuclease activity. <2> It is a 3'-5'exonuclease activity. <3> It is a 5'-3'polymerizing activity. <4> It is an endonuclease activity. <5> It is a transesterification activity.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c3129868ef0a470088d37a14dfe3d7de", "input": "Question: Glycolysis is the only ATP-producing route in: \n Options: <1> Erythrocytes <2> Lymphocytes <3> Hepatocytes <4> Neurons <5> Adipocytes", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b52dcd60863b4444845e4c38cd1e0f18", "input": "Question: The ribonucleotide reductase: \n Options: <1> Involved in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides. <2> It uses NADPH as a coenzyme. <3> It is an enzymatic system. <4> Acts in collaboration with the thioredoxin. <5> All the above is true.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a2fc4bdffe3f4a30bed72a12f06094d0", "input": "Question: On which of the following enzymes does citrate exert a positive allosteric effect? \n Options: <1> Pyruvate kinase. <2> Acetyl CoA carboxylase. <3> Fosfofructoquinasa. <4> Fatty acid synthetase. <5> Enolasa", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5c4760b40ea546b3a3511d38404202a1", "input": "Question: Glucagon increases the activity of: \n Options: <1> Protein kinase A. <2> Acetyl-CoA carboxylase. <3> Pyruvate kinase. <4> Glycogen synthase. <5> Fosfofructoquinasa-1.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cac672be26eb45988fc1072e46429481", "input": "Question: The aminotransferases: \n Options: <1> They participate only in the synthesis of amino acids. <2> They participate only in the degradation of amino acids. <3> They participate in the synthesis and degradation of amino acids. <4> Your heart levels are very low. <5> None of the previous answers is true.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b22eeaf8674c4b90b36e3f9b7596f5dd", "input": "Question: The enzyme succinate dehydrogenase catalyses the dehydrogenation reaction dependent on: \n Options: <1> NADPH. <2> FMN <3> NAD +. <4> FAD. <5> CoA.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b65410e2603044748b25215d6d689472", "input": "Question: Nitric Oxide (NO) is synthesized from the amino acid: \n Options: <1> Arginine <2> Asparagine <3> To the girl. <4> Aspartate <5> Valina", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5e578cbe289548a0a0aa2af2160f2fd2", "input": "Question: One of the enzymes mentioned below does not intervene in glycogen metabolism: \n Options: <1> Glycogen synthase. <2> Glycogen phosphorylase. <3> Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. <4> Phosphoglucomutase <5> UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c78f44b4bacf4bebbe6ef45e4b8977ee", "input": "Question: It is not included among the lipids found in biological membranes: \n Options: <1> Isopentenyl pyrophosphate. <2> Phosphatidylinositol. <3> Sphingomyelin <4> Phosphatidic acid. <5> Phosphatidylethanolamine.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e392862567814b44baf12b6ec5695a71", "input": "Question: A non-immunogenic low molecular weight molecule, which is when coupled to an antigenic carrier protein, is a: \n Options: <1> Glycoconjugate. <2> Paratope <3> Isotype. <4> Epitope. <5> Hapteno.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d313ebdb72a84538a6aadc06682ffd52", "input": "Question: Among the many molecules of high energy phosphate compounds that are formed as a consequence of the functioning of the citric acid cycle, a molecule is synthesized at the substrate level. In which of the following reactions does it produce you? \n Options: <1> Citrate \u2192 \u03b1-ketoglutarate. <2> Succinyl-CoA \u2192 succinate. <3> Succinate \u2192 fumarate. <4> Fumarate \u2192 malate. <5> Malate \u2192 oxaloacetate.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bbd956aa611f46aaa4b98375ca70230f", "input": "Question: What does it mean that hemoglobin binds O2 cooperatively? \n Options: <1> That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin drives the binding of other subunits to form a complete protein hemoglobin. <2> That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin increases the affinity of the same subunit to bind more O2 molecules. <3> That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin increases the affinity of other subunits for O2. <4> That the union of an O2 molecule to a protein hemoglobin causes the union of another O2 molecule to another protein different hemoglobin. <5> None of this is true.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e4aafe913ab14a5fb22f85cfab9ca32e", "input": "Question: A clathrate is: \n Options: <1> A type of covalent interaction. <2> The formation of a regular water network around non-polar molecules. <3> The formation of a regular network of water around polar molecules. <4> The structure of a lipid network around a protein. <5> A nucleoprotein complex.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-df042fe0c0d3459b923c282c44a08006", "input": "Question: The cyclic electronic flow of photosynthesis: \n Options: <1> It uses the components of photosystem II together with plastocyanin and cytochrome b6f. <2> Generates ATP and NADPH. <3> It occurs in situations in which NADPH is in short supply. <4> It generates ATP without reducing NADP +. <5> Free O2.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6b9aab00e1db40be86fc3cbaeecbf718", "input": "Question: The \u03b1-keratin consists of: \n Options: <1> Two dextrorotative \u03b1-propellers coiled to form a left-handed helix. <2> Two dextrorotary propellers coiled to form a left-handed helix. <3> Two levorotylar helices coiled to form a levorotatory helix. <4> Two lev\u00f3giras \u03b1 helices coiled to form a dextrorotatory helix. <5> One helix \u03b1 levorotatory and one dextrorotatory coiled to form a levorotatory helix.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-73e3fe21b23140edb0e33329af7c14c9", "input": "Question: Indicate the amino acid that, under physiological conditions, has an uncharged side chain: \n Options: <1> Arginine <2> Aspartic acid. <3> Glutamic acid. <4> Lysine <5> Threonine", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a968f01a920a403888ff443d69314f32", "input": "Question: The clinical specificity of an analytical parameter (test), with respect to a certain pathology, is defined as: \n Options: <1> The mean concentrations of this test in healthy patients. <2> A pathological concentration of the test in the presence of the disease. <3> A pathological concentration of the test in the absence of the disease. <4> A normal concentration of the test in the absence of the disease. <5> A normal concentration of the test in the presence of the disease.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9ef7a2dae3544268b58761819d24fe2d", "input": "Question: Linolenic acid (18: 3\uf0449, 12, 15) is a fatty acid: \n Options: <1> Polyunsaturated. <2> Saturated. <3> Polysaturated <4> With triple link. <5> Branched.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8933c39ac8f6419890122fae5c06be2d", "input": "Question: Transcription factors: \n Options: <1> They bind to chromatin by interaction with histone H2A. <2> They bind to RNA and regulate the start of transcription. <3> They join the DNA. <4> They are organized into nucleosomes. <5> They regulate DNA mutilation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eae0f6e8e31e411e9356cf9f1842a297", "input": "Question: The metal that appears most frequently in the active site of metalloproteases is: \n Options: <1> Calcium. <2> Magnesium. <3> Selenium. <4> Sodium. <5> Zinc.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4d04da4ec7b54a59a18a9b59f37e7e04", "input": "Question: The Aminoacyl-tRNAs: \n Options: <1> They are the precursors of the RANs. <2> They are enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of amino acids. <3> They are part of the ribosomes. <4> They are the tRNAs loaded with the amino acid specified by its anticodon sequence. <5> They are synthesized by RNA Polymerase II.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6dc82f3d7ab443769f111d91654a33e7", "input": "Question: Which of the following products of the degradation of triacylglycerols and subsequent oxidation can undergo gluconeogenesis? \n Options: <1> Propionyl CoA. <2> Acetyl CoA <3> All the ketone bodies. <4> Some amino acids <5> \uf062-Hydroxybutyrate.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3249072416c64ae685946600ce956b7d", "input": "Question: The standard free energy of activation of a reaction is: \n Options: <1> The difference in free energy between the basal state of the products and the substrates. <2> The difference of the enthalpy minus the entropy of the system. <3> The basal energy of the substrates in a catalyzed reaction. <4> The additional free energy that molecules must reach to reach the state of transition. <5> The energy released from a catalysed reaction.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2fe4d9cdebfe4af097ab2bde1c8ae3d4", "input": "Question: Mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation is regulated by: \n Options: <1> Mitochondrial steroid hormones. <2> Apoptosis <3> Thermogenin <4> The cytochrome c. <5> The cellular energy charge.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-be734be1a6824fe1834e96a27ef56d48", "input": "Question: The carbon skeleton of proline enters the citric acid cycle in the form of: \n Options: <1> Fumarate <2> Isocitrate. <3> \u03b1-Cetuglutarate. <4> Oxalacetate. <5> Succinate", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ec0115b2c602462eb1cd36ff23311ee1", "input": "Question: The pyruvate carboxylase activity depends on the positive allosteric effector: \n Options: <1> Succinate <2> AMP. <3> Isocitrate. <4> Citrate. <5> Acetyl CoA", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3d4d8fc5b4b641df86ab996f320f6965", "input": "Question: The key regulatory enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway is regulated positively by: \n Options: <1> NADH <2> ADP. <3> GTP <4> NADP +. <5> FADH.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f648ca1159674b2eab02afb1652c1018", "input": "Question: Ribonuclease H hydrolyzes specifically: \n Options: <1> The DNA with DNA matching complementary sequence. <2> RNA with DNA matching of complementary sequence. <3> The RNA primer in the replication. <4> RNA without pairing with DNA of complementary sequence <5> Certain introns in the maturation process.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d02d1a6621af4102ab8b1ba318ac3021", "input": "Question: In the urea cycle: \n Options: <1> Enzymes that participate are located in the mitochondria. <2> Genetic defects can be treated with benzoate. <3> An intermediate metabolite is N-acetylglutamate. <4> Lysine is synthesized. <5> Carbamylphosphate synthetase II intervenes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-394d0105fe2e4ad98370603bae5090c4", "input": "Question: The DNA link number: \n Options: <1> It is the number of hydrogen bonds of a double-stranded DNA. <2> It is the number of optimal matings in a double-stranded DNA. <3> It is the number of phosphoester bonds in a single-stranded DNA. <4> It is a topological property and defines the degree of supercoiling of a DNA. <5> It is the number of turns in double-stranded DNA.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fd1f0f525ba44f7faa689a19c00ba813", "input": "Question: In the path that leads in the liver to acetoacetate biosynthesis from acetyl CoA, which of the following substances is the immediate precursor of acetoacetate? \n Options: <1> 3-Hydroxybutyrate <2> Acetoacetyl CoA. <3> 3-Hydroxybutyrate CoA. <4> Mevalonic acid. <5> 3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl. CoA.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2dc3c63362894d39bb1125137df30917", "input": "Question: Which of these compounds is a product generated directly by the pentose route? \n Options: <1> NADP +. <2> NADPH. <3> NADH <4> Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate. <5> CoA.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c4a3d5e918374d5aa43c2d10411e9c52", "input": "Question: Which of these vitamins are isoprenoid compounds? \n Options: <1> Vitamins A, B2, C and D. <2> Vitamins A, B2 and Folic acid. <3> Vitamins A, K and biotin. <4> Vitamins D, E and C. <5> Vitamins A, D, E and K.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5c6d305d86194e159638dae55dffc6d9", "input": "Question: The repeating element of the DNA structure is called: \n Options: <1> Spiceosome <2> Nucleosome <3> Chromosome. <4> Replisome <5> Primosoma.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e4765e5b12124a95a319b6987e22503c", "input": "Question: The binding of an allosteric activator to an allosteric enzyme typically results in: \n Options: <1> Decrease the Vmax. <2> The transition to a less soluble state. <3> Decrease the Km by its substrate. <4> The transition to hyperbolic kinetics. <5> The dissociation of its subunits.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5a103b31043945df8208195ff7f06218", "input": "Question: The secretion of insulin by pancreatic cells is regulated positively by: \n Options: <1> Inhibition of hexokinase IV. <2> Activation of K + channels. <3> Inactivation of Ca ++ channels. <4> High concentration of ATP. <5> Low blood glucose levels", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3e82fe1430e24acfad28a4e8dce4799f", "input": "Question: How is it possible that during the replication of the bacterial DNA the guide (or forward) and delayed strands are synthesized in a coordinated way? \n Options: <1> The guide strand is synthesized in the 5'-3'direction and the delayed one in the 3'-5'direction. <2> The holoenzyme DNA Polymerase III contains two copies of the catalytic core of the enzyme. <3> Proteins bound to the delayed strand control the synthesis speed of the guide strand. <4> Specific enzymes control the opening of the replication fork. <5> The helicase controls the speed of synthesis in both strands.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-98b5473d39344e7d8faa57a7c696d495", "input": "Question: Point out the correct statement: \n Options: <1> At low pO2, myoglobin is more saturated with O2 than hemoglobin. <2> CO2 increases the affinity of hemoglobin for O2. <3> 2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate is strongly bound in oxygenated hemoglobin. <4> The tissues that produce lactate release more O 2. <5> At high pO2, hemoglobin has 2 subunits.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ae24ad7d0f554dc0983b13bd72cbdbc0", "input": "Question: Glucagon affects blood glucose by: \n Options: <1> Inhibit the degradation of hepatic glycogen. <2> Activate hepatic glycolysis. <3> Activate hepatic gluconeogenesis. <4> Inhibit the mobilization of fatty acids. <5> Inhibit hepatic ketogenesis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e32527fb04bc489593183dd3aeb6c42e", "input": "Question: Which of these phrases about gluconeogenesis is not correct? \n Options: <1> In gluconeogenesis enzymatic reactions different from glycolysis are used. <2> Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from precursors that are carbohydrates. <3> Gluconeogenesis has as main substrates lactate, amino acids, propionate and glycerol. <4> Gluconeogenesis occurs mainly in the cytosol. <5> Gluconeogenesis uses specific enzymes to avoid three irreversible reactions in glycolysis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1948d4504b224d57b211ebfdbc986b39", "input": "Question: The particles of recognition of the signal have as function: \n Options: <1> Break the signal sequence. <2> Detect cytosolic proteins. <3> Direct the signal sequences to the ribosomes. <4> Link the ribosomes to the endoplasmic reticulum. <5> Join the mRNA to the ribosomes.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-132763b116084a209b15a77ddc594f11", "input": "Question: Which coenzyme is involved in the synthesis of nitric oxide (NO)? \n Options: <1> NADH <2> NADPH. <3> FAD. <4> CoA. <5> Thiamine.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a67bd1400ffa44b59351f9edc26cce9a", "input": "Question: The prozone effect of a turbidimetric analysis can be detected by measuring the absorbance: \n Options: <1> After an ultracentrifugation. <2> Previous concentration of the sample. <3> After dilution of the sample. <4> Once the sample was treated with SDS. <5> Two consecutive times.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a6aee74295324bfb9ca52ef58d5da931", "input": "Question: The DNA Girasa is: \n Options: <1> A eukaryotic Topoisomerase I. <2> A eukaryotic Topoisomerase II <3> A prokaryotic Topoisomerase I <4> A prokaryotic Topoisomerase II. <5> A prokaryotic Helicasa.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9515f688b30a433b9c6f803a704e7b0b", "input": "Question: What enzyme is present in complex II that participates in oxidative phosphorylation? \n Options: <1> Coenzyme Q: cytochrome c oxidoreductase. <2> NADH dehydrogenase. <3> Succinate-coenzyme Q reductase. <4> ATP synthase. <5> Cytochrome c oxidase.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6063c4bb1c19437b839355caf2301374", "input": "Question: Which of the following enzyme complexes catalyzes the reduction of molecular oxygen to water during oxidative phosphorylation? \n Options: <1> ATP synthase. <2> Cytochrome c oxidase. <3> NADH-Q oxide-reductase. <4> Q-cytochrome c-oxide-reductase. <5> Succinate-Q reductase.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-958f4950cf704a87a9eb5d7eedf44a08", "input": "Question: The presence of which of the following structural arrangements in a protein suggests that it is a regulatory protein for DNA binding: \n Options: <1> Plate \uf062. <2> Disordered region. <3> Helix \uf061. <4> Chaperones <5> Finger of zinc.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-744e1ad6eaf643908a87af0515591ee0", "input": "Question: The chemical reactions of the splicing process of the introns during the maturation of the pre-mRNAs consists of: \n Options: <1> An oxidation-reduction reaction. <2> A transesterification reaction. <3> Two sequential transesterification reactions. <4> Three sequential transesterification reactions. <5> A transesterification reaction followed by another oxidation reaction.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4b8314b4f52740f6a46b135869688bd6", "input": "Question: DNA fotoliasa: \n Options: <1> Repairs cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers in the presence of visible light. <2> It binds to DNA specifically in purine dimers. <3> It contains three chromophores. <4> It is present in all eukaryotic cells. <5> It breaks the bonds that link pyrimidine rings and then dissociates in the presence of visible light.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e1fb5d55bb1a4bf0b392075fe95ad9df", "input": "Question: In protein biosynthesis: \n Options: <1> The information contained in the two DNA chains is translated. <2> The messenger RNA is translated in the 5'-3'direction. <3> Initiation occurs in the promoter sequence. <4> Start with the most abundant amino acid. <5> Start with different amino acid according to the protein to be synthesized.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-33a5b7bf20924c09a47894414a874c78", "input": "Question: The new proteins destined for secretion are synthesized in: \n Options: <1> Golgi apparatus. <2> Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. <3> Free polysomes. <4> Nucleus. <5> Rough endoplasmic reticulum.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-69d096dc76994a7c81c2e8265c59aa25", "input": "Question: During a prolonged fast: \n Options: <1> The low level of blood sugar decreases the secretion of glucagon and increase the insulin. <2> Decreases the concentration of acetyl-CoA. <3> The main fuel of the organism happens to be the fatty acids and the ketone bodies. <4> The proteins are degraded and replenished immediately. <5> The brain and the heart use fatty acids as fuels.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-195da836484c4520b37815d0233b40e4", "input": "Question: Which of the following answers is correct regarding a tRNA? \n Options: <1> The tRNA has an anticodon that recognizes the template DNA. <2> The amino acid is attached to the 5'-end. <3> It contains a polyA tail at its 3 'end. <4> It may contain pseudouridin and inosine. <5> It serves as a gene for some viruses.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2fe838606ad64d91972fc51237fedf77", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements regarding the double-stranded DNA molecule is true? \n Options: <1> All the hydroxyl groups of the pentoses participate in the bonds. <2> The bases are perpendicular to the axis. <3> Each chain is identical. <4> Each chain is parallel. <5> Each chain replicates itself.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-220ffa0c05f04bf4a347c8d2906e48ae", "input": "Question: Relating to topoisomerases: \n Options: <1> They are enzymes that convert the D-amino acids into L-amino acids. <2> They are enzymes that synthesize DNA. <3> They are enzymes that participate in the union of the subunits of the ribosome. <4> They are enzymes that denature DNA. <5> DNA gyrase is a special toposiomerase.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-35ca51bf256f4537b51b41903450e72a", "input": "Question: An exergonic reaction: \n Options: <1> It is always spontaneous. <2> It is always endothermic. <3> It is done at a great speed. <4> \uf044G is positive. <5> All are correct.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2dcf8b22b6234a3ea4ad09d0bcc3231d", "input": "Question: In what units is usually expressed the coefficient of molar absorptivity? \n Options: <1> mL mol-1 cm. <2> L mol-1 cm-3. <3> Photons per mole. <4> M-1 cm-1. <5> It is dimensionless.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-150647367a044b6fb7be4637ed10f308", "input": "Question: Which compound acts as a sulfhydryl buffer and as an antioxidant? \n Options: <1> Glycogen <2> Glutamic acid. <3> Glucagon. <4> Glutathione <5> Ascorbic acid.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-de9e8ea22b784fdeb403a19e87a91421", "input": "Question: Heating of 4-methoxy-3,5-dinitrobenzenesulfonic acid with dilute sulfuric acid gives: \n Options: <1> 4-Methoxy-3,5-dinitrophenol. <2> 3,5-Diamino-4-methoxybenzenesulfonic acid. <3> 4-methoxy-3,5-dinitrobenzenesulfonic acid anhydride <4> 2-Methoxy-1,3-dinitrobenzene. <5> An organic cation", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9cfdaed204a44e4a8b87b0321785f5a1", "input": "Question: In the homogeneous nucleation: \n Options: <1> If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius less than the critical radius, the energy of the system will be lower if its size increases. <2> If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius smaller than the critical radius, the energy of the system will be lower if it is redissolved. <3> If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius greater than the critical radius, the energy of the system will be lower if it is redissolved. <4> If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius equal to the critical, the energy of the system will be lower if it is redissolved. <5> There is no relationship between the critical radius and the tendency to grow in size or redissolve.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2a22f5dccf7948f5ba53776a463b68ee", "input": "Question: In the Urea Cycle, where is the hydrolysis of ATP required? \n Options: <1> In the formation of Citrulline. <2> In the Ornithine formation. <3> In the formation of Urea. <4> In the formation of Carbamoyl-Phosphate. <5> 3 and 4 are correct.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-363a7d5dd0a74ecdab8b533f7608b083", "input": "Question: Ferrous oxide, known as wustite (FeO) is non-stoichiometric because it contains: \n Options: <1> Excess iron <2> Oxygen excess <3> Iron defect. <4> Oxygen defect. <5> Defect of iron and oxygen.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3a63fe1813a04e1a920caf06906bb9e9", "input": "Question: Which of the nucleophiles listed below has a greater reactivity to the bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction? \n Options: <1> Hydroxide. <2> I last. <3> Ammonia. <4> Water. <5> Acetic acid.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-adcb1534328b4bc3b59b928943d93a0d", "input": "Question: The three-dimensional arrangement of a protein corresponds to: \n Options: <1> Its primary structure <2> Its secondary structure. <3> Its tertiary structure. <4> Its quaternary structure. <5> With its primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-672ec7add10449f0b7581394c66480d8", "input": "Question: It gives the plasma membrane high water permeability: \n Options: <1> Aquaporins. <2> Ionic channels. <3> Na + / K + -ATPase. <4> Cl / HCO3 exchanger. <5> Its lipid composition.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b4dc8cee20d847faa16c2f8dc0904ea8", "input": "Question: The action potential starts in the membrane of the initial segment of the axon by: \n Options: <1> Be the place where the synapse occurs. <2> Have a higher excitation threshold. <3> Present high concentration of voltage-dependent channels. <4> Present Na + channels regulated by ligand <5> Start there the axon myelin sheath.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4019a5396ae64fce92efe1bd43fcd631", "input": "Question: A potential receiver: \n Options: <1> It is produced by the opening of voltage-dependent channels. <2> Increase its frequency if the intensity of the stimulus increases. <3> It occurs after the binding of the neurotransmitter to the postsynaptic receptor. <4> They occur if the trigger threshold is exceeded. <5> It can be exciter or inhibitor.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5a093d029c7c4e4ba5bbf974bb885455", "input": "Question: In smooth muscle fibers: \n Options: <1> The functional unit is the sarcomere. <2> The contraction is regulated by troponin. <3> The autonomous system always innervates all fibers. <4> Actinamyosin cross bridges do not form. <5> There may be hormone receptors.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5b2b8be3b37a4c38812cc56792a24832", "input": "Question: Regarding the tendon reflex of Golgi: \n Options: <1> It is monosynaptic. <2> The receptors are in series with the extrafusal muscle fibers. <3> It is mediated by afferent fibers type la and ll. <4> Activates \u03b1-motor neurons that innervate the muscle in which the receptor is located. <5> It is very sensitive to changes in muscle length.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-784c532270944200b14af6178bfead2b", "input": "Question: In the parasympathetic system: \n Options: <1> The preganglionic neuron is in thoracic spinal cord. <2> Postganglionic neurons have short axons. <3> Postganglionic fibers release noradrenaline. <4> Postganglionic neurons have muscarinic receptors. <5> Numerous neurons innervate vascular smooth muscle of the extremities.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-02fdeb0484824c6cb168da44e71cced2", "input": "Question: They are secondary interoceptor mechanoreceptors: \n Options: <1> The corpuscle of Pacini and Ruffini. <2> The taste buds. <3> The receptors of the vestibular apparatus. <4> The hair cells of the organ of Corti. <5> The muscle bones.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-05fc80dfdcda4e248fb6cb159bc4d631", "input": "Question: Spatial discrimination of tactile stimuli: \n Options: <1> It increases with the size of the receiving fields. <2> It increases if the convergence of the afferent pathways is large. <3> Increase if there is lateral inhibition <4> It is independent of the density of innervation. <5> It depends only on the type of activated receiver.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aaa10373552b45499779a10e6aac0787", "input": "Question: The optical path partially decimates in: \n Options: <1> The optical band. <2> The geniculate body. <3> The optic chiasm <4> The retina. <5> The optical disc.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9529121131cc44a68a9598226be03835", "input": "Question: In the human eye: \n Options: <1> Photoreceptors contact the vitreous humor. <2> The accommodation is due to the increase in the curvature of the cornea. <3> The pigmentary epithelium participates in the regeneration of rhodopsin. <4> The cones and rods are distributed homogeneously throughout the retina. <5> The greatest refractive power is in the lens.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b10ec50fa02845da9b5e384526b7a059", "input": "Question: In the human ear: \n Options: <1> The stereocilia of the sensory cells are bathed in perilymph. <2> The abutment fits over the round window. <3> The sensory cells are on the Reissner membrane. <4> The synaptan receptor cells with fibers from the eighth cranial nerve. <5> The helicotrema communicates the middle and tympanic ramps.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-556f250351764d7e9e4cc3cee2bd0c20", "input": "Question: After the intake increases the release of: \n Options: <1> Insulin. <2> ACTH. <3> Cortisol <4> Adrenaline from the adrenal medulla. <5> GH", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-32231768d0ea43aa8e4a299fba509fda", "input": "Question: Motor cranial nerves: \n Options: <1> They have their somas in the dorsal ganglia of the cervical region. <2> They originate in the brainstem. <3> They receive the name of the medullary region through which they exit. <4> They belong only to the somatic nervous system. <5> They originate in the cerebral cortex.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cdea4e597e09429e891361bce9a2c578", "input": "Question: The main function of the cerebellum is: \n Options: <1> Coordinate complex muscle movements. <2> Coordinate endocrine and nervous responses. <3> Control digestion, circulation and breathing. <4> Control the wake-sleep cycle. <5> Control the intake.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-465120c36ef848ce973a5790f8b43a4e", "input": "Question: Controls the passage of substances to the central nervous system: \n Options: <1> Meninges. <2> Choroid plexus. <3> Hemato-encephalic barrier. <4> White substance <5> Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-deed57eea33842a195f0bc33505c524c", "input": "Question: They send efferent projections from the cerebellar cortex the: \n Options: <1> Purkinje cells. <2> Climbing fibers <3> Granular cells. <4> Horizontal cells. <5> Mossy fibers.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c9a0c88f77cb4e2ca2cfb56358aaebd3", "input": "Question: The sensory signals arrive mainly at the layer of the cerebral cortex number: \n Options: <1> II. <2> III. <3> IV. <4> V. <5> SAW.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7577e998be134c70b35c4359c255a6c3", "input": "Question: The cells of the sinus node present: \n Options: <1> Stable membrane potential. <2> Contractile capacity <3> Depolarization faster than Purkinje fibers. <4> Depolarization mediated by Ca2 + channels. <5> Long plateau.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f8d72034304541d6b7beabeb00cb1acf", "input": "Question: A hemorrhage: \n Options: <1> Activates the arterial baroreceptors. <2> It produces peripheral vasoconstriction. <3> Reduce ADH levels. <4> Inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis. <5> Releases natriuretic atrial peptide.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-085b908ba11845d596f8f69ac24eadc1", "input": "Question: Vasconstricts systemic arterioles: \n Options: <1> Low pO2. <2> Low pH. <3> Angiotensin II. <4> Acetylcholine <5> Nitric oxide.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-412af6ed44a24c1997ca330aad434c6d", "input": "Question: Increase the stroke volume if: \n Options: <1> Increase afterload. <2> Increase the preload. <3> The sympathetic is inhibited. <4> Decreases venous return. <5> Increase heart rate", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c074f04eacf04b069d5797d7a8e3b1bc", "input": "Question: Cardiac output decreases the increase of: \n Options: <1> The volemia. <2> The venous return. <3> Vagal activity. <4> The end-diastolic volume. <5> The myocardial contractility.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2dd5e6910cc047bebd5c7df4b0bf4ee9", "input": "Question: An increase in blood pressure between 80 and 150 mmHg increases diuresis because: \n Options: <1> The glomerular filtration increases exponentially. <2> Decreases the peritubular reabsorption of water. <3> The efferent arteriole contracts. <4> Proportionally increases renal blood flow. <5> The afferent arteriole contracts.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ad999f3d47b4993827a631b476671cc", "input": "Question: The atrial syncytium is separated from the ventricular by: \n Options: <1> The atrio-ventricular valves. <2> The semilunar valves. <3> The fibrous skeleton. <4> The interventricular septum. <5> The Beam of His.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fcf1c79d722446d99d63e6889c13a296", "input": "Question: The papillary muscles: \n Options: <1> They contract atrio-ventricular valves. <2> They prevent the reflux of blood to the atria. <3> They avoid the eversion of the semilunar valves. <4> They form the interventricular septum. <5> They are formed by visceral smooth muscle.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-70f099b42dbc45f8a9a0c3237fb0bf38", "input": "Question: The first level of heart rate and respiratory control is: \n Options: <1> The cerebral cortex <2> Spinal cord. <3> The cerebellum <4> The bulb. <5> The hypothalamus", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2b3f189169714e24b927fa5706075ddd", "input": "Question: The pulmonary surfactant: \n Options: <1> It is secreted by type I pneumocytes. <2> Stabilizes the alveoli. <3> Its main component is albumin. <4> Increases the surface tension of the alveolus. <5> It is only in the small alveoli.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0fd753e5e6aa4383a38d1d5a608b9b9b", "input": "Question: The functional residual capacity is volume: \n Options: <1> Residual plus expiratory reserve. <2> Pulmonary after forced expiration. <3> Residual. <4> Maximum that can be inspired. <5> Current plus expiratory reserve.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-df235e601a0f4dd9810645c1599d2d2b", "input": "Question: The stimulation of the carotid bodies: \n Options: <1> Decreases the pH of arterial blood. <2> PCO2 decreases in arterial blood. <3> Increases the arterial concentration of bicarbonate. <4> Increases the urinary excretion of sodium. <5> Lowers blood pressure", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-46cd14f4944b43fc9d87fe51462cf54c", "input": "Question: Alveolar ventilation is the volume of air that: \n Options: <1> It enters (or exits) the lungs in each breath. <2> It enters (or exits) in the airways every minute. <3> It remains in the alveoli after a normal expiration. <4> Enter (or exit) in the lung exchange zones in one minute <5> It remains in the alveoli after a forced expiration.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4b075e1a1f81494a83eb6da14d75e867", "input": "Question: On the thick ascending branch of the loop of Henle: \n Options: <1> Water is reabsorbed. <2> The tubular liquid is diluted. <3> Water reabsorption depends on ADH. <4> The reabsorption of urea depends on ADH. <5> Aldosterone stimulates Na + reabsorption.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-387c758cc79b4b628cd3b459e17fbeeb", "input": "Question: In the kidney, sympathetic stimulation increases: \n Options: <1> The renal excretion of sodium. <2> The renal excretion of water. <3> The radius of the afferent arteriole. <4> Glomerular filtration. <5> The release of renin.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b86149950e9e4f33b081948d6971fd86", "input": "Question: ADH increases the osmolality of the renal interstitial medium because it increases: \n Options: <1> The permeability to urea in the collector tube. <2> The water permeability of the ascending loop of Henle. <3> The flow in the straight vessels. <4> The reabsorption of NaCl in the collecting tubule. <5> The renal excretion of water.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3ebbd8968102416299b8e848b5cbcdd0", "input": "Question: In biliary secretion there are: \n Options: <1> Carboxypeptidase <2> Trypsin <3> Chymotrypsin <4> Lecithin. <5> Elatasa", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-445cfe5819e14a4b86ec9b63d7b03e25", "input": "Question: The main stimulus for secretion of secretin is the presence in the duodenum of: \n Options: <1> acid pH <2> Carbohydrates <3> Proteins <4> Hypoosmolar chimo. <5> Hyosmolar chyme.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dc441a9017814786a53877fb30388a00", "input": "Question: Glucagon stimulates: \n Options: <1> Glycogen synthesis <2> Formation of fat deposits. <3> Protein synthesis. <4> Insulin secretion <5> Glucolysis", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1c33b4456b514f03bbc842f99020bf54", "input": "Question: Somatomedin IGF-1 causes: \n Options: <1> Secretion of GHRH. <2> Protein catabolism. <3> Hyperglycemia <4> Activation of osteoblasts <5> GH secretion", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1b5c43acb6724abaa671a2f048a9610a", "input": "Question: An increase in ACTH stimulates the synthesis and release of: \n Options: <1> Aldosterone <2> Cortisol <3> Thyroxine <4> CRH <5> TRH", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-26df1559e767475ba4256618fffe2d9d", "input": "Question: Angiotensin II: \n Options: <1> It is formed by the action of renin on angiotensin I. <2> Inhibits the secretion of aldosterone. <3> It inhibits the secretion of ADH. <4> Induces renal reabsorption of Na +. <5> Reduce thirst", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-facc39b635734b4882b972a13361b26c", "input": "Question: It is under the control of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis the secretion of: \n Options: <1> Cortisol <2> Insulin. <3> Calcitonin <4> Glucagon. <5> Parathormone.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-614f1cc5925d473d9ae90c1b6db3f444", "input": "Question: The secretion of GH or growth hormone: \n Options: <1> It stops at 20 years old. <2> It last for ever. <3> During the day it is greater than at night. <4> It is stimulated by somatostatin. <5> It is stimulated by the substances.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b1880aaa197a458b8ff95410331501f3", "input": "Question: The anterior pituitary gland: \n Options: <1> It is part of the hypothalamus. <2> It is regulated hormonally. <3> It communicates with the neurohypophysis. <4> It releases ADH and oxytocin. <5> It is formed by neurons.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0730e0f858c84903bc8b1db6626aeb07", "input": "Question: Stimulates lipogenesis and glycogen synthesis: \n Options: <1> Insulin. <2> Glucagon. <3> Cortisol <4> Adrenalin. <5> GH", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a7b0878433e34e278408744107349128", "input": "Question: The ribosomal proteins bind to the rRNA in the: \n Options: <1> Nuclear pore complex. <2> Cytoplasm. <3> Nucleoplasm. <4> Nucleolo. <5> Citosol", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-789363bb205a49ab881d4a9372d41d02", "input": "Question: Proteins that do not fold properly in the endoplasmic reticulum are degraded into: \n Options: <1> Golgi complex. <2> Endosomes <3> Lysosomes <4> Citosol <5> Nucleus.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d45f55b35f6a48b8a7cce6f64699e4c0", "input": "Question: The synthesis of membrane phospholipids occurs in: \n Options: <1> Citosol <2> Polyribosomes <3> Endoplasmic reticulum. <4> Golgi complex. <5> Peroxisome", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b19575fd2f9b45c5ba08a83828aa427a", "input": "Question: The ARP2 / 3 complex: \n Options: <1> It is an intermediate filament nucleator agent. <2> It is located in the centrosome. <3> It is responsible for the branching of the actin filaments. <4> It is part of the nuclear sheet. <5> Involved in the formation of transport vesicles.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8510d165333f4de09296fe7cc6736d8c", "input": "Question: The microvilli contain a beam of: \n Options: <1> Microtubules <2> Actin filaments. <3> Intermediate filaments <4> Spectrine <5> Collagen fibers.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6859d409468c4b0e86d166fc007e471a", "input": "Question: Anaphase A is characterized by the shortening of microtubules: \n Options: <1> Kinetochore <2> Polar <3> Interpolar <4> Astral <5> Longitudinal", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-72f7693abb04435cb581d5365abc5ac7", "input": "Question: The p53 factor induces: \n Options: <1> Survival. <2> Proliferation. <3> Senescence <4> Apoptosis <5> Increase.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9c57cf43201646e1bd6ccff1b06be025", "input": "Question: They join the epithelial cells to each other: \n Options: <1> Cadherins. <2> Integrins <3> Fibronectins. <4> Elastins. <5> Laminins", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5d17ea3d30444a6996d68c19f420fbd1", "input": "Question: It is absent from connective tissues: \n Options: <1> Goblet cell. <2> Adipocy <3> Mastocito <4> Lymphocyte <5> Eosinophilic", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bb85bad8eac4486b91075857d74be613", "input": "Question: The feet of the following are an integral part of the blood-brain barrier: \n Options: <1> Astrocytes <2> Timocytes. <3> Podocytes <4> Ependymal cells. <5> Oligodendrocytes", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e96dfa6566b249729cfe639d56e639d6", "input": "Question: The tissue is avascular: \n Options: <1> Epithelial. <2> Conjunctive. <3> Osseous. <4> Muscular. <5> Nervous.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2d7fc0de6eb54b048f03957656131980", "input": "Question: Derived from blood monocytes: \n Options: <1> Protoplasmic astrocyte. <2> Fibrous astrocyte. <3> Oligodendrocyte <4> Microgliocyte <5> Satellite cell.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2b431637714949d88c5babd62edddc4b", "input": "Question: The transmembrane proteins that bind to intracellular and extracellular proteins are: \n Options: <1> Ocludines. <2> Cadherins. <3> Actins. <4> Integrins <5> Desmocolinas.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d5c0cbd4a36144f1a8a339b651623c8d", "input": "Question: Dense neat or patterned connective tissue is part of: \n Options: <1> Hemopoietic stroma. <2> Tendons <3> Digestive mucosa <4> Mucosa of the uterus. <5> Sclera", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-20c8a81c60e9496ca26cd0bda479a50e", "input": "Question: The intestinal villi: \n Options: <1> They extend throughout the entire intestine. <2> They are not in the large intestine. <3> They are visible only to the electron microscope. <4> They contain only absorbent cells. <5> They lack glasses in their own lamina.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2d1811d1cd5e4712ab4116d05988e1a0", "input": "Question: The Merkel cells are: \n Options: <1> Secretors of neuropeptides and sensory. <2> Secretors of mucus. <3> Migratory <4> From Schwann. <5> Fibroblasts.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f511871826084180a63887067e3ce3a3", "input": "Question: The secretion of the sebaceous glands is: \n Options: <1> Merocrine <2> Apocrine <3> Paracrine <4> Holocrine <5> Endocrine", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f856aa122c3b4cae92b2270c4dcd5845", "input": "Question: It has superficial cells with abundant glycogen: \n Options: <1> Language. <2> Esophagus. <3> Thin skin <4> Vagina. <5> Thick skin.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3a4663b073224de5b5a6d8ccf30bdc44", "input": "Question: The nucleosomes are: \n Options: <1> Only in hetrochromatin. <2> Only in euchromatin. <3> Only in the chromosomes. <4> In euchromatin, in heterochromatin and in chromosomes. <5> In all types of chromatin, but not in chromosomes.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1397d31212d54e4e95c0c17f26fb3000", "input": "Question: Contains abundant glycogen: \n Options: <1> Hepatocytes <2> Plasma cells. <3> Lymphocytes <4> Baited cells. <5> Fibroblasts.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a0f8c578680b4fa79f4cf26b00bc9e18", "input": "Question: Dyneins are proteins: \n Options: <1> Motorboats <2> Responsible for the dynamism of the extracellular matrix. <3> Exclusive of the cilia. <4> Exclusives of the flagella. <5> Actin type", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5fcb50454de742b2b3905e9e265a4375", "input": "Question: In the receptor-mediated endocytosis intervenes: \n Options: <1> Only the clathrin. <2> Only the adaptin. <3> Adaptine and clathrin. <4> Chaperones <5> Only the proteins of the membrane.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-091d93ab9f1040dab3bd57fdd84b00df", "input": "Question: Classify proteins and regulate their traffic to their cell destinations: \n Options: <1> Golgi apparatus. <2> Ribosomes <3> Rough endoplasmic reticulum. <4> Mitochondria <5> Lysosomes", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6d476e8ca6a44965b2839cd4666f0a80", "input": "Question: In skeletal muscle, they have the capacity to regenerate, although limited, the cells: \n Options: <1> Of smaller size. <2> Satelite. <3> Endomysial fibroblasts. <4> Of the glia of the motor plates. <5> Anyone.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-85899dec45af44918e08029683cd17ed", "input": "Question: The most important proteoglycan in hyaline cartilage is: \n Options: <1> Agrecano <2> Chondroitin sulfate 4. <3> Heparin. <4> Versicano <5> Dermatan sulfate.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aeb20540a13348828a6182723d69129d", "input": "Question: It allows to compare proportions of two independent samples the statistical test: \n Options: <1> From McNemar. <2> Of Snedecor. <3> Of the median. <4> Exact Fisher. <5> U of Mann-Whitney.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4c438f2550cf4fa182f345568553ead8", "input": "Question: If a 3% false-positive test is observed in a diagnostic test, it can be stated that: \n Options: <1> The sensitivity is 97%. <2> The specificity is 97%. <3> The positive predictive value is 97%. <4> The specificity is 3%. <5> The sensitivity is 3%.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-54e5cab9399c466cb55b3247e4e94740", "input": "Question: The arithmetic mean and not the median: \n Options: <1> It is a measurement of location. <2> All the values \u200b\u200bof the sample are involved in its calculation. <3> It is dimensionless. <4> It is not influenced by extreme values. <5> None is correct.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f8012f3bf69a4262a6b08cd8fe6a25fa", "input": "Question: In a hypothesis test, the beta error is called the probability of: \n Options: <1> Accept a null hypothesis being true. <2> Reject a null hypothesis being false. <3> Accept an alternative hypothesis being true. <4> Reject an alternative hypothesis being false. <5> Accept a null hypothesis being false.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4c35a5724f6e408a8e6cc2b0d2bc305d", "input": "Question: Are concepts that refer to the same probability the level of: \n Options: <1> Confidence and type II error: <2> Significance and type I error <3> Significance and specificity. <4> Confidence and sensitivity <5> Significance and type II error.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3e24c3ea5dd24070ba2defed97ef3037", "input": "Question: African trypanosomes (T. Rhodesiense and T. Gambiense) are transmitted by insects of the genus: \n Options: <1> Glossina <2> Triatoma. <3> Panstrongylus. <4> Rhodnius. <5> Phlebotomus.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-db01d73b65984d61abfa45d696757f3c", "input": "Question: In relation to malaria, pre-erythrocytic schizonts can be found in: \n Options: <1> Reticulocytes <2> Liver cells. <3> Renal cells <4> Lymphocytes <5> Eosinophils", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-44979b8a0d1e4de5963dce9270ec9eeb", "input": "Question: We can find sputum eggs of: \n Options: <1> Clonorchis sinensis. <2> Paragonimus westermani. <3> Hepatic fasciola. <4> Schistosoma japonicum. <5> Dicrocoelium dendriticum.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7a96499a0bdd4a51bc7d63e9eb869b25", "input": "Question: The genus Anisakis is a: \n Options: <1> Digestive trematode. <2> Monogenetic trematode. <3> Nematode <4> Platelminto. <5> Arthropod.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-077d4b0e4a0340b0b7d0ea8855d0cc60", "input": "Question: The vector of tularemia is a / a: \n Options: <1> Coleoptera. <2> Louse. <3> Flea. <4> Tick. <5> Mosquito.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6bde73847fc840dbadffcd1e8cfad691", "input": "Question: In general, viruses that have a naked capsid: \n Options: <1> They are stable against drying. <2> They are commonly released from the host cell by budding. <3> They are very sensitive to detergents. <4> They are very sensitive to the conditions in the intestinal tract. <5> They can not be neutralized by host antibodies.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e23f50741d314734aa8a7c6dcc1ee6cd", "input": "Question: The virion of retroviruses: \n Options: <1> It has helical shape. <2> It has an icosahedral form. <3> It contains a single copy of its genome. <4> It contains two copies of its genome. <5> It contains a segmented genome.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-03440421d84841098aa0d8d73e793e8d", "input": "Question: The hepatitis B virus: \n Options: <1> It has circular double-stranded RNA as a genetic material. <2> It has circular single-stranded RNA as a genetic material. <3> It is transmitted by air. <4> Encode a reverse transcriptase. <5> It does not have tissue tropism.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4dd05b0f8d5e46828c42b53cdb280e28", "input": "Question: In latent human herpes simplex virus infections, viral particles typically remain in: \n Options: <1> Neurons. <2> The B lymphocytes <3> The T lymphocytes <4> The myeloid cells <5> The granulocytes.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6486ae0e5e5c4dc2bcde07f4d790ad08", "input": "Question: The enzymes present inside the virion of the poxviruses are necessary for the replication of their genetic material because: \n Options: <1> Its genome is single-stranded DNA (-). <2> Its genome is single-stranded RNA (-). <3> They replicate in the cell cytoplasm. <4> It contains a very high percentage of unusual nitrogenous bases such as inosine. <5> At the beginning of the infection, a blockage of the transcriptional system of the host cell occurs.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a6ecde3ce43344f6bff27afc0dcc6401", "input": "Question: The virions of the Arenavirus contain: \n Options: <1> A linear single-stranded RNA molecule. <2> Two equal molecules of linear double-stranded RNA. <3> Two different molecules of linear single-stranded RNA. <4> Two distinct molecules of single-stranded circular RNA. <5> Two identical molecules of single-stranded circular RNA.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eb297bfe695d4cff8f3f7f47617dd89a", "input": "Question: Inhibits the integrase of HIV the: \n Options: <1> Efavirenz. <2> Tenofovir <3> Ritonavir <4> Emtricitabine. <5> Raltegravir", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-37fbc1a507ee4f76953ab234813ddafa", "input": "Question: In the coronaviurs, the assembly of the virions takes place in the (the): \n Options: <1> Rough endoplasmic reticulum. <2> Mitochondrial matrix. <3> Nucleus. <4> Citosol <5> Cytoplasmic membrane.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c81702aad8154a86bab0c54ad51820fc", "input": "Question: The respiratory syncytial virus is a: \n Options: <1> Ortomixovirus. <2> Filovirus. <3> Parvovirus. <4> Togavirus. <5> Paramyxovirus.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b77af8351ed0433b835f99aa68f2f23e", "input": "Question: To multiply, the rhabdoviruses enter the host cell by: \n Options: <1> Viropexy <2> Endocytosis <3> Depopolimerization of the virion as a consequence of the interaction with the cellular receptor. <4> Direct translocation <5> Opsonic phagocytosis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f735250475064b078a65a5511f264ead", "input": "Question: All RNA (-) viruses present: \n Options: <1> Segmented genome. <2> Lipid envelope. <3> Helical nucleocapsid <4> Icosahedral nucleocapsid. <5> Reverse transcriptase.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ec14d6a9ca2141d78d25e8bc94d8b044", "input": "Question: They synthesize a single polyprotein precursor of all the proteins necessary for the rest of the multiplication cycle: \n Options: <1> Coronavirus. <2> Picornavirus <3> Rotavirus. <4> Paramyxovirus. <5> Calcivirus.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-40f1f035b9f44c7f91f7d72afea695b2", "input": "Question: The following are zoonotic: \n Options: <1> Rotavirus. <2> Paramyxovirus. <3> Cytomegalovirus. <4> Arenavirus. <5> Parvovirus.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-714c07f7bb364d6aba33c9b443c9b366", "input": "Question: To replicate, paramyxoviruses must introduce their genetic material into the cell and one: \n Options: <1> DNA polymerase RNA dependent. <2> DNA polymerase dependent DNA. <3> RNA polymerase dependent RNA. <4> DNA polymerase dependent DNA. <5> They do not require the introduction of viral enzymes.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-68cfd74b1721479b9a9ea8bd852000ca", "input": "Question: The reovirus .: \n Options: <1> They are released from the cell by budding. <2> They replicate their genetic material in the cell nucleus. <3> They have a lipid envelope. <4> They form virions resistant to acid pH. <5> They are transmitted by blood.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-20d2a5c9d4274cf29eeda40d07bd20db", "input": "Question: The most appropriate microscopy to identify Treponema pallidum in exudates from syphilitic lesions is: \n Options: <1> Clear field without staining. <2> Clear field with simple staining. <3> Dark field <4> Phase contrast. <5> Polarized light", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9fc14df8ee2c42e884d9a0bf0007fce8", "input": "Question: Acid-resistant alcohol staining is positive in bacteria of the genus: \n Options: <1> Mycoplasma. <2> Helicobacter <3> Borrelia. <4> Mycobacterium <5> Clostridium", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d11b664f27ba4d619209631d2ecff132", "input": "Question: HEPA filters are used for the sterilization of: \n Options: <1> Organic liquids <2> Air. <3> Culture broth <4> Antibiotics <5> Sugar solutions", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-867f728c6cbb46dbb6c3a1b0fea19643", "input": "Question: If after 200 microliters of a 10-4 dilution (10 exp. -4) of a broth on an agar plate grows 100 colonies, the estimated number of colony forming units per mL of broth is: \n Options: <1> 0.2 x 104 <2> 2 x 106 <3> 5 x 104 <4> 5 x 105 <5> 5 x 106", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ed5278c0854b42fbaf6a81ff06fc7eb0", "input": "Question: The non-selective medium commonly used for the growth of gonococcus (Neisseria gonorrhoeae) is: \n Options: <1> Chocolate agar. <2> Agar blood. <3> Mannitol saline agar. <4> Nutritious agar <5> MacConkey agar.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d39a94b092414db7812540cac101c963", "input": "Question: On a blood agar plate, a greenish or brown halo around a bacterial colony indicates that the bacteria produces: \n Options: <1> A siderophore. <2> \u03b1 hemolysis. <3> Coagulase <4> \u03b2 galactosidase. <5> Neutral metabolites", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f9245c00b04a44579eda4a12b0f67df9", "input": "Question: If, by adding a drop of H2O2 to a bacterial suspension, bubbles (O2) are generated, the bacteria produce: \n Options: <1> Cytochrome C oxidase. <2> Oxygenase <3> Superoxide dismutase. <4> Catalase <5> Anhydrase", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1755047a328f4f91a4a9fbb60d9c3621", "input": "Question: The component of the Gram-negative bacteria directly responsible for the endotoxic activity is: \n Options: <1> Lipid A. <2> The porinas. <3> The penicillin binding proteins. <4> The O antigen <5> The lipoproteins.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-92fd326ae1b04262ad39ef52e90ac295", "input": "Question: A characteristic component of murein or peptidoglycan in most bacterial species is: \n Options: <1> The dipicolinic acid. <2> L-glutamic acid <3> The D-alanine. <4> The mannosamine. <5> The diaminoglycoside", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1db553cae31b422b8ed6d2cae307c081", "input": "Question: The process of bacterial sporulation occurs: \n Options: <1> Both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. <2> After the depletion of certain essential nutrients. <3> When unfavorable environmental factors such as UV light or heat appear. <4> During the exponential growth. <5> By budding of a stem cell.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e0041f0e735b4a4c821053b3a191a829", "input": "Question: The tetracyclines act on the: \n Options: <1> DNA polymerase <2> Transpeptidation of the peptidoglycan in the wall. <3> RNA polymeres <4> 30S subunit of the ribosome. <5> DNA gyrase.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6803bad42245426a930525070fd573ca", "input": "Question: The following are obtained only by chemical synthesis: \n Options: <1> Penicillins <2> Cephalosporins. <3> Macrolides <4> Aminoglycosides <5> Quinolones", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-855cbd2acdba4904b1df6267362629b6", "input": "Question: The phosphotransferase (PTS) system of many bacteria: \n Options: <1> It is commonly employed to incorporate medium sugars. <2> Participates in oxidative phosphorylation. <3> Participates in phosphorylation at the substrate level. <4> Consume directly ATP. <5> Dephosphorylates substrates as a step prior to transport.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b191983060874622a7f4bf2ac35dbd91", "input": "Question: A plasmid contains necessarily: \n Options: <1> Genes of resistance to antibiotics. <2> Origin of replication. <3> Integrons <4> Genes of transfer by conjugation. <5> Transposons.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f38e46e956ac4e0a9d74fcc07f1bdb2b", "input": "Question: To control the expression of certain genes according to population density, bacteria use systems of: \n Options: <1> Strict response <2> Two components <3> Perception of the quorum. <4> Densitometric adaptation. <5> Negative activation", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a616a3ad56724c01b93e70ea461f8271", "input": "Question: Enterobacteriaceae are bacteria: \n Options: <1> Able to breathe and ferment. <2> Cytochrome C oxidase positive. <3> Mobiles with polar flagellation. <4> Lacking lipopolysaccharide. <5> Always associated with the intestine of mammals.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a855b61a079049638d7cd4c57b8bf162", "input": "Question: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is: \n Options: <1> Able to ferment a large variety of sugars. <2> Often resistant to many antibiotics for medical use. <3> Responsible for toxi-alimentary infections. <4> Part of the normal microbiota of the skin. <5> A commensal bacterium of the digestive tract.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a92f23691d7c4a0c841d480cb20d509f", "input": "Question: The producers of many antibiotics for medical use are: \n Options: <1> Myxobacteria <2> Cyanobacteria <3> Spirochetes <4> Streptomycetes <5> Alpha proteobacteria.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d99574855eb47498b2e6f395f037dec", "input": "Question: Mycoplasmas: \n Options: <1> They do not contain phospholipids in their membrane. <2> They have a positive Gram type wall. <3> They contain mycolic acids. <4> They grow quickly in simple means. <5> They are naturally insensitive to penicillin.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-685442f7793a42cb8c3ec55b77fe21af", "input": "Question: Neisseria meningitidis is: \n Options: <1> A gram-negative bacillus. <2> Normally resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. <3> An anaerobic coconut. <4> An encapsulated diplococcus. <5> Mobile by peritric flagellation.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d2686be11ef043dc92b5c8cfccb9a364", "input": "Question: In humans, Lactobacillus acidophilus is part of the normal microbiota of: \n Options: <1> The female genital tract <2> The bucco-pharynx. <3> The urinary tract <4> The skin. <5> The respiratory tract", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-00c0ff801a574c09990d22d173dc745e", "input": "Question: Streptococcus sobrinus and Streptococcus mutants are responsible for: \n Options: <1> Dental cavities. <2> Burns infections. <3> Rheumatic fever <4> Atypical rhinitis. <5> Otitis stockings.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-31d92caf84704bdbb3ad217828ad8436", "input": "Question: It is an obligate intracellular pathogen: \n Options: <1> Neisseria gonorrhoeae. <2> Treponema pallidum <3> Chlamydia trachomatis. <4> Streptococcus pneumoniae <5> Mycobacterium tuberculosis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3e866e51da084e5faccb3c9ea15c38ec", "input": "Question: It is associated with gastric ulcers and cancers: \n Options: <1> Clostridium botulinum. <2> Yersinia enterocolitica. <3> Salmonella enterica <4> Helicobacter pylori. <5> Shigella sonnei.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8264a68a135d4a6b995c3c654174b522", "input": "Question: In a Gram positive pathogen involved in pharyngitis and rheumatic fever: \n Options: <1> Staphylococcus aureus. <2> Micrococcus luteus. <3> Moraxella catarrhalis. <4> Haemophilus influenzae. <5> Streptococcus pyogenes.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5c0216b77d5842fd944c7237f4ac85ea", "input": "Question: They are reservoirs of Q fever (Coxiella burnetti): \n Options: <1> Bats <2> Poultry. <3> Rodents <4> Dogs. <5> Cows, sheep and goats.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-76b792bf743e4cec803fed2e1cade846", "input": "Question: It is a genus of strict anaerobic bacteria that produce endospores and that contain pathogenic species: \n Options: <1> Bacteroides. <2> Bacillus. <3> Clostridium <4> Corynebacterium <5> Mycobacterium", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bdea2294a4794003a0425142d3afa2f3", "input": "Question: It is a disease caused by a pathogenic foodborne bacterium: \n Options: <1> The listeriosis <2> Lyme disease <3> Tularemia <4> Scarlet fever <5> The impetigo.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b52a59da0e9b4d07a1c3107386fdb8df", "input": "Question: A rat pathogen that has fleas as vectors of transmission to humans is: \n Options: <1> Rickettsia rickettsii. <2> Yersinia pestis <3> Borrelia burgdorferi. <4> Ehrlichia ewingii. <5> Brucella abortus.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-37a530e461344a139dce596343a39e2b", "input": "Question: A positive coagulase test is typical of: \n Options: <1> Staphylococcus aureus. <2> Staphylococcus epidermidis. <3> Haemophilus influenzae. <4> Neisseria meningitidis. <5> Escherichia coli", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-007568551ed545e3a922ccaf2faf0a8a", "input": "Question: Unlike receptors of adaptive immunity, those of innate immunity are characterized by: \n Options: <1> Have a clonal distribution. <2> Its greatest diversity <3> Be identical in cells of the same lineage. <4> Recognize and react against own molecules. <5> Being only on the cell surface.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d7ba4238a256448485ea38f46b96eabb", "input": "Question: The Toll-like receptors (TLRs) mainly recognize: \n Options: <1> Proteins <2> Superantigens. <3> Non-polymorphic histocompatibility antigens. <4> Various components of microbes. <5> Toler\u00f3genos.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e51febfde7c24ecbaeccfec9bcf3a1ab", "input": "Question: Among the characteristic components of the adaptive immune system are: \n Options: <1> The epithelial cells. <2> The macrophages. <3> The NK lymphocytes. <4> C-reactive protein <5> The B lymphocytes", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d8de4039e7034c3cb666a67b2c6eda4b", "input": "Question: They are primary lymphoid organs: \n Options: <1> Spleen and lymph nodes <2> The spleen and bone marrow. <3> The thymus and the bone marrow. <4> The pineal gland <5> Peyer's plates and tonsils.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-317af55f3c8447ad8a1b28890f639ddf", "input": "Question: Generates hydrogen peroxide in the phagosome: \n Options: <1> Myeloperoxidase <2> Carbonic anhydrase. <3> NADPH oxidase. <4> Cytochrome C oxidase. <5> Superoxide dismutase.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4df31aed3d9a42259de9fdf66d492998", "input": "Question: The complement is produced mostly in: \n Options: <1> Lymphocytes <2> Lymph nodes <3> Thymus <4> Spleen. <5> Liver.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fc8fefac52d14136aa5eb292d756998a", "input": "Question: In the activation of the serum complement, the assembly of the Membrane Attack Complex begins with: \n Options: <1> C9 <2> C5b. <3> C3a. <4> C6 <5> C8.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d15c4d23c6c40f19f01c1814b4632e1", "input": "Question: HLA class I molecules are expressed in: \n Options: <1> Leukocytes <2> Erythrocytes <3> All nucleated cells. <4> Antigen presenting cells. <5> NK lymphocytes.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-032ae5862fe24b2188a4424657ac6274", "input": "Question: The class I genes of the Major Histocompatibility Complex: \n Options: <1> They are few <2> They are very polymorphic. <3> They express their alleles according to allelic exclusion. <4> They are expressed in all the cells of the organism. <5> They code glycolipids.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-98f5bfad4f4946a8b00bc62606721512", "input": "Question: The loss of MHC class I makes the cells susceptible to lysis by: \n Options: <1> NK lymphocytes. <2> Tc lymphocytes. <3> Macrophages <4> Th lymphocytes <5> Complement.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-48ce38a225a64c7f98a2c709e004074c", "input": "Question: It is a costimulatory molecule that is expressed in the antigen-presenting cells: \n Options: <1> CD25. <2> CD20. <3> CD42. <4> CD18. <5> CD80.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2c7fc1997c5f44b380882fa82e65cfd0", "input": "Question: The simultaneous expression of IgM and IgD is observed for the first time in lymphocytes: \n Options: <1> Early Pro-B. <2> B mature. <3> Late Pro-B. <4> Pre-B. <5> B immature", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-48412b1d05fd47c9ba44ac94c7dd1a6f", "input": "Question: In the process of maturation of the affinity of the B lymphocytes in the germinal centers, they act as accessory cells: \n Options: <1> Macrophages <2> Th1 lymphocytes. <3> Mastocytes <4> Follicular dendritic cells. <5> Langerhans cells.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e61c5425b8fc4da7b06015345fb8dba3", "input": "Question: What serum immunoglobulin will synthesize an activated B lymphocyte that has not been stimulated through CD40 ?: \n Options: <1> Any. <2> IgE <3> IgM <4> IgA <5> IgG", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-febb033c485342cd9d032826db7173bd", "input": "Question: They are receptors involved in phagocytosis dependent on opsonization: \n Options: <1> KIR. <2> TLR1. <3> MR. <4> CR1 <5> TCR", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dd80523714194458ae19a2883fbe3ac5", "input": "Question: The main mediators of the antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicdiad are: \n Options: <1> The eosinophils. <2> The NK lymphocytes. <3> The mast cells <4> The neutrophils. <5> The CD8 + lymphocytes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5d56bcf00de048ce893883025a5bbb19", "input": "Question: With the same affinity of its Fab, the avidity is: \n Options: <1> IgM <2> IgE <3> IgA <4> IgG <5> IgD.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a9cef2beea3e4267b03478a3b48dfb4b", "input": "Question: The number of chains of the IgG is: \n Options: <1> one. <2> two. <3> 3. <4> Four. <5> 5.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2a69b24842a84e5899b99eaa17fc6648", "input": "Question: Immunoglobulin isotype change affects: \n Options: <1> The constant regions of the heavy chains. <2> The constant regions of the light chains. <3> The totality of heavy chains. <4> The entire immunoglobulin molecule. <5> The hypervariable regions of the heavy chains.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a52e1fa6c76441e9a933cfdbe283c12f", "input": "Question: The so-called poly-Ig receptor: \n Options: <1> Facilitates the transport of IgA through the mucosal epithelium. <2> Mediates the transport of IgG through the placenta. <3> Stabilizes the polymer structure of an IgM. <4> It is expressed on the surface of B lymphocytes. <5> It is expressed on the surface of tissue macrophages.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f00777f5d4a44bb686ec3af4dd6f1ab1", "input": "Question: The humanized antibodies: \n Options: <1> They have very low affinity. <2> They contain CDRs of a mouse monoclonal antibody. <3> They have totally murine VH and VL domains. <4> They have totally human VH and VL domains. <5> They have human light chains.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bbb98df459c24eee95fb325fb72640c2", "input": "Question: It is a Th1 cytokine: \n Options: <1> IL-1. <2> IL-2. <3> IL-3. <4> IL-4. <5> IL-5", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d0c2efe91cbc4da388e78fe10d901cf6", "input": "Question: IL-10 is a cytokine: \n Options: <1> Immunosuppressant. <2> Proinflammatory <3> Associated with Th2 responses. <4> Which activates Th1 lymphocytes. <5> Produced by CD8 lymphocytes.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-db024d4cf27b43099c2e7e436d8724b3", "input": "Question: Immediate hypersensitivity reactions or allergy are mediated by: \n Options: <1> Autoantibodies <2> Antigen-antibody complexes. <3> IgE <4> Th1 lymphocytes. <5> Th17 lymphocytes.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fd77278fe56e450db5ad0de9a05e7648", "input": "Question: The majority of regulatory T lymphocytes express high levels of: \n Options: <1> Molecules of the B7 family. <2> CD8. <3> The alpha chain of the receptor for IL-2. <4> IL-17. <5> Perforin", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-308fb55774fe46c3b591652aa398668a", "input": "Question: T-independent antigens: \n Options: <1> They are mostly proteins. <2> They induce maturation of the affinity of the specific antibodies. <3> Induce isotype change of specific antibodies. <4> They are usually polymeric antigens. <5> They induce intense secondary responses.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c786f490b0604cd0a4b9409cc4b54180", "input": "Question: The T lymphocyte receptor (TCR): \n Options: <1> Experience change of class. <2> Does not experience affinity maturation. <3> It transmits signals to the T lymphocyte on its own. <4> It has two sites of antigen recognition such as antibodies. <5> Performs effector functions mediated by its constant regions.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5cbea49115e841c5bbbecc299894de96", "input": "Question: Th1 lymphocytes: \n Options: <1> They produce interferon gamma (IFN-\u03b3). <2> They mediate allergic diseases. <3> Activate mast cells <4> They are very active against extracellular bacteria. <5> They recruit neutrophils at the sites of antigen recognition.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-17b60df83bb441fc9a7b7b406dfa2d51", "input": "Question: From a tissue to which oligomycin is added, it can be expected that: \n Options: <1> Consume oxygen and produce ATP. <2> Do not consume oxygen and produce ATP. <3> Consume oxygen and do not produce ATP. <4> Increase the production of ATP. <5> Neither consume oxygen nor produce ATP.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cf4429e74333480b8b5a2cb97cf50fcb", "input": "Question: The exergonic reactions of metabolism: \n Options: <1> Consume free energy. <2> They are thermodynamically favorable. <3> They are always quick reactions. <4> They do not require the action of enzymes. <5> They have high values \u200b\u200bof activation energy.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-10123d5fda6e4c59b12025cbd3ee6ea8", "input": "Question: Stimulates the separation of DNA strands during replication: \n Options: <1> Primasa <2> DNA ligase. <3> The single chain DNA binding proteins. <4> Helicasa <5> DNA polymerase I.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0abb5230096142b787058cd7c8301914", "input": "Question: It has been transcribed and it is also translated: \n Options: <1> mRNA. <2> rRNA. <3> Introns <4> tRNA. <5> Promoter.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f837ae8e13ee4eadbd0f5e9a8c35e445", "input": "Question: The promoter region of a gene is: \n Options: <1> The place of completion of the transcript. <2> The binding site of RNA polymerase during the initiation of mRNA synthesis. <3> The place of recognition to process primary transcripts. <4> A sequence located in the 5 'region of all mRNAs to initiate translation. <5> A sequence that is eliminated during RNA splicing.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4819e7c864c9496e9706d75720e6ec4a", "input": "Question: In the respiratory chain: \n Options: <1> Ferrosulfurized proteins contain heme groups. <2> The heme groups are in carotenoids. <3> Cytochromes contain iron and sulfur groups. <4> Ubiquinones transport protons and electrons. <5> All transporters carry two electrons.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-49eb40b4247f43259b792423199391ca", "input": "Question: It is an amino acid whose side chain contains an amine: \n Options: <1> Lysine <2> Glutamine <3> Cysteine <4> Serina <5> To the girl.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c6b78b1502854340a954df3e5455d380", "input": "Question: In the absence of oxygen, the mitochondrial citric acid cycle is inhibited because: \n Options: <1> Increases the concentration of ADP, an inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase. <2> The phosphorylations at the substrate level can not be produced. <3> No pyruvate available. <4> ATP synthase is inhibited. <5> The necessary coenzymes can not be reoxidized.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-be450135fcb348a793b39ce9170275e6", "input": "Question: Ketogenic amino acids: \n Options: <1> They may contribute to the synthesis of glucose. <2> They are intermediaries of the urea cycle. <3> They are the substrate of reactions catalyzed by transketolase. <4> They can produce acetyl-coenzyme A. <5> They are eliminated in the form of ketoses.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8bd52eb141c34ea48abde64b5cc5dd96", "input": "Question: The chemosmotic theory: \n Options: <1> It was proposed by Singer and Nicholson. <2> Explains the mechanism of phosphorylation at the substrate level. <3> It requires that the membranes in which it forms are closed compartments. <4> It does not explain the synthesis of ATP in photosynthesis. <5> It has nothing to do with redox reactions.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3fcca1ea106a484698e261128f8b4a67", "input": "Question: Gluconeogenesis is active in: \n Options: <1> Brain and nervous tissue. <2> Liver and renal cortex. <3> Erythrocytes <4> Testicles and renal medulla. <5> Skeletal muscle", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8aef87686680463ea8b79674dccad22c", "input": "Question: Creatine phosphate: \n Options: <1> It is a low-energy hydrolysis compound. <2> It is a compound of energy storage in the kidney. <3> It is formed from ornithine. <4> It is a compound of energy storage in the muscle. <5> It is formed from tyrosine.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0cc11f82c8e3463789701b0f98ab6cf6", "input": "Question: The cause of phenylketonuria is a hereditary deficit of: \n Options: <1> Homogentisate dioxygenase. <2> Tyrosine aminotransferase. <3> Phenylalanine hydroxylase. <4> Dihydropteridine oxidase. <5> Tryptophan dioxygenase.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-54042c50ec02431aabb682c911e8e93e", "input": "Question: Von Gierke's disease is an enzyme deficit: \n Options: <1> Muscle glycogen phosphorylase. <2> Branching enzyme. <3> Hepatic glycogen phosphorylase. <4> Glucose 6-phosphatase. <5> Glycogen synthase.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e2a8a0cefcd34fd3aa862a42004c3f54", "input": "Question: For humans, the essential amino acids are: \n Options: <1> All proteins. <2> The non-protein. <3> The basic pH7. <4> Those that are not substrates of any transaminase. <5> Those who do not synthesize them.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-150fe748152541d79e024c54bd6553ad", "input": "Question: It keeps the strands of the DNA duplex separated during replication: \n Options: <1> Primasa <2> DNA ligase. <3> SSB protein. <4> Helicasa <5> DNA Polymerase I.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-979b4e853a604211a5f65acdf2f2c898", "input": "Question: In glycolysis: \n Options: <1> Hexokinase catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group to different hexoses. <2> Phosphofructokinase-1 catalyzes a reaction that provides ATP. <3> All intermediates are phosphorylated compounds of six carbons. <4> It provides ATP, but it does not use it. <5> Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate is a potent inhibitor.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3da785366fce4297a2703681809aa91a", "input": "Question: Enzymatic regulation by reversible covalent modification: \n Options: <1> It involves the breaking of the peptide bond. <2> It requires the action of another enzyme. <3> It always involves phosphorylation reaction. <4> It never affects allosteric enzymes. <5> The enzyme never comes in two forms.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-24159967fc1149cf88a6de21eae2613e", "input": "Question: Does not block the flow of electrons in oxidative phosphorylation: \n Options: <1> Cyanide. <2> Antimycin A. <3> CO. <4> 2,4-DNP. <5> Amital.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-397ef1ee95754bebb0f506436813a6da", "input": "Question: Glucagon and adrenaline have in common: \n Options: <1> Activate the degradation of glycogen in liver and muscle. <2> Facilitate the entry of glucose into all cells of the body. <3> Activate the synthesis of fatty acids. <4> Always free yourself to the blood. <5> Activate glycolysis.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f7f9f96754e34d4d89c39f94c0154a69", "input": "Question: In general, allosteric enzymes: \n Options: <1> They join the effectors in the active center. <2> They form covalent bonds with their negative effectors. <3> They originate hyperbolic curves of speed versus substrate concentration. <4> They change their conformation when they join the effectors. <5> They are irreversibly modified when they are inhibited.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e345f951d2a145928609ba4d4d5f8422", "input": "Question: RNA polymerases are characterized by: \n Options: <1> Begin RNA synthesis without the need for primers. <2> Synthesize RNA in the 3 '-> 5' direction. <3> A lower error rate than DNA polymerases. <4> Incorporate ribonucleotides without the need for a mold. <5> Enter T instead of U.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d34558bb5674d4b832a9d90475a715f", "input": "Question: Topoisomerases: \n Options: <1> They modify the degree of DNA supercoiling. <2> They are a type of DNA polymerases. <3> They bind to the single-stranded DNA to prevent the double helix from forming. <4> They exhibit exonuclease activity. <5> They synthesize dNTPs.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f74e54818e5340738eb2b527c57cc4bf", "input": "Question: Urea: \n Options: <1> It is transported to the liver for elimination. <2> It is degraded to ammonium in the urea cycle. <3> It is apolar and easily forms crystals. <4> It is obtained from arginine. <5> It has two ketone groups and one amino group.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dcab6c8ebb454b7b8aa5cf91619b1142", "input": "Question: Each cycle of oxidation of fatty acids: \n Options: <1> Consume two molecules of NADH. <2> It generates two molecules of FADH2. <3> It produces a dehydration. <4> Releases an acetyl-CoA. <5> Consume ATP.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c18c3e7269084eb5bfee0e4beb82fd41", "input": "Question: ATP synthase: \n Options: <1> It generates ATP by a mechanism of rotational catalysis. <2> It is found in the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum. <3> It synthesizes ATP when electrons flow through it. <4> It presents an electron channel. <5> Consume ATP by hydrolysis coupled to electron transport.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f10520d68a5f429b957995ea81e81fb7", "input": "Question: In the stages of the citric acid cycle, it is required: \n Options: <1> NADP +. <2> FAD. <3> Acetyl-coenzyme A carboxylase. <4> Glucose. <5> At least one transaminase.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cb96ba90b2f14b6da31cea837e1c4b84", "input": "Question: The soluble globular proteins are characterized by: \n Options: <1> Present aromatic and aliphatic amino acids on its surface. <2> Present an inner apolar core. <3> Being partially deployed giving rise to structures that are not very compact. <4> Present in its interior acidic and basic amino acids. <5> A high degree of hydration inside.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7e83fdffd23f4d899da968e790b20bc5", "input": "Question: Pyruvate dehydrogenase: \n Options: <1> Catalyzes an oxidative decarboxylation. <2> It is a monomeric enzyme of low molecular mass. <3> It is located in the cytoplasm. <4> Catalyzes the production of ethanol. <5> Consume ATP.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5e9b127553f141a29837a2ef02c93a46", "input": "Question: Phosphofructokinase-1: \n Options: <1> Participates in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis. <2> It catalyzes an easily reversible reaction. <3> It is an enzyme with allosteric regulation. <4> Directly transfers a Pi to fructose6P. <5> Produce ATP.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-971fb3e320b242a48e748cb28e0bcaa9", "input": "Question: The cyclization of monosaccharides: \n Options: <1> It is an enzymatically catalyzed reaction. <2> It gives rise to enantiomers D and L. <3> It happens in the trios and tetrosas. <4> Generates a new asymmetric C, called anomeric C. <5> In ketoses it is produced by the formation of a hemiacetal bond.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4aa873c055dc4f599f70379847b65c8c", "input": "Question: D-glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone: \n Options: <1> They present an asymmetric carbon. <2> They are aldosas. <3> They are enantiomers. <4> They present optical activity. <5> They have the same formula.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9c69eec81fbd4f85892f8daf4f1ea9f7", "input": "Question: The activation energy of a reaction: \n Options: <1> It is not modified by the action of enzymes. <2> It is the energy necessary to reach the state of transition. <3> It is lower than the energy of the substrates. <4> It is lower than the energy of the products. <5> It is an average of the value of \u0394G of the reaction.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-61a1958c53894f948f0c2d71a55efbd0", "input": "Question: It is characteristic of the alpha helix: \n Options: <1> Present 3.6 amino acid residues per turn. <2> Be levorotatory <3> Be stabilized by intrachain disulfide bridges. <4> Present ionic bonds between amino and ketone groups loaded with peptide bonds. <5> Have the side chains of the amino acids inwards.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a1cd1473c3f24ebd8e46235b65eedc9c", "input": "Question: The denaturation of proteins: \n Options: <1> It is accompanied by the loss of their activity. <2> It supposes the rupture of peptide bonds. <3> It is always an irreversible process. <4> Alter its primary structure. <5> It is carried out by chaperone proteins.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1305654253e24e1f868eca1a3a691a14", "input": "Question: The conversion of pyruvate into ethanol and CO2 by yeasts: \n Options: <1> It produces an extra amount of ATP. <2> Reduce the NAD +. <3> Reoxidates the NADPH that forms in glycolysis. <4> It allows glycolysis to continue even in the absence of oxygen. <5> Allows CO2 to be used in the synthesis of fatty acids.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9a7241dfe2d64d1d890307cc88f539dc", "input": "Question: The completion of the translation: \n Options: <1> It takes place in AUG codons. <2> It is produced by incorporation of an empty tRNA. <3> It occurs when the ribosome reaches the end of the mRNA. <4> It does not consume energy. <5> It is mediated by proteins with structure similar to tRNA.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7b79de7354ae4d1f948e0d446a885cab", "input": "Question: It is well associated with its function: \n Options: <1> Ribosomal RNA - messenger preRNA processing. <2> Messenger RNA - amino acid binding. <3> MicroRNA - inhibition of the translation of messenger RNA. <4> Transfer RNA - structural component of the ribosome. <5> Small interference RNA - processing of ribosomal RNA.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-477ab86653384a2396adfca16b562c78", "input": "Question: In eukaryotes, the DNA polymerase \u03b2: \n Options: <1> It is a polymerase of family B. <2> It carries out the synthesis and repair of mitochondrial DNA. <3> Replicate DNA with injuries. <4> It is involved in the repair of nuclear DNA. <5> The synthesis of nuclear DNA begins.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f3d9dd818e60421eac0d572da3d13cba", "input": "Question: In the analysis of a pedigree of an autosomal dominant trait it is observed that: \n Options: <1> The trait appears more frequently in males. <2> The unaffected people do not transmit the trait. <3> The trait tends to skip generations. <4> The affected people have both affected parents. <5> The trait tends to appear in the progeny of related parents.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2a2a18156a5f4d93963f3c86c4a94783", "input": "Question: What effect would chromatin have on neutralizing the positive charge of histones ?: \n Options: <1> The DNA would change charge. <2> Histones would bind more closely to DNA. <3> The DNA would be supercoiled. <4> The histones would separate from the DNA. <5> The histones would be grouped together.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2dbb24919b8948e4bc89b2633577b484", "input": "Question: What type of ploidy defines an individual 2n2 ?: \n Options: <1> Double monosomy. <2> Tetrasomy <3> Trisomy <4> Nulisomy <5> Triploidy", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cc365ff8bf054824a53c9a6e9c19603f", "input": "Question: Under physiological conditions, the secondary structure of the most frequent DNA in the cells is: \n Options: <1> B-DNA. <2> Z-DNA. <3> A-DNA. <4> G-DNA. <5> H-DNA.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dd9c43a5a26a440e8fa2ddaf21b273fa", "input": "Question: Corresponds to a gene mutation by transversion: \n Options: <1> T \u2192 C. <2> A \u2192 T. <3> G \u2192 A. <4> C \u2192 T. <5> A \u2192 G.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-12d76386e5d149bebab52d7b0e65eb0a", "input": "Question: A neutral gene mutation: \n Options: <1> Change a coding codon by another synonym without altering the amino acid sequence of the protein. <2> A coding codon changes with a different one and the protein is functionally different. <3> It generates a non-functional protein. <4> It changes the amino acid sequence of the protein without altering its function. <5> Suppresses the effect of a previous mutation.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b595f69042f54ad6bf6efa68805b2e46", "input": "Question: The approximate percentage of the human genome that encodes proteins is a: \n Options: <1> 25% <2> 10% <3> two% <4> 6% <5> 8%", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-072fef338e8349059fad6d0f6f00c253", "input": "Question: In DNA the sequences of 10 to 60 nucleotides repeated in tandem are called: \n Options: <1> Pseudogenes <2> LINES. <3> SINES <4> Microsatellites <5> Minisatellites.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-39b76ab435ed46c88e4e2a5b7da290bb", "input": "Question: Secondary chromosomal constrictions contain: \n Options: <1> Single sequence DNA <2> Ribosomal genes. <3> Genes micro-RNAs. <4> Centromeric DNA. <5> Genes of histomnas.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8114715eca5041c8af23c77d76a3b55d", "input": "Question: The set of all the RNA molecules of a cell transcribed from a genome are called: \n Options: <1> Proteome <2> Metagenome <3> Transcriptome. <4> Mebaoloma <5> Methyloma", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee808206b4bd443eae41fb52bdf4a1fd", "input": "Question: To detect small deletions or duplications at the genomic level, the technique of choice would be: \n Options: <1> Karyotype of bands G. <2> Genomic microarrays. <3> Expression microarrays. <4> PCR <5> RT-PCR.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d7b45ae2849c4deab41de7262d8c1b90", "input": "Question: The R-bands of human metaphase chromosomes: \n Options: <1> They contain DNA rich in AT pairs. <2> They have high gene density. <3> They contain poor DNA in GC pairs. <4> They replicate at the end of phase S. <5> They have low gene density.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-320b348a63414fed85ae03e330d0a5f3", "input": "Question: ASO-PCR is a technique of: \n Options: <1> Detection of mutations without identifying the type. <2> Detection of specific mutations. <3> Sequencing <4> DNA amplification. <5> Molecular cytogenetics", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7d972287752a4621944f79b7a003b390", "input": "Question: The phase of meiosis where the pairs of homologous chromosomes are aligned along the equatorial plane is called: \n Options: <1> Profase I. <2> Metaphase II. <3> Profase II. <4> Metaphase I. <5> Prometaphase I.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fccca9d9e59e46fca45c46d831e42ef0", "input": "Question: How many DNA molecules does a diploid cell contain 2n = 46 during the G2 phase ?: \n Options: <1> 92 <2> 2. 3. <3> 46 <4> 44 <5> twenty-one.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9a9cb43fbb4b4c9792e79aedfdeea949", "input": "Question: What type of epistasia explains the dihybrid phenotypic ratio of 13: 3 ?: \n Options: <1> Double dominant. <2> Simple recessive <3> Recessive dominant double. <4> Double recessive <5> Simple dominant.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6a21dca9c90d479dbb2524053017b936", "input": "Question: Which vector would be used to clone a DNA fragment up to 15 Kb ?: \n Options: <1> BAC. <2> Plasmid <3> Cosmic <4> YAK. <5> Phage", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e34bfb35b7ce4f9fabb3e6f09bc0edca", "input": "Question: A karyotype 45, XX, rob (15; 21) (q10; q10) can correspond to: \n Options: <1> A girl with Down syndrome with a Robertsonian translocation. <2> A girl with Angelman syndrome. <3> A healthy woman with a Robertsonian translocation. <4> A healthy woman with Turner syndrome. <5> A healthy male carrier of a Robertsonian translocation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-591dbd1994b74dcd85d8b249557262d6", "input": "Question: The three human chromosomes estimated to contain fewer genes are: \n Options: <1> 21, 22 and Y. <2> 18, 22 and Y. <3> 18, 21 and Y. <4> 13, 21 and Y. <5> 13, 22 and Y.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-13a37a92a1ce4237b337fca64d0dd6c3", "input": "Question: The repeated sequence of human telomeres is: \n Options: <1> 5'-GGGATT-3'. <2> 3'-CCCTAA-5'. <3> 5'-CCCCAA-5 '. <4> 5'-CCTTAA-3. <5> 5'-CCCTAA-3 '.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b78a5574e63f4f5dbb4d2678f42eb76b", "input": "Question: What hormone causes ovulation ?: \n Options: <1> The FSH. <2> The LH. <3> Estrogens <4> Progesterone <5> The prostaglandins.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3c8b0df0da5f45319bf8790f5d4410d5", "input": "Question: Usually the training of sperm occurs in: \n Options: <1> The seminiferous tubules. <2> The epididymis <3> The male urethra. <4> The vagina <5> The uterus.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-512c172c735e446bbfc124138ce274d6", "input": "Question: The floor of the amniotic cavity is: \n Options: <1> Trophoblast. <2> Hypoblast. <3> Epiblast <4> Endometrium <5> Myometrium", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6f62671c6cb048aeb856539d44a7e0c8", "input": "Question: The first morphological sign of human gastrulation is: \n Options: <1> Formation of the neural tube. <2> Formation of the primitive line. <3> Implantation. <4> Compaction <5> Ovulation.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-976b4071fa404ac0891f7f4e1e262e01", "input": "Question: Inhibin: \n Options: <1> Inhibits the secretion of FSH. <2> Blocks the secretion of estrogen. <3> Stimulates the secretion of GnRH. <4> The adenohypophysis produces it. <5> Stimulates the secretion of LH.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-faeaf1df1e0146469e276cc1ad21bb49", "input": "Question: Neuraminidase of the influenza virus: \n Options: <1> It is found inside the capsid and is released after entering the cell. <2> Its function is to facilitate the encapsulation of genetic material. <3> It is one of the spicules of the envelope. <4> It is not antigenic. <5> It facilitates the adsorption of the virus to the cell.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-09f4bb1f11af4df5bb18f331535c3edb", "input": "Question: Bacteria of the species Haemophilus influenzae: \n Options: <1> They grow in the middle of MacConkey. <2> Causes meningitis in children. <3> They are anaerobic Gram positive bacilli. <4> They are anaerobic Gram positive cocci. <5> They are hemolytic.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-542b89e16c5242419a3f8efaf78a7ab6", "input": "Question: Somatic recombination for the generation of diversity in B lymphocytes occurs in: \n Options: <1> Bone marrow. <2> Ganglion. <3> Peripherally blood. <4> Thymus <5> Spleen.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ad59608c58bc428f86177b93a0ba119b", "input": "Question: The typical red cells of sickle cell anemia are: \n Options: <1> Dianocitos. <2> Drepanocytes <3> Dacryocytes <4> Ovalocitos. <5> Acanthocytes", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4a2e6e22477147d99c18277d1f880633", "input": "Question: It is a stop codon for translation: \n Options: <1> AUG. <2> UAU <3> UUU <4> UAC. <5> UAA", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d2156b0c56af4fc5b6252cb6bd2b72f0", "input": "Question: Histidine is characterized by: \n Options: <1> Present an indole group in its structure. <2> Present a unique N in its structure. <3> A side chain of aromatic character. <4> A side chain that can take or release protons at physiological pH. <5> Being a protein involved in inflammation.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-272dfb1a7f0c4f729c485fc5c37f1af4", "input": "Question: The cells of the seminiferous tubules that support and nourish the germ cells are: \n Options: <1> The cells of Leydig. <2> The Sertoli cells. <3> The primary spermatocytes. <4> Secondary spermatocytes <5> The spermatids.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-67beadc205de49f08b78395e60c2ef78", "input": "Question: The degrees of freedom of the intragroup variance in a 1-way Anova comparing 4 groups of 10 individuals each are: \n Options: <1> 38 <2> 39 <3> 3. <4> 40 <5> 36", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bef965a3d8264742a78034c062b3f5a9", "input": "Question: The period of 1 to 2 years after puberty, in which the growth of the skeleton is completed and the reproductive functions are established, is called: \n Options: <1> Postpubescence <2> Prepubescence <3> Adolescence. <4> Menarchy <5> Premenarqu\u00eda.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-53fa11476b6a4d38aa3f2b9c71aec1c3", "input": "Question: Indicate the correct answer: \n Options: <1> The enteric nervous system consists of the submucosal plexus and the myenteric plexus. <2> The myenteric plexus has sensory and motor neurons. <3> The myenteric plexus regulates the movements of the mucosa and the secretion of glands and the submucosal plexus regulates gastric motility. <4> 1 and 2 are correct. <5> All are correct.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-133bad8f43d74403b1a21f72c0b5bb26", "input": "Question: In neurons once an action potential has started, a second action potential can not be triggered for a short period of time, regardless of the intensity of the stimulus applied. This period of time is known as: \n Options: <1> Synaptic delay. <2> Threshold depolarizing period. <3> Absolute refractory period. <4> Relative refractory period. <5> Spatial sumary.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f7be7ebbe3ed410ca08f0cd0feaf6249", "input": "Question: How does the cerebellum participate in the control of movement ?: \n Options: <1> Monitor the intention of the movement. <2> Control posture and balance <3> Compare the movement made with the planned one. <4> Send corrective feedback signals to the motor neurons of the cortex if necessary. <5> All are correct.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5bd32ffdf1f74f7c95502b5ee4f12fa0", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following statements about dead space of the airway is correct: \n Options: <1> It is the air that occupies the airway and is used in the exchange of gases. <2> In an adult person it is about 3250 ml. <3> In each respiratory cycle the air from the dead space is poor in O2. <4> It is the lung area that is not ventilated and therefore does not contain gases. <5> It includes airways and alveoli that do not participate in the exchange of gas with blood.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0500002bf54a482f815c8cf080598d1b", "input": "Question: In relation to the hearing and balance processes, indicate which statement is correct: \n Options: <1> The sounds are perceived in the organ of Corti and the balance in ampullary crests and maculae. <2> The auditory signal is processed in the cerebellum. <3> The inner ear is full of air. <4> Otoliths are composed of quartz. <5> All answers are false.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f0e999caac494c3f96222361c36cf2b4", "input": "Question: The rhythmic movements like walking or running are: \n Options: <1> Reflex movements. <2> Voluntary movements <3> Initiated and terminated by the cerebral cortex. <4> A combination of reflex and voluntary movements. <5> 3 and 4 are correct.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f0ebfe862b7e48568214c906bc71fe27", "input": "Question: During the exchange process in the capillaries, the net active force that attracts fluid from the interstitial space back into the capillaries is: \n Options: <1> Gravity. <2> Osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid. <3> Colloidal osmotic pressure of the plasma. <4> Hydrostatic blood pressure. <5> Glomerular hydrostatic pressure.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-db0a344ebcca4db2aaee8984563884fe", "input": "Question: Point out the correct answer regarding the hormonal control of reproduction: \n Options: <1> The gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) of the pituitary gland controls the secretion of two gonadotropins from the anterior lobe of the hypothalamus. <2> The gonadotropins are the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH). <3> FSH acts mainly on endocrine cells, stimulating the synthesis of sex hormones. <4> LH is necessary, together with steroid sex hormones, to initiate and maintain gametogenesis. <5> All the above are correct.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6684d3e005c14922b22b279055630316", "input": "Question: Which of the following factors influences the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ?: \n Options: <1> Blood pressure <2> The renal blood flow. <3> Self-regulation by myogenic responses and tubuloglomerular feedback. <4> Hormones such as Angiotensin II and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. <5> All are correct.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-afee2da04d9d4dce9e9e3ca978dc2c10", "input": "Question: The cells of the stomach that are responsible for the secretion of hydrochloric acid are: \n Options: <1> The main cells. <2> The G cells <3> The parietal cells. <4> The enterocytes. <5> The mucosites of surface.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1f40daa659c8449eb6b33c4d76f64313", "input": "Question: Which of the following is considered a normal response of the cardiovascular system originated in the baroreceptors as a consequence of hypotension ?: \n Options: <1> Increase in systemic vascular resistance. <2> Increase in parasympathetic stimulation. <3> Decrease in heart rate <4> Decreased stroke volume. <5> Decrease in cardiac output", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c779553762504d02bfe40d639493ee2c", "input": "Question: Indicate the correct answer regarding the forces that influence the filtration through the capillaries of the renal glomeruli (Glomerular Filtration) that takes place in the renal corpuscle: \n Options: <1> The hydrostatic pressure of the blood circulating in the glomerular capillaries favors filtration to the Bowman's capsule. <2> The colloid osmotic pressure due to the plasma proteins within the glomerular capillaries favors filtration towards the Bowman capsule. <3> The hydrostatic pressure of the liquid inside the Bowman's capsule favors filtration into Bowman's capsule. <4> The net gradient of the sum of these three pressures is 100 mm Hg in favor of filtration. <5> All the above are correct.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-03afd857269b44249f7296f85b921a73", "input": "Question: According to practically all of the nursing literature, which is considered the first secular school of regulated nurse training in the world: \n Options: <1> The Kaiserwerth Institute of Nursing Education. <2> The school of nurses of the Saint Thomas Hospital in London. <3> The Catalina de Siena Foundation for the teaching of nursing. <4> Royal School of Nurses of Saint Elizabeth of Hungary. <5> Civil Institution of the Nursing Sisters of La Merced.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d256f40ce22f403385318cbf67215b82", "input": "Question: In 1916, in the House of Health of Santa Cristina in Madrid, the Regulation was approved for the first: \n Options: <1> School of Midwives of Spain. <2> School of Military Nurses. <3> Royal Certificate of Ministers. <4> Collegiate of Surgeons and Bleeders. <5> Board of Nursing Training Board.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c67f342a03694328a5d1bf792fd24ee0", "input": "Question: At the beginning of the Christian World, it is NOT considered a characteristic of the care that was carried out to treat the sick person as: \n Options: <1> An evangelical mandate for Christians. <2> A way to imitate the life of Jesus. <3> A human consideration related to the activities of helping the patient in their needs. <4> An opportunity for redemption for the patient and for those who provide it. <5> A person in need of technical assistance exclusively.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bfa4f3d3780d488aa9fc45790435a0dc", "input": "Question: During the nineteenth century, the reform movement greatly influenced the development of Spanish nursing at that time, being one of the most relevant figures: \n Options: <1> Sara Barton. <2> Concepci\u00f3n Arenal. <3> Mar\u00eda Teresa Junquera. <4> Mar\u00eda de Madariaga <5> Mar\u00eda de Maeztu.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0f7599ad53d5402ba9e7e5b3b408e052", "input": "Question: Royal Decree 450/2005, of April 22, regulates: \n Options: <1> The Plans of Studies of Diploma in Nursing. <2> Accreditation minimums for the transformation of ATS Schools into Nursing Diploma Schools. <3> The professional competences of the Diploma in Nursing. <4> The Own Titles of Advanced Nursing. <5> The Nursing Specialties.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6a1bd55b2bf243f6bdf1e124a25e0ca6", "input": "Question: During the second half of the 20th century there are several theoretical nurses who develop different definitions about nursing. Which of the following characteristics can be considered common to all of them ?: \n Options: <1> It focuses on the patient. <2> It focuses on the disease. <3> It is a feminine profession. <4> It has meaning from an interprofessional perspective. <5> All can be considered common to all definitions.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b6d5a6e90526498ab352f7fbbd875bb2", "input": "Question: Raile and Marriner in their studies on the theoretical works in nursing, review different aspects among which are those referred to semantics and structure. This analysis of the concrete theoretical framework refers to: \n Options: <1> The simplicity <2> The generality <3> The empirical precision. <4> The deductible consequences. <5> The clarity.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-684a2206437d42f4ae106e40c6a05e3f", "input": "Question: The conception of the person from a holistic perspective has achieved all its meaning from the works belonging to the School: \n Options: <1> Of the caring. <2> Of health promotion. <3> Of the desired effects. <4> Integrality <5> Of the unitary human being.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2860ab0713ef4a04bb62770ded6b9dd9", "input": "Question: The basis of Watson's theory is the nurse practice focused on: \n Options: <1> The 10 fundamental needs. <2> The 10 factors of care. <3> The 8 self-care requirements. <4> The 4 modes of adaptation. <5> The 21 nursing problems.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2c8644141a464deb99d67354092dbede", "input": "Question: Which of the following theorists is considered to be the founder of transcultural nursing ?: \n Options: <1> Madeleine M. Leininger. <2> Rosemarie Rizzo. <3> Dorothy Johnson. <4> Martha E. Rogers. <5> Ramona T. Mercer.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9016352ca8234cb582d02a88d714987a", "input": "Question: When using the Callista Roy model in practice, the organization of the factors that influence the person's responses are grouped as stimuli: \n Options: <1> Innatos and acquired. <2> Adaptive and ineffective <3> Focal, contextual and residual. <4> Internal and external. <5> Physiological, psychological and sociocultural.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4a48aa02e73d4285b0e5000d96ac21c8", "input": "Question: D. Orem describes the meaning of dependent care agency as: \n Options: <1> The skills developed and acquired by the nurse in their training and learning process. <2> The capacities developed, or in the process of development, that a person has to take care of the self-care of another that depends on it. <3> The skills of the mature person to meet their demands for self-care following the recommendations of professionals. <4> The relationship that occurs between the nurse and the person who requires their care establishing a nursing system agreed between them. <5> The capabilities of the person, developed or in the process of development to meet the demands of health diversion requirements.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-16d3964985fc4bbe9444b8c25c96e637", "input": "Question: A nurse who bases her professional practice on the Virginia Henderson conceptual model: \n Options: <1> It focuses on the fundamental needs of the person, and its interventions are aimed at preserving or restoring the independence of the person in meeting these needs. <2> He sees the care of the person as the establishment and maintenance of a nurse-client relationship that favors development. <3> He bases his actions on strategies to promote the adaptation of the person who is in constant interaction with a changing environment that influences their fundamental needs. <4> It considers in its care, as an authentic presence, the person who goes towards its actualization and who, through his health experiences, creates together to improve the quality of life, as the person and his family define it. <5> Organize your activity to meet the needs of care of the person, with the most appropriate system and nursing mode.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c7a4fe52af854dc0932ff24b1de28152", "input": "Question: When it comes to interviewing a person, in order to gather information about their situation, it is essential to bear in mind that: \n Options: <1> A distance of 20 cm., Makes the person feel more comfortable and provides more information. <2> The right space for each person depends on their personal and cultural needs. <3> Simple physical contact, such as putting your hand on the person interviewed, is always appropriate. <4> Women generally demand more space than men. <5> Anxiety makes the need for space less.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e45b630b187a4a5587aff98d1e4f9d86", "input": "Question: A nurse has detected, on different occasions, a real problem in the patients she attends that does not correspond to any of the diagnoses contained in the NANDA classification. The way to proceed so that it can be included in the taxonomy is to propose a structure that contains at least: \n Options: <1> The problem. The etiology Signs and symptoms <2> The problem. The etiology Signs and symptoms Studies of the cases and their results. <3> The problem defined. The most common and possible etiologies. Major and minor characteristics that indicate the existence of the problem. At least the results of an experimental study. <4> The label. Definition. Defining characteristics. Related factors Bibliographic support Appropriate interventions and results. <5> The label. Definition. Defining characteristics. Related factors Risk factor's. Bibliographic support Appropriate interventions and results.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6ed0006ce8b144c783d8c48eda5147cd", "input": "Question: One purpose of the scales for measuring the results of the NOC classification is: \n Options: <1> Determine the patient's condition and show the score of the result. <2> Make a clinical judgment about the patient's situation. <3> Determine the degree of achievement of the objectives raised in the care plan. <4> Check if the identified problem has been solved or a new diagnosis needs to be made. <5> Check the evolution of the patient and replace the evaluation phase of the care process.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-62442cd51e7d45d2bf1421f36eef598f", "input": "Question: The fundamental criterion for the choice of interventions in a nursing plan is that they are: \n Options: <1> Achievable with the available resources. <2> Those recommended in the standardized care plan. <3> Effective regardless of the criteria of the person. <4> Based exclusively on the knowledge of the nurse. <5> All are correct.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-efab42446b414b2c8433b64490cf574c", "input": "Question: A health professional is exempted from the obligation of professional secrecy in the following circumstance: \n Options: <1> Presence of an infectious disease. <2> Suicide attempt. <3> Refusal of the patient to avoid contagion to other people. <4> Suspicion of mistreatment. <5> Upon the request of a lawyer.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a2cb484b6ac14efcaaead37914eef49a", "input": "Question: The limitation of the therapeutic effort refers to: \n Options: <1> Palliative sedation <2> Assisted suicide. <3> To the rejection to the treatment. <4> To the non-therapeutic fierceness. <5> To double effect therapy.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7299ca168bd04dd69a296ae10dbc3692", "input": "Question: The four principles of bioethics, non-maleficence, beneficence, justice and autonomy were proposed: \n Options: <1> By Beauchamp and Childress. <2> In the Belmont Report. <3> In the Oviedo Convention. <4> In the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. <5> By Diego Gracia.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6b3d7721a62b4daf8c8005a43995903c", "input": "Question: The Code of Ethics of Spanish Nursing: \n Options: <1> It constitutes the minimum standards of action for Nursing. <2> It is a deontological Ethics of maximums for Nursing. <3> It is a bridge between patrimonial and collegial responsibility. <4> It is a set of guidelines for professional practice. <5> It addresses the guidelines for proper assistance to the sick.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e77a2a875ac040bfa2c178745cab6c41", "input": "Question: The model of ethical foundation exposed by Carol Gilligan is called Ethics: \n Options: <1> Of Maxima. <2> Of Duty. <3> Of Care <4> Of Minimes. <5> Of Justice.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-afa5a80bdb4548a6be90623ec19bb51e", "input": "Question: The ability to grasp the principles by which a distinction is made between what is morally good or bad is called: \n Options: <1> Moral action <2> Moral conscience. <3> Moral freedom <4> Ideal moral. <5> Moral capacity", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-528edcf9666742d98466d683744b4345", "input": "Question: A child must be taught to be more autonomous and learn to eat without help. If he first learns to hold a spoon, then to grab some puree and is finally able to take it to his mouth, and the parents congratulate him, it means that they have used positive reinforcement and the technique of successive approximations. This technique is also called: \n Options: <1> Learning by observation. <2> Molding <3> Vicarial learning. <4> Reward. <5> Training with emission.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d1a164146e24478e80203a3f1e4829c8", "input": "Question: When a person tries to avoid circumstances that increase their stress, exercises relaxation, plans leisure activities and trivializes their illness, it is said that this person is using coping strategies aimed at: \n Options: <1> The action. <2> The problem. <3> The omission <4> The emotion. <5> The attention", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-caa51b8466d84c199fec0a1a4de74b29", "input": "Question: C. N. has a significant overweight, can not resist and eats at any time. He tells the nurse that he can not control his actions and that he has very bad luck with the food problem. This lady presents an attributional style: \n Options: <1> Of helplessness. <2> Internal. <3> External. <4> Neurotic. <5> Assertive", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-74ca61a88a5d4116a7cb049fc482e08a", "input": "Question: When a person is affected by a major stressful event or many minor stressful daily events, your body can react by showing up in the target organs by the action of: \n Options: <1> Autonomic neural axis producing prolonged effects. <2> Peripheral neural axis producing intermediate effects. <3> Neuroendocrine axis stimulating the adrenal medulla and producing immediate effects. <4> Hypothalamus <5> Endocrine axis on the spinal cord.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-38dcdb53caf6447c95eccadf876be9e2", "input": "Question: The goals that improve performance and focus people's attention are: \n Options: <1> General, difficult and little challenging. <2> Specific, difficult and challenging. <3> Global, easy and challenging. <4> Specific, easy and challenging. <5> Those that are imposed externally.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-13ee49c0e8ca417eb8ca47fb9092c24e", "input": "Question: The episodic memory is: \n Options: <1> Not declarative or implicit, that keeps skills, habits or routines of daily life. Their acquisition depends on the amount of time spent practicing them and the type of training used. <2> Declarative or explicit, of personal experiences based on the memory of concrete events that can be localized in time and in a specific place. <3> Long-term semantics <4> The one that allows to retain concepts, knowledge and events. <5> Which is used in the short term, for example, to remember the verse of a song by repeating it several times for a few minutes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e905f9b3576a423dbbd7e6b52c34aeeb", "input": "Question: Persuasion is a way to change attitudes. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?: \n Options: <1> The source that communicates a message must be credible, attractive, close and related. <2> The positive message persuades better than the negative or the neutral. <3> Positive states of mind favor persuasion more than neutral states. <4> The attitudes of people with high cognitive need are more difficult to modify especially if weak arguments are used. <5> The recipient's self-esteem does not influence persuasion.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-06a1fffcfe16400eaf3b5dc0d1fd6096", "input": "Question: Point to the FALSE option. The model of the five factors of the personality of McCrae and Costa establishes as basic dimensions to study the person: \n Options: <1> Neuroticism and emotional stability. <2> Extraversion and introversion. <3> Mental openness and narrow-mindedness. <4> Kindness and antipathy. <5> Happiness and sadness", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4ba9d50207c044859c5a05935db1b606", "input": "Question: Which of the following drugs corresponds to the therapeutic group of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors ?: \n Options: <1> Buspirona. <2> Fluoxetine. <3> Zolpidem <4> Lorazepam <5> Phenytoin", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e94c90b05d4043e4ad845ac77b2889ef", "input": "Question: Among all the known adverse effects of platelet agents such as Clopidogrel, which of them are considered less serious ?: \n Options: <1> Flu-like syndrome, headache, dizziness and rash or pruritus. <2> Profuse sweating and nausea. <3> Arrhythmia and hypotension. <4> Moderate abdominal pain and headache. <5> Dyspnea and edema in MMII.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-91032d11bf634b6bab57a1c624644556", "input": "Question: In relation to the administration of non-opioid analgesics, the recommendations listed below must be considered, EXCEPT: \n Options: <1> Do not administer acetylsalicylic acid to children or adolescents. <2> Take the medication with food and plenty of fluids to prevent gastric discomfort. <3> Report a history of bleeding disorders. <4> Adjust the dosage in 600 mg / 24 hours. <5> Keep appointments scheduled for kidney and liver function tests.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d06d32f6e2cf41e89a9be0ab10d3ac90", "input": "Question: Which of the following drugs is included in the group of intermediate-acting glucocorticoids ?: \n Options: <1> Chlorpropamide <2> Estradiol. <3> Metformin. <4> Carbamazepine <5> Prednisolone", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4fdd9ac36cef466687cc87a291a404a8", "input": "Question: In the treatment with progestogens, a significant number of adverse effects occur. Of those listed below, the most serious is: \n Options: <1> Liver failure. <2> Thromboembolic disease. <3> Respiratory insufficiency. <4> Depression. <5> Heart failure.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5809cb67e3ae4bcb849f1071e8b849ee", "input": "Question: In patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, which treatments listed below are contraindicated due to the effect they cause: \n Options: <1> Bronchodilators, both short and long acting. <2> Mucolytics and expectorants to reduce the viscosity of secretions. <3> Oxygen that in the long term reduces the mortality of the patient with COPD. <4> Respiratory depressants such as opioids and barbiturates. <5> Antibiotics for patients with repeated pulmonary infections.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-669d14228d0e4cce815becdf177d1306", "input": "Question: Of all the groups of drugs listed below, those that less frequently provoke an anaphylactic reaction in the patient are: \n Options: <1> The NSAIDs. <2> Opioid analgesics. <3> Contrast media containing iodine, used for radiological examinations. <4> The benzodiazepines. <5> Antibiotics, especially penicillins, cephalosporins and sulfonamides.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4cf55efb1e20455e8efb84fb32ae2a02", "input": "Question: Point out the correct answer in relation to the posology in the administration of drugs in children: \n Options: <1> The body size influences exclusively and therefore the dose must be calculated. <2> There is a dose standard regardless of weight, so that the procedure is fast and efficient. <3> The height in centimeters must be taken into account for the calculation of doses. <4> The calculation of the body surface area is considered the most accurate method for the administration of the correct dose. <5> Some drugs do not differentiate between doses for adults and children.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-612585035b874b4aa63ae9c7501a67ad", "input": "Question: A patient with Diabetes Mellitus type 1, which starts with high fever should: \n Options: <1> Assess the evolution of fever and wait. <2> Do not eat <3> Assess the need to increase insulin. <4> Drink plenty of water. <5> Do not administer insulin.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8087c53b83ae4e70984e57b03dad9c2a", "input": "Question: A patient with chronic renal failure has to follow a controlled diet in potassium. What foods should you suppress to reduce your potassium intake ?: \n Options: <1> Sugars <2> Fish. <3> Fruit in compote. <4> Raw vegetables. <5> Fruit nectar", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f75827a689f445b797624f5c71b1722f", "input": "Question: The basal diet, normal or regular, is characterized by: \n Options: <1> Be planned by the hotel industry. <2> To be the basic menu of young patients. <3> Always be with salt. <4> Provide around 2200 kcal / day. <5> Be individualized", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5e5aeb679b47423ba92b740db7f28b9f", "input": "Question: Strict vegetarians with low sun exposure should consume foods rich in vitamin: \n Options: <1> Retinol (A). <2> Ascorbic acid (C). <3> Calciferol (D). <4> Riboflavin (B2). <5> Niacin (B3).", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0a615c4f0e6e455199d070a8f7ac7066", "input": "Question: In phase II of the diet due to acute gastroenteritis, what food should be avoided ?: \n Options: <1> Potato. <2> Toasted bread. <3> Grape. <4> Quince. <5> Semolina.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0062de63efdf4d158dd9c9614d7f848a", "input": "Question: Patients with dysphagia should avoid the following foods, EXCEPT: \n Options: <1> Homogeneous purees. <2> With a fibrous texture, such as asparagus, pineapple, serrano ham. <3> That contain thorns and bones. <4> They crumble in the mouth, like rice, potato chips. <5> Sticky and dense foods, like sliced \u200b\u200bbread.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-59c873cc38554a60874052e6636b014d", "input": "Question: The screening tool devised by Stratton and Col (2004) to evaluate malnutrition in patients admitted to hospitals is: \n Options: <1> Screening Tool (MUST). <2> CONUT. <3> IMC <4> Valuation of intake. <5> INFORNUT.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-da9d779856114cf3ac0ea17b93d41c72", "input": "Question: The involuntary loss of weight can mean malnutrition, if it is higher than: \n Options: <1> 4% in 3 months. <2> 5% in 1 month. <3> 10% in 12 months. <4> 15% in 10 months. <5> 20% in 6 months.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ba16a3ee91754131880306e19df7daa4", "input": "Question: The administration of enteral nutrition in bolus is indicated when: \n Options: <1> The formula is hyperosmolar. <2> The patient has reflux. <3> The administration is intermittent. <4> Large volumes are administered. <5> The administration is jejunal.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-82f447ca064d4b1ea501a89b52274fbd", "input": "Question: A patient with peripheral occlusive arteriopathy who presents intermittent claudication will be recommended: \n Options: <1> Absolute rest to reduce the demands of O2. <2> Elevate the legs to reduce pain. <3> Apply dry heat to the legs to promote vasodilation. <4> Walk on flat surfaces. <5> Use gradual compression stockings.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6886e0ef6b5d4b64867f13f36b502a5f", "input": "Question: The INR (international normalized ratio) of a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation treated with Acenocoumarol is 4. This result indicates that: \n Options: <1> The appearance of ventricular arrhythmias should be controlled. <2> The patient is correctly anticoagulated. <3> Anticoagulation with heparin is more indicated. <4> There is a risk of thrombus formation. <5> Signs of bleeding should be assessed.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-316add579d064ede92b86cfe1d6d1cef", "input": "Question: Which of the following signs is characteristic of a patient with left heart failure ?: \n Options: <1> Rattles. <2> Increased blood pressure. <3> Decrease in weight <4> Ascitis <5> Bradycardia", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c7ab3270cdb04a6d9f2e3f6e1b5a756a", "input": "Question: A patient with a lateral myocardial infarction will present an obstruction at the level of the artery: \n Options: <1> Coronary right. <2> Previous descending <3> Posterior descending. <4> Diaphragmatic <5> Circumflex.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8b820513ffa74c098881a56880604bf2", "input": "Question: Defibrillation is characterized by: \n Options: <1> It requires the patient's previous sedation. <2> It is usually used when the patient is in asystole. <3> It can be applied in ventricular tachycardias with a pulse. <4> The discharge is not synchronized with the patient's heart rate. <5> A minimum intensity discharge should be used.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-84fdf09b58ac483b9f960d87d884602e", "input": "Question: When performing an electrocardiogram you will notice that the QRS complex is predominantly negative in the derivation: \n Options: <1> V1 <2> AVF. <3> V5 <4> V6. <5> DIII.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7967b0085c994496b9cc713883724ed0", "input": "Question: A patient diagnosed with angina will NOT recommend: \n Options: <1> Alternating activity with periods of rest. <2> Take oral nitroglycerin in the morning. <3> Avoid extreme cold. <4> Follow a diet rich in fiber. <5> Leave the tobacco.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6e532cc8be234e5196c0299006439564", "input": "Question: Among the activities of the nurse for a patient with cognitive impairment secondary to Cerebral Vascular Accident, is NOT correct: \n Options: <1> Reorient the patient in terms of time, place and situation frequently. <2> Use verbal and auditory cues to guide the patient. <3> Repeat and reinforce instructions frequently. <4> Avoid showing family objects so as not to contribute to their frustration. <5> Use a simple language", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1c2c0bba25294738b0205ec7e1dd3f13", "input": "Question: Among the diseases and neurological disorders influenced by genetic factors, it is NOT found: \n Options: <1> Epilepsy. <2> Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis. <3> Spina Bifida. <4> Ictus. <5> Duchenne muscular dystrophy.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fb52efc27a314d38ba97ee8cff6f18af", "input": "Question: One of the drugs that are administered in the treatment of seizures is: \n Options: <1> Chlorpropamide <2> Simvastatin. <3> Carbamazepine <4> Propanolol. <5> Escitalopram.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3b41f788e3a74f3d9a2e6ba50a760a16", "input": "Question: The earliest sign manifested in the increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP) is: \n Options: <1> Orthostatic hypotension. <2> Breathing difficulty <3> Hypertension maintained. <4> Changes in the level of consciousness <5> Frequent vomiting", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cbba34797225479b887e3e330cb4c0ad", "input": "Question: The most accurate measurement of body temperature in an unconscious patient should be obtained at: \n Options: <1> Oral. <2> Axillary. <3> It is indifferent. <4> Rectal. <5> Inguinal.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2c1cc74c8ef9473ca2758fa6af3d1b77", "input": "Question: After the patient has suffered an epileptic seizure, there is a risk of presenting: \n Options: <1> Hypoxia, vomiting and pulmonary aspiration. <2> Dizziness, nausea and abdominal pain. <3> Intense headache, hypotension and rigidity. <4> High blood pressure and arrhythmias. <5> Insomnia, altered appetite and loss of energy.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c5973ff8826d4ecdbcab40920257e5af", "input": "Question: P. L. complains of gastroesophageal reflux and although he takes the prescribed drugs he acknowledges that he did not carry out the diet because he thought it was not important. Now he asks for dietary recommendations. Which one is indicated ?: \n Options: <1> Take very cold foods. <2> Take very hot foods. <3> Drink liquids at lunch and dinner. <4> Take low fat diet. <5> Drink citrus juices.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fc142f8e71234be794152e203176add4", "input": "Question: Mr. L. R. is a colostomy carrier. Which of the following recommendations on activities of daily life is adequate ?: \n Options: <1> You should avoid bathing, neither with a bag nor without it. <2> You can not do sports activities. <3> You can not wear a sash on top of the bag. <4> It is advisable that you drink plenty of fluids to avoid dehydration. <5> You should avoid sexual intercourse involving contact with the stoma area.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7043bab94a0948bea07fa2876c164428", "input": "Question: Patients with liver cirrhosis may have ascites due to: \n Options: <1> Alteration of the coagulation factors. <2> Portal hypertension and serum hypoalbuminemia. <3> Decrease in hydrostatic pressure. <4> Irritation of the peritoneal membrane by bile salts. <5> Post-surgical and abdominal trauma.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-64344252350e4438991b75765a4cae4b", "input": "Question: Patients undergoing gastric surgery require vitamin B12 replacement therapy for: \n Options: <1> CLH deficiency - which hinders the absorption of nutrients. <2> Excessive loss of this vitamin in the stool. <3> Low intake of food as a result of anorexia. <4> Deficiency in its absorption due to lack of intrinsic factor. <5> Excessive loss of this vitamin in the urine.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-afd5dbfcd97744389b445061b821e5ed", "input": "Question: Crohn's disease is an inflammatory process that is characterized by: \n Options: <1> It affects the superficial mucosa of the colon. <2> It usually occurs with rectal bleeding. <3> The affectation is uniform, producing continuous injuries. <4> The colectomy cures the disease. <5> It affects any stretch of the gastrointestinal tract.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a475316f2ce34013bb433da6597f9fdb", "input": "Question: Clay-colored stools are indicative of a problem of: \n Options: <1> Obstruction of the bile ducts. <2> Severe and prolonged diarrhea. <3> Gastrointestinal bleeding. <4> Long fasting. <5> Enteral feeding", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-038f2c9a71fd45e2befba3f224474132", "input": "Question: When you value the oncological patient, in which Functional Pattern of M. Gordon is included the Barthel Index ?: \n Options: <1> Cognitive-Perceptual. <2> Activity-Exercise. <3> Perception-Health Management. <4> Nutritional-Metabolic. <5> Self-perception-Self-concept", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5952d22de7314731b0a00daac454d121", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements related to breast cancer is correct ?: \n Options: <1> Infiltrative ductal carcinoma is the least frequent histological type (around 510%) <2> If the tumor is located in the nipple, it is called Paget's disease. <3> Total mastectomy involves excision of the breast, the areola-nipple complex, and axillary lymph node dissection. <4> It does not produce metastasis in the bone tissue. <5> When there is metastasis, hormone therapy is contraindicated.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c4868926a9bf4f8ebf3fccf79e4b7c7a", "input": "Question: Hypoxemic hypoxia occurs when: \n Options: <1> Oxygen diffusion of lungs is difficult. <2> There is decreased blood flow due to cardiogenic shock. <3> The decrease in hemoglobin due to anemia prevents its transport. <4> The cell membrane is altered and can not use oxygen. <5> None is correct.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4282a544f40e4e8eba949e0e427459c4", "input": "Question: What values \u200b\u200bobtained in an arterial blood gas are considered within the normal parameters in an adult person ?: \n Options: <1> PaCO2 65mmHg, PaO2 80mmHg, pH 7.55. <2> PaCO2 35mmHg, PaO2 110mmHg, pH 7.55. <3> PaCO2 35mmHg, PaO2 90mmHg, pH 7.35. <4> PaCO2 80mmHg, PaO2 35mmHg, pH 7.35. <5> PaCO2 20mmHg, PaO2 90mmHg, pH 7.45.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c4210d86ca684e57b214362315d4db2d", "input": "Question: Regarding the exercises with the incentive spirometer, it is true that: \n Options: <1> They stimulate the patient to inhale quickly and deeply. <2> The patient must be in the supine position. <3> Spirometers can be of three types: volume, flow or pressure. <4> They are also called sustained maximum inspiration exercises. <5> All are false.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-088754761eba422b98e4d42eec55b56f", "input": "Question: When training a patient to perform diaphragmatic breathing exercises correctly, we will indicate that: \n Options: <1> Inhale through your nose while counting to 3 and exhale quickly with pursed lips. <2> Inhale through the mouth and contract the abdominal muscles for another 7 seconds. <3> Firmly press the abdomen out and down when exhaling. <4> Inhale slowly and deeply through the nose and push the abdomen outward. <5> Help yourself by supporting your hands on the rib cage while inspiring.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-122c10fb1f22440b8ea0d66f7a2a37d6", "input": "Question: Hyperoxia or oxygen toxicity can cause signs and symptoms such as: \n Options: <1> Substernal pain <2> Paresthesias of the extremities. <3> Fatigue and general malaise. <4> Dyspnea and progressive respiratory distress. <5> All are true.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-94eac904f932481fa40d54a066cdaf67", "input": "Question: The obturator or catheter in a tracheostomy cannula serves to: \n Options: <1> Introduce the external cannula into the tracheal stoma in a non traumatic way. <2> Aspirate secretions if a vacuum source is directly connected. <3> Help maintain the permeability of the artificial airway. <4> Fix the cannula avoiding its accidental displacement. <5> Allow the patient to speak by allowing the air to pass through the vocal cords.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f9d18470f8bb4c33b98f7677944a94c0", "input": "Question: In the postoperative period, clinical signs such as high temperature, cough, expectoration, dyspnea and chest pain correspond to a patient who presents: \n Options: <1> Pulmonary embolism. <2> Pulmonary emphysema <3> Pneumonia. <4> Atelectasis <5> Asthma crisis", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8bdc23695fcf423f9d34dae639d0852f", "input": "Question: Which of the following NANDA diagnoses is NOT relevant in the newly operated patient: \n Options: <1> Acute pain <2> Risk of liquid volume deficit. <3> Ineffective respiratory pattern <4> Alteration of social interaction. <5> Ineffective cleaning of the respiratory tract.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-65edd6b80818494abb473ef99c205b2a", "input": "Question: One of the signs that can appear in the postoperative period is tympanism, which means: \n Options: <1> Paralysis of intestinal peristalsis. <2> Tympanic perforation due to increased pressure. <3> Evisceration <4> Retention of gases in the intestine. <5> Severe abdominal pain.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-55a6f91f655c4b3281c0482d846e4df9", "input": "Question: A 48-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus 2 comes to the nursing consultation. Baseline venous blood glucose values \u200b\u200bare: 165 mg / dL. Other interesting data are: total cholesterol: 197 mg / dl and BMI 23 Kg / m2. What dietary recommendation is indicated ?: \n Options: <1> Distribute carbohydrate intake throughout the day, with a carbohydrate ratio of 30-54%. <2> Plan together with the patient a hypocaloric diet that includes 55-60% of carbohydrates, a reduction of fat intake <30% and fiber intake of 20-30 g. <3> Take supplements of omega 3 fatty acids. <4> The consumption of alcohol should not exceed one-two units / day. <5> Prepare a hyperproteic diet together with the patient, including low glycemic index foods.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-06f0a8ffbf5348a5bff44e3a64b152cf", "input": "Question: Thyroid storm or thyrotoxic crisis is a state of extreme hyperthyroidism characterized by: \n Options: <1> High prevalence in patients with endocrine disorders. <2> Hyperthermia, tachycardia, abdominal and neurological disorders, including epileptic seizures, delirium and coma. <3> Hypothermia, bradycardia and lethargy. <4> It does not suppose a situation of vital commitment for the patient with disorders of the endocrine system. <5> Hyperthermia, bradycardia, abdominal disorders and absence of neurological symptoms.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a220eff9570f4f0a8a22b55b66dfc6af", "input": "Question: Diabetes Insipidus: \n Options: <1> It is a disease linked to the dysfunction of the anterior pituitary gland. <2> It is controlled by limiting the ingestion of liquids. <3> It manifests by polydipsia and the elimination of large volumes of diluted urine. <4> It originates in the pancreas. <5> It is caused by excessive production of ADH (Vasopressin).", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-84fff2aaed9640ae944c7447f77494db", "input": "Question: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) causes disorders of the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids. The main clinical manifestations of CAD are: \n Options: <1> Hypoglycaemia, dehydration with loss of electrolytes and acidosis. <2> Hyperglycemia, dehydration with loss of electrolytes and alkalosis. <3> Hypoglycaemia, increases in volemia and acidosis. <4> Hyperglycemia, dehydration with loss of electrolytes and acidosis. <5> Hyperglycemia, increases in blood volume and alkalosis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1ecf6e2009d4482ebd79facfc8443089", "input": "Question: One of the main risk factors for kidney cancer is: \n Options: <1> Cardiopathy without treatment. <2> Sex. <3> Liver failure. <4> Alcohol intake. <5> Polycystic kidney disease.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5331103c40ae421ebef8871a2a71b4ee", "input": "Question: In a patient with Renal Insufficiency, oral drugs must be administered: \n Options: <1> With natural fruit juices. <2> With the lowest volume of liquid possible. <3> With the same volume as any other patient. <4> With the largest volume of liquid possible. <5> Always during hemodialysis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-01ae7ee938854187ada07e8b4533227c", "input": "Question: In a postoperative patient with a urinary diversion, the nurse should monitor the urine volume every hour. Below how many ml / h of urine may indicate that the patient is dehydrated or has some type of internal obstruction or loss ?: \n Options: <1> 200 ml / h. <2> 100 ml / h. <3> 80 ml / h. <4> 50 ml / h. <5> 30 ml / h.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-507e99f9bc62462ea115cc6cfcaf35e0", "input": "Question: In the nurse's instruction on home care in peritoneal dialysis, the patient or caregiver should be able to: \n Options: <1> Mention the basic principles of aseptic technique. <2> Analyze restrictions on food. <3> Demonstrate the procedure to add medication to the dialysis solution. <4> Describe the actions in case of emergency. <5> All the previous answers are correct.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4b09c30a8b294fafbfb840e64ad0298d", "input": "Question: It has been 24 hours since D. J., 28, has undergone an abdominal surgery. When he enters the room he smiles and jokes with the visitors. The blood pressure is 130/74 mmHg, the heart rate is 80, and the respiratory rate is 18. He tells him that he has pain and on a numerical scale of pain intensity from 0 (without pain) to 10 (the worst possible pain), DJ scores his pain in 8. Based on these data, point out the number you would choose to represent the assessment of this man's pain: \n Options: <1> 9. <2> 8 <3> 7 <4> 6 <5> 5.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-879c4c5c13374ec187156a10fa54debc", "input": "Question: Mrs. P. R. has prescribed a serum therapy at a rate of 2 liters of isotonic saline in 24 hours; How many drops / minute would the infusion graduate ?: \n Options: <1> twenty. <2> 24 <3> 28 <4> 32 <5> 36", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cf75d9647f054e2eaa9226c63aa06e1d", "input": "Question: One of the following positions makes the patient more susceptible to developing pressure ulcers due to shearing forces: \n Options: <1> Supine decubitus <2> Projection prone. <3> Semiprono decubitus. <4> Fowler. <5> Sims.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5a4e257a1c33478d82e5f3d5261a6ea0", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements about the consolidation of the fractures is FALSE ?: \n Options: <1> The presence of metabolic diseases inhibits consolidation. <2> There are bones that consolidate later due to their state of nutrition and blood supply. <3> In children they consolidate faster. <4> Intraarticular fractures delays consolidation. <5> The space between the fragments favors consolidation.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a558c71880a34e8b885f7a8899f9a265", "input": "Question: For a skeletal traction to be effective, the principles that must be met are: \n Options: <1> Contraction, continuity and body alignment. <2> Body alignment and joint mobility. <3> Joint mobility and continuity. <4> Contraction and body alignment. <5> Continuity, body alignment and joint mobility.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4cb14e6809984ebf94c48269e3e7d0b0", "input": "Question: The procedure to apply a plaster includes: \n Options: <1> Choose a band 10 cm wide. <2> Cover the previous row with one third of the width of the bandage. <3> Handle the plaster in the process of drying with the palms of the hands. <4> Support the cast member on a hard surface. <5> Cover the plaster to allow it to set.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b7e4b097dd084193a593199f45c11f16", "input": "Question: When performing a central peripheral insertion venous catheterization procedure, the nurse must take into account that: \n Options: <1> The catheter is ready for use immediately after insertion, not needing further checks. <2> It is vital to perform a chest X-ray and / or an electrocardiographic record prior to its use. <3> A complete electrocardiogram should be performed in order to avoid possible complications. <4> The location of the tip of the catheter is only checked if parenteral nutrition is to be administered through it. <5> You need to check your position using a chest x-ray and another abdomen.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-214aadef6f5949a990b9711926771c47", "input": "Question: The specific test to be performed as a previous step to the insertion of a catheter in the radial or ulnar artery, in order to evaluate the presence of an adequate collateral circulation of the hand, is called: \n Options: <1> Spencer test modified. <2> Tolerance test for arterial catheterization. <3> Student's test <4> Allen test. <5> Tilt Test (TTT).", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9a845778a5434af6b250ee518d0f1c7a", "input": "Question: When a terminal patient presents pain: \n Options: <1> Analgesia will be prescribed. <2> The treatment must be limited to the use of drugs. <3> The drugs will be administered on demand. <4> The route of choice for the administration of drugs will be the one determined by the physician. <5> The route to be used for the administration of analgesia, preferably, will be intramuscular.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-80b2b0026cc64b4ba3ee4c241bd561d3", "input": "Question: Which of the following activities should NOT be carried out in the terminal patient when he presents with xerostomia ?: \n Options: <1> Offer you vitamin C pills <2> Give him candy with sugar. <3> Increase fluid intake. <4> Offer ice cubes. <5> Prepare pieces of natural pineapple.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fd92c41ed6f44b9583a0405389fb04fd", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements regarding constipation in the terminal patient is correct ?: \n Options: <1> It is a rare symptom. <2> Its most common cause is the administration of opioids. <3> The basic therapy will consist in the administration of enemas. <4> Its etiology is unifactorial. <5> It must be treated with a diet rich in fiber.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8576801cd4564a0993190c0cab47f183", "input": "Question: The type of epidemiological study indicated to evaluate, in a population initially exempt from the health problem under study, the association between a risk factor and the onset of the disease is: \n Options: <1> Randomized clinical trial. <2> Quasi experimental. <3> Ecological studies <4> Cases and controls study. <5> Cohort study.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-37de69242de34874968efddd1c27ba86", "input": "Question: In the health area, safety problems are identified in two schools. To deal with the situation, educational sessions are held with parents and teachers of the centers, prevention posters are drawn up, signatures are collected to support the elimination of black spots, and risks are eliminated and regulations that favor safety of the schools. This type of intervention is considered: \n Options: <1> Health promotion. <2> Advice and information. <3> Education for individual health. <4> Education for group health. <5> Education for massive health.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-36f6ebd78e13492ca49a4bdec7fad470", "input": "Question: A program of Health Education (EpS) is organized for women in the climacteric stage. One of the sessions aims to know how they are living this stage and how it is affecting them personally and family. The most appropriate EpS technique is: \n Options: <1> Grating. <2> Brainstorming. <3> Phillips 6/6. <4> Fotopalabra <5> All are adequate.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-211b520ef096490fb9776298c6ac10bf", "input": "Question: The Program of Preventive Activities and Health Promotion (PAPPS) DOES NOT include as a minimum package in the Infant Subprogram: \n Options: <1> Screening for congenital hypothyroidism. <2> Promotion of breastfeeding. <3> Prevention of pregnancy and sexually transmitted diseases in adolescents. <4> Prevention of suicide. <5> Prevention of active and passive smoking.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b664d4094ad04f51928e2501053ab524", "input": "Question: In the control of chronic diseases that require continuous treatment, one of the main challenges for the primary care nurse is to favor adherence to pharmacological treatment and to make recommendations related to lifestyles. Of the following recommendations, which would NOT be indicated to encourage such adhesion ?: \n Options: <1> Provide clear advice on the benefits and possible adverse effects of the treatment and on the posology and its duration. <2> Take into account the habits and preferences of the patient. <3> Use standardized diets and exercise charts that reduce monitoring. <4> Establish a therapeutic relationship based on the motivational interview. <5> Offer multiple or combined sessions of behavioral interventions.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b850b798409c4dfb82f82f43d557c033", "input": "Question: A 45-year-old man of Moroccan origin, who arrived in Spain three years ago, goes to the nurse's office, with a clean superficial wound, and tells us that six months after arrival he was given a dose of the diphtheriate bath vaccine. Of the following interventions, which is indicated ?: \n Options: <1> Start diphtheria tetanus vaccination. <2> Administration of the 2nd dose of tetanus diphtheria. <3> Administration of antitetanus gammaglobulin. <4> Administration of antitetanic gamma globulin and 2nd dose of diphtheria tetanus. <5> No intervention would be indicated since he has a dose of diphtheria tetanus.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-438e156e8d524ea69a37a6b667380486", "input": "Question: P.C. is a 27-year-old woman who was given the first dose of the HBV vaccine 3 weeks ago. He has just been given the results of the serological markers of rubella: Ac anti rubella negative. Taking into account the vaccination situation, what intervention is adequate ?: \n Options: <1> Vaccinate the triple viral and the 2nd dose of HBV, at the time of consultation. <2> Vaccinate the triple virus at the time of consultation and wait a week for the administration of the 2nd dose of the HBV vaccine. <3> Vaccinate the 2nd dose of the HBV vaccine at the time of the consultation and wait a week for the administration of the triple virus. <4> Vaccinate from the 2nd dose of the HBV vaccine at the time of consultation, and do not vaccinate from the triple virus since it is immunized. <5> Do not vaccinate for the anti-rubella ACs.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f609148ed23f4e9e860dc0dd5df93324", "input": "Question: A 38-year-old man comes to the nursing consultation and says he has maintained risky sexual practices with a source + HBV. The result of the serology performed is HBsAc> 10mUl / ml. Taking into account the data provided, what intervention is indicated ?: \n Options: <1> Immediate administration of the lgHB, initiate HBV vaccination and EpS of safe sex practices. <2> Only immediate administration of the lgHB and EpS of safe sex practices. <3> Put HBV and EpS recall doses of safe sex practices. <4> Start vaccination and EpS of safe sex practices. <5> EpS of safe sex practices.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee466b9c419744f88e837817f02d5be7", "input": "Question: Within the direct care functions developed by the Primary Care Teams is NOT: \n Options: <1> Promotion of healthy lifestyles. <2> Secondary prevention of more prevalent problems in the community. <3> Preparation and implementation of health education projects in school environments. <4> Undergraduate and postgraduate training of health personnel. <5> Rehabilitation.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-67cf216a6ae34763aac39502e336d04e", "input": "Question: The recommended secondary prevention measure for the prevention of cervical cancer is: \n Options: <1> Vaccine against HPV. <2> Promote the use of condoms. <3> Substitute treatment of estrogen and progesterone in postmenopausal women. <4> Performing cervical cytology for women between 25 and 65 years <5> All are recommendations for secondary prevention.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-566126423b994bbf8d0d0d42a326219b", "input": "Question: An essential aspect that should be included in the assessment of a smoker is: \n Options: <1> Degree of dependency. <2> Stage of the change process. <3> Degree of motivation <4> Supports and difficulties. <5> All are correct.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-73636262dfb04779b5dd466bbc7e1a02", "input": "Question: According to the Strategy of the National Drug Plan (2009-2016), among the population groups that benefit from programs and activities aimed at social assistance and integration, there are NO people who: \n Options: <1> They consume drugs and they go to the general health network for problems related to their consumption or other health problems. <2> They frequent environments and participate in situations where there is a special facility for consumption. <3> They are affected by dual pathology, they present complicated comorbid conditions that become chronic and worsen the evolution and prognosis of the addictive problem. <4> They are interned in prisons or following alternative programs to the enforcement of prison sentences. <5> They are minors and drug users, inmates in protection or reform centers.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b6d6ccc91e714cf58d8c44ab75188d0e", "input": "Question: What type of primary prevention intervention is indicated during the pre-pathogenic period of cardiovascular diseases ?: \n Options: <1> Carry out the assessment of cardiovascular risk using the SCORE scale from adolescence. <2> Control of total cholesterol levels periodically based on age. <3> Blood pressure control periodically based on age. <4> Promotion of healthy lifestyles: tobacco consumption, diet and exercise mainly. <5> All measurements are indicated.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ca1503631e0e42b6a2e74f451f2a0bc7", "input": "Question: What measure defines the frequency of lung cancer among people who smoke 20 cigarettes a day compared to those who do not smoke ?: \n Options: <1> Accumulated incidence. <2> Incidence density. <3> Relative risk. <4> Attributable risk. <5> Etiological risk fraction.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-229693e4aa4a4837bb726e423bb5afbb", "input": "Question: Of the following variables, which is considered a risk marker in the onset of cardiovascular disease: \n Options: <1> Elevated figures of LDL-cholesterol and total cholesterol. <2> Man over 55 years old. <3> Smoker of 20 cigarettes daily. <4> Sedentary. <5> All are correct.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-691dcba154c84bea86bf9a3037782f4c", "input": "Question: Dengue is an infectious disease endemic in certain communities. When 38% of the population of a community has said disease, we talk about: \n Options: <1> Holoendemia <2> Hyperendemia <3> Mesoendemia. <4> Hypoendemia <5> Pandemic.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-606a65d01ab94df291d3ddcb0525a339", "input": "Question: Taking into account the WHO classification of methods and means of education for health, campaigns to prevent traffic accidents carried out on television are considered a method: \n Options: <1> Indirect and visual <2> Direct and visual <3> Indirect and audiovisual. <4> Mixed. <5> Mixed, sound, visual and audiovisual.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4007eeeeff2c449fa3b71967b3bb10fd", "input": "Question: According to the article 15 of the Law of Prevention of Labor Risks, it is NOT considered a principle in the preventive activity: \n Options: <1> Avoid the risks and fight them from their origin. <2> Adapt the job to the person. <3> Adopt measures that put individual protection before collective protection. <4> Substitute the dangerous for what it means little or no danger. <5> Training of workers", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-183408927154454c8434c7ded4985fec", "input": "Question: The least effective prevention measure in the appearance of an outbreak of salmonellosis is: \n Options: <1> Active immunization to the population at risk. <2> Rigorous and frequent hand washing, as well as utensils and surfaces that will be used for cooking. <3> Keep food in the refrigerator. <4> Cook food with sufficient temperature (at least 70\u00baC). <5> Quick refrigeration of cooked foods.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-621cd29989144c9a8e6560a064a835c8", "input": "Question: In the health diagnosis of a community, if the objective is to know how the environment influences the community, the indicator that must be included in the analysis is: \n Options: <1> Unemployment rate. <2> Geographic characteristics. <3> General structure of the population. <4> Fertility rate. <5> Population correctly vaccinated.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-40ede03e5f8e4d7dbf99421e2a4c4f29", "input": "Question: Point out the INCORRECT response in relation to the Portfolio of Primary Care Services: \n Options: <1> It is the selection of services prioritized and organized in a specific way, which responds exclusively to health policy priorities. <2> The basic unit of the Portfolio of Services is a set of activities or action criteria that guide the attention to a problem or process of clinical or preventive health with specification of the population to which it is directed. <3> The general structure may have variants depending on the service in question or the different Autonomous Communities. <4> Its purpose is to promote the attention of the most frequent and relevant processes in PA in accordance with agreed scientific and technical criteria. <5> It reduces the avoidable clinical variability and facilitates equity in the provision of services.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-25e4f243b95d4eb89ef590582c13b973", "input": "Question: Among the sources used to make the diagnosis of health of a community, it is essential to know: \n Options: <1> Census of the population. <2> Notifiable diseases registration. <3> Potable water supply. <4> Waiting lists. <5> All are correct.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b559bbbf481d4f1f820896ea3d766c9b", "input": "Question: The quotient between the number of live births registered in a year and the female population of reproductive age (15-49 years) refers to the concept of: \n Options: <1> Crude birth rate. <2> General fertility rate. <3> Synthetic fertility index. <4> Gross reproduction rate. <5> Net reproduction rate.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-47f745ffb9ac4be593800147e423b6cb", "input": "Question: If in an epidemiological study, the participating population has voluntariness as an inclusion criterion, the validity of the results are subject to a bias of: \n Options: <1> Information. <2> Confusion. <3> Selection. <4> Interpretation. <5> Publication.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a282e4010df54e8b9ab26689bbab0c60", "input": "Question: A 55-year-old man came to the nursing consultation for follow-up of newly diagnosed hypertension. In the assessment he says that he smokes 15 cigars a day. Taking advantage of the opportunity of the consultation, the nurse provides information on the importance of quitting smoking and offers support if you decide to quit. This type of EpS intervention is considered: \n Options: <1> Advice / Information. <2> Individual attention <3> Health promotion. <4> EpS sued. <5> All are correct.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-55f9de6a32354b17b1d21b56d8c4bad1", "input": "Question: Among the epidemiological criteria of causality defined by Bradford Hill (1965) is NOT: \n Options: <1> Strength of association. <2> Temporal sequence. <3> Biological gradient <4> Cessation or reversibility effect. <5> Presence of alternative explanations.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5fad65e12c9e417d899924bf90b22804", "input": "Question: The results of the evaluation of a prevention program carried out in a specific context, environment and population refer to the concept of: \n Options: <1> Effectiveness. <2> Efficiency. <3> Effectiveness. <4> Feasibility. <5> Sustainability", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-df7c8dd5fdaf4a12be0ff4459fb1c128", "input": "Question: The demographic dynamics of a community is determined by: \n Options: <1> Natality <2> Mortality. <3> Immigration. <4> Emigration. <5> All are correct.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a7efb0adcce24f0d9c3cedb6084a8ecb", "input": "Question: It is NOT considered a tertiary prevention intervention in a situation of mistreatment of women: \n Options: <1> Perform a periodic and systematic assessment of the indicators of abuse risk. <2> Perform a comprehensive physical assessment (injuries produced), psychological (emotional state) and social (social support networks). <3> If there is an immediate life risk, an urgent transfer to the hospital or to the guardhouse will be necessary. <4> Contact and inform the pediatrician if the woman has children, both because of the potential risk (when witnessing the abuse) and the possibility of being victims of it. <5> Inform of the legal steps.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4d250895a3964768b4e9f07855340e55", "input": "Question: Which of the following manifestations is an emergency for the pregnant woman ?: \n Options: <1> Appearance of varicose veins <2> Leucorrhea <3> Polaquiuria. <4> Intense headache <5> Sickness.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a1bf2ed81eef48dda5066d24f2611633", "input": "Question: C. S. who is 40 weeks pregnant and gets rubella, consult with the nurse your doubts about whether you can breastfeed the newborn. What will be the response of the nurse ?: \n Options: <1> It is totally contraindicated. <2> The disease is compatible and also vaccination with breastfeeding. <3> You must wait until the baby is 15 days old. <4> It depends on the viral load. <5> Breastfeeding will begin 3 days after putting the gammaglobulin to the baby.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3f0527b5f5ae4cddbd98afc5caf920d1", "input": "Question: Between 24 and 36 hours after the peak of release of the hormone LH occurs, it is triggered: \n Options: <1> The menstruation. <2> Maturation of the Graaf follicle. <3> The ovulation <4> Oogenesis <5> The formation of the primordial follicle.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b800f033d6574c9db9f657945122f076", "input": "Question: In the Pap test, cytological samples should be collected from: \n Options: <1> The vulva, the cervix and the inside of the uterine cavity. <2> The vaginal walls and the uterine fundus. <3> The inside of the cervix, the external cervical os and the posterior vaginal sac. <4> The vaginal introitus and the ectocervix. <5> The endocervix and the lateral vaginal sacs.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ab956891f90c4edf8ecb086813e75d49", "input": "Question: Due to its high mercury content, the Spanish Agency for Food Safety and Nutrition recommends pregnant women not to consume: \n Options: <1> Mature soft cheeses, type Brie or Camembert. <2> Pate or foie gras. <3> Large fatty fish. <4> Raw sausages <5> Green leaf vegetables.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-99e3295c1a5b49c6825bd180c48825e9", "input": "Question: The effect of anti-D gammaglobulin given to Rh negative women who have developed an Rh positive fetus is: \n Options: <1> Eliminate fetal red blood cells from maternal blood. <2> Destroy the antigens formed by the mother's immune system. <3> Avoid the formation of anti-Rh negative antibodies. <4> Induce the formation of maternal antibodies against fetal antigen. <5> Provide the woman with permanent active immunity.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2013b869607c467590104719c1812ccc", "input": "Question: In a woman with hyperemesis gravidarum, the appearance of: \n Options: <1> Convulsive crisis. <2> Hyperglycemia <3> Dehydration <4> Abruptio placentae <5> Polyuria", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d5e003e5db4e4fc2aca136a663c8e2ba", "input": "Question: For the care of the nipple cracks during lactation it is recommended: \n Options: <1> Washed with water and neutral pH soap after each feeding. <2> Spread a few drops of milk and let air dry after the tetada. <3> The use of healing ointments. <4> 70\u00ba alcohol applied through sterile gauze between shots. <5> Apply cold between shots.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3b011af1777441dcbf517b09004919fc", "input": "Question: In relation to toxoplasmosis and pregnancy, indicate which of the following options is true: \n Options: <1> Placental transmission to the fetus can occur. <2> The rate of antibodies should be detected at the beginning of pregnancy and, in their absence, vaccination with killed virus vaccine should be carried out. <3> The infection is less severe but more frequent the younger the pregnant woman is. <4> In our environment, the main cause of infection is the coexistence and management of domestic birds. <5> The infection occurs intrapartum, favored by the rupture of the amniotic sac.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-906c286574be4f1b8a2dc6256508437c", "input": "Question: A child with gluten intolerance asks the nurse what trinkets she can take when she goes out to play with her friends: \n Options: <1> Snacks <2> Chocolates <3> Popcorn. <4> Pastries <5> Candies.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ddd7f654aa6347298eadc6fedfae00c0", "input": "Question: Regarding the exploration of psychomotor development, the area of \u200b\u200blanguage and sociability in a four-year-old child, which of the following findings can be considered a sign of alarm in the maturation process ?: \n Options: <1> Abrupt stop of the acquisition of skills or loss of some already acquired. <2> Hyperactivity He does not know how to entertain himself, he needs constant vigilance. <3> Excessive sociability; he goes with anyone indiscriminately. <4> Repeat questions instead of answering them. <5> All these situations are warning signs.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-55e2063d44644fffa5f4ff466c190418", "input": "Question: The presence of foreign bodies such as small buttons, sunflower seeds, etc., in the respiratory tract in young children is a relatively frequent accident. Point out the signs that appear when these objects are lodged in the lower respiratory tract: \n Options: <1> Episodes of cough, hoarseness and dyspnea. <2> Chronic cough, hypoventilation on auscultation, signs of infection. <3> Asphyxia, dyspnea, cyanosis, respiratory failure. <4> Fever, cough and dysphonia. <5> Tachypnea, increased respiratory effort.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2c86948087a640d8b211f596009a8a92", "input": "Question: Of the following scales of pain assessment in childhood, which is recommended for school children aged 7 to 8 ?: \n Options: <1> NFCS scale. <2> Numerical or analog scale. <3> CHEOPS scale. <4> Scale Oucher. <5> Ladder of Wong and Baker.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-82d2c5a78da64757b980fff4186db621", "input": "Question: With regard to child abuse, point out the aspects that indicate the non-accidental nature of injuries and suggest that they are due to mistreatment: \n Options: <1> Delay in asking for help or going to the consultation. <2> When the story of the accident or the facts is unconvincing. <3> The explanations given by the parents, separately, are discordant. <4> History with numerous accidents or traumatisms. <5> All the answers include situations that are associated with abuse.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-01455aa52ed949529d18520f514819ab", "input": "Question: In our interview with a 14-year-old adolescent and her family, the following information is collected: her character has changed, she is sad and irritable; excessive worry about what you eat; obsession with the gym and stagnation or decrease in body weight, although its size has increased. The adolescent does not recognize any of these observations claiming that she is growing. We would think that: \n Options: <1> Although it may correspond to diagnostic criteria for an eating disorder, the signs and symptoms alone are not enough and sometimes stigmatize young people causing them suffering. <2> These data correspond on their own to the diagnostic criteria of Anorexia according to the DSM-IV. <3> These data correspond by themselves to the diagnostic criteria of Bulimia Nerviosa according to the DSM-IV. <4> These data are not very relevant to establish a diagnosis, so it will be less important. <5> All the answers are correct.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5c07755d6fc540bb9d3542b39202a172", "input": "Question: Which of the following problems of the newborn is associated with folate deficiency during the first weeks after conception ?: \n Options: <1> Anemia. <2> Defects of the neural tube. <3> Low birth weight <4> Premature delivery. <5> Hemorrhage of the newborn.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3b87678d86c244b3a1dc181a9ed5e8ec", "input": "Question: Mr. G. A., caregiver of his wife who suffers from Alzheimer's Disease, consults his nurse because it has started with disruptive behaviors, shouting and wandering. Point out the correct answer regarding this type of behavior: \n Options: <1> They are unavoidable and unpredictable. <2> They depend solely on anatomical alterations. <3> Always try to make the patient reason about their failures. <4> They can be a way of expressing insecurity or frustration on the part of the patient. <5> Pharmacological treatment is the first option to reassure the patient.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c148213517b24f5b91d4652ec80a7b37", "input": "Question: In relation to the sensory changes that occur in vision during aging, it is correct that: \n Options: <1> The visual field is not modified. <2> The pupil is more sensitive to light, favoring glare. <3> The perception of depth is distorted. <4> The threshold for the perception of light decreases. <5> There is a uniform loss of perception of all colors.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a14e2db6f8fc4df69b7fa0ff6130aa72", "input": "Question: During the aging process there are changes in the different systems and devices, being true that in the cardiovascular system: \n Options: <1> Increased sensitivity of the baroreceptors intensifies postural hypotension. <2> The three layers of the blood vessels are affected equally in the aging process. <3> The left ventricle decreases in size. <4> The cycle of diastolic filling and systolic emptying requires less time to complete. <5> The atrioventricular valves suffer from sclerosis and fibrosis.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e21ee0b6e037463eb02bf4fb02492eac", "input": "Question: In the health report of Mrs. P. T. of 83 years of age, it is reported that she has a depressive picture. Regarding depression in the elderly has been described that: \n Options: <1> It is uncommon for them to have somatic symptoms. <2> It is not characteristic that cognitive disorders appear. <3> The Yesavage scale is an instrument to establish a safe diagnosis of depression. <4> There is unanimity in stating that it has specific manifestations in the elderly. <5> There may be pictures of pseudodementia, with symptoms of dementia but caused by depressive states.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3e779b18292d4aa1bd208feae890c75f", "input": "Question: Mr. T. T., 92 years old, admitted to the hospitalization unit recently, has started with different symptoms that suggest that he has an acute confusional syndrome. Within the measures of prevention and care for this problem is indicated: \n Options: <1> Advise the family not to stop constantly stimulating the patient. <2> Use physical restraint in all these patients to prevent falls. <3> Avoid joining two patients with this problem in the same room. <4> Remove dental, hearing and visual prosthetics to prevent injuries. <5> Avoid any type of night lighting in the room to promote relaxation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-028441cd35a34ef3ade6aaf6e90b3f88", "input": "Question: Urinary incontinence affects a significant population of elderly people. When applying different behavioral therapies, we must take into consideration that urinary bladder training or bladder training: \n Options: <1> It can be applied if the patient is motivated and has no cognitive or physical impairment. <2> Improves the function of the bladder in people with functional incontinence. <3> It has been shown to be effective in people with cognitive deficits. <4> It is defined as the establishment of a predictable bladder emptying scheme. <5> It is defined as the improvement of the function of the bladder in any type of incontinence in people with or without cognitive impairment.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-054465fce1034d1da07d60d5a0cb5d93", "input": "Question: In a hospitalization unit, 15% of elderly people with dementia enter the year, most of them in very advanced stages. Pain is a frequent symptom in this type of patients. Point out the correct answer in patients with very advanced dementia: \n Options: <1> Untreated pain may manifest by agitation. <2> The Analog Visual Scale is the most appropriate for the assessment of pain due to its simplicity. <3> One-dimensional subjective scales are those recommended by experts to assess pain. <4> There are no specifically available scales designed to assess pain. <5> The administration of opioids for pain control is discouraged.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b569f5c2365446ee98524c85efa09d2b", "input": "Question: Mrs. H. H. 69 years old complains that she does not sleep well. Regarding sleep in the elderly, it has been proven that: \n Options: <1> The non-pharmacological approach to insomnia has proved ineffective in this population. <2> The aging process is one of the main causes of insomnia. <3> They have a worse quality sleep, more fragmented and with early awakenings. <4> For the treatment of insomnia, the benzodiazepines of long half-life are those with the least side effect. <5> All hypnotics have the same side effects in the elderly.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-760cb6f994f34fea9153413db1c23196", "input": "Question: Indicate the correct answer regarding the Lawton index as a scale of assessment in geriatrics: \n Options: <1> Due to its complexity to be applied, it requires that the interviewer has been previously trained. <2> It must always be applied by direct observation of the person evaluated. <3> Several of its items are related to domestic tasks. <4> Evaluate the advanced activities of daily life. <5> Many of its items value activities associated with the male role.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aeb97cf960684d9581417ba98ab12779", "input": "Question: With what aspect does the difficulty of the elderly relate to solve new problems ?: \n Options: <1> Creativity. <2> Motivation. <3> Verbal fluency. <4> Memory. <5> Response time.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-50923355d3c44642b7b52703679f30a5", "input": "Question: The Amercian Psychiatric Association (1994) defined mental illness as: \n Options: <1> A syndrome that has psychological or behavioral manifestations associated with an alteration of functioning secondary to a social, psychological, genetic, physicochemical or biological anomaly. <2> A disorder limited exclusively to the person who suffers. <3> Acceptance by the patient of their actions. <4> The possibility of the person to cope with stress. <5> A disease that confines people to asylums and asylums.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f887a90864fc458695b728ccfaa6468a", "input": "Question: In the field of mental health, the word chronicity: \n Options: <1> It is not used in relation to mental disorders. <2> It is replaced by the term Serious Mental Disorder (TMG). <3> It began to be used with psychiatric reform. <4> It is related to acute mental illness. <5> It is a neutral concept, without negative connotations.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-057db23328d849438676f7fe6bdd76b7", "input": "Question: The presence of nonspecific prodromes in a psychotic disorder: \n Options: <1> It refers to one of the three phases in which a psychotic episode evolves. <2> It refers to the acute phase. <3> It refers to the recovery phase. <4> It defines the abrupt onset of the first psychotic episode. <5> It is a phase in which the patient does not need treatment.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f2a69742e2b845b0bc259300542e3b92", "input": "Question: Psychotherapeutic treatment in psychotic disorders: \n Options: <1> It is impossible because of the serious deterioration of the reality suffered by patients with this type of disease. <2> It is contraindicated. <3> It improves the course of the disease, prevents relapses and improves coping skills and social and work functioning. <4> It does not take into account family intervention, since this type of disorder is often associated with pathological families. <5> It refers to the establishment of training programs in social skills.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f9daa9bb70b54a8fa395b1fcb5b55629", "input": "Question: The presence of a mental disorder and the pathological use of toxic substances: \n Options: <1> It refers to the concept of Dual Pathology, a specific type of diagnostic comorbidity. <2> It is a pathological entity that does not exist. <3> It is synonymous with bipolar disorder. <4> It refers to elderly people who simultaneously have two or more mental illnesses. <5> It constitutes a diagnostic label without relevance from the clinical or social perspective.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5c274d23a3d9416a9734d51baf44d6bc", "input": "Question: The appearance of difficulties and respiratory infections as a consequence of the diminution of the defenses, is a dysfunction that occurs most likely in: \n Options: <1> Manic disorders. <2> Depressive disorders <3> Psychotic disorders <4> Personality disorders. <5> Schizophrenia.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cde56152a7fd443993988355ddba789a", "input": "Question: What are the main functions of the managers or leaders of an organization ?: \n Options: <1> Control, supervision, information and communication. <2> Recruitment, selection, hiring and supervision. <3> Planning, organization, execution / direction and control. <4> Address, evaluation, authorization / denial and communication. <5> Hiring, training, accreditation and approval.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-04e51133c6e54610beb61ff4fecfe327", "input": "Question: What is the name of the structure type of an organization, in which each person no longer depends exclusively on a single boss, but can also be affected by different projects and statutes, during a variable or fixed time ?: \n Options: <1> Pyramidal. <2> Divisional. <3> Matrix <4> Organization chart of Urwick. <5> Functional.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-223fb8689c7d4ee8935d8bf7dbe1dcbc", "input": "Question: The Scorecard is: \n Options: <1> The set of rules that govern the internal functioning of an institution. <2> A set of data and indicators, which serves as an information and control tool for management. <3> The list of the names and positions of the Steering Committee of an institution. <4> A control panel, used by the Directors of institutions, that allows them to access all electronic services and applications online. <5> An economic-financial report, which allows to know basically the deviations of the expenses and income of an institution.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-beadf271482f406684a2e1a9c7a2380a", "input": "Question: The process management is: \n Options: <1> A management method, aimed at sequencing the supply processes of materials to the clinical units, to reduce replacement times and storage space. <2> The processing of information, through electronic media, to streamline decision making between services or units that are not close to each other, valid both for the Health Center and for hospitals. <3> A way of managing, in which administrative procedures are prioritized, in order to place those related to the client (or user) in the foreground and the procedures related to economic-financial management are relegated to the lower level. <4> A work system focused on achieving the continuous improvement of the functioning of an organization through the identification, selection, description, documentation and improvement of processes. <5> A variant of zero-based budget planning, in which, during the planning process, it is a question of adapting the means to the objectives in each one of the Departments, Services or Units of the Institution.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8cbd648a2625491bb94074af1b4ec7a4", "input": "Question: From the perspective of health management, what do the initials GRD correspond to ?: \n Options: <1> An international radiodiagnosis network based on teleradiology. <2> The online reports provided by the advanced information system of some hospitals, on the availability of beds, operating rooms and high-tech diagnostic tests. <3> A report prepared by the Ministry of Health, which contains the conclusions of a panel of experts, which recommends strategies on Information Technology and Communications. <4> An organism, dependent on the World Health Organization specialized in health information systems. <5> A classification system for patients with episodes of hospitalization.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7db58a34e8e141ea92734f6b48469783", "input": "Question: Indicate the correct answer regarding the pancreas: \n Options: <1> Your alpha cells secrete insulin. <2> Its F cells produce somatostatin, which accelerates the secretion of glucagon. <3> Your alpha cells secrete glucagon, which increases the concentration of blood glucose. <4> It is an exclusively endocrine gland. <5> Its delta cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6d9316ab8ba84692b2a777cfb350cfad", "input": "Question: Point out the INCORRECT response in relation to the primary prevention measures of skin cancer: \n Options: <1> Avoid sun exposure between 12 and 15 hours. <2> Application of sun creams with high sun protection index, 15 minutes before exposure. <3> Use photoprotection to increase the time of exposure to the sun. <4> Use sunglasses, hats and appropriate clothing, as well as awnings and umbrellas. <5> Do not expose babies to the sun or to those who are being treated with immunosuppressants.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a969740164d64e9dae01d91059ac49fb", "input": "Question: The patient's desire not to be informed: \n Options: <1> It is regulated by law only for exceptional cases. <2> It is not regulated in any way by law. <3> The professional obligation is to always inform you, even if you do not want to. <4> It is a right that the law grants to all people. <5> They must be reported to the judicial authority.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ede033ecb61843488a9ff4dcec7d678a", "input": "Question: When choosing the most appropriate intervention, when the NANDA, NOC, and NIC classifications are used together, the fundamental reference element is: \n Options: <1> The diagnosis. <2> The patient's preferences <3> The objects of the plan. <4> The result. <5> The activities that can be carried out.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5fbf514806ec4de098a48a9083c57b79", "input": "Question: Menopause is diagnosed by: \n Options: <1> The presence of more frequent and abundant cycles of what corresponds to each woman's own pattern. <2> The absence of menstruation in twelve consecutive months. <3> Symptoms derived from estrogen deprivation, such as insomnia, hot flashes or dry skin and mucous membranes. <4> The spacing of the rules, which are becoming increasingly infrequent. <5> Hormonal analyzes, densitometry, mammography and cytology.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-70b47dd0bf484b67bd624ed4d91d4068", "input": "Question: Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is one of the emerging health problems. Indicate with which of the following activities the family nurse can advance their detection and approach: \n Options: <1> Carefully review milestones of development and acquisition of social skills, since from birth they show symptoms. <2> Pay attention to family information about rude motor development, since early and unambiguous signs of ADHD usually appear. <3> Observing and carefully assessing the child, regarding their distractions, impulsivity and their ability to concentrate and answer our questions. <4> Assess the activities in the consultation of all children because those who suffer ADHD are always hyperactive and aggressive and register them as such. <5> The answers 1 and 2 are correct.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-da4b5a7bf5694aa7bfa176d5c030f2d7", "input": "Question: What psychosocial theory considers as maladjusted to the elderly who try to maintain previous levels and patterns of activity: \n Options: <1> Activity. <2> Empty of roles. <3> Continuity. <4> De-linking <5> Structured dependence.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1aa9034528734839ac160596e04b8b55", "input": "Question: What does the measurement of skinfolds estimate ?: \n Options: <1> The body mass <2> The total body fat. <3> The lean mass. <4> The relationship between fat mass and muscle mass. <5> The fat-free mass.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0d895d5131f34a20af4d8a2b88c35d5e", "input": "Question: If you want to help improve the self-esteem of the patient you are treating, you can: \n Options: <1> Use Johari's window to promote self-knowledge. <2> Get the ideal self and the real me not too close. <3> Help him to focus on himself exclusively and not to recognize the influence of external factors. <4> Invite him not to interact with others assertively. <5> Even if the person does not want or has an authentic desire to know himself, he does not affect self-knowledge.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ea4e36f55b1c46c99d0995168b8067f9", "input": "Question: Which of the following criteria does NOT correspond to any of the nine established in the Model of the European Foundation for Quality Management (EFQM): \n Options: <1> Leadership. <2> People. <3> Processes, products and services. <4> Efficiency. <5> Key results", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-28fe2f54b793474391f962ab0281b02b", "input": "Question: Sumatriptan is a first generation anti-migrant triptan, structurally characterized by having a heterocycle: \n Options: <1> Imidazoic <2> Piperidinic <3> Indic. <4> Pirr\u00f3lico. <5> Oxazolic.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a74ac72b4089458cafbfc3bdff9efd81", "input": "Question: What is the chemical basis for the reversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by the alkaloid physostigmine and related compounds ?: \n Options: <1> Allosteric inhibition of the enzyme. <2> Covalent binding to a cofactor essential for the reaction. <3> Coordination of an Mg2 + cation in the active center of the enzyme. <4> Analogy with the transition state of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme. <5> Formation of a carbamate (carbamoylation) of the serine residue in the active center of the enzyme.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-96de9bbf6390420b8b0742d81c9fd757", "input": "Question: (-) - Deprenyl (or selegiline) is a propargylamine that is used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease because it is: \n Options: <1> Dopamine D2 receptor agonist. <2> Dopamine antagonist. <3> COMT inhibitor. <4> Dopamine prodrug. <5> Suicide inhibitor of the MAO-B.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a75f7041483046e2867e7ea97099c352", "input": "Question: The antitussive dextromethorphan is an enantiomer of the O-methylated derivative of levorphanol that belongs to the structural family of: \n Options: <1> 6,7-Benzomorpanos. <2> Morfinanos. <3> 4-Phenylpiperidines. <4> Phenylpropalamine. <5> Oripavinas.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8f87039406c54380aa8754c7a6c831da", "input": "Question: Bortezomib is a proteasome inhibitor approved to treat multiple myeloma. What type of acid group is present in its structure and is necessary for its activity ?: \n Options: <1> Boronic. <2> Phosphonic <3> Sulfinic <4> Carb <5> Carboxylic", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1cc56c1f17234bd6a02bd30a084f4ffe", "input": "Question: The 2,4-diaminopteridine systems, such as aminopterin or methotrexate, are good antitumor agents since they reduce the biosynthesis of purines and pyrimidines by inhibiting the enzyme: \n Options: <1> Timidylate synthetase <2> Aromatase <3> Topoisomerase <4> Reverse transcriptase <5> Dihydrofolate reductase.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-907986078efa45a09dee58ccbba408cf", "input": "Question: Aflatoxin B1 is a natural product that owes its toxicity to a product of its metabolism, very reactive, of the nature of: \n Options: <1> 1,2-Diol. <2> Quinonymine <3> Epoxide <4> \u0391, \u03b2-unsaturated carbonyl. <5> Radical hydroperoxide.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5883747587354d2c8d64f8f3909c475a", "input": "Question: Why does carbenicillin have a low antibacterial activity by mouth ?: \n Options: <1> It is degraded by beta-lactamases in the digestive system. <2> He undergoes first-pass hepatic oxidative metabolism. <3> It binds covalently to plasma proteins. <4> It is decarboxylated in the acid medium of the stomach giving rise to benzylpenicillin, which is also unstable in that medium. <5> It is highly lipophilic, which is why it is not released correctly from oral administration forms.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-537d47f7d5e94daaa39437faa1c4b5de", "input": "Question: Atenolol is an antihypertensive \u03b2-antagonist that belongs to the structural family: \n Options: <1> Arylethanolamines <2> Quinazolines <3> \u03b2-Haloalkylamines. <4> Aryloxypropanolamines. <5> 2-Imidazolines.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3969df5db3124eb393c2b998a73423e6", "input": "Question: Sulfasalazine is used for the treatment of ulcerative colitis. It is a prodrug of 5-aminosalicylic acid that is activated by a process of: \n Options: <1> Hydrolysis of an ester. <2> Hydrolysis of an amide. <3> Oxidative dealkylation. <4> Reducing rupture of the azoderivative. <5> Aromatic hydroxylation.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c0c3c2136dcc4685bb0c3146b178afcd", "input": "Question: What is the purpose of the phthalyl group in phthalisulfatiazole ?: \n Options: <1> Improve intestinal absorption. <2> Prevent intestinal absorption. <3> Improve the passage through the blood-brain barrier. <4> Prevent passage through the blood-brain barrier. <5> Increase the affinity towards the therapeutic target of the drug.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c60906ea8c4e4478afe2da37dc743f04", "input": "Question: Which of the following reactions of drug metabolism has an oxidation reaction as an intermediate step ?: \n Options: <1> The transformation of a nitro group (for example, the one existing in nitrofurantoin) into amino. <2> The O-demethylation of an ether (for example, the transformation of codeine into morphine). <3> The breaking down of a diazo group to originate an amine (for example, the transformation of Prontosilrubrum into sulfanilamide. <4> The transformation of oxazepam in its glucuronide. <5> The transformation of acetylcholine into choline.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1d6aa000f98a4c79863e6c40a65f6eec", "input": "Question: A 5-year-old boy with symptoms of possible meningitis is seen in an emergency department. Gram-negative diplococci and abundant polymorphonuclear leukocytes are observed in the Gram stain of the cerebrospinal fluid sediment. What microorganism does it suggest as a possible cause of the infection ?: \n Options: <1> Haemophilus influenzae. <2> Streptococcus pneumoniae <3> Streptococcus agalactiae. <4> Neisseria meningitidis. <5> Listeria monocytogenes.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4e3977c55fbd452bbe6ff8ebba299bda", "input": "Question: Echinocandins are antifungal compounds that act by inhibiting: \n Options: <1> The synthesis of ergosterol. <2> The synthesis of the cell wall. <3> The synthesis of DNA. <4> The synthesis of proteins. <5> The formation of microtubules.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e98ed93ddfef413fa805e9292f93cdbd", "input": "Question: What is onychomycosis ?: \n Options: <1> An infection of the oral mucosa and gums of infants produced by Candida albicans. <2> A brain abscess in immunosuppressed caused by Aspergillus spp. <3> An infection of the nails by fungi dermatophytes. <4> A serious variety of acne in which fungal species also participate. <5> A lung infection caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bb220a93e0cf4e179e8f96ffc8ac3b9b", "input": "Question: Ceftazidime is an antibiotic of choice in the treatment of infections due to: \n Options: <1> Mycoplasma pneumoniae. <2> Pseudomonas aeruginosa. <3> Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). <4> Chlamydia trachomatis. <5> Mycobacterium tuberculosis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-050bd60f04e44bb5ac9f708217379ce9", "input": "Question: Which of the following vertebrate viruses has as genetic material single-stranded RNA ?: \n Options: <1> Papilloma virus. <2> Smallpox virus <3> HIV. <4> Human rotavirus. <5> Epstein-Barr virus.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-60a269f0e67b47668cd571a1d35b77db", "input": "Question: The dipicolinic acid is: \n Options: <1> One of the first antibiotics of the quinolones group. <2> A compound characteristic of bacterial endospores. <3> A reserve compound present in the metachromatic corpuscles. <4> An acid polysaccharide present in the wall of Gram positive. <5> One of the amino acids of Gram negative peptidoglycan.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3c374649a36a4f8db912ecb4746346e8", "input": "Question: Streptococcus pyogenes strains that produce erythrogenic toxin are responsible for: \n Options: <1> Erysipelas. <2> Rheumatic fever. <3> Impetigo. <4> Glomerulonephritis <5> Scarlet fever.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f2a57771f2df410ca5b39063ebf0a6d1", "input": "Question: From a microbial growth control point of view, it can be stated that: \n Options: <1> Pasteurization is a method of sterilization for liquid substances. <2> The overpressure is what kills the microorganisms when the autoclave is used. <3> Antiseptic agents are applied to living tissues. <4> The autoclave is the recommended method for sterilizing thermosensitive liquids. <5> The use of ultraviolet radiation is due to its high penetration power.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1f3f4b0c8912478ab176bbb41729e929", "input": "Question: Which of these characteristics do bacterial exotoxins have ?: \n Options: <1> They have all the Gram negative bacteria. <2> They are lipidic in nature. <3> They are located in the outer membrane. <4> They introduce a weak immune response. <5> Some are used inactivated as a vaccine.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3bb8564b85194c4f9ed3b2ba525a62fa", "input": "Question: The calcofluor white stain allows observing: \n Options: <1> Spirochetes <2> Bacterial endospores. <3> Bacterial flagella. <4> Hyphae of filamentous fungi. <5> Metachromatic corpuscles.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f362c262544b434da5c4bae1c3713937", "input": "Question: Which Clostridium genus is a producer of enterotoxin A and cytotoxin B responsible for diarrhea (pseudomembranous colitis) associated with treatment with antimicrobials ?: \n Options: <1> Clostridium perfringens. <2> Clostridium difficile. <3> Clostridium botulinum. <4> Clostridium novyi. <5> Clostridium histolyticum.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee756bb7ca0f4cbd93874a9e2e79541f", "input": "Question: Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma are related to infection by: \n Options: <1> Herpes human virus type 6. <2> Cytomegalovirus. <3> Respiratory syncytial virus. <4> Epstein-Barr virus. <5> HIV.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e6baa04ddc12448c869995466be9088c", "input": "Question: Which of the following filariasis is diagnosed by finding microfilariae in the skin: \n Options: <1> Loa loa <2> Wuchereria bancrofti. <3> Brugia malayi <4> Mansonella perstans. <5> Onchocerca volvulus.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3581b626082545bc9a0fc932d8925bdc", "input": "Question: The biological cycle of Trichinella spiralis is of the following type: \n Options: <1> Stenoxene <2> Optional. <3> Triheteroxene <4> Autoheteroxene <5> Heterog\u00f3nico.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0e9e2f3c047b4699ade9fa6b3860ce4d", "input": "Question: The dye-test (Sanbin-Feldman test) is the reference method for the diagnosis of: \n Options: <1> Cryptosporidiosis. <2> Sarcocystosis <3> Malaria. <4> Toxoplasmosis <5> Cyclosporosis", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c98fc03caa0d414f9bf13a19e41eab82", "input": "Question: The presence of digestive tract with branched caeca extending to the posterior end of the adult worm is characteristic of the species: \n Options: <1> Hepatic fasciola. <2> Fasciolopsis buski. <3> Dicrocoelium dentriticum. <4> Paragonimus westermani. <5> Clonorchis sinensis.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-97ff242399c84b55a4eed1960087ec16", "input": "Question: Fluid bed dryers are recommended for substances: \n Options: <1> With high heat of fusion. <2> Free flowing <3> Termol\u00e1biles. <4> Insoluble. <5> Permeable to moisture.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-adf9f138a5ee41a19ae3c561aeba89e2", "input": "Question: In the filtration process, the flow velocity is: \n Options: <1> Directly proportional to the quantity of the cake deposited. <2> Directly proportional to the amount of materials in suspension. <3> Dependent on the degree of ionization of the substance to be filtered. <4> Dependent on the ambient temperature. <5> Inversely proportional to the quantity of the cake deposited.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b8945adb093448a7bece1ddcb2eb404b", "input": "Question: By means of the angular methods used to evaluate the flow properties of a powder, it is determined: \n Options: <1> The ease with which the solid sets in motion. <2> The angle of repose. <3> The flow velocity <4> The resistance to displacement. <5> The density of the powder.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-49632defe54e4617b530529c09aa365f", "input": "Question: Porous glass filters of 10-40\u03bcm are used in particular in: \n Options: <1> Analytical filtering. <2> Fine filtration <3> Help for other filtering materials. <4> Ultra-thin filtration <5> Separation of large diameter microorganisms.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b6a266bbceb443dfa1d79fc2037f8bda", "input": "Question: Ophthalmological ointments: \n Options: <1> They may contain solid particles but only with a controlled size. <2> They do not need to be sterile. <3> They require the test of pyrogens. <4> They can not be W / O emulsions. <5> Always your excipients must be fatty", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7088cd3e78c843fbbc781528cb6f8ac3", "input": "Question: The water used in the preparation of medicated syrups must: \n Options: <1> Be sterile <2> Be purified or distilled water. <3> It is highly recommended that it contain dissolved carbon dioxide. <4> Contain dissolved calcium ions. <5> Contain an adequate proportion of magnesium ions.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-266c33d7c01543d3998ad1a4d630812e", "input": "Question: The angular methods for evaluating the flow properties of pulverulent solids allow the determination of the angle of repose parameter. A mixture of pulverulent substances presents a good or optimum flow if the values \u200b\u200bof this parameter (in degrees) are: \n Options: <1> Over 40 <2> Between 45 and 55 <3> Between 38 and 45. <4> Over 37 <5> Near or under 25", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d96bf7a880854269ab56855e69aa5e43", "input": "Question: The ascorbic acid esters are used in Pharmaceutical Technology as: \n Options: <1> Reducers <2> Blockers <3> Synergists <4> Chelators <5> Antiseptics", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5c466bda07114d4cafa3427538510548", "input": "Question: Steric stabilization in dispersed systems is: \n Options: <1> More effective in aqueous dispersions. <2> More effective with volume fractions of small particles. <3> Effective in aqueous and non-aqueous dispersions. <4> Coagulates by adding electrolytes. <5> Susceptible to reversible coagulation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ea8cdf7e6fbc448c90d97cf60f609408", "input": "Question: What taste do you think can mask the bitter taste of an oral solution: \n Options: <1> Licorice. <2> Apricot. <3> Vanilla. <4> Anise. <5> Raspberry.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7d6aa81afb294577b007f5d6c3b154a7", "input": "Question: Sulfamethoxazole is microencapsulated by complex coacervation using: \n Options: <1> Gelatin and gum arabic. <2> Albumin and gum arabic. <3> Gelatine and sodium alginate. <4> Pectin and gelatin. <5> Gum arabic and pectin.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d9835979f33540aa97437c46a2d3813b", "input": "Question: Within the main phases of extrusion and spheronization we have: \n Options: <1> Dry mix, wet kneading and compaction. <2> Wet kneading, compaction and drying. <3> Wet mixing, compaction, and drying. <4> Wet kneading, drying and sieving. <5> Kneading dry, drying and sieving.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-359542e90e344b03956b3b2c2afa35ec", "input": "Question: A tablet with gastrosoluble film cover is being designed. Which of the following excipients exerts the function of plasticizer in said cover ?: \n Options: <1> Hydroxypropylmethylcellulose. <2> Methylcellulose <3> Copolymer of methacrylic acid (Eudragit\u00ae E30D (A)) <4> Polyethylene glycol <5> Titanium oxide.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-502d67925f154eb49971889ea69b2237", "input": "Question: One of the components of injectable formulations are preservatives. This category includes different excipients with different mechanisms of action. Which of the following is used as a chelating agent ?: \n Options: <1> Butylhydroxyanisole. <2> Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid. <3> Ascorbic acid. <4> Propyl gelate <5> Tocopherol.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d229cc6fb64a45ce99ecb6ed0d5d7d01", "input": "Question: Why do ovarian cycles not appear in nursing mothers for several months after birth ?: \n Options: <1> For stress and lack of sleep associated with breastfeeding. <2> Because there are low levels of FSH and LH. <3> Because there are high levels of oxytocin. <4> By saving iron that is derived from breastfeeding. <5> Because there are high levels of progesterone.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3d6cec4ee59645eaafe8685f60735650", "input": "Question: What transport system do thyroid follicular cells use to capture iodide through its basal pole ?: \n Options: <1> A primary active transporter. <2> An iodide exchanger with chloride. <3> A transporter called pendrina. <4> A process of pinocytosis. <5> A sodium iodide carrier.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d2ad0982d70455cba694430b20a873f", "input": "Question: What is the maximum volume of air that a subject can breathe out after maximum inspiration ?: \n Options: <1> Total lung capacity. <2> Expiratory reserve volume. <3> Inspiratory capacity <4> Vital capacity <5> Residual volume", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-691d0e1b269a44b296922b7b97440f8d", "input": "Question: Which of the following moments of the electrocardiogram corresponds to the depolarization stage of the ventricular myocardium ?: \n Options: <1> Onda P. <2> Onda T. <3> Segment T-P. <4> Segment P-Q. <5> QRS wave.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9ac5eb356d5940da97b2a176f53073a9", "input": "Question: What is the closest distance to the eye to which an image can be focused correctly on the retina ?: \n Options: <1> Far optical point. <2> Depth of focus. <3> Close point of accommodation. <4> Focal distance. <5> Ocular emmetropia.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e7ef90b2d3414ddd939a9cebaebecfd5", "input": "Question: The bile produced by the liver is stored in the gallbladder from where it is secreted into the duodenum when the muscles involved receive this order in the form of hormonal and nervous signals mediated by: \n Options: <1> Colecitocinin and beta-adrenergic sympathetic activation. <2> Pancreozimine and beta-adrenergic sympathetic activation. <3> Secretin and parasympathetic activation. <4> Cholecystokinin and parasympathetic activation. <5> Secretin and alphaadrenergic sympathetic activation.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d6f7e9f0cc7e4125a7dcd73d9637a839", "input": "Question: What are the components of a functional heme group ?: \n Options: <1> Four molecules of bilirubin and one Fe3 +. <2> Four globins (2alpha + 2beta) and one Fe3 +. <3> One molecule of protoporphyrin and one Fe2 +. <4> One molecule of bilirubin and one Fe2 +. <5> Four globins (2alpha + 2beta) and one Fe2 +.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c5155f46dd744126869f7b0c247a6afa", "input": "Question: What is the average life time of an erythrocyte: \n Options: <1> Four months. <2> Four weeks. <3> One year. <4> Sixty days <5> Two weeks.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-21f80a32a07444a7a90207e8372e826d", "input": "Question: What percentage of the bicarbonate filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed under normal conditions along the nephron and in which segment is most of this reabsorption produced ?: \n Options: <1> It is reabsorbed almost 100%, mostly in the collector duct. <2> Approximately 50% is reabsorbed, mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule. <3> Approximately 50% is reabsorbed, mostly in the distal convoluted tubule. <4> Less than 20% is reabsorbed, mostly in the collecting duct. <5> It is almost 100% reabsorbed, mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7231c51216784ac8b44442df94617441", "input": "Question: From what compound and where mainly melatonin is produced ?: \n Options: <1> From tyrosine in the skin. <2> From tryptophan in the skin <3> From tryptophan in the pineal gland. <4> From tyrosine in the pituitary gland. <5> From tyrosine in the pineal gland.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0e7ffe8d160a49e48984322ba79e0208", "input": "Question: What type of receptor is responsible for activating most of the responses to the hormone T3 ?: \n Options: <1> A protein G. <2> An ABC protein. <3> A nuclear receiver. <4> A receiver coupled to an ion channel. <5> A plasma membrane glycoprotein.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dc6cb9ee3d7847518d9a5a2f8fd2131b", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following deficits leads to a glycogenosis: \n Options: <1> Hexokinase. <2> Hexosaminidase. <3> Glucose 6-phosphatase. <4> Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase <5> Fructokinase", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e4847e0fa3664cc9a8d0ebe130625bff", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following will be the most likely diagnosis if an individual has a lipoprotein lipase deficiency: \n Options: <1> Type I dyslipidemia <2> Type IIa dyslipidemia. <3> Type III dyslipidemia. <4> Abetalipoproteinemia. <5> Tangier disease.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-110375d6ddb8486fb83dc5fd74095c77", "input": "Question: The BRCA-1 gene mutation is associated with a high risk of: \n Options: <1> Acute myocardial infarction. <2> Breast cancer <3> Alzheimer disease. <4> Parkinson's disease <5> Tay-Sach disease.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1c94fd65f48b49a481367b59bf09b76a", "input": "Question: Becker muscular dystrophy is an alteration of: \n Options: <1> The skeletal muscle. <2> The metabolism of lipids. <3> The bones. <4> Hepatic origin. <5> The bilirubin.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-79a23de88f0a42eb8a07ae66bf87a5b3", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following disorders is a lysosomal disease: \n Options: <1> GLUT2 deficiency. <2> HSL deficiency (hormone-sensitive lipase). <3> Deficiency of LPL (lipoprotein lipase). <4> Basic amino acid transporter deficit. <5> Sphingolipidosis", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b7ed4d67bd6b43a8bc0e2a34e05cc082", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following disorders will cause jaundice: \n Options: <1> Gilbert's syndrome. <2> Zellweger syndrome. <3> Hashimoto's thyroiditis. <4> Cushing's disease <5> Alcaptonuria.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b9f8f0cb330042ffa0067bbcfb2c9983", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following deficits is an alteration of the mucopolysaccharide metabolism: \n Options: <1> Pyruvate kinase deficiency. <2> Deficiency of branching enzyme. <3> Sphingomyelinase deficiency. <4> N-acetylneuraminidase deficiency. <5> N-acetylglucosaminidase deficiency.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-525156ad90604c4abe85362515c565df", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following deficits leads to a porphyria: \n Options: <1> Phenylalanine hydroxylase. <2> 21 \u03b1-hydroxylase. <3> Ferrochelatase <4> Glucokinase. <5> Tyrosine hydroxylase.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-59aff1aec7894cb2a1ccbf2fa8ce8d79", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following alterations of the metabolism can occur with gout: \n Options: <1> Metabolism of porphyrins. <2> Metabolism of acid amino acids. <3> Metabolism of basic amino acids. <4> Metabolism of glycogen. <5> Metabolism of purines.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0e6e5b2f5a2741c5a3b42487820c3cc2", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following is a mitochondrial disease: \n Options: <1> \u03b1-thalassemia <2> Essential fructosuria. <3> Leigh syndrome. <4> Cushing's syndrome. <5> Sickle cell anemia", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-64eb4ba4a5ba4a998eef44b2a1b66f66", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following is an acquired corpuscular hemolytic anemia: \n Options: <1> Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. <2> Deficit of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase. <3> Minkowski-Chauffard disease <4> Sickle-cell anaemia. <5> Pyruvatokinase deficiency.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5f43da0958444c26a4166ef20c277bf5", "input": "Question: As inclusion of plasma cells, the presence of: \n Options: <1> Pelger-Hu\u00ebt anomaly. <2> Alder-Reilly anomaly. <3> Canes de Auer. <4> Howell's bodies. <5> Russell's bodies.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-08d557d804f24f4593cfd48cbac0d7da", "input": "Question: The translocation t (11; 14) is characteristic of mantle lymphoma. Which fusion protein originates, capable of promoting the cells towards the S phase of the cell cycle ?: \n Options: <1> BCL-2 <2> Beta-2-microglobulin. <3> Cyclin D1. <4> Transreticulin. <5> ALK protein.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e8be0ce2fca443308a265fd528547e7c", "input": "Question: Which of the following laboratory tests is of choice in the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemias due to hot antibodies ?: \n Options: <1> Ham's test <2> Test of Coombs. <3> Autohemolysis test with glucose. <4> Osmotic resistance test. <5> Electrophoresis of membrane proteins.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-436ece6ccde342759d0657e1cd4121ed", "input": "Question: In a patient with sepsis and coagulopathy of consumption, which of the following analytical tests would indicate a state of hyperfibrinolysis ?: \n Options: <1> Lengthening prothrombin time. <2> Antithrombin deficiency. <3> Increase in Dimero D. <4> Increase in protein C. <5> Increase in PAI-1.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2d9fc542c7e047588600180661f662e5", "input": "Question: The deficit of which of the following enzymes is NOT a cause of porphyria ?: \n Options: <1> Protoporphyrinogen oxidase. <2> Delta-amino levulinic synthetase. <3> Coproporphyrinogen III oxidase <4> Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. <5> Uroporphyrinogen III cosintetase.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-47d2dfe94ee84debb94b86d8c97762a8", "input": "Question: Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor in acute lymphoblastic leukemia ?: \n Options: <1> Age 1-9 years. <2> Phenotype B. <3> Karyotype with translocation 9; 22. <4> Leucocytosis of 25,000 / microL. <5> Hyperploid DNA index.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e323f733d7e8447dbe6d3eee2f469873", "input": "Question: Crohn's disease: \n Options: <1> It only affects the colon. <2> It presents as perianal disease, with development of fistulas or abscesses. <3> It is characterized by continuous involvement of the mucosa. <4> It is associated with alcohol consumption. <5> It starts in the infant stage of the individual.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2453104bae834a7c8dce966ee3b3b6d8", "input": "Question: The hypertension developed in hyperaldosteronism is produced by: \n Options: <1> Increase in blood calcium. <2> Desensitization of the vascular wall to the vasoconstrictors. <3> Greater release of adrenaline and noradrenaline. <4> Increase in the reabsorption of Na + and H2O. <5> Decrease in blood volume.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b0cdaf0e7d134418878444083ee34236", "input": "Question: If the thyroid hormones are increased and both TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) and the uptake of radioactive iodine by the thyroid gland are decreased, it is a process of: \n Options: <1> Thyrotoxicosis not hyperthyroid. <2> Primary hyperthyroidism. <3> Hypophyseal hyperthyroidism. <4> Graves-Basedow disease. <5> Increase in gonadotropins.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2c8774d999164470adcd947d6cca1634", "input": "Question: Pneumothorax occurs as a result of the entry of air into: \n Options: <1> The interstitial space. <2> The pleural space. <3> The peribronchial space. <4> The pulmonary circulation. <5> The systemic circulation.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-86156445268c4079b921f66be6e589d8", "input": "Question: Non-fluid, motor or expressive aphasia is associated with injuries in: \n Options: <1> The Wernicke area. <2> The arched fascicle. <3> The motor cortex <4> The Broca area. <5> The angular gyrus.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a31c56786a594a579cb068514f8996f1", "input": "Question: In chronic bronchitis, it is characteristic: \n Options: <1> Destruction of alveolar walls. <2> Difficulty in the inspiratory flow. <3> Decrease in the volume of inspiratory reserve. <4> Elevation of capillary hydrostatic pressure. <5> Inflammation and mucosal hypersecretion of the respiratory tract.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-68cc0a3643dd4b12b43a9d97bdf705b4", "input": "Question: What is allodynia ?: \n Options: <1> Painful sensation triggered by non-painful stimuli. <2> Abnormal sensation, but not painful. <3> Sensation in which the patient has a high threshold of stimulation. <4> Tingling or numbness <5> Painful sensation increased in front of a painful stimulus.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b6ffe9700491493297437646feccb82e", "input": "Question: What is the mechanism of action of the immunosuppressant drug everolimus ?: \n Options: <1> Inhibition of the activation of lymphocytes as membrane receptors. <2> Inhibition of the transmission of the activation signals. <3> Inhibition of nucleotide synthesis. <4> Inhibition of lymphocyte migration. <5> Inhibition of proliferation signals.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5bdbbc1488e649c7b2fd67d5b6d07043", "input": "Question: Which of the following antidiabetics acts by inhibiting DPP-4 and prolonging the duration of the endogenous incretins GLP-1 and GIP ?: \n Options: <1> Glimepiride <2> Repaglinide. <3> Sitagliptin <4> Rosiglitazone. <5> Tolbutamide", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-faf0f348374a42a8aef3128d22d3e2bf", "input": "Question: Which of the following antifungals is used in the treatment of invasive aspergillosis and severe candidiasis including Candida krusei and Candida glabrata ?: \n Options: <1> Voriconazole <2> Miconazole <3> Ketoconazole <4> Fluconazole <5> 1 and 3 are correct.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-628a291acb1941e2a793cc22cc2e5a65", "input": "Question: Which of the following antibiotics could be used in a patient with hypersensitivity to penicillin by skin tests ?: \n Options: <1> Piperacillin / tazobactam <2> Aztreonam <3> Ampicillin <4> Amoxicillin <5> Ceftazidime", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5d2df49b68b14f628da701760c406ff4", "input": "Question: Which of the following medications can cause renal failure in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis by inhibiting the constrictor tone of the efferent arteriole ?: \n Options: <1> Acetaminophen. <2> Diclofenac <3> Enalaprilo. <4> Metamizole <5> Furosemide.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-117ff33c70c142c0932ee563428a07b1", "input": "Question: Why mechanism produces hyperprolactinemia haloperidol ?: \n Options: <1> Blockade of alpha 1 adrenergic receptors. <2> Blockade of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors <3> Blocking of H1 receivers. <4> Blockade of D2 receivers. <5> Blocking of 5-HT2 receptors.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dc4a3f7efd9146378d69160ccf10a25c", "input": "Question: What is the mechanism of action of octreotide ?: \n Options: <1> Serotonergic receptor 5-HT4 agonist. <2> Motilin receptor agonist. <3> Somatostatin receptor agonist. <4> Antagonist of the motilin receptor. <5> Somatostatin receptor antagonist.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-23d2036a72994f068240eafc66652da6", "input": "Question: Which of the following drugs can alleviate the compensatory increases in heart rate and the release of renin that occur in heart failure ?: \n Options: <1> Milrinona. <2> Digoxin <3> Dobutamine <4> Enalapril <5> Metoprolol", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-57f0123e594d4644b7c3bc3c06e5792a", "input": "Question: A 45-year-old man, diagnosed with hypertension, has started a monotherapy treatment to decrease peripheral resistance and prevent the retention of CINa and water. The patient has developed a persistent cough. Which of the following drugs would have identical beneficial actions to that already used, but without coughing the patient ?: \n Options: <1> Losart\u00e1n. <2> Nifedipine <3> Prazosin <4> Propranolol <5> Enalaprilo.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-097886167f2d42f293463404d8225972", "input": "Question: Amantadine is a drug that can be used as: \n Options: <1> Antiviral and antiparkinsonian. <2> Antipsychotic and antiemetic. <3> Anxiolytic and antifungal. <4> Antifungal and antiparkinsonian. <5> Antifungal and anti-migraine.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b0f62bcf9bee431995461d8767b749b3", "input": "Question: Observe that the liquids coming from the synthesis of chloroquine had an antibacterial activity gave rise to the discovery of the quinolones. This group of antibiotics has various characteristics such as: \n Options: <1> Fluoroquinolones have a smaller spectrum of activity than first-generation quinolones. <2> The second generation quinolones are very effective against anaerobes. <3> Fluoroquinolones are not effective against enterobacteria. <4> Fluoroquinolones are effective against Gram-positive but less than Gram-negative. <5> The third and fourth generation fluoroquinolones are not effective against streptococci or staphylococci.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-775a237cedc4437ea5678abfd9f240a2", "input": "Question: Which of the following drugs obtained by means of molecular engineering techniques is not applicable in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis ?: \n Options: <1> Infliximab. <2> Denosumab. <3> Adalimumab. <4> Anakinra <5> Etanercept.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6c16ef7b3f28440287634138d1eae584", "input": "Question: A man suffering from bronchial asthma is undergoing a chronic treatment lasting several years with glucocorticoids. Which of the following adverse reactions detected in said patient is not due to the prolonged use of corticoid therapy ?: \n Options: <1> Poor healing of wounds. <2> Osteoporosis. <3> Arterial hypotension. <4> Thinning of the skin <5> Muscular atrophy.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cdac0dbad1e84239b86f8a1447204de5", "input": "Question: GnRH (ganodorelin) is a hypothalamic decapeptide that is secreted in a pulsatile manner. Lately a series of analogues have been developed that: \n Options: <1> All of them inhibit prolonged secretion of LH and FSH. <2> All of them are GnRH receptor agonists. <3> Goserelin and buserelin are antagonists of the GnRH receptor. <4> The prolonged treatment gives rise to a typical symptomatology of an excess of gonadal steroids. <5> GnRH agonists are contraindicated in prostate and breast cancer.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-74e37ab9a1da481b98c88f9f8bd4d23b", "input": "Question: Ms. X is a 76-year-old patient who has suffered several falls in recent years with fractures in both arms. The diagnosis by image denotes the evidence of osteoporosis and the traumatologist decides to start a treatment with teriparatide. We must consider that: \n Options: <1> Teriparatide is an analogue of vitamin D. <2> It is administered in a daily dose subcutaneously. <3> It is administered only intravenously. <4> Acts as a receptor agonist to vitamin D3. <5> It does not favor the increase of bone mass.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-91b1e702c6d941b5a86e42daa69df113", "input": "Question: Mr. X is a 67-year-old patient who has been prescribed atorvastatin orally due to high cholesterol levels that have not improved after dietary measures. Among the clinical applications of the HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors we have: \n Options: <1> They are the drugs of choice in the case of pregnant women. <2> They are drugs of first choice in the treatment of hypertriglyceridemia. <3> They are not effective in the secondary prevention of myocardial infarction. <4> In severe dyslipidemias, in the case of heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia, they should be combined with ezetimibe. <5> They are not effective in the secondary prevention of stroke.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-23337899cf034759abd765c9a4bb9c9b", "input": "Question: The akathisia produced by some drugs is directly related to receptor blockade: \n Options: <1> Dopaminergic. <2> Serotoninergic <3> Histaminergic <4> Adrenergic <5> Cholinergic", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d3139bc1f4d649f8b5525198ccebb824", "input": "Question: Mesalazine is used in therapy in the treatment of: \n Options: <1> Bronchial asthma in children. <2> The motion sickness. <3> The Syndrome of Gilles de la Tourette. <4> Crohn's disease <5> The hypogonadism.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2e03e23a7fcd4f809bc6c8855492c73f", "input": "Question: Of the antiemetic drugs reviewed, in which of them their pharmacological activity is NOT related to dopaminergic receptors ?: \n Options: <1> Granisetron. <2> Cleboprida. <3> Droperidol <4> Tietilperazine. <5> Domperidone", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-40d7af85f76b4a7eb0782433aefa04da", "input": "Question: Of the drugs reviewed, which one is used in the prophylactic treatment of migraine ?: \n Options: <1> Dihydroergotamine <2> Meperidine <3> Flunarizine <4> Chlorpromazine <5> Sumatriptan", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a40ce7bcd0104406a3e99f50116c0d04", "input": "Question: Of the drugs reviewed, which of them does NOT act on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system ?: \n Options: <1> Atenolol. <2> Captopril. <3> Minoxidil <4> Eplerenone. <5> Aliskiren.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b0a0c990492e430da0703309efe63436", "input": "Question: In the treatment of asthma can be used on demand: \n Options: <1> Inhaled glucocorticoids at low doses. <2> Long-acting inhaled beta-2 adrenergic agonist. <3> Short-acting inhaled beta-2 adrenergic agonist. <4> Inhaled anticholinergics. <5> Inhaled disodium cromoglycate.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6f76f7738c7e42e083b44394aa90c051", "input": "Question: What is the biosynthetic route of terpenes in plants ?: \n Options: <1> They are synthesized by the mevalonic acid route or by the fatty acid route. <2> They are synthesized by the mevalonic acid route or by the deoxy-xylulose phosphate (DOXP) pathway also called GAP / Pyruvate. <3> They are synthesized by the mevalonic route and the sikimico route. <4> They are synthesized by the sikimic acid route or by the deoxy-xylulose phosphate (DOXP) pathway also called GAP / Pyruvate. <5> They are synthesized by the polyacetate route.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-43c4ac8d0f864fb1bf9612e0d39aa3ec", "input": "Question: Among other properties with respect to hypericin we can indicate: \n Options: <1> It is a powerful hepatoprotector extracted from the roots of Hypericum perforatum. <2> It is a powerful cholagogue that is extracted from the resin of the Hypericum perforatum rhizome. <3> It is a removable antiretroviral of the aerial parts of Hypericum perforatum. <4> It is a laxative that is extracted from the leaves of Hypericum perforatum. <5> It is a potent hepatoprotective present in the fruits of Hypericum perforatum.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-39ed332fd0d747c8b2d9caa8d8eddc5f", "input": "Question: With respect to the pharmacological activity of artemisinin (sesquiterpene lactone) extracted from Artemisia annua: \n Options: <1> It is a powerful hepatoprotective. <2> It is a powerful cholagogue. <3> It is a potent antitumor. <4> It is a selective antimalarial. <5> It is a potent antiviral.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9f783fd744084eb4ba810df3846ba1e1", "input": "Question: In an animal species, the value of the elimination rate constant of a drug with linear pharmacokinetic behavior depends on: \n Options: <1> The route of administration. <2> The dose of drug administered. <3> The percentage of administered dose that arrives unaltered to the general circulation. <4> The speed at which the drug reaches systemic circulation. <5> The distribution and elimination of the drug.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9427afcee2144f678f8abef0f9a27127", "input": "Question: The maximum urinary excretion of a drug refers to: \n Options: <1> The maximum concentration of unchanged drug in urine. <2> The maximum speed at which the drug can be excreted unchanged by urine. <3> The amount of urine collected after 7 biological half-lives after the administration of the drug. <4> The total amount of drug that is excreted unaltered in urine after the administration of a certain dose. <5> The amount of unchanged drug recovered in urine at 24 hours after the administration of a certain dose.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-812ec48e62234696a970d704c407c0a8", "input": "Question: For a drug to permeate through the cornea, you must: \n Options: <1> Be totally ionized. <2> Present a very high polarity. <3> Join the lysozyme that is present in the tear fluid. <4> Present a certain lipophilicity and a minimum degree of water solubility. <5> Have weak acid character.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-db6257e5de5e420c9361d036688cff59", "input": "Question: According to the Biopharmaceutical Classification System, a drug that has low permeability and high solubility, such as cimetidine, is a drug of: \n Options: <1> Class I. <2> Class II <3> Class III <4> Class IV. <5> Class V.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-72af359e0bba4bea9fd2f05dd3aee3f2", "input": "Question: What dose should you administer orally every 12 hours of a drug whose plasma clearance is equal to 1 L / h if you want to reach an average concentration of 10mg / L equilibrium? Assume complete bioavailability (F = 1): \n Options: <1> 120 mg. <2> 12 mg. <3> 200 mg. <4> 10 mg. <5> With this information it is not possible to estimate the dose necessary to reach this equilibrium concentration.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b02e10e8d4cc4f748e9f3fe2891ea87c", "input": "Question: How much drug has been eliminated when 3 elimination half-lives have elapsed if 100 mg of drug has been administered IV via bolus and is adjusted to a monocompartmental model with first-order elimination: \n Options: <1> 87.5 mg. <2> 12.5 mg. <3> 75 mg. <4> 25 mg. <5> 50 mg.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b373a3a6ec6f41908dc2c1c99f24b28e", "input": "Question: What speed of perfusion of a drug should you administer to achieve a plasma equilibrium concentration of 10 mg / L knowing that it has a plasma clearance of 500 mL / h? (continuous perfusion): \n Options: <1> 50 mg / h. <2> 5 mL / h. <3> 100 mg / h. <4> 100 mg / mL. <5> 5 mg / h.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-78d4ed61a4604ad092dd3225466a57de", "input": "Question: The independent parameter of the dissolution model, the solution efficiency, has two limitations. One of them is that the last experimental point has an arbitrary nature. What is the other limitation ?: \n Options: <1> At least 50% of the dose must be dissolved. <2> At least 60% of the dose must be dissolved. <3> At least 75% of the dose must be dissolved. <4> At least 80% of the dose must be dissolved. <5> At least 90% of the dose must be dissolved.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9ed70eb1b5bf4796a0c3defccabf652e", "input": "Question: Which of the following factors does not influence the permeation of drugs through the stratum corneum ?: \n Options: <1> Degree of ionization of the drug. <2> Fixation to the tear fluid proteins. <3> Osmolarity of tears. <4> Instilled volume. <5> Ocular Pigmentation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8c9f7e9328af402fb4c26b9b4cfdde7d", "input": "Question: Which of the following pharmacokinetic characteristics of aminoglycoside antibiotics is not correct: \n Options: <1> They are not absorbed practically in the gastrointestinal tract of normal patients. <2> They are absorbed in patients with severe renal insufficiency. <3> They have a very slow distribution phase. <4> They are not metabolized. <5> They present a second phase of very slow elimination.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d432b6ef3151414298afe49d88406503", "input": "Question: The magnitude of the steady state plasma concentration that is reached when a monocompartmental drug is administered in continuous perfusion is conditioned by: \n Options: <1> The time the perfusion is maintained. <2> The relationship between the rate of drug entry into the body (mg / h) and the elimination rate constant. <3> The relationship between the speed of entry to the body (mg / h) and the half-life of elimination of the drug. <4> The relationship between the speed of entry to the body (mg / h) and plasma clearance. <5> The administration of a rapid intravenous shock dose at the start of treatment.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c6bc8a1397c340659cd7e32898d6f397", "input": "Question: Point out the correct answer in relation to the monitoring of plasma drug concentrations: \n Options: <1> Allergy reactions are related to the dose administered. <2> The extraction of the blood sample must be done once the balance of drug distribution in the organism has been reached. <3> The information provided by the analytical determination of plasma concentration is sufficient to perform the dosage individualization. <4> Only the immunoassay methods are valid for carrying out the analytical determination of the blood samples. <5> It must be done for all drugs that are administered intravenously.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bcb68ebde10842ea90e17b1a32b05688", "input": "Question: A drug with a seemingly monocompartmental distribution pattern is administered in the form of i.v. perfusion. at a constant speed of 20 mg / h for 48 h. Once the perfusion is finished, three blood samples are taken, which, when analyzed, allow the calculation of the primary parameters of the model Kel = 0.0495 h-1, concentration at the end of the perfusion (C48h) = 5,553 \u03bcg / mL, Vd = 66 L. At what time would the steady state be reached ?: \n Options: <1> 14 h. <2> 28 h. <3> 42 h. <4> 56 h. <5> 70 h.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f96be4216a9b4f0eae55aa3c2ca5af7b", "input": "Question: Which of the following administration routes are commonly used for drugs of a peptide and protein nature ?: \n Options: <1> Oral. <2> Intravenous, intramuscular and subcutaneous. <3> Oral, intravenous and subcutaneous. <4> Oral, intranasal and inhalation. <5> Oral, intramuscular and intranasal.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-97e213ee09bd40d3928d7ce84fb109c2", "input": "Question: Which of the following pharmacokinetic characteristics of rosiglitazone is NOT correct ?: \n Options: <1> It has a bioavailability of 99% <2> The inactive metabolites are eliminated by urine after conjugation or in the form of sulfates. <3> It should not be prescribed in patients with liver disease. <4> It is necessary to readjust your dosage in the presence of kidney disease. <5> It should not be prescribed to the nursing mother.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4906ebdb783b46b983713a440dca4997", "input": "Question: One of the following enzymes is classified as MAL: \n Options: <1> Lactate dehydrogenase - Oxidoreductase. <2> Chymotrypsin - Hydrolase. <3> Fumarasa - Liasa. <4> Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase - Ligase <5> Nucleoside monophosphate kinase - Isomerase.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5d94b75e6b714a4292fb041d95aa825b", "input": "Question: Insulin decreases the expression of the gene: \n Options: <1> Fosfofructoquinasa-1. <2> Pyruvate kinase. <3> Pyruvate dehydrogenase. <4> Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. <5> Acetyl-CoA carboxylase.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a8f2468375d64b8680436b25b072986f", "input": "Question: Hepatic glycolysis differs from muscle glycolysis in that: \n Options: <1> A low blood glucose concentration results in the inhibition of hepatic pyruvate kinase but not of muscle. <2> Hexative hexokinase has more affinity for glucose than muscle hexokinase. <3> The glycolytic enzymes in the liver are located in the cytoplasm, while in the muscle they are in cytoplasms and mitochondria. <4> Hepatic glycolysis is anaerobic, while muscle glycolysis is aerobic. <5> The final product of hepatic glycolysis is acetyl-CoA, while in muscle glycolysis that pyruvate.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c0082ca4d96447a2b22e2fa3bcd55800", "input": "Question: What two non-protein amino acids participate in the urea cycle ?: \n Options: <1> Proline and hydroxyproline. <2> Ornithine and citrulline. <3> Alanine and arginine. <4> Oxalacetate and malate. <5> Serine and GABA.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-32ecf7e8d8a74e03bdb9e9da57d01995", "input": "Question: Heparin is: \n Options: <1> A plasma protein with no net charge with coagulant function. <2> A glycosaminoglycan with high density of sulphate groups in its structure and anticoagulant function. <3> A protease that facilitates the transformation of prothrombin into thrombin. <4> An extracellular matrix protein with no net charge, which gives rise to highly viscous solutions with a lubricating function. <5> A homopolysaccharide with anticoagulant function thanks to the high density of positive charges in its structure.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6702832279e048d99b393e90f295a26a", "input": "Question: Protein kinase A (PKA): \n Options: <1> It induces the synthesis of glycogen in response to an increase in glucagon in the blood. <2> It is a membrane protein that is activated in response to an increase in circulating GTP. <3> It is activated through the cAMP produced in response to an increase in adrenaline in the circulation. <4> It inhibits the lipolysis of triacylglycerides accumulated in adipose tissue, in response to an increase in intracellular cAMP. <5> It is a monomeric protein that inhibits the synthesis of ATP and muscle contraction.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-92d53efd7a4542edb19e8f641896d43c", "input": "Question: Malonyl-CoA produced in \n Options: <1> the beta-oxidation of fatty acids, inhibits the fatty acid synthase complex. <2> the citric acid cycle inhibits beta-oxidation. <3> the respiratory chain, inhibits the absorption of lipids during digestion. <4> the synthesis of fatty acids, inhibits beta-oxidation. <5> the synthesis of triacylglycerides, inhibits the production of cholesterol.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-be384305189a40abbe1f750a243193fa", "input": "Question: Which coenzyme acts as an inhibitor of the citric acid cycle (or tricarboxylic acid cycle): \n Options: <1> Lipoic acid. <2> Ascorbic acid. <3> Biocytin. <4> Coenzyme Q. <5> NADH + H +.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-164d919e9f13464882b806862b34cca8", "input": "Question: Glucocorticoids are hormones that are synthesized from: \n Options: <1> Cholesterol. <2> Glucose. <3> Glucagon. <4> Insulin. <5> Hill.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c5cf458b7ddf4effb7a119e073e29ad0", "input": "Question: The oxidation of fatty acids in cells of higher plants takes place in: \n Options: <1> Endoplasmic reticulum. <2> Chloroplasts <3> Peroxisomes <4> Citosol <5> Mitochondria", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2e329998d93c496a8b847418e6e436d1", "input": "Question: One of the following types of transport through membranes does NOT exist: \n Options: <1> Ion transport facilitated by ionophore (against electrochemical gradient). <2> Facilitated diffusion (in favor of electrochemical gradient) <3> Primary active transport (against electrochemical gradient). <4> Ionic channel (in favor of electrochemical gradient). <5> Simple diffusion (in favor of concentration gradient).", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5edf8ceff8ad48bb8ecb124c7c4e5ad5", "input": "Question: One of the following coenzyme ratios with chemical groups transferred is NOT correct: \n Options: <1> Biocitin - CO2. <2> Coenzyme A - acyl groups. <3> Flavin adenine dinucleotide - electrons. <4> Thiamine pyrophosphate - amino groups. <5> Tetrahydrofolate - monocarbonated groups.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-082103d8d50a42f09fe2ae09155ad6fd", "input": "Question: The structure of one of the following globular proteins is mostly in alpha helix and lacks beta sheet: \n Options: <1> Myoglobin <2> Chymotrypsin <3> Ribonuclease. <4> Lysozyme <5> Carboxypeptidase", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3bae0cb43674410b9b19ce5150cfcc64", "input": "Question: How many macromolecular complexes form the electronic transport chain ?: \n Options: <1> 6 macromolecular complexes. <2> 5 macromolecular complexes. <3> 4 macromolecular complexes. <4> 3 macromolecular complexes. <5> 2 macromolecular complexes.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-108b3ca8f704427fa3bc3a6d964b3f30", "input": "Question: All components of the respiratory chain: \n Options: <1> They pump protons. <2> They exchange electrons. <3> They are high molecular weight complexes. <4> They are membrane proteins. <5> They are soluble.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-82298e88ab064883bac866873dada888", "input": "Question: Which of the following sequences is added during the maturation or processing of the eukaryotic transfer RNA ?: \n Options: <1> Splicing site 5 'of the intron. <2> CCA sequence of amino acid charge. <3> Anticodon <4> 3 'splicing site of the intron. <5> Leading sequence of the 5 'end.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-09a77c4dbbed460c93487366899ba45d", "input": "Question: Histone deacetylases (HDAC) promote: \n Options: <1> A less condensed chromatin. <2> A weaker link between histones and DNA in nucleosomes. <3> The acetylation of lysine residues in histones. <4> That the poly (A) tail of the histone messenger RNAs be more extensive. <5> The termination of the transcription and the genetic silencing.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-07d2de47f31b4b27b19df74064692c3b", "input": "Question: The mission of the spliceosome is: \n Options: <1> Ensure that the transfer RNAs adopt the trefoil configuration. <2> Prevent ribosomes from entering the nucleus. <3> Perform polyadenylation of messenger RNA (mRNA). <4> Degrade defective proteins. <5> Facilitate the maturation of the mRNA precursor, since it approximates the splice points.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dc54eabd7b544bf0a9965a77c93df890", "input": "Question: The primosome: \n Options: <1> It is also called primasa or Dna G protein. <2> It is the complex responsible for the synthesis of the Okazaki fragments. <3> It is a bacterial DNA ligase. <4> It is located in the mitochondria. <5> It is a functional unit of the bacterial replication complex.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-018b4fab042e498b80256d6e563ee343", "input": "Question: In the replication of the eukaryotic genes it participates: \n Options: <1> The Dna A and Dna B proteins <2> The complex of six proteins called ORC. <3> The eight protein complex called Dam methylase. <4> The MutL-MutS complex. <5> The MutH complex.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-09a3d688824c4fd1a517238296ac7083", "input": "Question: The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase of eukaryotes and prokaryotes is inhibited by: \n Options: <1> Rifampicin <2> \u03b1-Amanitin. <3> Oligomycin. <4> Streptomycin. <5> Actinomycin D.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4df96f6e21f3427e8961bbfdd72332b5", "input": "Question: In protein biosynthesis, base pairing takes place during the translation process between: \n Options: <1> RNA and DNA. <2> DNA and ribosomal RNA. <3> The transfer RNA and the ribosomal RNA. <4> The messenger RNA and the transfer RNA. <5> 18S ribosomal RNA and 5S ribosomal RNA.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-933adbf688634ca4baf602f2669f5e82", "input": "Question: The synthesis of a human protein by a bacterium, to which human DNA has been introduced, demonstrates that: \n Options: <1> Evolution can be questioned. <2> Bacteria can acquire nucleus. <3> The genetic code is universal. <4> The human proteins are identical to the proteins of the bacteria. <5> The bacteria can be pathogenic.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-035065b9277a42489e0dab3d576348ad", "input": "Question: What consequence of RNA bases will be produced when the AGGCCTTTACGC DNA fragment is transcribed ?: \n Options: <1> TCCGGAAATGCG. <2> AGGCCUUUACGC. <3> UGGCCUUUUGCG <4> UGGCCUUUUCGC. <5> UCCGGAAAUGCG.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c7502db700924b3aa08458e478e923e7", "input": "Question: The RISC complex (RNA-induced silencing complex) of RNA silencing based on interference RNA: \n Options: <1> It degrades the guide strand of the small interfering RNA molecules (siRNA). <2> It recognizes defective proteins and promotes their degradation. <3> It has a structure similar to the ribosome, formed by numerous RNAs and proteins. <4> It is formed, among others, by the Dicer protein, a type III ribonuclease. <5> It is part of both the interference mechanism of the siRNA and the microRNA.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9108399bea5c4b3ebaf319e1a88dc599", "input": "Question: What type of enzymatic activity does primase present in DNA replication ?: \n Options: <1> RNA polymerase <2> Helicasa <3> DNA polymerase <4> RNA ligase. <5> DNA ligase.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b9471a924487468ea019cb564344ef13", "input": "Question: Analyzing several DNA polymerases involved in the replication of E. coli, one of them was found that had low processivity and low synthesis speed, what enzyme could be treated ?: \n Options: <1> DNA pol I. <2> DNA B. <3> DNA pol III. <4> Primasa. <5> DNA gyrase.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ae63d8078c194ab2b8eb8d88800e500c", "input": "Question: Ribosomes have three binding sites for the transfer RNAs (RNAs), which are: \n Options: <1> Site A of acetyl, P of propyl and E of ethyl. <2> A site of aminoacyl, P of peptidyl and E of exit (from English, exit). <3> A site of aminoacyl, peptidyl P and transferase T of the peptide. <4> Site A of previous, P of posterior and E of entry (of English, entry). <5> A site of aminoacyl, peptidyl P and terminating T.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4699c1df8bd94f1284341f77b276529e", "input": "Question: Given three DNA molecules of the same length (A, B and C) and in the same solvent, but with different richness in terms of G + C content (A: 50%, B: 60%, and C: 75% ), How would your melting temperatures (Tm) be ?: \n Options: <1> A> B> C. <2> Being in the same solvent, they would be the same in all three cases. <3> The DNA molecule C would not belong to a thermophilic bacterium, given its lower Tm. <4> C> B> A. <5> You can not know with the information of the statement.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2967be637bc44676a4898d728c7619a2", "input": "Question: In which part of the cell is ribosomal RNA synthesized ?: \n Options: <1> Nucleolo. <2> Ribosomes <3> Vacuolas <4> Golgi apparatus. <5> Endoplasmic reticulum.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e4d1e85c360b4c89b5661c5a8570474c", "input": "Question: The differential modification of RNA: \n Options: <1> It can result in multiple products from one gene. <2> It occurs thanks to the transcription bubble. <3> It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase I. <4> It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase II. <5> It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase III.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d00bc17e179445ba9e3d600f2c26b76a", "input": "Question: The structures of the condensed chromosomes are maintained by: \n Options: <1> Topoisomerases <2> Nucleolus proteins. <3> Fragments of Okazaki. <4> SMC proteins. <5> DNMT1 protein.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aac425bdd5734b28a73a0557a7fa7856", "input": "Question: In a determination of the activity of an enzyme, the depletion of the substrate: \n Options: <1> It is essential for most trials. <2> It may give falsely low results in sera with high enzymatic activity. <3> It occurs when the reagent is finished. <4> It occurs due to a defect in the spectrophotometer. <5> It can lead to falsely elevated results in sera with high enzymatic activity.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c9dfe28e451a4f76868eaed9776c6cf9", "input": "Question: From the following answers, which best defines a patient with microalbuminuria: \n Options: <1> Presence of renal disease in the terminal stage. <2> Nephrotic disease <3> Predictive diabetic nephropathy. <4> Glomerulonephritis <5> Orthostatic proteinuria", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-53e498150f3e431aa697bd668705c23a", "input": "Question: Synovial fluid from patients with gout often contains: \n Options: <1> Hippuric acid crystals. <2> Tyrosine crystals. <3> Triple phosphate crystals. <4> Urate crystals. <5> Calcium oxalate crystals.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e422d62cc47b4599b3bac00c4190a6e1", "input": "Question: The syndrome of inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by: \n Options: <1> Hyponatremia <2> Hypovolemia <3> Concentrations of sodium ion in urine less than 20 mmol / L. <4> Osmolality in urine less than serum osmolality. <5> High concentrations of calcium ion.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b65560ec27bd44209c1b3b8010653bc4", "input": "Question: The determination of the concentration of one of the following proteins in serum can give us information of a possible hemolytic anemia. Indicate which: \n Options: <1> Transferrin <2> Hemosiderin. <3> Ceruloplasmin. <4> Ferritin. <5> Haptoglobin.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ecdab8cf22dd46c8bdf34f61829db206", "input": "Question: Being the standard deviation and the number of data, the standard error of the mean, Sm, of a data set is: \u221a\ud835\udc60 \n Options: <1> \ud835\udc46\ud835\udc5a = \ud835\udc41 . <2> \ud835\udc46\ud835\udc5a = \ud835\udc60 \ud835\udc41 . \ud835\udc41 <3> \ud835\udc46\ud835\udc5a = \u221a\ud835\udc60 . \u221a\ud835\udc60 <4> \ud835\udc46\ud835\udc5a = \u221a\ud835\udc41 . \ud835\udc60 <5> \ud835\udc46\ud835\udc5a = \u221a\ud835\udc41 .", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e0b1d122146c404a9fdb610b25973c0e", "input": "Question: The extraction technique that is used for gas chromatographic determinations in which the analyte is desorbed or thermally desorbed is called: \n Options: <1> Liquid-liquid extraction. <2> Extraction in solid phase. <3> Microextraction in solid phase. <4> Subextraction in solid phase. <5> Crystallization.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-254c2c219e42442bad62ad30db00ddc9", "input": "Question: The cyclotron ion resonance by Fourier transform is the basis of: \n Options: <1> A mass ionization system useful for elementary analysis. <2> A system of atomization that is applied in atomic absorption for elements capable of generating hydrides. <3> A mass analyzer. <4> A system for introducing the sample in plasma emission spectrometry. <5> A detector system in mass spectrometry.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2b5bcc656ed84430a5dbd2821ffca6e2", "input": "Question: Affinity chromatography is characterized because: \n Options: <1> It is a modality of gas chromatography. <2> It is similar to paper chromatography. <3> It is a separation process based on the very selective or specific interactions that exist between biological macromolecules. <4> It is a technique of separating compounds according to their molecular weight. <5> It is a variant of chromatography that employ relatively non-polar stationary phases and more polar solvents, in contrast to normal phase chromatography.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fd2a75406eeb4b89bc00b387d10c02bd", "input": "Question: In what chromatographic mode is the stationary phase formed by solid particles with controlled pore size? : \n Options: <1> Chromatography of distribution in normal phase. <2> Distribution chromatography in reverse phase. <3> Ion pair chromatography. <4> Ion exchange chromatography. <5> Chromatography of molecular exclusion or size.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2ca308e7df4647449f9f714f8339981f", "input": "Question: The generation of the cold vapor is a form of introduction of the sample for the atomization that is used in atomic absorption spectrometry (EAA) to analyze: \n Options: <1> Lead and Arsenic. <2> Mercury. <3> Elements that have a low vapor pressure at room temperature. <4> Halogens of high molecular weight. <5> Alcalinot\u00e9rreos.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ce311d59ac24ab8bd56875a7ac11832", "input": "Question: In certain cases it is necessary to carry out previous treatments with oxidizing or reducing agents in redox evaluations in order to: \n Options: <1> Transform the analyte to an adequate oxidation state for subsequent evaluation. <2> Ensure that all the analyte is in solution. <3> Prepare the indicator solution so that it correctly rotates at the end point. <4> Make the reaction between titrator and analyte complete. <5> Improve the accuracy of the assessment.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-04381db0326b44f0b96ac44c33e20a3e", "input": "Question: The quality of a spectrum can be defined: \n Options: <1> Based on the relationship between the intensities of the bands containing information (S) and noise (R). <2> Based on the selected wavelength. <3> Only in function of the analytical signal. <4> Depending on the relationship between wavelength and noise. <5> Based on very low frequency noise.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b23b8b8cdab542ab97be15e13e13cc8b", "input": "Question: The absorbance of a medium solution at the isosbestic point is that determined to: \n Options: <1> The wavelength at which the molar absorption coefficients of two absorbent species in chemical equilibrium, interconvertible to each other, are equivalent. <2> The wavelength at which the molar absorption coefficients of two absorbing species in chemical equilibrium are not equivalent. <3> The wavelength at which the acid form of an indicator is maximum. <4> The wavelength at which the acid form of an indicator is minimal. <5> The wavelength of the species that participate in the equilibrium when it is displaced towards longer wavelengths.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7e37adce194c43c6be52694e4e7a6701", "input": "Question: The use of the standard addition method in the calibration of an instrumental analysis method is recommended: \n Options: <1> Whenever possible <2> When analyzing complex samples in which important matrix effects are likely to occur and you want to minimize them. <3> When you want to determine very high concentrations of analyte. <4> When you want to use a dilution factor. <5> In automated acid-base volumetries.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-62aa4a61f8b84e23b78167c191fd3d23", "input": "Question: \ud835\udc38\ud835\udc4e According to the Arrhenius equation, k = \ud835\udc34\ud835\udc52 \ud835\udc45\ud835\udc47 \n Options: <1> The kinetic constant (k) decreases with increasing temperature. <2> The pre-exponential factor (A) is dimensionless. <3> In reactions with higher activation energy (Ea), the kinetic constant (k) depends enormously on the temperature. <4> The pre-exponential factor (A) and the kinetic constant (k) are inversely proportional. <5> The Arrhenius parameters are the kinetic constant (k) and the preexponential factor (A).", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4d115bd697a04b68af0dcbde85b3acf1", "input": "Question: The ethanol-water mixture has an azeotrope, this means that: \n Options: <1> From a certain concentration, the two liquids are immiscible. <2> The mixture has a minimum co-solution temperature. <3> Both components comply with Raoult's law. <4> The mixture is frozen at a single temperature. <5> Once the azeotropic composition is reached, the two liquids can not be separated by distillation.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a4da48425a704016948d5fad5c49bd9e", "input": "Question: When dissolving a non-volatile solute in a solvent forming a diluted solution, it is observed: \n Options: <1> An increase in the freezing temperature of the solvent. <2> An increase in the boiling temperature of the solvent. <3> An increase in the vapor pressure of the solvent. <4> An increase in the chemical potential of the solvent. <5> A change in colligative properties depending on the type of solute.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-009a80b094c84b28bf3b55fd8d5e9f39", "input": "Question: The triple point of water is at 273.16 K and 611 Pascals: \n Options: <1> In no other combination of pressure and temperature it is possible to find the three phases of water in equilibrium. <2> Under these conditions, liquid and vapor become indistinguishable. <3> The sublimation process occurs at a pressure greater than 611 pascals. <4> It is not possible to find steam above 611 Pascals. <5> It is not possible to find water in solid state below 273.16 K.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ed540e15fb4b4bd184d8d4b91eaf4892", "input": "Question: A spontaneous process is characterized because: \n Options: <1> In isolated systems the entropy decreases (\u0394S <0). <2> At constant pressure and temperature, the Gibbs energy decreases (\u0394G <0). <3> At constant pressure and temperature, the Helmholtz energy decreases (\u0394A <0). <4> At constant volume and temperature, the Gibbs energy increases (\u0394G> 0). <5> It is reversible.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-816edb279aa742d2911a2428c4b361f9", "input": "Question: The work of expanding a gas (W): \n Options: <1> It is a state function. <2> Equivalent to the heat associated with the process (Q). <3> Against constant pressure it is calculated with W = -Pext \u0394V. <4> In a reversible isothermal process it is calculated with W = -nRT\u0394V. <5> Equivalent to the internal energy change during the process (\u0394U)", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dee19d1a884d428986f1e7c8e1958485", "input": "Question: The black indicator of Eriochrome T (N.E.T.) has the following colors depending on the pH: \n Options: <1> H2In\u00afrojo, HIn2- blue, In3- orange and when complexed with metal it is red. <2> H2In\u00afazul, HIn2- red, In3- orange and when complexed with metal it is red. <3> H2In\u00afrojo, HIn2- blue, In3- red wine and when complexed with metal it is orange. <4> H2In-red, HIn2- orange, In3- blue and when complexed with metal it is orange. <5> H2In\u00afazul, HIn2- orange, In3- red and when complexed with metal is orange.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5c5536aa438c4bd992cf0af6ad83b1f3", "input": "Question: In the treatment of an overdose of paracetamol is used: \n Options: <1> Flumazenil. <2> Edetato sodium calcium. <3> Pralidoxime <4> N-acetylcysteine. <5> Nitro of amyl.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bd68bc35c40e4405bad250b1a3cefc41", "input": "Question: The toxicological interest of the hair is due to: \n Options: <1> His analysis allows to know the toxic exposure in the past. <2> The change in their coloration can facilitate the diagnosis of poisoning. <3> It constitutes an effective protective barrier against the action of corrosives. <4> Its growth is interrupted by the chronic consumption of amphetamines. <5> Hair analysis is of no interest in Toxicology.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-628903df57164955857f48ae58a2af0a", "input": "Question: The carcinogenic action of Benzo (a) pyrene: \n Options: <1> It is due to the production of oxygen free radicals. <2> It is due to its biotransformation in a dihydrodiol. <3> It is due to its biotransformation in an epoxide. <4> It increases in tissues rich in epoxide hydrolase. <5> It diminishes in tissues rich in cytochrome P450.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f815ab6e833e46d09001e06a985df26f", "input": "Question: Aminoglycosides can produce: \n Options: <1> Hepatotoxicity <2> Hematological abnormalities. <3> Adrenal toxicity. <4> Ocular toxicity. <5> Kidney toxicity.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dc9868a3154f4022b94ff74940677087", "input": "Question: The Iperite or mustard gas is a: \n Options: <1> Vesicant agent. <2> Biological weapon <3> Phytotoxic agent. <4> Incendiary agent <5> Neurotoxic agent.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-653041f6ef97420b8002c61de3d9e0f1", "input": "Question: The value of the admitted daily intake (ADI) of a food additive can be calculated from the following previously obtained data in animals: \n Options: <1> Level with no observed adverse effect (NOAEL). <2> Lower level with observed adverse effect (LOAEL). <3> Safety margin (MOS). <4> Toxic interval (IT). <5> Toxicity limit value (TLV).", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5646b4309fc64064abf8bb756829a0e6", "input": "Question: In toxicology, the probability of adverse effects, harmful to health, from exposure to a toxic agent is known as: \n Options: <1> Danger. <2> Exposition. <3> Risk. <4> Answer. <5> Effect.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9ea44f14d3614d1bafb8078331cba103", "input": "Question: The excitotoxins activate: \n Options: <1> Nicotinic receptors <2> GABAA receptors <3> Glycine receptors. <4> NMDA receivers. <5> Na + channels dependent on voltage.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-477dda705ffd4b7182cb1825b472280c", "input": "Question: The main method for the preparation of \u03b2ceto esters is the reaction known as: \n Options: <1> Malonic synthesis <2> Acetoacetic synthesis. <3> Condensing of Claisen. <4> Perkin reaction. <5> Hofmann reaction.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aba8d46bd8594b1da0e76fe181a6affe", "input": "Question: The reaction of Diels Alder is an example of reaction: \n Options: <1> Concerted and stereospecific. <2> Nucleophilic substitution of order 2. <3> Nucleophilic substitution of order 1. <4> Condensation polymerization. <5> Nucleophilic addition.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a98cb048de514b52ac3e5399462b9e88", "input": "Question: The p-nitrobenzoic acid is: \n Options: <1> Less acid than benzoic acid. <2> Less acid than p-methoxybenzoic acid. <3> More acid than benzoic acid and with lower pKa. <4> More acid than benzoic acid and with higher pKa. <5> Less acid than p-methoxybenzoic acid and with lower pKa.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4b6df6107ea146658a3e9e47bdb249fc", "input": "Question: The reaction of bromine and cyclopentene leads to the production of 1,2-dibromocyclopentane by a mechanism: \n Options: <1> Of anti addition. <2> Of addition syn. <3> Substitution SN1. <4> Substitution SN2. <5> Of elimination.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9bc0308226b34ac7bc64c02be184a360", "input": "Question: The Grignard reagents attack the epoxides to give, after the appropriate hydrolysis: \n Options: <1> Carboxylic acids. <2> Cyclic amides. <3> Open aliphatic chains. <4> Open-chain alcohols. <5> Cyclic ethers.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dda270491f764271acc85aef8ea04c29", "input": "Question: Esters can be obtained from carboxylic acids and alcohols, by applying the Fischer esterification reaction in which: \n Options: <1> A base is used as a catalyst. <2> A ketone is used as the solvent. <3> A reducing reagent is used. <4> An oxidizing agent is used. <5> Acid catalysis is used.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a4f47a9120334d2786131de4b2d08abc", "input": "Question: Which of the following diatomic molecules has the lowest binding energy ?: \n Options: <1> N2 <2> H2. <3> I2. <4> O2. <5> Cl2.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-692401c0469147818c41eb4dbe265a51", "input": "Question: Which of the following substances is used as a catalyst in the Contact Process during the manufacture of sulfuric acid ?: \n Options: <1> RuO2. <2> V2O5 <3> Cr2O3. <4> RhO2. <5> PdO.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-df8af0ea531345879ee2de7c77907832", "input": "Question: Which of the following molecules has the highest dipole moment ?: \n Options: <1> HCI. <2> NH3. <3> HF. <4> CO2 <5> Trans-CHCI = CHCI.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a0e0e30120e3413596da0683b797db2c", "input": "Question: Which of the following molecules has at least a 90\u00ba angle ?: \n Options: <1> H2O. <2> NH3. <3> CH4 <4> SF4. <5> BF3.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eb11bab385864c7593c9dcbc35d95d6a", "input": "Question: Which of the following molecules has the smallest bond angle ?: \n Options: <1> H2O. <2> NH3. <3> CH4 <4> SO2. <5> BF3.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-590f7d2cb2a24aae9bf9f4ae53ea819f", "input": "Question: Which statement is true in relation to the Electron Repulsion Model of the Valencia layer applied to AB n molecules: \n Options: <1> The AB2 molecules are always linear. <2> The AB6 molecules are always octahedral. <3> The AB3 molecules are always triangular. <4> The AB4 molecules are always tetrahedral. <5> The AB5 molecules are always trigonal bipyramidal.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5d62c6d372264bcf89c9c65f8b4667e0", "input": "Question: What cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus synthesize and store renin ?: \n Options: <1> The cells of the macula densa. <2> The mesangial cells. <3> The main cells. <4> The juxtaglomerular cells. <5> The cells interspersed.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c7899ce87e2a4a5ea8b26f893b4dba00", "input": "Question: The thalamus is part of: \n Options: <1> The diencephalon <2> The mesencephalon. <3> The telencephalon. <4> The metencephalon. <5> The bulb.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0daeb3fe0be146529d42e316519d40b7", "input": "Question: What muscle has one of its origins (proximal insertion) in the coracoid process of the scapula ?: \n Options: <1> The triceps brachii. <2> The deltoid <3> The trapeze. <4> The supraspinatus. <5> The biceps brachii.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4de2cbe3dba4414ca72289624798aa41", "input": "Question: The only autonomic adrenergic fibers are axons of neurons: \n Options: <1> Sympathetic preganglions. <2> Postganglionic sympathetics. <3> Preganglionic parasympathetic. <4> Postganglionic parasympathetic. <5> Parasympathetic ganglion.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-599309897ecb4d3d956026ffedf28d8e", "input": "Question: The pterygoid process belongs to the bone: \n Options: <1> Ethmoid. <2> Zygomatic <3> Temporary. <4> Sphenoids <5> Scapula.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f201cf3f446b40c4a73b38dcd06fa586", "input": "Question: Which of the following structures belongs to the peritoneum ?: \n Options: <1> The dura mater. <2> The greater omentum. <3> The pleura <4> The pericardium. <5> The spleen", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e513f468efb64a4badfca71d2c31f654", "input": "Question: We want to compare the means of two populations that follow normal distributions and have the same variance. We take two samples of size n1 and n2. When constructing a confidence interval we will have to calculate a value t for a Student's T distribution with: \n Options: <1> 2 degrees of freedom. <2> n1 + n2 - 2 degrees of freedom. <3> (n1 + n2) - 1 degrees of freedom. <4> (n1 x n2) / 2 degrees of freedom. <5> Degrees of freedom calculated with the formula of Welch or Smith-Satterwhite.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e69bb76fcde24bd18adb4cc96d22d81a", "input": "Question: Which of the following statistics is NOT affected by outliers in a sample ?: \n Options: <1> Sample mean. <2> Standard deviation. <3> Variance <4> Interquartile range. <5> Rank.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-382e20a50f0b4a298223252f6b846755", "input": "Question: We take sample of five individuals to whom we measure the LDL cholesterol value (mg / ml) obtaining: 180, 203, 104, 90 and 165. What is the median of this sample ?: \n Options: <1> 180 <2> 203 <3> 104 <4> 90 <5> 165", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-21ee737ff6a24b46ac5753de0a9138aa", "input": "Question: The utility value corresponding to a state of health, which can be used later in a cost-utility study, generally has a value: \n Options: <1> Between 0 and 1. <2> Between 0 and 10 <3> Between 0 and 100. <4> Between -10 and +10. <5> Between -100 and +100.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-86218b23f6a04720b6c4f25a35fd85a5", "input": "Question: The objective of using the economic evaluation in the decision making process regarding drug financing is: \n Options: <1> Decrease spending on medicines. <2> Be more efficient <3> Be more effective <4> Use the safest drugs. <5> Use the drugs with the best benefit-risk balance.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1a6545e45a1c401880d5ba875ef0901d", "input": "Question: Indicate the correct option regarding the defined daily dose of a medicine: \n Options: <1> Corresponds to the maximum daily dose. <2> Corresponds to the initial dose of a treatment. <3> Corresponds to the maintenance dose for the indication that requires a lower dose. <4> Corresponds to the average daily maintenance dose. <5> Corresponds to the initial dose for the main indication.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e110b0eb1d6d4cae862fe62b28dc064f", "input": "Question: A medicine produced and guaranteed by a pharmacist, or under his direction, dispensed in his pharmacy or pharmacy service, listed and described by the National Form, and intended for direct delivery to the sick to whom such pharmacy or pharmaceutical service supplies is: \n Options: <1> Master formula <2> Prepared office. <3> Prefabricated medication <4> Intermediate product. <5> Medical device.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cb01c18b9d2e4466a8566a75c1b0655b", "input": "Question: Free samples of industrially manufactured medicines are considered exceptional publicity; as such, they will only be delivered during a maximum time of: \n Options: <1> One year from the date of authorization of the medication. <2> Five years from the date of authorization of the medication. <3> Six months from the date of authorization of the medication. <4> Two years from the date of authorization of the medication. <5> One month from the date of authorization of the medication.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-675db92d25fc40159d628df56f5d45d4", "input": "Question: Pharmaceutical planning, in Spain, is the responsibility of: \n Options: <1> The municipal authorities. <2> The Interterritorial Council of the National Health System. <3> The county entities. <4> The state administration. <5> The autonomous communities.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d5f6bbf2144f4778a123a6d21a2e5c23", "input": "Question: The molecules of the CD1 family (CD1a, CD1b, CD1c, CD1d and CD1e) are expressed in: \n Options: <1> All the cells of the organism. <2> Only in dendritic cells. <3> Only in macrophages. <4> Only in monocytes. <5> Some thymocytes, in dendritic cells, in monocytes and macrophages.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e80c3939fd624ce0b1bae2e845e72d8d", "input": "Question: The DiGeorge syndrome is linked to: \n Options: <1> A defective development of the thymus. <2> An alteration of the secondary lymphoid tissue. <3> An alteration of the M cells <4> A maturation defect of B lymphocytes <5> An alteration in the regulatory systems of the complement.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aedc3e833fda45358dc528c8cf7ec8e4", "input": "Question: In relation to the physiology of the complement system, one of the following statements is false: \n Options: <1> Most of its components are inactive. <2> Its mode of activation is similar to the coagulation cascade. <3> It is subject to strict control of regulatory mechanisms. <4> It is only activated by two different routes: the classical and the alternative. <5> During its activation, multimolecular complexes are formed.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-abd4191286c0416793313fa01f6d9f1f", "input": "Question: The CD40 ligand molecule (CD40L or CD154) is expressed in: \n Options: <1> Virgin T lymphocytes. <2> Activated T lymphocytes <3> NK lymphocytes. <4> Virgin B lymphocytes. <5> B activated lymphocytes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b26fea1c56ef4d619e48020c02cb4768", "input": "Question: The maturation process for the dendritic cell involves important changes in its physiology, such as: \n Options: <1> Decreased expression of the CCR7 marker. <2> Reduction of endocytic capacity. <3> Decreased expression of histocompatibility molecules. <4> Synthesis of IL-13. <5> Reduction of CD40 expression.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7c5daac03b3c4ba3809fd931d53e6358", "input": "Question: Only one of the following cell types synthesizes interleukin IL-12; which one?: \n Options: <1> Cytotoxic T lymphocytes. <2> NK cells. <3> Myeloid dendritic cells. <4> Helper T lymphocytes. <5> Endothelial cells", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a576ac8208644d289a8f3ae81bf9b7ce", "input": "Question: In which of the following cell types is the CD3 complex ?: \n Options: <1> T lymphocytes. <2> B lymphocytes <3> Eosinophils <4> Follicular dendritic cells. <5> Endothelial cells", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fccac56a248844629d50c71abec712ba", "input": "Question: The different subpopulations of effector T lymphocytes secrete different cytokines. Which of the following statements is false?: \n Options: <1> TH1 lymphocytes secrete IL-3. <2> TH17 lymphocytes secrete IL-6. <3> TH2 lymphocytes secrete IFN-gamma. <4> Cytotoxic T lymphocytes secrete TNFalpha. <5> The regulatory T lymphocytes secrete IL-10.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-37c4505f3b8a4ab684f43823e3ae2283", "input": "Question: The MIC-A protein, expressed in various cell types and induced by cellular stress situations, is recognized by: \n Options: <1> KIR receivers. <2> The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC). <3> The NKG2D receptor. <4> B lymphocytes <5> NOD type receivers.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-927a6bc9575441b3812fcfa68ddf9929", "input": "Question: Patient with polyuria and polydipsia with a specific urine density greater than 1.040. From the following options indicate the most probable diagnosis: \n Options: <1> Alcohol intoxication <2> Suppression of ADH (vasopressin) by barbiturates. <3> Mellitus diabetes. <4> Lithium toxicity that causes diabetes insipidus. <5> Central deficit of ADH (vasopressin).", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3a9d495a348e4b9f8c98a52351a6741c", "input": "Question: Which of the following heterocycles is considered a bioisosterer of the catecholic system ?: \n Options: <1> Pyridine <2> Indole. <3> Tetrazol <4> Thiophene <5> Benzimidazole", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1935a89c285449a7bc44bca33bee0084", "input": "Question: Suppose that 40% of patients respond to treatment A. The average cost with A for the patients who respond is \u20ac 2,000 per patient. The average cost with A for patients who do not respond is \u20ac 5,000. What is the expected cost of treatment A for a patient ?: \n Options: <1> \u20ac 2,000 <2> \u20ac 3200 <3> \u20ac 3500 <4> \u20ac 3,800. <5> \u20ac 5,000", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cdeb39b4a84c47c3802fc956c6723f1a", "input": "Question: Woman 63 years old, hypertensive. When beginning the pharmacological treatment their glycemic values \u200b\u200bworsen. The antihypertensive pharmacological treatment that this situation may have caused will be: \n Options: <1> Fosfinopril. <2> Atenolol. <3> Hydrochlorothiazide. <4> Valsartan <5> Amlodipino", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8dc4bff494f24b4abe12e02175502b9a", "input": "Question: The following metals can be determined by complexometric or chelometric titration: \n Options: <1> All without exception. <2> All except transition metals. <3> All except lithium, sodium and potassium. <4> All except alkaline earth metals. <5> All except gold and silver.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b7a72fecd2b945d1bf3d5c0176c90856", "input": "Question: In pharmaceutical practice, office alcohol is used that meets the conditions for pharmaceutical use and thus qualifies alcohol: \n Options: <1> Of 95\u00ba or alcohol of 96\u00ba that owns to the exit of factory. <2> 95\u00ba or 95\u00ba alcohol that it has at the factory outlet. <3> Of greater disinfecting and bactericidal power. <4> Of 100\u00ba. <5> Of greater disinfecting power although not bactericidal.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cd7afba27c7d4a53a5828cc6323d33b3", "input": "Question: What are the cells of the gastric glands that secrete intrinsic factor called ?: \n Options: <1> Main. <2> Parietals <3> Mucous <4> Endocrine <5> Cells of the diffuse neuroendocrine system (SNED).", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4b462ebfc7d74bb887b0e0a22f3ea78a", "input": "Question: Within the field of bacteriology, what statement is valid in relation to the phenomenon of phage conversion ?: \n Options: <1> It is a consequence of infection by a lytic phage. <2> It does not imply genotypic alterations. <3> It involves the lysogenization of the bacteria by a phage. <4> It does not imply phenotypic alterations. <5> It is a specialized process of conjugation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c1541f890905417f9213b9c6e7f29225", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements is true with respect to the alkaloid morphine ?: \n Options: <1> It is an isoquinoline alkaloid extracted from straw of Papaver somniferum. <2> It is a benzylisoquinol alkaloid extracted from latex of Papaver somniferum. <3> It is a tracheal alkaloid extracted from leaves of Papaver somniferum. <4> It is a quinolizidine alkaloid extracted from capsules of Papaver somniferum. <5> It is a pyrrolidinic alkaloid extracted from roots of Papaver somniferum.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c339f162ac5044489df7dbf82b217eb7", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba1 An 80-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department for acute abdominal pain that is accompanied by hypotension, tachycardia and fever of 38\u00baC. Between its antecedents it emphasizes a resection of left colon by carcinoma seven days before. After the initial resuscitation, a simple chest radiograph (shown) is performed, which is diagnostic of: \n Options: <1> Pneumoperitoneum <2> Intestinal obstruction. <3> Strangled crural hernia. <4> Left pneumothorax <5> Mesenteric ischemia.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b14157e3e27a47e9b92c9dea0f75a61b", "input": "Question: Question linked to image No. 1 In the same patient, from the observation of the chest x-ray, it can be deduced: \n Options: <1> That the patient has pulmonary metastases. <2> Suspected nosocomial pneumonia. <3> A failure (dehiscence) of the colonic anastomosis should be considered. <4> Suspicion of PET <5> You have an infection of the surgical wound.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ef9b956912e043ffbcb8daff641e2289", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba2 A 65-year-old man with a personal history of chronic alcoholic liver disease in functional stage A of Child in treatment with ibuprofen due to low back pain, presents a picture of red blood hematemesis. Upon his arrival at the emergency room, he presented a blood pressure of 120/60 mm Hg. In the analytical sample, hemoglobin 10 gr / dL, platelets 250,000 / \u03bcL, urea 85 mg / dL and creatinine 1.1 mg / dL are the most important data. Urgent endoscopy is performed showing the image. Given these findings, what is the correct answer: \n Options: <1> It is only necessary to carry out transfusion of packed red cells and monitor the hemodynamic stability of the patient. <2> The endoscopic findings suggest a Forrest III classification. <3> The placement of bands is the endoscopic treatment of choice since it is a patient with liver disease. <4> It is necessary to perform an endoscopy at 12 o'clock to monitor the possibility of rebleeding in a systematic way. <5> It is necessary to perform endoscopic treatment with adrenaline 1: 10000 associated with the placement of an endoclip.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c3c7ae9b4e114e33a9c6719f01dccf01", "input": "Question: Question linked to image no. 2 In the case described above and regarding pharmacological treatment, which is the correct statement. \n Options: <1> The pharmacological treatment is not necessary since the bleeding lesion has been identified. <2> The ideal treatment for this patient is perfusion of somatostatin since it is a hepatopathic patient. <3> The use of omeprazole at high doses reduces the recurrence of bleeding. <4> Ranitidine is the drug of choice to avoid pharmacological toxicity when dealing with a patient with chronic liver disease. <5> The eradication of Helicobacter pylori is the first measure to be taken.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0d7d83e0b79f4bad885960a1b21b73c7", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba3 58-year-old liver transplant patient with HCV + cirrhosis. After an uncomplicated postoperative period, the patient is referred to his home. Six weeks after the transplant, he was visited in the outpatient clinic, with a low grade of fever, a worsening of the general condition, a GOT level of 60 IU / L (8-40) and a GPT of 65 IU / L (8-50). with a pattern of marked cholestasis (GGT x 10 and FA x 8) with total bilirubin of 1.7 mg / dL (0.3-1). Likewise, a high number of copies of the HCV was appreciated. It was decided to perform a Doppler ultrasound in which a complete arterial thrombosis was reported. In view of these data, a CT scan and a cholangioresonance were requested, the images of which are presented in the figures. For the clinical, analytical and radiological data, indicate which is the most probable diagnosis of the current problem: \n Options: <1> Acute rejection mediated by antibodies with associated arterial thrombosis. <2> Early HCV recurrence. <3> Stenosis of the biliary anastomosis. <4> Extensive ischemic injury of intrahepatic bile ducts. <5> Complete thrombosis of intrahepatic portal branches.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2321d657f6c0469691e6860729d60f27", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba3 Taking into account the diagnosis made. What is the treatment that the patient will probably need? \n Options: <1> Retransplant hepatic. <2> Treatment with Sofosbuvir and Daclatasvir. <3> Hepatic-jejunostomy. <4> Administration of 3 boluses of methylprednisolone and increase in basal immunosuppression. <5> Anticoagulation", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0915ea15067041b7bf227ca51beb3379", "input": "Question: Question linked to the image n\u00ba4 34-year-old man, athlete, who presents a picture of oppressive, continuous chest pain radiating to the back that is accentuated with deep inspiration, of 4 days of evolution, without fever. It refers to a picture of tonsillitis 2 months ago. Rhythmic cardiac auscultation without murmurs. It does not present data of hemodynamic alteration or heart failure. Normal analytical, except for discrete leukocytosis. When you arrive at the emergency room, an ECG is performed, shown in the figure. While waiting for the result of markers of myocardial injury, the most likely diagnosis in this patient is: \n Options: <1> Subacute myocardial infarction anteroseptal. <2> Tietze syndrome. <3> Osteomuscular thoracic pain with athlete's ECG. <4> Acute pericarditis <5> Unstable angina.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b6b9d45b747749eba2a6cb12cad8aa56", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 4 In this patient, the procedure and / or treatment of choice that I would recommend is: \n Options: <1> Urgent catheterization. <2> Primary angioplasty. <3> Fibrinolysis. <4> Prednisone 10 mg / 12 hours. <5> Anti-inflammatories in prolonged treatment.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5ce23c4a53334fb7814514d84a864699", "input": "Question: Question linked to the image n\u00ba5 62-year-old man, smoker of 20 cigarettes a day for 30 years and hypertensive, who comes to the clinic because of pain when walking in the gluteal area that begins at a distance of 300 meters and disappears with rest at 5 minutes. An Ankle / Arm index is made whose image is attached. Which is the diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Critical ischemia of right lower limb. <2> Acute ischemia due to arterial embolism. <3> Chronic ischemia due to left iliac occlusion. <4> Leriche syndrome due to bilateral iliac occlusion. <5> Radiculopathy", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d55572dab1514ea8b9e3410e27c7e52d", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 5 In this patient, what should be the initial treatment? \n Options: <1> Perform a diagnostic angiography plus an associated fibrinolysis. <2> Modify vascular risk factors, physical exercise and medical treatment. <3> The surgery of revascularization by bypass or by endovascular surgery. <4> Perform an urgent embolectomy. <5> Analgesic treatment and decrease physical exercise until symptoms improve.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eb44fab711424062b29a66715c80fd1e", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba6 29-year-old woman smoker. Consultation for nocturnal cough and dyspnea on exertion. Provides a chest CT performed at your health center (see image). What is the radiological diagnosis of suspicion? \n Options: <1> Mediastinal broadening. <2> Bibasal interstitial infiltrate. <3> Aortic dilatation <4> Atelectasia lobar. <5> Growth of right cavities.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f7bac6118de74e94abdbcc76c5f154bc", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 6 In a recent hemogram, the only notable fact is an eosinophilia of 16%. What diagnostic test of the following would provide more information in the study of the patient? \n Options: <1> Echocardiogram. <2> Determination of total Ig E and P-ANCAS. <3> Bronchofibroscopy. <4> Computed tomography. <5> Methacholine test and peak expiratory flow (peak flow).", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0d5dc4e0c9f5451d9db3ed3b2404f016", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 7 A 60-year-old man consulted for dyspnea. A respiratory functional examination is performed (Spirometry with bronchodilator test, CO diffusion capacity test and Plethysmography) whose report is shown in the image. What is the diagnosis most compatible with the results? \n Options: <1> Bronchial asthma. <2> Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. <3> COPD emphysema phenotype. <4> Thoracic restraint due to kyphoscoliosis. <5> Bronchiectasis", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4a3b71a8f4924a238c0b2ccf6d930443", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 7 In the previous patient, which of the following attitudes would be less justified? \n Options: <1> Perform a chest CT scan. <2> Request serum levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin. <3> Ask for a 6 minute walk test. <4> Request skin allergy tests. <5> Start treatment with bronchodilators.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-19042d14b6ac4e11b402e896351fa946", "input": "Question: Question linked to the image n\u00ba8 A 63-year-old man with persistent pain and swelling, progressive deformity, functional impotence and prolonged rigidity after inactivity in hands, knees and feet for which he had not consulted previously. In an elemental analysis carried out in his company, he highlighted VSG 78 mm / hour, PCR 54 mg / L and uric acid 7.4 mg / dL. The X-ray of hands is shown in the image. The most likely diagnosis is: \n Options: <1> Tophaceous drop <2> Erosive arthrosis <3> Rheumatoid arthritis. <4> Pyrophosphate arthropathy. <5> Polymyalgia rheumatica.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f8aac0938024425c8cfef6865173887f", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 8 Conducting an ultrasound in this patient: \n Options: <1> It would only allow assessing the tendon affectation. <2> It has no use. <3> It detects synovitis but not erosions. <4> It does not detect synovitis or erosions. <5> It detects both synovitis and erosions.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0f070b31e6b94867b5c4c5b66a6cc3e5", "input": "Question: Question linked to the image n\u00ba9 11-year-old boy who attends because 10 days ago he has a daily fever of predominance in the evening. In the last 2 days the fever has been increasing (up to 38.5\u00ba C). Has little appetite and has lost weight (2 kg). Three weeks ago he was kicked in the right knee. Although initially he only had pain later he noticed inflammation, which was increasing until it prevented him from walking. Analytical: elevation of PCR (75 mg / L) without other significant alterations. Simple radiology is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Osteomyelitis. <2> Ossifying myositis <3> Eosinophilic granuloma. <4> Osteosarcoma. <5> Osteoblastoma", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5ec1f1f4de654819afa54f79f4b21044", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 9 What would be the next step in the clinical management of this patient? \n Options: <1> Intravenous antibiotic treatment and radiological control in one month. <2> Perform fine needle aspiration of the lesion for microbiological study. <3> Magnetic resonance of the femur and then, if appropriate, biopsy of the lesion. <4> Anti-inflammatory treatment and clinical-radiological evolutionary control. <5> Perform a bone scan with gallium 67.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c79cb20ff0ec409fa9bad07e9c9b744e", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba10 A 4-year-old and 6-month-old boy with a previous normal psychomotor development, which begins to present multiple episodes of medium disconnection with maintained tone and subtle rapid flashing of seconds throughout the day and learning difficulties in the last months. A waking electroencephalogram is performed. An image of the record is shown during the hyperventilation maneuver. What epileptic syndrome corresponds? \n Options: <1> Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. <2> Lennox-Gastaut syndrome. <3> Benign partial epilepsy of childhood with centrotemporal tips. <4> Childhood absence epilepsy. <5> West syndrome.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-98ea102ad761409c85bb474fecadb14e", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 10 In the previous patient, which of the following treatments is of choice? \n Options: <1> Carbamazepine <2> Vigabatrin <3> Valproic acid. <4> Topiramate. <5> Levetiracetam", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-17c42c01bd7b4ef18fdd3207db0ef923", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba11 49-year-old patient without a history of interest. He reports a 2-week history of diffuse abdominal pain independent of ingestion and deposition and accompanied by occasional vomiting, malaise and profuse sweating. Analytical: Hb 12 gr / dL. Leucocytes 10x10 ^ 9 / L (Neutrophil 80%, Lymphocytes 15%, Monocytes 3%, Eosinophils 1%). Platelets 270x10 ^ 9 / L. Glucose 100 mg / dL, Urea 80 mg / dL, Creatinine 1.5 mg / dL, A. Uric 12 mg / dL, LDH 7800 IU / L; GOT, GPT and normal alkaline phosphatase. CT: Large mass (16cm) in retroperitoneum infiltrating pancreas, small bowel loops and right kidney. The biopsy is the one shown in the image. Immunohistochemistry: CD20 (+) CD3 (-) bcl 2 (-), CD10 +, bcl 6 (+), P53 (-), TDT (-) Mib1 (proliferation index) 100%. Genetics: rearrangement of 8q24, c-myc gene. Which is the diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Diffuse B-cell large lymphoma. <2> Lymphocytic lymphoma <3> Follicular lymphoma 3b. <4> T-cell lymphoma of the intestinal type. <5> Burkitt lymphoma.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ef3b808f73bc4563aa20fbf4a16bd943", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba11 Which treatment is most appropriate in the previous patient? \n Options: <1> Cytoreductive surgery followed by chemotherapy type Rituximab-CHOP until complete remission. <2> Rituximab-CHOP / 21 x 6-8 cycles followed by retroperitoneal radiotherapy. <3> Rituximab-CHOP / 21 x 6-8 cycles followed by intensive QT and stem-cell transplantation (TASPE). <4> Intensive chemotherapy that includes Rituximab, high doses of cyclophosphamide and CNS prophylaxis. <5> Delay treatment until PET-CT and then treat with Rituximab-CHOP / 14 x 6-8 cycles.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c5f6ae4f172d49feb6ce6fdaf21e254d", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 12 In the CT that is shown, the most likely diagnosis is: \n Options: <1> Polycystic kidney disease <2> Retroperitoneal mass. <3> Renal tuberculosis <4> Renal cystic neoplasia. <5> Obstructive uropathy.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e0e1afee542e4674bd2a62e50d57bda0", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 12 Which of the following is the most likely clinic of this patient's consultation? \n Options: <1> Macroscopic hematuria. <2> Poliglobulia, pain and fever. <3> Fever, pain and dark urine. <4> Oligoanuria and pain. <5> Febricule and sterile pyuria.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f9a30a8051ba4b9a8cd0166bd076d0c9", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba13 A 31-year-old man reported a sudden onset of chills, high fever, joint and muscle pain, maculopapular rash predominantly in the extremities, headache and photophobia. It does not refer to any pathological antecedent of interest or travel abroad in the last two years. He is not aware of the existence of communicable diseases in his immediate environment. He lives in a suburban residential area of \u200b\u200bthe Spanish Levante. Physical examination highlights the blackish eschar that can be seen in the image. Point out the vector transmitter of the disease that the patient most likely presents. \n Options: <1> Ixodes ricinus. <2> Rhipicephalus sanguineus. <3> Aedes aegypti. <4> Pediculosis corporis. <5> Dermacentor variabilis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8b9928e272574bf9aeaf193a10a49bfd", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba13 Which treatment do you consider most appropriate? \n Options: <1> Ceftriaxone 1 g / day parenterally. <2> Doxycycline 100 mg / 12h oral. <3> Paracetamol 500 mg / 6h oral. <4> Chloramphenicol 500 mg / 6h oral. <5> Amoxicillin / clavulanic acid 1 g / 8h oral.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8df43390cc4f43db9e658f859137fec4", "input": "Question: Question linked to image no. 14 A 68-year-old man consults for a loss of general condition in the form of asthenia and anorexia and loss of 12 Kg in the last three months. The physical examination only shows a thin patient and the lesion on the soles of the feet that can be seen in the figure. What do you think is the most likely diagnosis and / or most appropriate attitude? \n Options: <1> I would look for immune suppression factors, because the lesion seems to correspond to a Norwegian scabies. <2> The skin lesion looks like a callus in a physiological support area, so for now, I would not consider it related to the loss of the general state. <3> The lesion suggests a palmo-plantar form of psoriasis. <4> It seems a form of diffuse seborrheic keratosis associated with age. <5> It suggests a paraneoplastic plantar keratoderma.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9b9bb1e830fe41b6a130712be5abefc8", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba14 Suppose that the patient does not refer any family history of interest, has never taken illicit drugs or receives usual medical treatment. An analysis performed in a private mutual shows a microcytic and hypochromic anemia, a normal thyroid function, a serology for HIV negative and a determination of arsenic also negative. The chest x-ray is normal. To continue the study, numerous tests could be carried out. Which do you think could help us more at this time? \n Options: <1> A bone marrow aspirate. <2> A complete immunological study with ANA, ANCA and complement. <3> I would not do more tests immediately and follow the clinical evolution for a month. <4> A fibrogastroscopy. <5> A biopsy of the plantar lesion.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d315cb2e32ad4416b9f88cabc16783ae", "input": "Question: Question linked to the image n\u00ba15 Patient of 25 years of age transferred to the Rescue Box of the Emergency Service after traffic accident. At admission, he is hypotensive, tachycardic and tachypneic. Portable chest radiography shows right costal fractures from the fourth costal arch to the ninth and right pulmonary contusion image, and the pelvis is attached. What is the best behavior next? \n Options: <1> Perform abdominal ultrasound in the emergency box. <2> Request a chest computed tomography. <3> Request pelvic angiography. <4> Request computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis. <5> Immediately enter the patient in the intensive care unit.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6eb1ddfa4afc410caade0f43b52b3eb7", "input": "Question: Question linked to image # 15 While we are exploring this patient, he has a sudden worsening of his hemodynamic state and an increase in his tachypnea. Tracheal deviation to the left, distended jugular veins and absence of ventilation in the right hemithorax are observed. The most likely diagnosis is: \n Options: <1> Progression of the right pulmonary contusion. <2> Expansive right cervical vascular injury. <3> Cardiac tamponade. <4> Right hemothorax <5> Tension pneumothorax.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-65a4f87cc78547d1863d145d76a12338", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n \u00b0 16 Patient of 84 years who presents an ulcerated tumor lesion that shows in the scalp of more than 20 years of evolution. No palpable locoregional adenopathies. Obviously the lesion must be biopsied for diagnostic confirmation but, a priori, which of the following diagnoses seems most likely? \n Options: <1> Merkel cell tumor. <2> Basal cell carcinoma. <3> Squamous carcinoma <4> Amelanotic malignant melanoma. <5> Cutaneous B-cell lymphoma", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e358a0030e1c434d98d5243f6a7d44ec", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n \u00b0 16 If the patient is treated surgically with adequate resection margins, what prognosis do you consider most likely? \n Options: <1> Healing very likely, with moderate possibility of local recurrence and very remote possibility of distant metastasis. <2> Local recurrence with an approximate probability of 50%. <3> Probability of lymph node metastasis greater than 50%. <4> Probability of distant metastasis greater than 30%. <5> In this case, surgical treatment should not be considered as the only therapeutic option.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7231a954e49a4d8ab6e92414f66a67a5", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba17 You receive a biopsy of the duodenum of a 38-year-old woman with no other clinical information. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Intestinal lymphoma: infiltration of the lamina propria and the superficial epithelium by a monotonous lymphoid cell population. <2> Gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac disease): intestinal villi atrophy, increased inflammatory infiltrate and intraepithelial lymphocytosis. <3> Lymphangiectasias: dilatation of lymphatic vessels located in the lamina propria of the mucosa. <4> Whipple's disease: accumulations of macrophages of wide cytoplasm and microvacuolate in the lamina propria of the mucosa. <5> Giardiasis: presence of Giardia lamblia trophozoites on the intestinal surface.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-713120bc4d984eeda55ff8a83051721a", "input": "Question: Question linked to image n\u00ba17 According to the diagnosis issued in the previous question, what is the best therapeutic option? \n Options: <1> Diet rich in proteins and low in fat. <2> Metronidazole <3> Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole. <4> Chemotherapy. <5> Gluten-free diet", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8e1f1f35dd3d43d3a17922d881c40bb1", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements is correct with respect to hepatic hemangiomas? \n Options: <1> They can be associated with the KasabachMerritt syndrome (thrombocytopenia and consumption coagulopathy), especially giant hemangiomas. <2> Surgical exeresis should be indicated from the moment it is diagnosed if its diameter is greater than 3 cm. <3> Percutaneous embolization is the most recommended therapeutic option for this type of tumor. <4> The best method for its diagnostic confirmation is percutaneous biopsy of the liver lesion. <5> Hepatic MRI does not usually offer much help for its diagnostic characterization.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c2202a377367488aab40f913dc3df3dc", "input": "Question: A 76-year-old woman came to the emergency room referring to pain in the right groin and vomiting for about 6 hours. On examination, a hard consistency tumor is palpable just below the line joining the anterosuperior iliac spine and the pubis (which corresponds to the location of the inguinal ligament). Most likely, it is one: \n Options: <1> Direct inguinal hernia. <2> Spiegel hernia. <3> Indirect inguinal hernia. <4> Femoral hernia (crural). <5> Obturator hernia", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d028f6c6697f495dbf337e8d51769d66", "input": "Question: An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension, ischemic heart disease and COPD, who underwent a complete rectocolonoscopy due to rectal bleeding, with the following findings: polypoid lesion 3 cm in diameter located 10 cm from the anal margin, occupying the half of the circumference. Rest of exploration without findings until blind. In the polyp biopsy, an adenocarcinoma limited to the submucosa is seen. Endorectal ultrasound: uT1N0. Pelvic MRI: T1N0. TC: No evidence of disease at a distance. What will be the most likely therapeutic decision to be made in the Multidisciplinary Tumor Commission? \n Options: <1> Abdominal-perineal rectum amputation. <2> Neoadjuvant radiotherapy and low anterior resection of the rectum by laparoscopy. <3> Transanal endoscopic microsurgery. <4> Anterior low resection of laparotomic rectus. <5> Anterior low resection of laparoscopic rectal route and adjuvant radiotherapy.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e5fd430fa83644ae8d82c7442378fed8", "input": "Question: A colonoscopy of colorectal cancer screening is performed on a patient with ulcerative colitis with involvement up to the transverse colon. Colonoscopy shows no signs of inflammatory activity. Multiple biopsies were performed every 10 cm. The biopsies were reviewed by 2 expert pathologists demonstrating a focus of high grade dysplasia in one of the biopsies performed in the sigmoid colon. What would you indicate next? \n Options: <1> Repeat the colonoscopy to confirm the diagnosis. <2> Intensive surveillance with colonoscopy every 3 to 6 months. <3> Repeat the examination and perform a chromoendoscopy to identify the lesion and perform an endoscopic mucosectomy. <4> Total proctocolectomy. <5> Treatment with mesalazine at doses of 2-3 grams per day and repeat the scan at 3 to 6 months.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9dda0f716e5d47a1a49565172eb31c05", "input": "Question: Regarding gastroesophageal reflux disease, which of the following statements is true? \n Options: <1> The intensity and frequency of heartburn has little relationship with the presence and severity of endoscopic esophagitis. <2> Most patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have esophagitis at endoscopy. <3> Treatment with proton pump inhibitors usually achieves good control of symptoms but is not superior to placebo in the endoscopic cure of esophagitis. <4> Barrett's esophagus can progress to low-grade epithelial dysplasia, high-grade epithelial dysplasia, and finally squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus. <5> Endoscopic screening and surveillance programs have unequivocally shown to be able to reduce mortality in patients with Barrett's esophagus.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e604393933b345ae8c3cac6c84d3cb60", "input": "Question: In which of these patients would the appropriate surgical treatment be the performance of an atypical wedge gastrectomy by laparoscopy without extended lymphadenectomy? \n Options: <1> Infiltrating and ulcerated gastric adenocarcinoma at the antro-pylorus level. <2> Subcardial infiltrating gastric adenocarcinoma. <3> Gastrointestinal stromal tumor at the level of the gastric body-greater curvature. <4> Lymphoma MALT. <5> Barrett's esophagus with intestinal metaplasia and dysplasia.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3d5c1097a5fb494c9654260a3f828ca8", "input": "Question: A 25-year-old man consults for jaundice. He practices bodybuilding and has injected anabolic steroids substitutes for 17alkalkyl, three weeks before. For a tonsillitis he had taken amoxicillin-clavulanic acid which he removed 15 days ago. Analytical: AST 1200 IU / L (normal upper limit, lsn 40), ALT 1300 IU / L (lsn 40), GGT 150 IU / L (lsn 50), alkaline phosphatase 180 IU / L (lsn 105), total bililrubin 4 , 8 mg / dL with direct bilirubin predominance. Serology of virus B: Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc positive. Ultrasound suggests grade I steatosis. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Hepatitis by amoxicillin-clavulanic acid. <2> Anabolic steroid hepatitis. <3> Acute hepatitis B virus <4> Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis. <5> Cholestasis due to drugs.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5624d83fb92c4f878de78346505031f1", "input": "Question: The recommended antibiotic treatment for acute diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile is: \n Options: <1> Administer vancomycin orally. <2> Administer vancomycin intravenously. <3> Administer ciprofloxacin orally. <4> Administer metronidazole orally. <5> Administer rifaximin orally.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-77fc431f6ffe4e40b63b5ded8863137f", "input": "Question: In the process of defecation is TRUE: \n Options: <1> When the feces penetrate the rectal ampulla, relaxation of the internal anal sphincter occurs consciously. <2> When the feces penetrate the rectal ampulla, the external anal sphincter relaxes unconsciously. <3> The external anal sphincter is controlled by nerve fibers of the pudendal nerve, part of the somatic nervous system, and therefore under voluntary conscious control. <4> The propulsive movements of the colon under normal conditions require one hour to move the chyme through the entire colon from the ileocal valve. <5> During defecation the contraction of the floor of the pelvis occurs.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-21ece602c0fd454d9ad4cc7365f5ac3f", "input": "Question: In relation to intraductal papillary mucinous tumors of the pancreas, point out the WRONG statement: \n Options: <1> They are potentially malignant tumors. <2> Its frequency has increased notably in the last decade. <3> Three subtypes are distinguished: main conduit, secondary conduit and mixed conduit. <4> They should be excised as soon as they are diagnosed, except the main duct variety. <5> Its first clinical manifestation can be a picture of acute pancreatitis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2452cd8feccd4b4588a74056b59b7698", "input": "Question: A 49-year-old woman came to the emergency room due to shivering, fever of 39\u00baC, pain in the right hypochondrium, jaundice and vomiting. The scan reveals TA 100/50 mmHg. FC 110 lpm. Prostration and pain on palpation in the right quadrant, with positive Murphy. The analytical sample shows leukocytosis with left deviation and abdominal ultrasound, cholelithiasis, choledocholithiasis and dilation of the extrahepatic bile duct. Empirical treatment is started with antibiotic and fluid therapy. What is the most effective procedure to perform next? \n Options: <1> Maintain antibiotic treatment and support measures with posterior regulated cholecystectomy. <2> Laparoscopic cholecystectomy. <3> Placement of an external biliary drainage. <4> Urgent cholecystectomy with cannulation of the common bile duct. <5> Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography with sphincterotomy.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3216730959a845589f24f5b702415f85", "input": "Question: A 60-year-old woman, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 and hypertension, consults for palpitations of weeks of evolution. Provides an electrocardiogram performed a week ago in which he is in atrial fibrillation with an average ventricular rate of 70 beats / min. In the physical examination and in a new electrocardiogram performed in consultation is in sinus rhythm. Is it necessary to anticoagulate it chronically? \n Options: <1> It is not necessary to anticoagulate because it has a paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and is not currently in atrial fibrillation. <2> It is not necessary to anticoagulate because it is less than 75 years old and has not had a previous stroke. <3> You must be chronically anticoagulated because you have a CHADS of 2 and a CHADS-VASc of 3. <4> Anticoagulation is not necessary, but antiaggregation with acetylsalicylic acid may be prescribed. <5> Must be anticoagulated only with subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin when in atrial fibrillation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-80500e0ffcdc4179ab2350bdc6f8ab50", "input": "Question: A 32-year-old man with no history of interest or cardiovascular risk factors. Clinic of dyspnea when climbing a floor of stairs of 1 month of evolution. Consultation due to sudden syncope preceded by exertion. Family history of death not explained abruptly in his brother. On physical examination, a more audible rumen systolic murmur with aortic focus is highlighted. The electrocardiogram performed in the consultation shows a sinus rhythm with a compatible pattern of left ventricular hypertrophy. An echocardiogram was performed to document an important asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum with a subvalvular dynamic gradient of 70 mmHg with moderate secondary mitral regurgitation and preserved left ventricular ejection fraction. Which therapeutic option is the LESS indicated? \n Options: <1> Beta-blockers. <2> Digoxin <3> Calcium-non-dihydropyridine antagonists. <4> Implantable automatic defibrillator. <5> Surgical septal myomectomy of Morrow.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3892adde9ec24f98b361b73305628d9c", "input": "Question: A 65-year-old man, smoker and diabetic, is brought to the Emergency Department for presenting an oppressive, deep-throating sweat for about an hour. In the ECG performed, sinus rhythm was observed at 80 bpm and a complete block of the left branch. What should our attitude be? \n Options: <1> Perform an analytical determination of troponin and wait for its result to confirm the presence of an acute myocardial infarction. <2> Treat the patient as if it were an infarction with ST-segment elevation, proposing a reperfusion therapy as early as possible. <3> To implant a transcutaneous pacemaker before the possibility of developing a more advanced block. <4> Perform an urgent CT to rule out the presence of an acute pulmonary embolism. <5> As it could be an acute pericarditis, we will administer NSAIDs.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6c472fc11c5c44f68e47f630e5ecf426", "input": "Question: A patient goes to the hospital for a myocardial infarction with ST segment elevation. Upon arrival, he is hypotensive, presents crackles and a systolic murmur is heard 3/6. What is your diagnostic suspicion? \n Options: <1> Cardiogenic shock. <2> Rupture of free wall of left ventricle. <3> Acute mitral failure due to papillary muscle rupture. <4> Cardiac tamponade. <5> Thrombosis of the common trunk.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4279ada434844d5eaf0778da30098d73", "input": "Question: Man of 55 years, obese, dyslipidemic and active smoker. In study for refractory hypertension without evidence of cardiac or renal damage so far. He refers to morning headache with daytime hypersomnia. ABPM was performed (ambulatory blood pressure monitoring 24 hours) and arterial hypertension was confirmed despite 3 drugs, one of them diuretic, with higher nighttime blood pressures than daytime blood pressure. What diagnostic test would you request next with your clinical suspicion? \n Options: <1> Determination of catecholamines in urine 24h. <2> Hormonal determination of renin-aldosterone. <3> Night polysomnography. <4> Doppler ultrasound <5> CT aorta.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f8722336eec64b78911359cee95aa150", "input": "Question: One of the following statements about the epidemiology and prognosis of heart failure is INCORRECT. Point it out \n Options: <1> Between 60 and 70% of patients die in the first 5 years after establishing the diagnosis of heart failure. <2> The functional situation of the patient with heart failure is the one that best correlates with the expectation of survival. <3> Diastolic dysfunction predominates in elderly women with a history of chronic hypertension. <4> Heart failure due to systolic dysfunction is usually observed in male patients with ischemic heart disease. <5> The prevalence of heart failure is decreasing in the last decade thanks to better control of cardiovascular risk factors.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fa867890c5ab47559c38d7bb2c0798c1", "input": "Question: Patient of 79 years, hypertensive, hyperlipidemic, diabetic and with COPD in treatment with inhaled anticholinergics. He presents chronic atrial fibrillation on anticoagulant treatment with dicumarin. After a 3-day cough, yellow sputum and fever of 38 \u00b0 C, presented in the last 24 h progressive worsening with dyspnea of \u200b\u200beffort, orthopnea and malleolar edema. The examination included a TA of 170/95 mmHg, dyspnea with a respiratory rate of 20 rpm and auscultation with bilateral wheezing and crackling in bases. Tachyarrhythmia at 110 bpm. Discrete malleolar edemas. What is the approach to follow? \n Options: <1> The patient probably has pneumonia and the priority is to perform a chest X-ray to confirm it. <2> It is probably an exacerbation of your COPD due to respiratory overinfection. Reinforce the basic treatment with an inhaled beta-2, corticoids and antibiotics and monitor evolution. <3> You probably have a component of left heart failure associated with a febrile respiratory infection. It would be a priority to treat it with vasodilators and diuretics in addition to the treatment that corresponds to their respiratory infection, bronchodilators, etc. <4> The patient is not classified for the severity of his COPD, which would indicate an immediate spirometry to adjust the treatment to the severity of the obstruction. It would also associate an antibiotic given the apparent picture of respiratory overinfection. <5> An echocardiogram would be the first exploration to be performed to rule out a possible component of heart failure associated with the exacerbated COPD episode presented by the patient.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2f6caf90a4854a6c9b1e6e5c355796f8", "input": "Question: The volume overload of the left ventricle appears in: \n Options: <1> Stenosis of heart valves. <2> Coarctation of the aorta. <3> Resting angina. <4> The insufficiencies of the heart valves. <5> Rheumatic fever.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-51d4ed86c3ee480680993c2d6cc68433", "input": "Question: What is the most frequent etiology of aortic stenosis in adults? \n Options: <1> Rheumatic <2> Congenital <3> Degenerative or calcified <4> Post endocarditis. <5> Ischemic", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3a1a096c8d234b60805ccbeade53fd0b", "input": "Question: In a patient with asthma symptoms, diagnostic confirmation of the disease will be made first by: \n Options: <1> The finding of a reversible obstruction of air flow in spirometry. <2> A positive allergic skin test. <3> An increase in the number of eosinophils in the induced sputum. <4> The elevation of nitric oxide in exhaled air (FENO). <5> The presence of a specific IgE in blood to an aeroallergen.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-35c2c7c8d9104f63886c80327a559dd2", "input": "Question: The surgical treatment of COPD, or lung volume reduction surgery, is currently a therapeutic weapon more within the multidisciplinary treatment of it. Which of the following statements is correct? \n Options: <1> The indication for surgical treatment will be in those patients who have moderate / severe congestive heart failure at the same time. <2> The presence of a pulmonary artery systolic pressure lower than 45 is an absolute contraindication. <3> COPD with emphysematous predominance in lower and middle lobes associated with pleural pathology is associated with better results. <4> The presence of a diffuse distribution of emphysema with FEV1> 20% and DLCO <20% are indicators of good prognosis. <5> Pre-surgical rehabilitation along with the distribution of emphysema in the upper lobes and the ability to perform postoperative physical exercise makes the results of the surgery beneficial.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8f910e24a45e4e1780b3371dedec58e6", "input": "Question: Regarding the treatment of patients with COPD, point out the FALSE answer: \n Options: <1> The regular use of ipratropium bromide has been associated with a decrease in mortality. <2> In a patient with arterial oxygen saturation of less than 90% and signs of pulmonary hypertension, the use of supplemental oxygen should be considered. <3> The regular use of inhaled corticosteroids does not influence the rate of deterioration of lung function. <4> Long-acting beta-adrenergic agonists provide symptomatic benefits similar to those of ipratropium bromide. <5> In patients hospitalized for exacerbation, corticosteroid therapy has been shown to shorten hospitalization time.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d88245c8648c460eacadb5779de8fea8", "input": "Question: 73-year-old man, ex-smoker, history of hypertension, grade II obesity, type 2 diabetes and severe COPD with chronic home oxygen therapy. He went to the Emergency Department due to a progressive increase in his habitual dyspnea, purulent expectoration and a temperature of 37.9\u00baC in 4 days of evolution. His family doctor had prescribed moxifloxacin, paracetamol, deflazacort, aerosol therapy and increased oxygen flow 2 days before. On physical examination the patient is in regular general condition, conscious, sleep tendency, tachypneic at 28 rpm and utilization of accessory muscles, temperature 38.2\u00baC, oxygen saturation of 87%, TA 115/62 mmHg, heart rate 110 lpm; vesicular murmur diminished globally, wheezing and scattered rhonchi and moist crepitations in bases. The analyte highlights 16,500 / uL leukocytes with 14,900 neutrophils, hemoglobin 14 g / dL, glucose 240 mg / dL, urea 56 mg / dL, creatinine 1.3 mg / dL, Na 133 mEq / L, K 3.7 mEq / L. In the ECG, sinus tachycardia was observed. The arterial blood gases show: pH 7.29, pCO2 64 mmHg, pO2 59 mmHg, HCO3 28 mg / dL. The chest radiograph shows no condensation or pleural effusion. Which of the following clinical management options would you establish in the first place? \n Options: <1> Start treatment with intravenous diuretics, oxygen with a high-flow 50% mask and continue with the rest of the prescribed treatment. <2> Start treatment with salbutamol and steroid sprays, add a cephalosporin to the antibiotic treatment, intensify oxygen therapy in nasal glasses at 4 liters per minute and maintain deflazacort. <3> Start treatment of acidosis with 1M bicarbonate, correct hyperglycemia, maintain antibiotic treatment and prescribe steroids plus intravenous diuretics. <4> Given the patient's serious situation, orotracheal intubation would be carried out prior to preparation (pre-oxygenation and premedication) and to notify Intensive Care Medicine. <5> Start treatment with non-invasive mechanical ventilation (two-level positive pressure mode), prescribe salbutamol aerosols and intravenous steroids and maintain intravenous antibiotic treatment.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8a24e43688ba4c7391f96ce6816ed403", "input": "Question: A 58-year-old woman attended the consultation due to dyspnea of \u200b\u200bmedium effort, muscle weakness in the upper extremities and dysphagia to solids of three months of evolution. Physical examination revealed a loss of strength in the upper limbs with preserved sensitivity. Pulmonary auscultation shows generalized hypophisis. A chest x-ray is performed, showing uninspired lungs and laminar atelectasis in the lung bases. Gasometry shows pH 7.39, PCO2 48 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 28 mmol / L, SatO2 93%. The combination of physiological mechanisms that best explain this gasometry is: \n Options: <1> Decrease in FiO2 (inspired fraction of oxygen) and alteration of diffusion. <2> Alteration of diffusion and disturbance of the ventilation / perfusion relationship. <3> Alveolar hypoventilation and decrease in FiO2. <4> Disorder of the ventilation / perfusion relationship and alveolar hypoventilation. <5> Increased pulmonary artery pressure and decreased diffusion.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b96391fc85ad457bb7ffcbf9fdf49753", "input": "Question: A 70-year-old man presented with progressive dyspnea and a non-productive cough several years old. In chest X-ray, pleural plaques are seen in the mediastinal and diaphragmatic pleura. On CT, these plaques are confirmed, also appreciating the presence of reticulonodulillar involvement predominantly in lower fields. Among the following, what attitude would you recommend in the first place? \n Options: <1> Complete your smoking history. <2> Inquire about occupational exposure. <3> Request blood tests to rule out eosinophilia. <4> Do complete respiratory functional tests. <5> Propose a transbronchial biopsy.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fbf3d35b47174b2785fc47abae5c6abc", "input": "Question: The practice of posteroanterior chest x-ray in forced expiration is very useful for the diagnosis of: \n Options: <1> Loculated pleural effusion. <2> Pneumothorax minimum. <3> Hemothorax <4> Pulmonary atelectasis. <5> Pericarditis", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8bca8f3418904dc39040e624e4fbdb0b", "input": "Question: A 38-year-old man went to the emergency room for progressive dyspnea and dry cough of a week of evolution. He does not have a history of interest. The vital signs are: temperature 37.8\u00baC, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 105 bpm and respiratory rate 30 rpm. In the respiratory exploration, percussion dullness, diminution of tactile (vocal) thrill, and diminution of respiratory noises at the base of the right hemithorax stand out. The rest of the physical examination is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Pleural effusion <2> Lobar pneumonia <3> Acute bronchitis. <4> Pulmonary tuberculosis <5> Pneumothorax.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-76ce5a3a80134cbabe8a6188147f4372", "input": "Question: A 68-year-old patient has a tumor mass diagnosed of small cell lung carcinoma in the right main bronchus at 1 cm from the tracheal carina. Mediastinoscopy shows contralateral adenopathies that are positive. The recommended treatment would be: \n Options: <1> Chemotherapy with right pneumonectomy. <2> Surgery and subsequent radiotherapy of all affected ganglion chains. <3> Right pneumonectomy and posterior chemotherapy. <4> Chemotherapy and radiotherapy. <5> Radiotherapy.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-86ebc46926574f54af3c6b635061cb21", "input": "Question: A patient reporting chest and cervicobrachial pain. Physical examination reveals miosis and unilateral enophthalmos. Chest X-ray shows opacity at the apex and erosion of the first ribs. What is your diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Pancoast tumor. <2> Mediastinal tumor. <3> Localized pleural mesothelioma. <4> Bronchioloalveolar tumor. <5> Small cell lung cancer with brain metastases.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4bbb5eec08f4472fb21f5a7a1dab4c71", "input": "Question: A 24-year-old woman with two weekly episodes of headache lasting between one and three days, hemicranial, intense, accompanied by sono and photophobia and nausea. As a preventive treatment, I would NOT consider one of these drugs: \n Options: <1> Propranolol <2> Flunarizine <3> Carbamazepine <4> Topiramate. <5> Nadolol", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-06dbd552770242ddb66ec0a8a90a6248", "input": "Question: A 30-year-old woman, previously healthy, presents a picture of right facial weakness in the course of about 20 hours, so she can not close her right eye and her mouth has been twisted. Refers to see double with the right lateral gaze. Which of the following diagnostic possibilities seems most likely? \n Options: <1> Bell's palsy <2> Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (herpetic facial paralysis). <3> Sarcoidosis <4> Left sylvian infarction with involvement of the rolandic operculum. <5> Protuberant involvement due to an outbreak of multiple sclerosis.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7271171ff38144d6a0fde53ed5a7b288", "input": "Question: 50-year-old man, mechanic, consulted for a two-year evolution of difficulty in handling the right hand and a feeling of stiffness in the arm. His wife notices his expressionless face and reports that he has very vivid nightmares that wake him up agitated. During the examination, rigidity was observed in the right limbs and slow walking without right arm. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Left thalamic lacunar infarct. <2> Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis. <3> Parkinson's disease <4> Cervical plexopathy <5> Corticobasal degeneration.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-45d6d07b51b24783adc1550d18c71685", "input": "Question: A 7-year-old boy presents a subacute picture of cerebellar ataxia and intracranial hypertension. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrates an expansive lesion in the cerebellar v\u00e9rmix that captures contrast and obstructs the fourth ventricle. The most likely diagnosis is: \n Options: <1> Meningioma <2> Cerebellar metastasis. <3> Glioblastoma multiforme. <4> Medulloblastoma <5> Lymphoma", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0f990ad11cf5435a885c98075906fb76", "input": "Question: Patient of 70 years with the only antecedent of being ex-alcoholic for 3 years and diagnosed with atrophic gastritis. Consultation for a 4-month evolution that began with distal and symmetrical paresthesias in the lower limbs and progressively added gait difficulty, this being impossible without help, and confusional episodes of paroxysmal presentation. On neurological examination, the cranial nerves are normal, have a slight bradypsychia, failures in deep sensation in four limbs, pseudo-dystonic attitude in the upper limbs, finger-nose dysmetria and bilateral knee heel with closed eyes, extenuated osteotendinous reflexes, bilateral Babinski and distal paresis in upper limbs. Point out the correct answer: \n Options: <1> Perform a blood count and determination of B12 when funicular myelosis is suspected. <2> Perform an MRI looking for atrophy of vermis and cerebellar foliae before the high suspicion of alcoholic cerebellar degeneration. <3> Initially, 100 mg of intravenous thiamine should be administered because of suspicion of Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy. <4> The first thing to do would be a determination of natremia to rule out a central pontine myelinolysis. <5> Perform an electromyographic study when there is a high suspicion of primary lateral sclerosis.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d07209f105e4f18ada98c9430bf0219", "input": "Question: A 52-year-old male presents with acute form a confusional syndrome, paresis of both external ocular rectus muscles and gait ataxia. \n Options: <1> Hyperglycemic encephalopathy. <2> Korsakoff encephalopathy. <3> Cerebellar infarction. <4> Administer thiamin immediately. <5> Lead poisoning.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1573b9fe5e2f452592cd799c21082ca4", "input": "Question: A 24-year-old student who, after three weeks of a cold in the upper respiratory tract, visited the doctor for a sensation of numbness in his hands and loss of limb strength in recent days. The picture was preceded by low back pain. In the exploration, it stands out, decrease of asymmetric muscular force in upper and lower extremities, loss of osteotendinous reflexes. In this patient the most likely diagnosis is: \n Options: <1> Myasthenia gravis. <2> First outbreak of multiple sclerosis. <3> Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy. <4> Dermatomyositis <5> Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dada4ee65ec34d8da31d4e78e6070ea9", "input": "Question: A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes of 20 years of evolution, hypertension and prostatism in treatment, consulted for repeated episodes of syncope. The episodes have occurred while standing, after meals and have been preceded by an oppressive pain in the nape, neck and shoulder girdle. Which of these complementary tests is essential? \n Options: <1> Brain and cervical MRI. <2> Angio-MR of the supra-aortic trunks. <3> Nuclear medicine study of cerebral dopamine transporter (SPECT with ioflupane). <4> Measurement of blood pressure in decubitus and standing. <5> 24-hour Holter record of the electrocardiogram.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ef111797bc3546b0a80db7d6aba9a3d6", "input": "Question: Which of the following symptoms is NOT present in the Wallemberg syndrome, usually produced by ischemia of the dorsal-lateral region of the bulb? \n Options: <1> Diffuse <2> Dysphagia <3> Piramidalism <4> Ataxia. <5> Horner syndrome.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-961f28522c744a6aab26c6bd27e27e24", "input": "Question: In relation to Hereditary Spherocytosis it is true that: \n Options: <1> It is a congenital hemolytic anemia of inheritance linked to the X chromosome that causes severe anemia. <2> It is characterized by a decrease in osmotic fragility. <3> It manifests as episodes of acute medication anemia. <4> Splenectomy is the treatment of choice when it is symptomatic. <5> It is rarely associated with cholelithiasis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6392f8906895454383a8c3cf8cb03c98", "input": "Question: A 45-year-old patient who went to the emergency room for general malaise, headache and progressive tiredness in recent weeks. On physical examination, a slight icteric dye of the skin and mucous membranes was detected and a 2-cm splenomegaly was felt under the costal margin. The analytical presents hemoglobin 8.6 g / dL, VCM 100 fL. The number of reticulocytes is high and anisopoikilocytosis is observed in the blood smear. In the biochemistry highlights LDH 1300 IU / L, bilirubin 2.2 mg / dL and undetectable haptoglobin. Which test is the most appropriate to guide the diagnosis of the patient? \n Options: <1> Fecal occult blood test. <2> Test of Coombs. <3> Determination of iron, cobalamin and folic acid. <4> Abdominal ultrasound. <5> Bone marrow aspirate.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-275368fe8c72447685e052786d963677", "input": "Question: 35-year-old woman on hormonal treatment for infertility. He went to the emergency department due to constitutional syndrome and paresthesias in the left side of the body. In blood tests, Hb 7.5 g / dL, reticulocytes 10% (0.52%), platelets 5,000 / uL, normal leukocytes, LDH 1,200 IU / L, direct negative Coombs test, undetectable haptoglobin are detected. Morphology of peripheral blood with abundant schistocytes. Normal coagulation tests. What is the diagnostic suspicion and the most appropriate treatment? \n Options: <1> Autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Start steroids. <2> Von Willebrand disease. Administration of desmopressin. <3> Thrombocytopenic purpura. Start steroids and platelet transfusion. <4> Evans syndrome. Start steroids. <5> Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. Treatment with plasmapheresis.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5c925e72d8de4eb4ac2b5b05f5816945", "input": "Question: A 70-year-old man should undergo cataract extraction surgery. He has a mitral mechanical prosthesis for 10 years and is being treated with acenocoumarol. The electrocardiogram shows a sinus rhythm. Which of the following recommendations do you find most appropriate? \n Options: <1> Perform eye surgery without stopping acenocoumarol. <2> Suspend acenocoumarol 5 days before surgery and restart it the day after it. <3> Suspend acenocoumarol 5 days before surgery, start low molecular weight heparin 3 days before surgery and suspend it 24 hours before surgery. <4> Suspend acenocoumarol 1 day before the intervention and use fresh frozen plasma during it. <5> Suspend acenocoumarol 1 day before the intervention and give vitamin K just before it.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-eddcafb325864dcd9ab962bf6704baad", "input": "Question: A 29-year-old woman with a history of abundant rules and long-standing iron-deficiency anemia who have required treatment with ferrotherapy since she was 17 years old. Consult because after a tooth extraction you have hemorrhage that has required local hemostatic treatment. He relates that a maternal aunt presents frequent epistaxis. In analytical presents: 8000 leukocytes / uL, Hb 10.7 g / dL, VCM 76 fL, 380,000 platelets / uL; the biochemistry is normal. Prothrombin activity 90%; INR 0.9; Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) 48 sec (39 sec) with an APTT ratio of 1.3 and fibrinogen derivative 340 mg / dL. What is the most likely diagnostic suspicion and how would it confirm it? \n Options: <1> Hemophilia A and mixtures test. <2> Lupus anticoagulant and ANAS study. <3> Sideroblastic anemia and spinal aspiration. <4> Congenital thrombocytopathy and study of platelet aggregation. <5> Von Willebrand disease and determination of factor vW.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7d6016ca151d443383620f0e5d2894e4", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to multiple myeloma? \n Options: <1> The cytogenetics and serum levels of albumin and beta2-microglobulin are important data for the prognosis. <2> Bortezomib, thalidomide, lenalidomide and polychemotherapy are very useful therapeutic tools. <3> Autogenic transplantation of hematopoietic progenitors provides a long progression-free survival. <4> Allogeneic transplantation should be considered an experimental procedure (of unproven efficacy). <5> Radiation therapy has no role in the treatment of the disease or its complications.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1b8873fd1f73448fab35b0109935441f", "input": "Question: Patient of 74 years of age, asymptomatic, who in a routine analysis presents platelets 40,000 platelets / \u03bcL, the remainder being the normal blood cell count and the complete normal biochemistry. Point out the correct answer: \n Options: <1> The most likely diagnosis is an Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura and steroid treatment should be started as soon as possible. <2> It is a serious thrombocytopenia with a high risk of spontaneous bleeding. <3> A peripheral blood smear should be performed to rule out pseudotrombocytopenia or spurious thrombocytopenia before further measurements are made. <4> The most probable diagnosis is that of a myelodysplastic syndrome, so the initial test to be performed would be a bone marrow study. <5> An initial study should be performed with viral serologies, autoimmunity study and abdominal ultrasound. If all these tests were normal, the study should be completed with a peripheral blood smear.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3e9146133f884f948a6591530bd74a75", "input": "Question: Pruritus is a typical manifestation of all the following diseases, except: \n Options: <1> Hodgkin lymphoma. <2> Polycythemia vera. <3> Mycosis fungoides <4> Systemic mastocytosis. <5> Acute myeloblastic leukemia.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ef6824431b6a485bb23c4ee9c1aa25d5", "input": "Question: A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for pulmonary embolism confirmed by angio-CT. He has no history of recent surgery, trauma or travel. He refers to Raynaud's phenomenon for 2 years, and the previous year he had an abortion at 12 weeks of gestation. He has no family history of venous thromboembolic disease. The activated partial thromboplastin time is 56 sg (normal 25-35 sg) and the platelet count is 120000 / uL. Which of the following diagnostic tests would help you most in the diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Antithrombin III. <2> Lupus anticoagulant. <3> Factor V of Leiden. <4> Protein C. <5> Protein S.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ba5f99faac994f9dac347b5fc7b5599d", "input": "Question: Patient with diabetes mellitus, weight loss, anemia and necrolytic migraine erythema. The most likely diagnosis is: \n Options: <1> Somatostatinoma. <2> Insulinoma <3> Vipoma <4> Gastrinoma <5> Glucagonoma", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6baaf96949034bf39679d091b4d27919", "input": "Question: A 78-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis 5 years ago, high blood pressure, depression and generalized anxiety. Take hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, citalopram and aspirin. Live alone in sheltered apartments. Eat little, typically coffee and toast for breakfast, fruit and half a sandwich to eat and salad for dinner. Walk 1.5 km daily. It measures 152 cm and weighs 39 Kg. The blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and the heart rate is 82 bpm. Laboratory tests included basal glycemia of 147 mg / dL (1 month ago it was 152 mg / dL), creatinine 1.0 mg / dL (estimated glomerular filtration rate 28 ml / min), urea 32 mg / dL and glycosylated hemoglobin 9 ,5%. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for diabetes? \n Options: <1> Insulin glargine subcutaneous 8 U per day. <2> Oral metformin at a dose of 850 mg every 12 hours. <3> Oral Glibenclamide 10 mg daily. <4> It does not need pharmacological treatment, only diet. <5> Pioglitazone 15 mg daily.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-49de874e2ba1427badac73deb6dedc6c", "input": "Question: Metformin is recommended as initial treatment in most consensus of treatment of type 2 diabetes, for efficacy, safety and price; However, its use has some limitations and it is obligatory to suspend it in some clinical situations. In which of the following situations would you NOT consider stopping this treatment? \n Options: <1> Introduction of long-acting insulin analogue due to poor metabolic control. <2> Alcohol intake greater than 50 g / day as usual. <3> CT scan with intravenous contrast. <4> Diarrheic picture with elevated plasma Cr at 2.5 mg / dL. <5> Acute ischemia of the lower extremities with significant tissue hypoxia.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-119bee36b66b411f8d10978df678327a", "input": "Question: In relation to the risk factors of cardiovascular diseases, which of the following statements is NOT correct? \n Options: <1> Regarding LDL cholesterol, the therapeutic objective depends on the global cardiovascular risk. <2> Type 2 diabetic patients should be considered at high cardiovascular risk and the objective in terms of LDL cholesterol should be <100 mg / dL. <3> There is not enough evidence that low levels of HDL cholesterol suppose a cardiovascular risk factor. <4> The important thing about the risk associated with hypertension is that it improves when blood pressure is reduced regardless of the type of drug used. <5> The existence of coronary disease in the family is a risk factor for the patient.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7ceec342a475462b8388adc14f04fdcc", "input": "Question: A 24-year-old man with hypogonadism of hypothalamic origin secondary to operated craniopharyngioma, undergoing intramuscular treatment with testosterone undecanoate every 12 weeks, which is referred to us from another center for follow-up. The patient interrogates us in the initial visit about the follow-up of his basic pathology, possible adverse events of the hormonal treatment and probabilities of having offspring in the future. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? \n Options: <1> Serum testosterone levels should be measured just before each subsequent injection. <2> The goal of treatment is to maintain serum testosterone concentrations in the normal range of normality. <3> It is indicated to check the hematocrit on an annual basis. <4> Treatment with intramuscular testosterone for a prolonged period will increase the chances of conception with your partner. <5> The treatment with testosterone does not require the monitoring of luteinizing hormone concentrations.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2355b97c196b4d28b5b0ecfecc101e9d", "input": "Question: A 25-year-old man with no personal or family history of interest, who enters Neurosurgery due to a cranial fracture due to a motorcycle accident. Three days later it begins abruptly with polyuria, polydipsia and intense thirst both during the day and at night. In the study conducted, a urinary volume of 7 liters with urinary osmolarity of 190 mOsm / L (90-1200) and plasma osmolarity of 292 mOsm / L (275-295) was observed. The plasma Na is 143 mmol / L. A water restriction test is performed and after checking that there is no increase in urinary osmolarity, a dose of 2 micrograms of desmopressin subcutaneously is administered. The posterior urinary osmolality is 410 mOsm / kg. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Primary polydipsia. <2> Central diabetes insipidus. <3> Acute adrenal insufficiency. <4> SIADH. <5> Nephrogenic insipid diabetes.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c4e3d505dd00410f8b5dcce8e90430ac", "input": "Question: Of the following statements, one is NOT a trigger for abdominopsychoneurological crises in acute porphyria. Indicate which: \n Options: <1> The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. <2> The enzymatic hepatic inducer drugs. <3> The infections <4> A restrictive diet in proteins. <5> The protease inhibitors used in HIV infection.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f7f9824c64cf4b359a6f59366b9f0634", "input": "Question: The gluten-free diet is the cornerstone in the treatment of celiac disease. In this regard, there are numerous products manufactured with an uncertain composition in terms of gluten, often being misleading labeling. Of the following food groups, which one can we consider completely safe in the diet of a celiac patient? \n Options: <1> Canned meat: Hamburgers, meatballs. <2> Milk and derivatives: yogurt, cheese, cream, curd. <3> Sauces, condiments and food additives. <4> Integral pasta: noodles, macaroni, noodles. <5> Delicatessen products, sausages, p\u00e2t\u00e9s.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a53e03cde8884bb8acfdba737ce33079", "input": "Question: Regarding the loss of bone mass in patients treated with glucocorticoids, what statement do you consider correct? \n Options: <1> If the dose of prednisone received by the patient is less than 15 mg per day, for a time less than 6 months, it is not a real problem and no preventive measure should be taken. <2> Thiazides have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, both in the hip and in the spine, in patients treated with glucocorticoids. Therefore, its use should be recommended in these patients as a preventive measure. <3> It is recommended to perform a bone densitometry after the first year of treatment with glucocorticoids, since before there is no loss of bone mass. <4> All patients treated with glucocorticoids should receive an adequate supply of calcium and vitamin D, which can come from the diet or from pharmacological supplements. <5> The loss of bone mass is observed, especially in the hip, so the densitometry of the spine has no use in its assessment.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-95e45c9d48f948a9ac6b7dcc60f9a22b", "input": "Question: A 33-year-old woman with a loss of 6 kg in the last 4 months, asthenia and anorexia. Amenorrhea for 2 months. The hormonal results indicate a basal cortisol serum concentration of 108 nmol / l (baseline normal value 115-550) and 123 nmol / l after stimulation with ACTH. The baseline plasma concentration of ACTH is 48 pmol / l (normal value: 2-12). What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Primary adrenal insufficiency. <2> Secondary adrenal insufficiency. <3> Tertiary adrenal insufficiency due to hypothalamic lesion. <4> ACTH-producing pituitary tumor (corticotropinoma). <5> More tests should be done since the diagnosis is inconclusive.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-00a861170db34b8dbc61db17dec09096", "input": "Question: Which of the following clinical pictures is compatible with the diagnosis of subacute thyroiditis? \n Options: <1> A 38-year-old woman with a 2-week history of thyroid pain, elevated T4 and T3, low TSH, and increased technetium uptake on the scan. <2> A 42-year-old man with a history of pain in the thyroid gland 4 months ago, fatigue, general malaise, low concentrations of free T4 and high TSH levels. <3> A 31-year-old woman with enlarged thyroid gland, painless on palpation, low TSH, high free T4 and T3, and increased technetium uptake on scintigraphy. <4> A 30-year-old woman under treatment with oral contraceptives, with discomfort in the neck and palpable thyroid nodule that behaves as a solid on ultrasound. Increase in total T4 with normal TSH. <5> A 46-year-old man who consulted due to fatigue during the last 3 months. In the analytical, low concentrations of free T4 and T3 and TSH were observed.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2b8c8b8ed4f1471db9a438b9c1da2295", "input": "Question: Which statement regarding the substitution treatment with L-thyroxine in a patient with hypothyroidism is correct? \n Options: <1> Thyroid function will be determined 48 hours after its initiation to assess efficacy. <2> In elderly patients and in order to improve symptomatology quickly, treatment with L-T4 is started at a dose of 150-200 micrograms per day. <3> In pregnancy, thyroid hormone requirements usually increase by about 50 micrograms per day, over the previous dose. <4> The medication should be taken in the middle of meals. <5> It is advisable to administer a gastric protector simultaneously to avoid gastritis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-74e796b7444c402eaf533322594e957f", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT in relation to the alterations of the acid-base balance? \n Options: <1> The arterial pH is regulated by the Henderson-Hasselbach equation and is 7.35-7.45. <2> Hypercapnia (increase in PaCO2) is a consequence of the increase in CO2 production. <3> Metabolic acidosis occurs due to increased endogenous acid production, acid accumulation and / or loss of bicarbonates. <4> In patients with lactic acidosis it is common to find an anion gap or difference greater than 12 mmol / L. <5> The use of alkalizing solutions should be reserved for cases of severe acidemia with ph <7.20.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c16f55d700a44d9eb65f87f08e2c4253", "input": "Question: A 47-year-old man consulted for edema in lower limbs of 3 weeks of evolution. In blood analysis, creatinine 1.3 mg / dL, total cholesterol 270 mg / dL and albumin 2.4 g / dL. In the urine sediment, it presents 15-20 red cells per field and in urine of 24 hours proteinuria is detected 3.7 g / day. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Minimal change disease. <2> Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis. <3> Membranous nephropathy <4> Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type I. <5> Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3bcc0150e5a94eca8b6d059268870fcb", "input": "Question: A 68-year-old woman diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. Treatment with Isoniacid, Rifampicin and Ethambutol was started. At 12 days after the start of treatment, he consulted for fever of 38\u00baC, skin rash, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia, lumbar pain, oliguria and eosinophilia with acute deterioration of renal function. The urine test revealed hematuria, leukocyturia with eosinophiluria in Wright's stain and non-nephrotic proteinuria (1.2 grams daily). With these clinical data the most likely diagnosis is: \n Options: <1> Acute tubular necrosis due to drug nephrotoxicity. <2> Acute tubular necrosis of ischemic etiology. <3> Ateroembolic disease. <4> Thrombotic occlusion of the main renal artery. <5> Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1c4d8097df1f46858bae6bb618757e34", "input": "Question: In which of the following types of glomerulonephritis is there a greater indication of IECAS or ARA-II as antiproteinuric therapy? \n Options: <1> Segmental and focal glomerulosclerosis secondary to hyperfiltration. <2> Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis. <3> Extracapillary glomerulonephritis. <4> Glomerulonephritis due to minimal changes. <5> Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c9d2241d9bf04e6cb0e990d3b534db0c", "input": "Question: Which of the following clinical situations carries a greater risk of progression of chronic kidney disease and would require more strict control by the nephrologist? \n Options: <1> Diabetic patient with a glomerular filtration rate of 46 mL / min and a urine albumin / creatinine ratio of 25 mg / g. <2> Diabetic patient with a glomerular filtration rate of 89 mL / min and urine albumin / creatinine ratio of 475 mg / g. <3> Hypertensive patient with glomerular filtration rate of 65 mL / min and urine albumin / creatinine ratio of 150 mg / g. <4> A 70-year-old hypertensive patient with 1 simple cyst in each kidney, a glomerular filtration rate of 35 mL / min and an albumin / creatinine ratio in urine of 10 mg / g. <5> An 87-year-old hypertensive patient with a glomerular filtration rate of 30 mL / min and a urine albumin / creatinine ratio of 5 mg / g.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-11d999ba1ffb4da5ac925ae4a0f24d93", "input": "Question: Chronic interstitial nephropathies affect the tubular structures and the renal interstitium. If we analyze the functional defects that these pathologies can produce, we will NOT wait to find: \n Options: <1> Isostenuria. <2> Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. <3> Tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis in the renal histological study. <4> Normal or little expressive urinary sediment. <5> Proteinuria of less than 2 grams per day.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6bbc4b243be448b989b79d17442fad28", "input": "Question: 18-year-old girl who came to the Hospital for edema in lower limbs of 1 week of evolution, highlighting in the laboratory a proteinuria in the nephrotic range with hypoproteinemia and hypoalbuminemia. In the anamnesis he refers to recurrent oral aphthae, arthritis of small joints of the hands, malar rash and photosensitivity. In the etiological study, the presence of ANA and antiDNA with hypocomplementemia stands out. The determination of ANCA is negative. A renal biopsy is performed in which we could find any of these types of glomerulonephritis, EXCEPT: \n Options: <1> Mesangial GNF. <2> Necrotizing GNF paucinmune. <3> Focal proliferative GNF. <4> Diffuse proliferative GNF. <5> Membranous GNF.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-88bd09cc92b04913a1354838864d3a15", "input": "Question: Which of the following combinations of drugs is commonly used in the maintenance treatment of patients with a kidney transplant? \n Options: <1> Tacrolimus, cyclosporine and mycophenolate mofetil. <2> Tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and glucocorticoids. <3> Tacrolimus, sirolimus and mycophenolate mofetil. <4> Tacrolimus, azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil. <5> Cyclosporine, azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ba85ba1161624215917c5fb1280e4149", "input": "Question: A 78-year-old man who underwent cardiac catheterization with revascularization of the right coronary artery 3 weeks ago and consulted for nausea and vomiting of 3 days of evolution. It presents arterial pressure of 185/85 mm Hg and purple lesions on the toes of both feet. In the analytical, urea 230 mg / dL and creatinine 5.8 mg / dL were observed. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Malignant arterial hypertension. <2> Acute tubular necrosis by contrast. <3> Rapidly progressive renal failure. <4> Renal atheroembolic disease. <5> Bilateral renal artery stenosis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e90d0f327b7640f8ad17833ae5454c3f", "input": "Question: A 65-year-old man with no medical history of interest who consulted for fine micturition, incomplete emptying, diurnal urinary frequency every 3 hours and nocturia 1-2 times. Rectal examination reveals a medium-large prostate without nodules. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) 0.5 ng / mL. It provides reno-vesico-prostatic ultrasound that indicates a prostatic volume of 35 g, with absence of postvoid residual and without other evaluable alterations. What will be our attitude towards this patient? \n Options: <1> Offer radical prostatectomy as a treatment for your prostate cancer. <2> Request scintigraphic study to rule out the presence of bone and visceral metastases secondary to prostate cancer. <3> Start treatment with androgen blockade with LHRH analogs given the demonstrated efficacy of this drug in the treatment of patients with BPH. <4> Indicate surgical desobstructive treatment (transurethral resection of the prostate) as the treatment of choice for prostate hyperplasia. <5> Consider treatment with alpha-blockers as an initial treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f6d3daf3de8647e180ab5a4c4cb367d3", "input": "Question: A 31-year-old woman with a history of nephritic colic 4 years ago consulted in the emergency department for left lumbar pain of colic characteristics for 3 days with the appearance of fever during the last 12 hours. The presence of 15,000 leukocytes / uL, 85% neutrophils, creatinine 0.8 mg / dL and PCR 20 mg / dL stand out in the blood analysis. The urine sediment reports countless leukocytes / field. Which of the following statements is true? \n Options: <1> Since it is an uncomplicated urinary tract infection, we must treat it with oral antibiotherapy and evolutionary control. <2> It is advisable to perform an urgent imaging study to rule out obstruction of the upper urinary tract that requires drainage. <3> This patient has a complicated urinary tract infection and it is most likely that the causative agent is S. aureus. <4> It is best to start treatment with fluconazole and control it in the outpatient clinic in 1 week. <5> The patient has acute pyelonephritis and the optimal treatment is the combination of bladder catheterization with intravenous antibiotic therapy.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2222a82b5c534b39a49bc49fcaae27c1", "input": "Question: Which of the following drugs would indicate as first-line treatment in a 53-year-old patient diagnosed with metastatic clear cell renal cancer? \n Options: <1> Sunitinib. <2> Cetuximab. <3> Fluoropyrimidine <4> Panitumumab. <5> Bleomycin.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1cf04ffa45dc44b7bf11be282bf9568c", "input": "Question: 78-year-old man with poorly controlled rheumatoid arthritis (RA). A history of 2 admissions for heart failure and atrial fibrillation in the last 6 months. In current treatment with infliximab, prednisone, furosemide, enalapril, carvedilol and acenocoumarol. Enter again for biventricular heart failure clinic. The ECG showed atrial fibrillation at 102 bpm and advanced left bundle branch block. An echocardiogram shows biatrial dilation, thickening of the left ventricular wall with ejection fraction of 45% and restrictive pattern. The analytical highlights: Hb 10 gr / dL, creatinine 2.1 mg / dL (FG 20 mL / min), CRP 124 mg / L, rheumatoid factor 240 U / L, BNP 980 ng / L, proteinuria 4.8 g / 24h. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Cardio-renal syndrome type 2. <2> Amyloidosis AA. <3> Myocarditis of giant cells. <4> Toxicity due to infliximab. <5> Membranous glomerulonephritis associated with RA.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-731aa8bfd471425d87b73921eda8bd4c", "input": "Question: A 40-year-old man goes to the emergency department for inflammation of the right knee of about 24 hours of evolution. The patient does not report previous trauma and is the first episode of arthritis that presents. A the anamnesis directed that 4 weeks ago he returned from a trip to Morocco and that being there he presented chills and diarrhea that subsided after a week. The examination also revealed inflammation of the right Achilles tendon. What is the attitude to follow? \n Options: <1> It is a spondyloarthropathy, start treatment with methotrexate. <2> Immobilize the knee with a bandage for 15 days and give non-steroidal anti-inflammatories. <3> Practice an arthrocentesis to perform culture, analysis of microcrystals and cellular counting of the synovial fluid. <4> Perform an arthroscopy. <5> It is a gouty arthritis, I would start treatment with allopurinol.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2dc3d6f93e744a0296712878cd6d5675", "input": "Question: A 36-year-old woman diagnosed with systemic scleroderma diffuse form 2 years ago, is treated with 30 mg of prednisone in her health center for an eye problem. The patient consulted for headache and the clinical examination revealed high blood pressure and a deterioration in kidney function that was not known. The patient is referred to the emergency department with the suspicion of a sclerodermal renal crisis. Indicate which of the following statements is correct: \n Options: <1> The sclerodermal renal crisis is more frequent in the limited form of scleroderma. <2> The use of steroids at moderate doses can precipitate its appearance. <3> The diagnosis requires a renal biopsy. <4> Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are routinely used to prevent its occurrence. <5> The treatment of choice would be a dihydropyridine calcium antagonist.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3127623ddc044967acab19b4e24e2dcd", "input": "Question: Which of the following is NOT considered a classification criterion for systemic lupus erythematosus? \n Options: <1> Cutaneous vasculitis <2> Photosensitivity <3> Hemolytic anemia. <4> Pericarditis <5> High concentration of antinuclear antibodies.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-847669aef3a2471cabb5814024913d4b", "input": "Question: In relation to osteoarthritis, what statement is correct? \n Options: <1> There is a close correlation between the radiological findings and the symptomatology of the patients. <2> The symptomatic involvement of the hip is much more frequent than the involvement of the knee. <3> Obesity has not been shown to be a risk factor for its development. <4> The presence of a high sedimentation rate strongly supports the diagnosis. <5> Morning stiffness usually lasts less than 30 minutes.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6ec2e33cf2db43f9836a35fd1f9b8405", "input": "Question: A 35-year-old woman consulted for the appearance of maculo-papular lesions in the upper limbs without other symptoms. The biopsy of one of them demonstrates the presence of noncaseating granulomas. Blood tests are normal except for an elevation of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) levels. On chest radiography, bilateral hilar adenopathies are detected. Which of the following considers the most appropriate attitude? \n Options: <1> Start treatment with corticosteroids orally. <2> Start treatment with oral hydroxychloroquine. <3> Start treatment with azathioprine orally. <4> Start treatment with leflunomide orally. <5> Continue study without starting treatment.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fb609168122a46b7974e6343e1484e25", "input": "Question: Which of the following traumatic injuries requires, in order to avoid local complications, an earlier treatment? \n Options: <1> Posterior traumatic luxation of the hip. <2> Displaced fracture of the femoral neck of the elderly. <3> Trochanteric fracture of the elderly. <4> Cup fracture. <5> Subtrochanteric fracture.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cf7be577edfa44ff91f58b653daab12e", "input": "Question: The most frequent complication of astragalus neck fractures is: \n Options: <1> Reflex algodystrophy. <2> Vicious consolidation <3> Pseudoarthrosis <4> Osteonecrosis. <5> Neurological injury of the posterior tibial.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-858155d23aec4a7aa0ac91b9dea0ea18", "input": "Question: In a 14-year-old patient with Down syndrome who presents with nucalgia (normal neurological examination) and is going to be subjected to general anesthesia (orotracheal intubation) for elective abdominal surgery, the following should be ruled out: \n Options: <1> Atloaxoid instability. <2> Tracheoesophageal fistulas. <3> Brain tumor. <4> Vocal cord hyperplasia. <5> Hydrocephalus", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f077415b1cea4481a127613ce2860554", "input": "Question: A 23-year-old boy, who makes a jump while playing basketball, falls on his right lower limb with his knee in hyperextension, applying a sharp turn to his knee while keeping his foot fixed on the ground. The patient, perceives a snap and sharp pain in his knee, unable to continue playing. Note feeling of instability when performing the support of said extremity. On clinical examination, intense articular effusion is seen, so arthrocentesis is performed, which shows an important acute hemarthrosis without the presence of droplets of fat supernatanting in the extracted fluid. The mobility of the knee is free and the Lachman maneuver is positive. What is the diagnostic suspicion? \n Options: <1> Break in cube handle of the inner meniscus. <2> Isolated rupture of the lateral collateral ligament. <3> Fracture by tearing of the anterior tibial spine. <4> Unicondylar fracture of the medial condyle. <5> Rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-50d7ce1e1958474e974081dfa7631f6d", "input": "Question: A 20-year-old boy goes to the emergency room for fever of 39\u00baC, chills, papules and hemorrhagic pustules on the distal extensor surfaces of the extremities and arthritis of the knee. What is your diagnosis of initial suspicion? \n Options: <1> Rheumatoid arthritis. <2> Reiter syndrome. <3> Urica Drop <4> Gonococcal arthritis. <5> Vasculitis of Cogan.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e46abb237fe14b1480e0d1f5b85531f8", "input": "Question: Which of the following species of Candida spp, is usually resistant or at least have a decreased sensitivity to fluconazole? \n Options: <1> C. albicans. <2> C. tropicalis. <3> C. parapsilosis. <4> C. Krusei. <5> C. giliermondii.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-41854bba646a4c318de19265b0ff7c65", "input": "Question: A patient from Bolivia diagnosed with Chagas disease underwent a blood count that showed 1,100 eosinophils / \u03bcL (12% of leukocytes). Which of the following diagnoses is LESS likely? \n Options: <1> Infestation by Schistosoma haematobium. <2> Infestation by Ancylostoma duodenale. <3> Infestation by Strongyloides stercoralis. <4> Infestation by Ascaris lumbricoides. <5> Infestation by Necator americanus.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2071fa3626ea49bbb3bc07f773d84243", "input": "Question: A 60-year-old patient who came to the hospital's emergency department due to a left chest pain, cough and yellowish sputum, a temperature of 38.7\u00baC, a sensation of shortness of breath. Artificial saturation of 02 80%. Hemogram leukocytes 12000 / uL with 86% polymorphonuclear cells. Chest x-ray: alveolar infiltrate on the left base with air bronchogram. On suspicion of pneumonia, pneumococcal Ag is made in urine, which is positive and sputum culture is sent to the Microbiology service. Which empirical antibiotic treatment of the indicated ones is more correct in expectation of microbiological results? \n Options: <1> Ceftazidime <2> Clarithromycin <3> Azithromycin <4> Ceftriaxone <5> Doxycycline", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-540f8846624d4123a4c465440832cf06", "input": "Question: A 73-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room accompanied by the family due to a picture of chills and a productive cough of purulent mucus that lasted about 2 days; they also report a tendency to drowsiness with a decrease in oral intake to both liquids and solids. As background we report that the patient is diagnosed with hypertension, DM type 2 and incipient dementia. The physical examination highlights a thin patient, with discrete mucous dryness, sleepy but reactive to verbal commands. Meningism or motor or sensory focality is not objective. Temperature 35.9\u00baC. Heart rate 118 bpm, BP 84/50 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 rpm. O2 Saturation 93%. Cardiac tachyarrhythmic auscultation without murmurs. Respiratory auscultation with crackles in the right base. Point out the TRUE answer: \n Options: <1> Among the measures to be taken when sepsis is suspected, antibiotic therapy is administered in the 1st hour of arrival, although this attitude has not been correlated with a decrease in mortality. <2> The early administration of IV fluids is essential to maintain adequate tissue perfusion, the goal being to maintain an average blood pressure> 65 mmHg. <3> Among the complementary tests that are received we observed a lactate> 5.6 mmol / L; it must be taken into account but as long as hemodynamic stability is maintained we should not worry. <4> In fact, the diagnosis of sepsis is not correct since the absence of fever rules out it. <5> The patient presents hypotension despite intensive administration of intravenous fluid therapy; It is time to administer vasoactive drugs, with isoproterenol being the choice.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aed8e5ba86cb49c9b1def26a24edd81f", "input": "Question: The main indication for using 4 drugs in the initial treatment of tuberculosis is: \n Options: <1> Affectation of the central nervous system. <2> High prevalence of primary resistance to isoniazid. <3> Cavitated and extensive pulmonary tuberculosis with large bacillary load. <4> Disseminated tuberculosis associated with HIV infection. <5> Extrapulmonary tuberculosis in immunodepressed patients of any origin.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-202c58b189304fcf8bba6b316cbb0fe8", "input": "Question: Which of the following analytical determinations is less useful for decision making in the follow-up and control of an HIV-infected person? \n Options: <1> CD4 lymphocyte count in peripheral blood. <2> Quantification of immunoglobulin. <3> Measurement of viral load. <4> Studies of HIV resistance to antiretroviral drugs. <5> Analysis of the co-receptor tropism.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8e9c50c69f0641a7b293f7b4d8fdbe71", "input": "Question: The analysis of the data obtained from cases of Ebola virus disease in Guinea and Sierra Leone, allows us to affirm that: \n Options: <1> The mortality of the infection exceeds 85%. <2> The treatment is based on support measures (hydroelectrolitic replenishment i.v. and antibiotics). <3> More than half of the cases correspond to health personnel. <4> Gastrointestinal hemorrhage is a common cause of mortality. <5> Mortality is higher in adolescents.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a8a366cabac54006b227a3179846b09c", "input": "Question: A 40-year-old patient, classified as ASA I according to the scale of the American Society of Anesthesiologists, is undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis. The intervention takes place initially without complications, but fifty minutes into the procedure there is a significant increase in the levels of teleespiratory carbon dioxide (CO2), without altering the oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry or raising the ventilation pressures . What would be your diagnosis of presumption and your attitude to this finding? \n Options: <1> With these findings we must suspect the existence of subcutaneous emphysema, so we must explore the patient and request that the insufflation pressure of the pneumoperitoneum be reduced or even interrupted. <2> The most likely diagnosis is a pneumothorax secondary to carbon dioxide or capnothorax, so an urgent chest radiograph must be ordered and the insertion of a thoracic drain must be prepared. <3> The elevation of carbon dioxide levels is normal in the context of a laparoscopic intervention. The only attitude to take is to increase the minute volume in the anesthetic machine. <4> The placement of the orotracheal tube should be checked for the possibility that it has progressed and that we are facing an endobronchial intubation, which is relatively frequent in this surgery due to the elevation of the diaphragm secondary to the pneumoperitoneum. <5> Elevation of the teleespiratory carbon dioxide, without affecting ventilation pressures, is typical of massive pulmonary embolism. The intervention must be interrupted, ventilated with pure oxygen and prepare vasoactive drugs for the possible hemodynamic instability.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-32a74db149df4d27a77577db6749b577", "input": "Question: A patient comes to the clinic for general malaise and yellowing of the skin and his doctor suspects that it is a hepatitis A picture. Which of the following answers constitutes the most accurate and safest factor to determine the pre-test probability ( before carrying out any study) of what is said table? \n Options: <1> Intensity of jaundice. <2> Frequency of hepatitis A in the environment. <3> Days of duration of the painting. <4> Professional experience on jaundice pictures. <5> Previous illnesses of the patient.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-29f93c57add6404a885c71635ab17c2d", "input": "Question: JMC, a 14-year-old patient admitted to the Emergency Department. The attending physician considers a blood transfusion necessary. The parents of the patient express their refusal to be given blood, signing the corresponding document of refusal to transfusion. The doctor warns that if the transfusion is not carried out, his life is in danger. They insist on their refusal, the alleged reason for the rejection is basically religious. Which of the following options would be the most correct? \n Options: <1> Transfuse the patient. <2> Transfuse the patient, but only when he has lost consciousness. <3> Transfer the case to the healthcare ethics committee so that it adopts the decision. <4> Respect expressed preference and attend without transfusion <5> I would inform the judge and not administer any treatment until the latter indicated it.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-91f4c153ffdd4aada4939a31ff7b2d5c", "input": "Question: In the clinical interview: \n Options: <1> The doctor has to show friend before professional. <2> The doctor should avoid warning the patient of the time available to assist him. <3> The professional must verify that the patient has understood the information. <4> It is advisable to take long breaks to avoid fatiguing the patient. <5> The doctor, during the interview, must remain standing or placed behind the head of the bed.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c79e0e30e63748d1b680e52057c7074c", "input": "Question: A 24-year-old girl suffers a bicycle fall with trauma to the abdominal area with the handlebar. A few hours after the trauma begins with intense pain in the left hypochondrium, so he goes to consult an emergency service. Upon arrival the patient is pale and sweaty, the blood pressure figures are 82/54 mmHg and the heart rate is 120 beats per minute. What kind of shock is the most likely to suffer from this patient? \n Options: <1> Hypovolemic <2> Septic. <3> Cardiogenic <4> Anaphylactic. <5> Neurogenic", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-415459557e45425dafea9af9e7edef19", "input": "Question: Young person who goes to the emergency room for second degree flame burn of 10% of the body surface, affecting the right arm in an extensive and circular way. There is no arterial pulse in the hand measured by Doppler. What is the treatment of choice? \n Options: <1> Cures with occlusive silver sulfadiacin and evaluation of depth per week. <2> Lymphatic drainage and assess a vascular by-pass. <3> Escarotomy or emergency decompression incisions. <4> Expectant behavior <5> Amputation of the extremity.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-019c02255ddd44448fb06b92075d3557", "input": "Question: Enter in our plant from the Emergency Room to study an 80-year-old patient reporting weight loss and nonspecific central-abdominal discomfort, together with loss of appetite. The diagnostic process that we must develop during your admission will be guided by the following principles EXCEPT: \n Options: <1> All those tests that can bring light to the process suspected by the doctor covering the widest differential diagnosis from the beginning will be carried out. <2> The healthcare process will be adapted to the individual clinical context of the patient and it will be sought that the latter be a participant in the decisions regarding diagnosis and treatment. <3> It is important to think first of all in the most ordinary way, only later, once the most frequent entities are discarded with certainty, to consider the odd. <4> Some complementary tests may be redundant and may not add value to the diagnostic process, but at the cost of health. Thus, before two complementary tests of similar performance, it will always be decided by the most economical and least risky. <5> It is essential that the doctor does not add new discomforts with the practice of complementary explorations that are not strictly necessary.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-064919d4de964f00b5c63efc65616b6a", "input": "Question: A patient consulted for recent and progressive development of acropachies and general deterioration. The search for possible underlying neoplasia begins. Which of the following tumors is more likely to be diagnosed? \n Options: <1> Gastric adenocarcinoma. <2> Esophageal epidermoid. <3> Mediastinal thymoma. <4> Follicular thyroid. <5> Pleural mesothelioma.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9ab3100442c6416d909de561561ffba6", "input": "Question: The most frequent malignant tumor of the submaxillary gland is: \n Options: <1> Mucoepidermoid carcinoma. <2> Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma. <3> Lymphoma <4> Cylindroma or cystic adenoid carcinoma. <5> Papillomatous cystadedenolymphoma.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-678e2f9633ac498098dd8da2d1810bc6", "input": "Question: Faced with a patient with diffuse otitis externa, what is the initial treatment? \n Options: <1> Surgery. <2> Antibiotics plus analgesics, both intravenously. <3> Antibiotics and analgesics, both orally. <4> Cleaning of the external auditory canal, topical antibiotic therapy plus oral analgesics. <5> Topical antibiotics", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c9357b2c7602430bad7d525c83697aaa", "input": "Question: Within head and neck carcinomas, what type of tumor is most obviously related to the human papillomavirus? \n Options: <1> Squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx. <2> Squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx. <3> Squamous cell carcinoma of the hypopharynx. <4> Adenocarcinoma sinonasal. <5> Undifferentiated carcinoma of cavum.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-06fc4c2229b94ea184d9956252c4fde1", "input": "Question: A 1-year-old boy, who did not pass the tests of auditory screening at birth and who has auditory brainstem evoked potentials that determine bilateral mild-moderate hearing loss in the right ear and moderate-severe hearing loss in the left ear. What is the most correct attitude to follow at the present time? \n Options: <1> Perform an audiometry within 6 months to confirm the diagnosis. <2> Surgery to adapt a cochlear implant in the right ear. <3> Wait until 3 years to check if you develop the language. <4> Adaptation of bilateral hearing prosthesis and logopedic rehabilitation. <5> Surgery to adapt a cochlear implant in the left ear.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-433bd6cf923a442abf7cb3b45616e631", "input": "Question: A baby with 39\u00ba C of axillary temperature, edema of the left eyelid and rhinorrhea on the same side goes to the emergency room. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Pansinusitis <2> Left maxillary sinusitis. <3> Left ethmoid sinusitis. <4> Sphenoid sinusitis left. <5> Left frontal sinusitis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-15f189ade21e4ca090568ef1a0d7c8b6", "input": "Question: Which of the following skin diseases is associated with celiac disease? \n Options: <1> Atopic dermatitis. <2> Dermatitis herpetiformis <3> Molluscum contagiosum. <4> Annular granuloma. <5> Rosacea", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ebdeaf2cbd7b4856850dfa18a687b0b2", "input": "Question: The following entities may be accompanied by ocular inflammation (uveitis) except one. Indicate which: \n Options: <1> Sarcoidosis <2> Juvenile idiopathic arthritis. <3> Beh\u00e7et's disease. <4> Marfan's disease <5> Multiple sclerosis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-98133e98d5bc4b58a8f146f4e78721cf", "input": "Question: A 30-year-old woman who came to the emergency room due to loss of vision, pain, red eye and photophobia of OI of 5 days of evolution. In the differential diagnosis you must include all these pathologies EXCEPT one: \n Options: <1> Anterior uveitis. <2> Corneal ulcer. <3> Traumatic iritis <4> Sclerouveitis. <5> Serous central chorioretinopathy.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6a1de40753594aa99e22ab317ffcdf6a", "input": "Question: A 75-year-old man who reported decreased visual acuity in his right eye of two weeks of evolution. In the fundus examination, soft drusen and serous detachment at the level of the macula are seen. What treatment is currently the most indicated for this disease? \n Options: <1> Focal photocoagulation with laser. <2> Photodynamic therapy. <3> Intravitreal injections of anti-angiogenic drugs. <4> Posterior vitrectomy. <5> Observation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-11234a140e65477090632cc141391de2", "input": "Question: What analysis should be controlled in maintenance treatments with lithium salts? \n Options: <1> Hepatic enzymes. <2> Antinuclear antibodies. <3> Ferritin and sideremia. <4> Thyroid and renal function. <5> Tirocalcitonina.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4826e04bf5a74716a9d933d6a6d7cb9c", "input": "Question: Which of the following characteristics is NOT typical of the contents of obsessive ideas? \n Options: <1> Sexual thoughts <2> Phonemes <3> Need for symmetry. <4> Pathological doubt. <5> Pollution.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-33feab4c22074bf8b9e6cfacf84c760c", "input": "Question: Man of 42 years, married, with three children under age. No psychiatric history. After an ERE in the bank where he worked, he is finally fired and has been unemployed for 5 months. He does not find another work activity. He comes to consultation with the following clinical picture: general discouragement, lack of appetite, nervousness, insomnia, recurrent worries about his future and avoidance of socio-family activities. Which diagnostic option of the following is the most appropriate? \n Options: <1> Obsessive disorder <2> Adaptive disorder with anxious-depressive symptoms. <3> Social phobia. <4> Dysthymia <5> Anxiety with agoraphobia.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3ebf51c4d7144b3397e5312e44bd1737", "input": "Question: Stereotyping is called: \n Options: <1> Strange buccolingual gestures. <2> Repeated and unnecessary repetition of an act. <3> Very bulky movements that increase the expressiveness of the gestures. <4> Very intense psychotic agitations. <5> Apparent gestures accompanied by profanity.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b70f219ef337497b8232f8a7c7215c2e", "input": "Question: A 28-year-old man brought to the emergency room, on a Saturday morning, in a state of psychomotor agitation and delirious ideas. His companion reports previous abuse, by the patient, of cocaine. What sign / symptom would you NOT expect to find? \n Options: <1> Hypothermia. <2> Tachycardia. <3> Mydriasis. <4> Diaphoresis <5> Thoracic pain.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-72e9781ddbbc42d29fa7ccb1085f2df1", "input": "Question: In the course of a patient's interview, you realize that you are not understanding what the patient is saying. He decides to focus his attention on the discourse and realizes that he does not have a guiding idea even though specific fragments of it are understandable. This alteration of the thinking language, typical of schizophrenia on the other hand, is what in psychopathology is known as: \n Options: <1> Dissociation of thought. <2> Fugue of ideas. <3> Persistent language. <4> Disorganization of thought. <5> Blocking of thought.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7888d5a7bf8c4e2081209fc4cb6ab527", "input": "Question: A 28-year-old violinist who is consulting for having presented panic attacks during his public performances in the last 3 months. The crises are accompanied by intense fear of being blocked and not being able to continue with the performance, something that would be humiliating for him. This fear has made him cancel his next performances. In the rest of his daily activities he does not experience this fear, nor does he experience it when he rehearses with his orchestra colleagues. What diagnosis would you consider most likely for this case? \n Options: <1> Simple phobia <2> Panic disorder <3> Social phobia of execution. <4> Generalized anxiety disorder. <5> Agoraphobia.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ded1c02b2f834159b890c1be81a22f7b", "input": "Question: A 28-year-old Caucasian woman, Nul\u00edpara, attends an annual gynecological examination and requests the possibility of reducing the risk of ovarian cancer given that her mother died of this neoplasm at 64 years of age. In the detailed questioning, no other family history of ovarian or breast cancer is identified. Which of the following strategies is the most appropriate to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer in this patient? \n Options: <1> Bilateral tubal occlusion. <2> Bilateral laparoscopic salpingo-oophorectomy. <3> Continuous daily administration of aspirin at low dose. <4> Advise her to use artificial lactation if she is pregnant. <5> Treatment with combined oral contraceptives.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c5daf316963948caaf135c4d3ca36b35", "input": "Question: Human papilloma virus has been linked to cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and cervical cancer. Which genotype is the most oncogenic? \n Options: <1> Genotype 16. <2> Genotype 11 <3> Genotype 6. <4> Genotype 23. <5> Genotype 55.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-921da726bfe1431680764c23526a1399", "input": "Question: Which of the following data does NOT correspond to a fungal vulvovaginitis ?: \n Options: <1> Pregnancy increases the risk of this infection. <2> It can occur in women who never had sex. <3> Vaginal discharge with white patches or lumps adhered to the walls of the vagina is typical. <4> It can be diagnosed in a fresh smear of vaginal discharge without the need for staining. <5> Adding a drop of potash to the vaginal discharge gives off a strong fishy odor.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-444de3820ef94f3f9de0ac8a1aec440e", "input": "Question: A pregnant woman of 31 weeks goes to the emergency department referring loss of fluid through the vagina. Objective speculum exploration of clear fluid through the external cervical os. It is apyletic. The cardiotocographic record does not reveal contractions and the fetal heart rate is normal. The ultrasound scan reveals no malformations and the cervix is \u200b\u200bnot shortened. What therapeutic combination would it indicate? \n Options: <1> Tocolytics, corticosteroids and antibiotics. <2> Tocolytics and antibiotics. <3> Tocolytics and corticosteroids. <4> Oxytocin, corticosteroids and antibiotics. <5> Corticosteroids and antibiotics", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4e375ad7fa1e4a0fa558ac72b0d089f1", "input": "Question: A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency room due to abdominal pain and scarce vaginal blood loss. It refers to an amenorrhea of \u200b\u200b7 weeks. You perform a pregnancy test, with a positive result. What is the next step? \n Options: <1> Perform a vaginal ultrasound examination. <2> Recommend home rest and repeat the pregnancy test in a week. <3> Evacuate the uterus by curettage by aspiration. <4> Standard progesterone micronized vaginally until week 14 of gestation. <5> Evacuate the uterus by intravaginal administration of prostaglandins.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6011e90c6b9e497599658d8ea3f29217", "input": "Question: With respect to the behavior of obstetric patients exposed to Varicella, it is FALSE: \n Options: <1> Infected women should be separated from other obstetric patients. <2> All obstetric patients exposed, without certainty of prior immunity, must make a serological determination of their immunization status. <3> Specific immunoglobulin should be administered to exposed non-immune obstetric patients. <4> The maximum period for administering the specific immunoglobulin after contact is 96 hours. <5> Pregnant women without immunity to Varicella-Zoster virus can be vaccinated during pregnancy to prevent primary infection.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1b4f00ed63b8402480a2830e8ff38de0", "input": "Question: With vaginal ultrasound, from how long after conception is it possible to see an embryo with a heartbeat? \n Options: <1> Between 14 and 21 days. <2> Between 21 and 28 days. <3> Between 28 and 35 days. <4> Between 35 and 42 days. <5> Between 42 to 49 days.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-493432ea92314b7fb73d697c43c65c0c", "input": "Question: One of the following answers is FALSE regarding breast cancer. \n Options: <1> The majority of tumors (70%) have receptors for hormones. <2> The stage measured according to the TNM system is one of the prognostic factors of the disease. <3> The presence of axillary adenopathies contraindicates breast surgery. <4> Anthracyclines and taxanes are the chemotherapeutic agents most used in the complementary treatment. <5> The breast-conserving surgery associated with radiotherapy has comparable results to mastectomy.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-828870584f4a478c935d7df3e97a963b", "input": "Question: Which gene is most frequently associated with acquired mutations in breast cancer? \n Options: <1> p53. <2> PTEN. <3> BRCA-2. <4> BRCA-1. <5> Her2 / neu.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-13818f8923a74287841a11e910368a27", "input": "Question: Regarding substance abuse by the adolescent, point out the correct answer: \n Options: <1> It is usually an individual consumption which indicates a better prognosis. <2> The onset of abuse in adolescence has not shown an increased risk of becoming addicted. <3> It is independent of the risk of HIV infection. <4> The most popular drug among teenagers is cannabis. <5> It should be considered in adolescents who come to the emergency with a crisis.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b7fb51c8eeb3466082ca57f9867b57c6", "input": "Question: Which of the following congenital heart diseases is NOT considered as heart disease that produces volume overload ?: \n Options: <1> Interauricular communication. <2> Ventricular communication. <3> Defects of the atrio-ventricular septum. <4> Coarctation of the aorta. <5> Persistent ductus arteriosus.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1caa0e9c8bcf4d2eb8bc1dd7f953b97c", "input": "Question: In the most frequent type of esophageal atresia: \n Options: <1> Prenatal ultrasound performed in the third trimester allows diagnosis in 6080% of cases. <2> It is associated in 50% of cases with microgastria and neural tube defects. <3> The distance between the proximal and distal atresic pockets is greater than in the other types of atresia. <4> Gastrostomy should be performed in the first 48 hours of life to allow enteral feeding. <5> The presence of air in the stomach and small intestine on abdominal radiography confirms the existence of a distal fistula.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-56b41d00cd5b475e815a29e3536247eb", "input": "Question: To decide to postpone discharge to a child in maternity 48 hours after childbirth, the following criteria will be taken into account EXCEPT one, indicate it. \n Options: <1> Jaundice evident on the first day of life. <2> VDRL positive. <3> Weight loss of 7%. <4> Breastfeeding not established. <5> Lack of evacuation of meconium.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8feef5592cb84f8f8aac588c2a41fe92", "input": "Question: Which of the following data is NOT specific to hypertrophic pyloric stenosis? \n Options: <1> Metabolic alkalosis <2> Projective vomiting of bilious content. <3> Family incidence <4> Predominance of the masculine sex. <5> Palpable mesoepigastric mass.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d199572cc026484eb86aa42d20c0d798", "input": "Question: Diabetes mellitus type MODY (maturityonset diabetes of the young) is characterized by all the following EXCEPT: \n Options: <1> It is an autosomal dominant disorder. <2> It is characterized by a genetic defect in the function of beta cells of the pancreas. <3> Share the same HLA risk as Diabetes Mellitus type 1. <4> The patients have a slight fasting hyperglycemia. <5> They may need treatment with insulin for their control.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-80f42f95da0c4b39a1f6b3cddf215acc", "input": "Question: What is the most common developmental complication in bacterial meningitis in the pediatric age? \n Options: <1> Hearing loss <2> Residual epilepsy <3> Mental retardation. <4> Hydrocephalus <5> Visual defects.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d5de7e911e6c42d4a749112e938713aa", "input": "Question: A premature newborn presents at 2 days of life a picture of poor general condition, subcutaneous petechiae and ecchymoses and persistent bleeding from the puncture sites. The chest radiograph is compatible with pulmonary hemorrhage. In the coagulation study, prothrombin and partial thromboplastin times are elongated. The platelet count is 105,000 / uL. What is the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Disseminated intravascular coagulation secondary to neonatal sepsis. <2> Neonatal autoimmune thrombocytopenia. <3> Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia. <4> Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn due to vitamin K deficiency. <5> Neonatal hemorrhage due to platelet dysfunction.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cb2033c235d24466a469ec28fff57a84", "input": "Question: Which of the following correlates with retinopathy of the premature newborn? \n Options: <1> The bilirubin. <2> Gentamicin <3> The corticoids <4> The Oxigen. <5> Fentanyl", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c768fed8310b4d9eb526153ae1faf394", "input": "Question: The parents of a 2-year-old girl consult because they are concerned about their daughter's development. They have observed that approximately from 18 months, their behavior is different from that of other children of their age. Until then, they had attributed their limited interaction to the fact that they were becoming more independent, and the lack of language development, to which they were not yet enrolled. In the consultation you observe that the girl does not respond when she calls her by her name, shows little eye contact, performs vocalizations without communicative intention, and does not look at where the parents point her. Given these findings, all of the following statements are true, EXCEPT one: \n Options: <1> Parents should be reassured, recommended schooling as soon as possible, and arrange a follow-up in 3 months. <2> The most likely diagnosis is autistic spectrum disorder. <3> A diagnostic evaluation must be carried out by a team with experience in autism. <4> Appropriate early intervention is recommended. <5> The origin of the disorder is multifactorial.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-578bf81d2606436180a062ad857e115c", "input": "Question: If you want to study the efficacy and safety of a new cytostatic for a specific oncological process and, at the same time, contrast the efficacy that adds a new monoclonal antibody to this treatment, what would be the most appropriate study design? \n Options: <1> Parallel test. <2> Cross test <3> Factorial test. <4> Sequential test. <5> Test of n = 1.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c9d7dec65e2c47558c1b5e59d60ec164", "input": "Question: Which of these statements is NOT a characteristic of phase I clinical trials? \n Options: <1> They usually have non-therapeutic goals. <2> They can be done in healthy volunteers. <3> They can be done in patients. <4> They are usually randomized. <5> They are usually open.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4fb84eed71074e82b395383d1ceb16e1", "input": "Question: When comparing the characteristics of pragmatic or confirmatory clinical studies with explanatory or exploratory clinical studies, which of the following is an advantage of the former? \n Options: <1> Information about subgroups of patients representative of the usual clinical practice. <2> Very homogeneous sample, with little variability. <3> Greater capacity to detect differences in the effectiveness of interventions. <4> Greater internal validity <5> Smaller sample size", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-09f07d37b229434bae40047ae99e8789", "input": "Question: He is presented with a cohort study involving 1000 female smokers and 2000 non-smoking women of the same age. If, after 5 years, 30 smokers and 20 nonsmoking women have experienced a stroke, what would be the relative risk and the attributable risk? \n Options: <1> Relative risk = 3, attributable risk = 10 out of every 1000. <2> Relative risk = 3, attributable risk = 20 out of every 1000. <3> Relative risk = 1.5, attributable risk = 10 out of every 1000. <4> Relative risk = 1.5, attributable risk = 30 out of 1000. <5> Relative risk = 10 out of 1000, attributable risk = 3.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9401bef4eced493f9749975a28a91f21", "input": "Question: A study is being conducted in a health center to determine the effect of exposure to tobacco smoke in children of smoking parents. For this purpose, a group of healthy children between 3 and 7 years old whose parents are smokers is selected and at the same time an equal number of children whose parents are non-smokers are selected in the same center. A year later, the appearance of respiratory diseases during that year will be investigated in both groups. Indicate the correct answer: \n Options: <1> The study design is a prospective cohort. <2> The study design is cases and controls. <3> The study design follows a qualitative methodology. <4> The study is experimental. <5> The type of design used is efficient to study rare diseases.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fb63f03f9dbf4259b17871507d2342d1", "input": "Question: A study has been carried out to determine the risk of upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) associated with the use of different non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). For this purpose, 2,777 patients with UGIB and 5,532 patients matched with the previous ones were included by age and month of admission or consultation, in the same hospitals, but for reasons that had nothing to do with the use of NSAIDs. The comparative risk of suffering a UGIB associated with previous exposure to different NSAIDs was calculated. What kind of study is it? \n Options: <1> Cohort study. <2> Cases and controls study. <3> Transversal study. <4> Experimental study <5> Ecological study", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4347fa7cc3bd45b3862a49e3aefc8cee", "input": "Question: The presence (x = 1) or absence (x = 0) of bacteriuria has been determined in a group of subjects. What kind of variable is it? \n Options: <1> Ordinal. <2> Numeric <3> Categorical <4> Continuous quantitative <5> Discrete quantitative.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f00d7815d57c431492d5f45c77635572", "input": "Question: A population estimate of blood creatinine levels is made in a group of pregnant women, obtaining the following results: mean (\u00d7) 0.8 mg / dL; typical deviation (s) 0.62 mg / dL; sample size (n) 85 women. According to the previous data, the confidence interval for the population mean (\u03bc) with a confidence level of 95% (Z = 1.96) is: \n Options: <1> 0.8 \u00b1 0.04. <2> 0.8 \u00b1 0.13. <3> 0.8 \u00b1 0.62. <4> 0.8 \u00b1 1.96. <5> 0.8 \u00b1 0.07.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-20009faa7138492f8e87121155aaed18", "input": "Question: In economic evaluations, which of the following costs correspond to indirect non-health costs? \n Options: <1> Hospitalization of the patient. <2> Care at the patient's home. <3> Loss of patient productivity. <4> Travel expenses of the patient. <5> Rehabilitation of the patient.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-83231815bc40413a8d37669fb63e7544", "input": "Question: In a pharmacoeconomic study, drug A produces a life expectancy of 5 years with a total cost of 5,000 euros, while drug B produces a life expectancy of 6 years with a total cost of 15,000 euros (average values \u200b\u200bper patient) . The decision criterion is based on choosing the most effective intervention with a cost-effectiveness threshold of 30,000 euros per year of additional life earned per patient, what drug is cost-effective compared to the other and why? \n Options: <1> Drug B, because the incremental cost-effectiveness with respect to A is below the cost-effectiveness threshold. <2> Drug A, because it costs much less than B and there is only one year of difference in life expectancy. <3> Drug A, because the incremental cost-effectiveness of B with respect to A is above the cost-effectiveness threshold. <4> Drug B, because each year of life has a cost of 29,500 euros below the cost-effectiveness threshold. <5> Drug A, because the incremental cost-effectiveness with respect to B is above the cost-effectiveness threshold.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d4c1c304eecd43be8d2918103f0e7d98", "input": "Question: A study is carried out to investigate the association between factor X and disease Z. To do this, 120 subjects with the disease and 420 controls (without the disease) are matched by age and sex. In both groups it is found that 20 subjects were exposed to factor X. What is the odds ratio (OR) between factor X and disease Z? \n Options: <1> OR = 1 (no association). <2> OR = 2. <3> OR = 4 <4> OR = 6 <5> OR = 8", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fe9b3a87ecfa40faa2ca6fc70e42b0fb", "input": "Question: In a clinical trial, the non-inferiority of the HDP-MDI inhaler (experimental) was evaluated against the FDC-ELIPTUS inhaler (control). The lower clinically relevant limit was set at -50 ml in the forced expiratory volume in the first second (FEV1). The results showed an absolute difference in FEV1 between treatments of +8 mL in favor of the HDP-MDI inhaler (95% confidence interval: -59 ml to +67 ml). Point out the CORRECT answer: \n Options: <1> The new HDP-MDI inhaler is superior to the control inhaler. <2> The FDC-ELIPTUS inhaler is non-inferior to the experimental inhaler. <3> The study is not conclusive. <4> Both inhalers are equivalent. <5> The HDP-MDI inhaler is non-inferior to the control inhaler.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4243c3ef233e4660a2dceedddfd6fa3d", "input": "Question: Does vaccination with inactivated poliomyelitis vaccine generate group immunity? (point to the correct answer). \n Options: <1> Yes <2> Do not. <3> Only when vaccines are used with adjuvants. <4> Only against polio virus type 3. <5> Only if it is administered with DTP vaccine.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-55e8c36498e940949e733369c37d971e", "input": "Question: Regarding vaccination with rubella vaccine in pregnant women, point out the correct answer: \n Options: <1> It should be encouraged as it is very convenient for Public Health. <2> It is the procedure of choice for the control of congenital rubella syndrome. <3> It is no longer considered as an indication of abortion. <4> It is allowed in the case of vaccines of strain RA 27/3, but not in the case of vaccines of the strain Cendehill. <5> It must be administered in conjunction with specific immunoglobulin", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-41bc9511ed6242199f01cda58626b59b", "input": "Question: In a clinical trial that evaluates the efficacy of a hypolipidemic agent in the primary prevention of coronary heart disease, if the researchers have planned analysis of intermediate results and in view of them suspending the study before its completion they must know that: \n Options: <1> The study can only be interrupted when in some intermediate analysis there is a difference between the results of the interventions, p <0.05. <2> Only interruption is justified in those studies that have mortality as the outcome variable. <3> If the intervention is safe, the study can not be interrupted before it has finished. <4> When a clinical trial is interrupted early, the effect of the evaluated intervention is often overestimated. <5> The performance of intermediate analyzes decreases the Type I error.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c28340209e394198873dcd0d96c5f2ba", "input": "Question: When screening for a disease, aimed at high-risk groups, looking for disease in its initial stage, is called: \n Options: <1> Simple screening, non-selective, precocious. <2> Simple, selective, precocious screening. <3> Multiple, non-selective, late screening. <4> Multiple screening, selective, precocious. <5> Simple, selective, delayed screening.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-484c547e13f0449dbb0af24d38dff373", "input": "Question: A 52-year-old woman is detected on a mammogram by a nodule and is advised to perform a biopsy by puncture with ultrasound control. The patient asks you about the probability of having cancer if the test comes out positive. Since you have no experience in this area, you are looking for and find a study that includes 112 patients, 18 with cancer and 94 without cancer. Of the 18 patients with cancer, the puncture gave a positive result in 16 and of the 94 patients without cancer the puncture gave a negative result in 88. With these data the correct answer is: \n Options: <1> 0,727. <2> 0.93. <3> 0.645. <4> 0.56. <5> It can not be calculated because the prevalence of the disease is not known.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d6aab5981c9646ac918eefd8582c9642", "input": "Question: A group of researchers conducted a prospective study to evaluate the efficacy of three alternatives in the treatment of acute otorrhea in children with tympanostomy tubes. Randomized, 76 children received oral amoxicillin-clavulanic acid, 77 received ear drops with hydrocortisone-bacitracinacolistin and other 77 children did not receive any pharmacological treatment, only observation. The main variable was the presence of otorrhea. What kind of study is it? \n Options: <1> Cohort study. <2> Post-authorization study of prospective follow-up. <3> Post-authorization study linked to the authorization. <4> Clinical trial <5> Transversal study.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c6ac0cde7e274602aa26deaa19ca9aa7", "input": "Question: We have the registry of subjects who are vaccinated against the flu in a specific region and campaign, which includes information at the time of vaccination on pathological history, age, sex and type of vaccine. For the same subjects we also have the registry with hospital discharge diagnoses, which occurred after the date of vaccination, and there is a personal identifier common to both registers. Indicate which of these studies would be possible to carry out using only the aforementioned sources of information: \n Options: <1> An analytical cohort study to determine if vaccination increases the risk of developing Guillain-Barr\u00e9 syndrome in the first 16 weeks after influenza vaccination. <2> A descriptive analysis to estimate the incidence of acute myocardial infarction in the first 16 weeks after anti-flu vaccination. <3> A descriptive analysis to estimate the incidence of fever in the first week after the influenza vaccination. <4> A clinical trial that compares the risk of serious post-vaccine reactions (involving hospital admission) with two of the types of influenza vaccines used in that campaign. <5> A case-control study to determine if vaccination increases the risk of developing an acute myocardial infarction.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-69c41d9a530b41b8b836c86c49eee4b5", "input": "Question: In a meta-analysis of 15 studies, the incidence of myocardial infarction with the new drug Tromboclean is 10.8% compared to 8% with heparin. The relative risk is 1.35, with a 95% confidence interval of 1.15 to 1.50 and absence of significant heterogeneity between studies (p-value of heterogeneity = 0.95). Point out the CORRECT answer: \n Options: <1> The heterogeneity is not significant, which suggests that the results are inconclusive. <2> Trombo Clean presents a risk of myocardial infarction similar to that of heparin. <3> It can not be ruled out with a 95% confidence that Tromboclean reduces the risk of myocardial infarction by 50%. <4> Thromboclean increases the absolute risk of myocardial infarction between 15% and 50%. <5> Heparin presents a significantly lower risk of myocardial infarction than Tromboclean.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ea98c74b6fc7488a9f6234045e319884", "input": "Question: Which of the following cranial nerves has the longest path through a bone canal? \n Options: <1> The trigeminal. <2> The pathetic or troclear. <3> The optician <4> The facial. <5> The olfactory.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-07392c83d5634fea8a1abc6e00e51932", "input": "Question: Reviewing the CT angiography of a 70-year-old man under study for abdominal aortic aneurysm, the radiologist reports the presence of complete occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient is completely asymptomatic. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery occurs asymptomatically on many occasions since the irrigating territory can receive flow from: \n Options: <1> The middle colic artery. <2> The gastroduodenal artery. <3> The left inferior epigastric artery. <4> The splenic artery. <5> The gastroepiploic artery.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9850065fd611446581035cf850e81a1a", "input": "Question: What is the most common malignant tumor of the thyroid? \n Options: <1> Oxyphilic carcinoma <2> Papillary carcinoma <3> Follicular carcinoma. <4> Anaplastic carcinoma <5> Spinal carcinoma", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3b5b2f9b129047e0aee5e9babd91be85", "input": "Question: In which of the following entities is NOT the Epstein-Barr Virus involved? \n Options: <1> Infectious mononucleosis <2> Burkitt lymphoma. <3> Large B cell lymphoma in immunosuppressed patients. <4> Nasopharyngeal carcinoma <5> Cervical carcinoma", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5b7662c5a59744abb3c456f23547833d", "input": "Question: Among the exogenous factors that favor the appearance of gout are the drugs. Of the following indicated, which one do you consider that it does NOT favor hyperuricemia? \n Options: <1> Acetylsalicylic acid at doses lower than 1g daily. <2> Hydrochlorothiazide <3> Cyclosporin A. <4> Ethambutol <5> Estrogens", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e9a875d4c77e4ec0ad5cee742872562a", "input": "Question: The development of generic drugs is based on the evaluation of the bioequivalence of the generic compared to a reference product already marketed. This concept refers to: \n Options: <1> The evaluation of equivalence in clinical efficacy trials. <2> The assessment of similarity in clinical trials of tolerance. <3> The equivalence in the distribution process of a drug and, therefore, to the verification that it has the same concentrations in the place of action. <4> The evaluation of pharmacokinetic equivalence. <5> The verification of a similar effect of the factors that influence the bioavailability of a drug.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b0b425d5dcd74c5a93302a71712afd31", "input": "Question: In a 60-year-old man with moderate renal insufficiency, treatment is started, without administration of loading dose, with a digitalis medication. Under these conditions, the half-life or plasma half-life of digitalis is estimated at 72 hours. Indicate how much treatment time in days should elapse from the start of treatment to reach the steady state concentration or equilibrium concentration. \n Options: <1> In 3 days. <2> Between 3 and 9 days. <3> Between 12 and 15 days. <4> More than 30 days <5> More than 60 days", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-02b9405b90cf478489943bc2337d7ac0", "input": "Question: Of the following anticoagulants which is a direct inhibitor of thrombin: \n Options: <1> Dabigatran <2> Apixaban. <3> Rivaroxaban. <4> Acenocoumarol. <5> Clopidogrel", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9870c6f4a7644bfcab6d0c6a8fd51d71", "input": "Question: Which of the following conditions causes a decrease in the O2 saturation of the hemoglobin that is not due to a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen? \n Options: <1> Ventilation-perfusion ratio lower than normal. <2> Anemia. <3> Carbon monoxide poisoning. <4> Hypoventilation. <5> Shunt venoarterial.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-df293fdb54d847488280cd77f281d71b", "input": "Question: Which of the mentioned vasoactive substances preferentially contracts the glomerular efferent arterioles in most physiological states? \n Options: <1> Adrenalin. <2> Noradrenaline <3> Endothelin <4> Angiotensin II. <5> Bradykinin", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f6de670ee09645e58ab12fe974afd93e", "input": "Question: What studies should be performed in an adenocarcinoma with prominent mucinous differentiation of ascending colon diagnosed in a 32-year-old man? \n Options: <1> Reorganization of the MYC gene. <2> Analysis of microsatellite instability. <3> Study of mutations of the RET gene. <4> Study of BRCA1-2 mutations. <5> Studies of TP53 mutations.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c1768d23de054f53a21efb48970878eb", "input": "Question: A healthy couple has an 8-year-old daughter with hepatosplenomegaly. The laboratory of biochemical genetics has detected in it a deficiency of the acid beta-glucosidase enzyme (glucocerebrosidase) and molecularly presents the mutation N370S in homozygosis. Which diagnosis is correct? \n Options: <1> Fabry disease (Xq22.1). <2> Huntington's disease (4p16.3). <3> Autosomal dominant cerebellar ataxia SCA1 (6p22.3). <4> Adrenoleukodystrophy (Xq28). <5> Gaucher disease (1q22).", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c8fa7138e2974650bac9621afcd979af", "input": "Question: Which of the following in an oncogene whose transcription product is a membrane receptor with tyrosine kinase activity of a growth factor? \n Options: <1> HER2 / neu. <2> p53. <3> myc <4> APC. <5> Ras.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2d7b940132d14e0eae43f0a2aed7fd63", "input": "Question: Point out the correct answer regarding B lymphocytes. \n Options: <1> Its two main subpopulations are called B-helper and B-cytotoxic. <2> They are the cells responsible for the production of antibodies in the rejection of an autologous transplant of hematopoietic progenitors. <3> They are the target cells of the anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody (rituximab). <4> They require co-stimulation CD20-CD19 for the expression of the CD3 molecule on its surface. <5> It is the type of majority lymphocyte in the peripheral blood of patients with Bruton's disease.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-14e8060b43f24b9e9cca5ff972858696", "input": "Question: In IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions: \n Options: <1> Eosinophils and mast cells play an important role. <2> There are no cellular elements involved. <3> Antibody-mediated cytotoxicity reactions play a key role. <4> There are no elements of the immune system involved in atopy. <5> The IgE immunoglobulin receptor does not intervene.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ca680db8db14e22b45af457e1ee0a43", "input": "Question: An 8-month-old girl meets diagnostic criteria for hemophagocytic syndrome / hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis-fever, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia, hipetransaminasemia, increased sCD25-and has a defect in the capacity of degranulation of her lymphocytes (expression of CD107a). Point out the correct therapeutic attitude in this case: \n Options: <1> Quickly initiate HLA typing and immunosuppressive therapy for the donor search (haematopoietic stem cell transplant). <2> Biological treatment with Daclizumab (antiCD25) as the only therapy until the molecular diagnosis of the disease is obtained. <3> Symptomatic and supportive treatment (transfusion of red blood cells and platelets) and avoid any immunosuppressant drug. <4> Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy via iv for the treatment of an eventual microorganism that triggers hemophagocytosis. <5> Treatment with intravenous gamma globulins, to maintain for life.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-13ac9a217187440781d9ed2ccfef65c1", "input": "Question: A 43-year-old man consulted for diarrheal syndrome, and reported among his background 3 pneumonias in adulthood. Which of the following immunological studies should we request ?: \n Options: <1> Serum immunoglobulin count and antibody production capacity test. <2> Phagocytosis test and oxidative metabolism of neutrophils. <3> Apoptosis test (programmed cell death) in the circulating lymphocytes of the patient. <4> Study of the repertoire and clonality of the T lymphocytes (alpha / beta). <5> In this patient, it would not be appropriate to request any immunological study.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c21a2cea8b4542fa87a86cfc99a773a6", "input": "Question: In what clinical situation would you use a combined antimicrobial treatment? \n Options: <1> In an acute pharyngotonsillitis in a child. <2> In a community pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae in a teenager. <3> In an acute meningitis in an elderly patient. <4> In a postmenopausal patient with a recurrent urinary infection. <5> In a skin abscess in a young patient.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d318f84002224e468d9f26a5ba9df4f0", "input": "Question: 8-year-old boy who goes to the Emergency Room because he has been bitten by a child while playing, about 6 hours ago. It presents a slight incisocontuse wound on the right forearm. In addition to considering other measures, what antimicrobial would you recommend? \n Options: <1> Ciprofloxacin, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of anaerobic flora. <2> Aztreonam, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with a predominance of Enterobacteriaceae. <3> Amoxicillin-clavulanate, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with a predominance of gram-positive and anaerobic flora. <4> Fluconazole, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of yeasts such as Candida albicans. <5> Metronidazole, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of anaerobic flora.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-917f54c442f74905a95297fceedd231e", "input": "Question: Which of the following bacterial species is not an Enterobacteriaceae? \n Options: <1> Escherichia coli <2> Proteus vulgaris. <3> Klebsiella pneumoniae. <4> Pseudomonas aeruginosa. <5> Salmonella enteritidis.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c5add49b7a544d61a0ad9deb6f12fa40", "input": "Question: A 69-year-old woman consulted for dysuria and frequency, symptoms that she has suffered numerous times in the last two years. He says that he has been taking cotrimoxazole in a daily dose for three months, prescribed by his family doctor. In the hospital's emergency department, a sediment and a urine culture were taken. The urinary sediment was pathological (significant pyuria, positive nitrites). He was prescribed ciprofloxacin, and was re-cited with his primary care physician. The urine culture was positive (Escherichia coli,> 10 (5) CFU / ml) and the results of the antibiogram showed resistance to ampicillin, cotrimoxazole and quinolones, but sensitivity to fosfomycin, the antimicrobial agent that you prescribe. Which of the following answers is FALSE? \n Options: <1> The change from ciprofloxacin to norfloxacin would have been correct, according to the results of the antibiogram. <2> Cotrimoxazole was being used as a prophylaxis. <3> The choice of fosfomycin constitutes a targeted treatment. <4> The choice of ciprofloxacin constitutes an empirical treatment. <5> The change from ciprofloxacin to fosfomycin was correct, according to the results of the antibiogram.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-721753f7e5ec49908a17c5ae83338e5e", "input": "Question: Before a 7-month-old girl who comes to the emergency room with a picture suggestive of bronchiolitis, what would be the most probable etiologic agent? \n Options: <1> Adenovirus. <2> Parainfluenza virus 1 <3> Influenza B virus <4> Bocavirus <5> Respiratory syncytial virus.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e3bb7bebdb3a440ab62b3933c0d19349", "input": "Question: Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of autoimmune hepatitis? \n Options: <1> Prednisone. <2> Azathioprine <3> Budesonide <4> Lamivudine <5> Mycophenolate mofetil.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4094352fc9c54638a629132b06957b8a", "input": "Question: Acute aortic syndrome includes entities such as aortic dissection, intramural aortic hematoma, and penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer. Regarding the diagnostic and therapeutic considerations of this entity, point out the CORRECT statement: \n Options: <1> Currently, in our environment, the diagnosis of this pathology is established routinely by percutaneous arteriography. <2> Computed tomography is not a good imaging technique for its diagnosis. <3> The echocardiographic techniques do not usually provide data of interest in the diagnosis and study of these nosological entities. <4> It is considered a Stanford type A aortic intramural dissection or hematoma when the ascending aorta is affected, regardless of the place of origin of the lesion or its extension. <5> The surgical indication of an aortic dissection is independent of the involvement of the ascending aorta.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bbdb7d7e4d05469f8581609b14b15920", "input": "Question: A 58-year-old woman enters the Short Stay Medical Unit due to a clinical picture that began with an episode of syncope and then presented feeling of dizziness and dyspnea. On physical examination, she is sweaty, afebrile at 126 beats per minute and at 30 breaths per minute, with a blood pressure of 88/46 and an oxygen saturation of 85% while breathing room air. Cardiac auscultation shows tachycardia without murmurs or gallop and pulmonary auscultation is clean. Which, among the following, seems the most likely diagnosis? \n Options: <1> Pulmonary embolism. <2> Acute cerebrovascular accident of posterior territory. <3> Acute coronary syndrome <4> Hypovolemic shock. <5> Acute pulmonary edema secondary to atrial flutter.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3f983b5b24424e8e9632934698d91a71", "input": "Question: A 69-year-old woman consulted for hemoptotic expectoration. In the two previous months she had low-grade fever, asthenia, anorexia and unquantified weight loss. In the cytological analysis of sputum, hemosiderophages were observed and in the chest radiograph bilateral alveolar infiltrates were observed. Analytically it stood out: Hb 8.2gr / dL, PO2: 58mmHg, creatinine: 5mg / dL, urine: proteinuria +++ microhematuria, cylinders, hematics. ANCAp (antibodies against the cytoplasm of perinuclear neutrophils): positive: anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies: negative. Antinuclear antibodies: negative. The most likely diagnosis would be: \n Options: <1> Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis. <2> Goodpasture syndrome. <3> Systemic lupus erythematosus with severe renal involvement. <4> Classical polyarteritis nodosa. <5> Microscopic polyarteritis.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1d1ebda6807c410bbfff64c225a54756", "input": "Question: What is true of essential tremor? \n Options: <1> It usually improves with propranolol. <2> Initially it is at rest. <3> It can be improved with levodopa at low doses. <4> It is more serious in cases of family presentation. <5> It usually gets worse with alcohol intake.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-776fb17da3d7409794bf26d805723be0", "input": "Question: A 24-year-old woman, asymptomatic, with a history of father and sister with medullary thyroid carcinoma. Incidentally, an adrenal mass measuring 5 cm in diameter was discovered on computed tomography (CT). Which of the following options should be the next clinical decision? \n Options: <1> Given that it is asymptomatic, semestral control is recommended with serial CT scans of said lesion. <2> The search for a possible medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is a priority. <3> A pre-clinical Cushing syndrome should be suspected in the context of multiple endocrine neoplasia. <4> Puncture-aspiration of said lesion should be performed to elucidate the nature of said lesion. <5> Catecholamines should be determined in urine to rule out a pheochromocytoma.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-767b2b6c5a5e47ddb985c892ad406b36", "input": "Question: A 45-year-old patient on the 15th day post-transplant of hematopeytic progenitors, with absolute neutropenia, platelets of 15,000 / uL and a hemoglobin of 7 g / dL, which presents a clinical picture of eye pain with periorbital edema with discrete serosanguinous nasal discharge . What is the diagnosis of presumption? \n Options: <1> Periorbital hematoma. <2> Allergic reaction, possibly to medication. <3> Acute bacterial sinusitis, probably staphylococcal. <4> Sinusitis due to Aspergillus spp. <5> Mucormycosis", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-da7d4eacccbe490cb55b204fd23300d9", "input": "Question: A 76-year-old woman surgically treated for a cataract in her left eye two years before without complications. He says that for the last few months he has had the sensation that the cataract has been reproduced. Point out the most likely diagnosis. \n Options: <1> Secondary cataract due to incomplete extraction of the lens. <2> Opacification of the posterior capsule. <3> Cystic macular edema. <4> Dislocation of intraocular lens to the vitreous cavity. <5> Late endophthalmitis.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-31ab85f664c34079a78c8bf4e754f6d5", "input": "Question: When we perform the triple test (alpha fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin and unconjugated estriol) to pregnant women, the sensitivity and specificity against trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome) are 63 and 95% respectively. This means: \n Options: <1> The percentage of false negatives is 5%. <2> The percentage of false positives is 37%. <3> The Area Under the Curve (AUC) ROC would be 1. <4> The probability of not having trisomy 21 (S. Down) being the negative result is 95%. <5> The probability of having a positive test result with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is 63%.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a147a129fd384cd4a9595c94d9615b0b", "input": "Question: By what experimental procedure can we evaluate the implicit memory ?: \n Options: <1> The repetition priming. <2> The partial report technique. <3> The technique of the total report. <4> The method of savings. <5> The free memory.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-519510939e534205b2199c30e7bb08b2", "input": "Question: The highest recall rate of the first items in a list is called: \n Options: <1> Primacy effect. <2> Recipe effect. <3> Suffix effect. <4> Von Restorff effect. <5> Proactive interference", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5916a32486064b5abeef29793ccc7f99", "input": "Question: What type of mechanism does Gestalt propose as an explanatory mechanism for solving a problem ?: \n Options: <1> The trial and error. <2> The search for operations in the problem space. <3> The algorithmic methods. <4> The huer\u00edsticos methods. <5> The insight.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3142beb9707f407f9b342426f75af22d", "input": "Question: What is the main cerebral structure involved in conditioned fear ?: \n Options: <1> The hippocampus <2> The cingulate cortex. <3> The olfactory bulb. <4> The hypothalamus <5> The amygdala", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-effefa6ba9a9412aad7ee6442a6e91e0", "input": "Question: What simple reinforcement programs produce a more stable response pattern ?: \n Options: <1> Those of fixed ratio. <2> Those of variable reason. <3> Those of fixed interval. <4> Those of variable interval. <5> All reinforcement programs produce similar response rates.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-57a5df59f09e486d8504dc467483c0aa", "input": "Question: What is the procedure called instrumental conditioning in which the instrumental response eliminates or prevents the occurrence of an aversive stimulus ?: \n Options: <1> Positive reinforcement. <2> Punishment. <3> Negative reinforcement. <4> Omission. <5> Extinction.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1af4695b00f743aa96af5d9d4e3e4ac8", "input": "Question: For Kurt Lewin the set of elements that influence the behavior of an individual at a given time make up: \n Options: <1> The living space <2> The place of control of the reinforcement. <3> Cognitive maps <4> Cognitive dissonance <5> The process of organic valuation.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4cc1f7f2cd4c4bafb5a5b24c3f62bf4e", "input": "Question: Antegrade amnesia is a result of brain damage in: \n Options: <1> The hippocampus, its afferents or eferences. <2> The hypothalamus, its afferences or eferences. <3> The thalamus, its afferences or eferences. <4> The pituitary gland, its afferences or eferences. <5> The orbitofrontal cortex, its afferents or eferences.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c78e73316c964fa1861677b4ca984d45", "input": "Question: It has been proven that amphetamines have reinforcing effects because: \n Options: <1> They are GABAergic agonists. <2> They are dopaminergic antagonists. <3> They are serotonergic antagonists. <4> They are dopaminergic agonists. <5> They are serotonergic agonists.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6f793e3db6654f6f93dc0af535796a56", "input": "Question: The technique that stimulates the cerebral cortex by applying electrical pulses through an electromagnetic coil, which is used to treat some disorders such as depression, is called: \n Options: <1> Transcranial magnetic stimulation. <2> Intracerebral photo stimulation. <3> Functional magnetic resonance or RMf. <4> Evoked potentials of stimulation. <5> Magnetoencephalography", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-02a5c07439ec4481adc022094a30966a", "input": "Question: Alcohol is included in the group of sedative or depressant drugs because it acts as: \n Options: <1> Cholinergic receptor agonist: nicotinic and muscarinic. <2> Antagonist of serotonergic (5 HT) and cholinergic receptors. <3> Noradrenergic receptor agonist and serotonin antagonist. <4> Antagonist of NMDA receptors and agonist of AMPA receptors. <5> GABA-a receptor agonist and NMDA receptor antagonist.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5a3c105c999e491cbd9aa251ba02df63", "input": "Question: What neurotransmitter has a type of receptor called muscarinic ?: \n Options: <1> Acetylcholine <2> Dopamine <3> Serotonin <4> Noradrenaline <5> Adrenalin.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ec1a379f06094c009b9b05216fe4dc25", "input": "Question: Which nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for regulating sexual behavior in females ?: \n Options: <1> Ventromedial. <2> Suprachiasmatic <3> Paraventricular. <4> Medial preopticus <5> Dorsomedial.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-389be5ccd2d14f15963884dfb2d6a322", "input": "Question: The use of intonation changes and emphasis to add meaning to speech is called: \n Options: <1> Alexitimia. <2> Tonality. <3> Rhythmicity <4> Melody. <5> Prosody.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d4b08122289843648de627779c6db162", "input": "Question: Why is the visual information transmitted to the nucleus of the thalamus ?: \n Options: <1> Pulvinar core. <2> Arched core. <3> Lateral geniculate nucleus. <4> Medial geniculate nucleus. <5> Ventrolateral nucleus.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6f3bfb0798234ee68210cc41bf94a9e9", "input": "Question: Which of the following is the central characteristic of the stage of formal operations according to Piaget ?: \n Options: <1> The solution of conservation problems. <2> The reversibility in thought. <3> The overcoming of egocentrism. <4> The theory of the mind <5> The hypothetical-deductive thought.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b7dadceadc1e4059adad29e089f929d3", "input": "Question: In adolescence, it is common to think that others are extremely interested in themselves. What is the name of this egocentric bias ?: \n Options: <1> Propiocentrism <2> Personal story <3> Fable of invincibility. <4> Imaginary audience <5> Pseudoparanoia", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-31ad2a357d364965869b1ca4d2f5845b", "input": "Question: At what approximate age do children begin to understand that a person may have false beliefs about the world ?: \n Options: <1> At 18 months. <2> At two years. <3> At four years old <4> At six years old. <5> At eight years old.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6e1bbc90eb8a4890b1b649de121c4ce4", "input": "Question: What is the name of the distance between what a child is capable of doing for himself and what he is capable of doing if an adult, or another more capable child, helps him ?: \n Options: <1> Scaffolding. <2> Self-regulation. <3> Tertiary circular reaction. <4> Near (or proximal) development zone. <5> Shared attention area.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6a026ae83d054ae19c3e17dc62c322c1", "input": "Question: As the degrees of freedom increase, the Student's t distribution approaches: \n Options: <1> The normal distribution. <2> The binomial distribution. <3> The F distribution of Snedecor. <4> The uniform distribution. <5> The Chi square distribution.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-de08d9545ebb411f9ce5718341947bbf", "input": "Question: If after establishing the confidence interval with respect to a difference between two independent means, we find that the zero value is not in the interval: \n Options: <1> We can not make any decision regarding the null hypothesis of equality of means. <2> We can not reject the null hypothesis of equality between population means. <3> We must reject the null hypothesis of equality between population means. <4> We accept the null hypothesis of equality between the population means. <5> We reject the alternative hypothesis of equality between population means.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-59dea105b3ee4ddfaafe6a9872be9d22", "input": "Question: In the Type II error: \n Options: <1> The alternative hypothesis is not rejected being true. <2> The null hypothesis is not rejected as false. <3> The null hypothesis is not rejected, I feel certain. <4> The null hypothesis is rejected being true. <5> The alternative hypothesis is accepted as false.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0c43ba095ea948dd820a8282b1b6bdef", "input": "Question: The existence of a statistically significant association between two ordinal variables can be determined by: \n Options: <1> The Kruskal-Wallis test. <2> The Pearson correlation. <3> The Kappa test. <4> The Spearman correlation. <5> The Wilcoxon test.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-79fdb14bdeae4ae4bbc9d4ead491dde1", "input": "Question: In the survey investigations, we work with a representative sample of the population. What does this mean ?: \n Options: <1> The sample faithfully reflects the variables that characterize the population and its size is adequate. <2> The conclusions of the study only describe the specific sample and are not generalizable. <3> We obtain incomplete and biased information by the characteristics of the sample. <4> The basic criterion of inclusion in the sample is the accessibility of the participants. <5> The size of the sample should be as close as possible to that of the population.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-93d5aebf10f045ed8ba965d2652a2ce1", "input": "Question: Intrasubject experimental research designs: \n Options: <1> They use independent variables not manipulated directly by the researcher but through the selection of the participants. <2> They are based on the verification of independent groups assigned to the experimental conditions. <3> They combine two independent variables based on the characteristics of the participants. <4> They have lower internal validity than the intersubject designs when they do not use random assignment. <5> They use specific control techniques to control the effects associated with the order of application of the experimental conditions.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fccc1ec63b6d485492ff39e4f7c5c5ca", "input": "Question: What is the characteristic of the quasi-experimental research strategy that differentiates it from the experimental strategy ?: \n Options: <1> Single or very small cases are studied. <2> The study is carried out in simulated contexts. <3> There is no random assignment of participants to the different study conditions. <4> Several dependent variables are used. <5> It is done with samples of participants obtained by probabilistic sampling.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-874efd25081141998dd91cbdd3ff621d", "input": "Question: Experimental factorial designs or also called complex experimental designs: \n Options: <1> They study the effect of an independent variable on several dependent variables. <2> They study the main effects of several independent variables and their possible joint effect or interaction. <3> They are inadequate if it is suspected that some of the study variables may have interaction effects. <4> They can dispense with experimental control techniques because of their complexity. <5> They are based on the application of all experimental conditions to the same group of participants.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f87e75e63b674ccd8d1f7ab4adcab4b2", "input": "Question: What specific procedure of the experimental strategy makes it the most appropriate to test hypotheses of causality? : \n Options: <1> The representative sampling of the participants. <2> The manipulation of the independent variable with control of possible strange variables. <3> The realization of the study in real contexts with natural groups. <4> The identification of possible predictor variables through the retrospective analysis of the study phenomenon. <5> The application of statistical techniques for the analysis of data.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2bea4aba7e6c47a3bf8f6d63deeceafb", "input": "Question: The structure of the personality can be organized according to: \n Options: <1> The three-dimensional model of R.B. Cattell. <2> The five-factor proposal of Zuckerman. <3> The five basic factors of Cantor and Kihstrom. <4> The sixteen factors of H.J. Eysenck. <5> The Monorrasgo theory of Costa and McCrae.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-568c235f2335454bb140a5b411d9246e", "input": "Question: Cognitive investigations of intelligence, and as regards the relationship between Reaction Time (RT) and Intellectual Quotient (IQ): \n Options: <1> They have found positive associations of great magnitude. <2> They describe negative relationships with differences in magnitude, according to the studies. <3> They have found an absence of association between both constructs. <4> They have not received attention from the scientific community. <5> They start from the study of cultural differences in intelligence.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c14bfed45e1a4205a33d07a107cb3fbd", "input": "Question: According to the classification of features that R.B. Cattell: \n Options: <1> The specific features are observed in the daily behavior of individuals, in all cultures. <2> Ergos and feelings shape the dynamic or motivational structure. <3> Capabilities and competences are temperamental traits. <4> Attitudes are performance traits. <5> The basic features are directly observable and qualitatively objective.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a06a8cbeed4e4c128fed32536e4581c7", "input": "Question: The fluid intelligence: \n Options: <1> It is involved in tasks that are new. <2> It is shown in tasks with verbal content. <3> It reflects formal learning. <4> It is not part of the general intelligence. <5> Delimits skills based on previous experience.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-86a2e2be47804a6e8f6a99d4fd66b7dc", "input": "Question: Interpersonal intelligence, spatial intelligence and logical-mathematical intelligence, are types of intelligence belonging: \n Options: <1> To Cattell's model of intelligence. <2> To the Triarchic Theory of Sternberg. <3> To the proposal offered by Eysenck. <4> To the model of the Multiple Intelligences of Gardner. <5> The structure of the intellect is superfluous to Guilford's proposal.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ff739716233e4458b1463ca462d7df3f", "input": "Question: In personality psychology, when talking about consistency and stability of the personality, one can be referring to the observation that: \n Options: <1> The features that the person shows are coherent with their ontogenetic history. <2> The behaviors and situations that are equated through the time points are similar. <3> Personality is the response to situational demands. <4> The items that evaluate a trait maintain high correlations with each other. <5> Stable and consistent behaviors are indicators of mental health.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f8a1ecfbb6ed4053b93f474c503a012f", "input": "Question: The heritability of a personality trait: \n Options: <1> It is a statistical concept to estimate the influence of phenotypes on genotypes, regardless of the environment. <2> It is generalizable to all humans, regardless of the culture and the historical moment. <3> It calls into question the ability of the environment to modify the genetic endowment. <4> It is studied, among other perspectives, from molecular genetics. <5> It refers to the direct influence of paternal and maternal genes on the behavior of an individual.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4bf7969717864dac90914a80cb5077f6", "input": "Question: Beliefs and values, according to the psychology of personality: \n Options: <1> Once established, they do not experience changes during the rest of the individual's life. <2> They direct the person towards transcendence, according to Maslow's motivational proposal. <3> They predispose the person to prefer some modes of behavior over others. <4> They impel people towards the defense of human rights. <5> They encourage group development in the face of individual development.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-68c7a037363643de8f4aafea93e7b33f", "input": "Question: According to the Theory of Multiple Intelligences, intrapersonal intelligence: \n Options: <1> It has been preponderant in our current system of academic evaluation. <2> It is the ability to understand and interact with others. <3> It focuses on the potential to form a mental model of a spatial world. <4> It is the ability to form an adjusted model of oneself and to use it effectively in life. <5> It is exhibited when it comes to making products that need to use the body.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-92b0925218d549f487b4ba2859b53dd1", "input": "Question: The content validity of an evaluation instrument refers to: \n Options: <1> The evidence obtained by factor analysis. <2> The concurrence of measures. <3> The adequacy in the establishment of inferences. <4> The relevance and representativeness of its items. <5> The significant relationships with other measures.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cf9b0a64bf644bac8409f45fdd094acb", "input": "Question: What does the intersessional sampling used in observation techniques refer to: \n Options: <1> To the registration of relevant information between sessions. <2> To the periodicity, number and criteria of start-end of the sessions. <3> To the successive rounds of observation of the subjects to observe. <4> To the temporary selection and its interval or partial modality. <5> To the record of focal events that occur between sessions.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2a7f743fb4b7429588193a258a6a31d2", "input": "Question: In which group of techniques is included the Thematic Apperception Test (Murray TAT) ?: \n Options: <1> Interpretive projects <2> Subjective constructive. <3> Construction projects <4> Rational graphics. <5> Subjective narratives.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3106ececeea94c9a9d40ada1cf598c83", "input": "Question: What can indicate, among other things, the high scores on the F Scale of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) ?: \n Options: <1> Social desirability and good image intent. <2> A high number of incomplete answers. <3> The degree of sincerity. <4> That the respondent does it at random or with eccentricity. <5> Inconsistency of true answers.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-edbda0fab7a0469ba08de8171de1097c", "input": "Question: The evaluation of the electrodermal activity allows a measurement of: \n Options: <1> The general activation of the Autonomic Nervous System. <2> The parasympathetic activation. <3> The visceral activity. <4> The cortical attitude. <5> The Delta rhythm.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8be24f0b940541aa9d69b72ce3a70662", "input": "Question: When the cutoff point of a diagnostic instrument is very high, the risk of: \n Options: <1> False positives. <2> False negatives. <3> True positives. <4> Sensitivity of the test. <5> Inconsistencies of validity.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3548abbe94214fcdafbf41182be4b3b3", "input": "Question: The sensitivity of a diagnostic test is related to: \n Options: <1> Its ability to discriminate true positives. <2> Its ability to discriminate true negatives. <3> Its ability to discriminate against false positives. <4> Its ability to discriminate against false negatives. <5> The high cut point.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-907f6ddd26e14e5d9529c0a33ac2bb76", "input": "Question: Adaptive tests are characterized by: \n Options: <1> The unidirectional relationship between the evaluated and the test. <2> The interactive process of selection of items dependent on the response of the evaluated. <3> The homogeneous and identical application of the items to all those evaluated. <4> The identical length in the number of items to be applied. <5> The selection of items by independent criteria to the response of the evaluated.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5160f139df04403e886a69664118affe", "input": "Question: The Raven Progressive Matrices test provides an estimate of: \n Options: <1> Level of development. <2> Level of maturation. <3> General Intelligence Factor (G Factor). <4> Verbal intelligence level <5> Manipulative intelligence level.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0566381c77534ed78856fea7fb12bc69", "input": "Question: What are, among others, the main biases associated with the observer in the framework of observation techniques ?: \n Options: <1> The duration of the experiment. <2> The excess of information. <3> The technical accuracy <4> The illusion of learning. <5> The expectation and mechanical errors of registration.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e2f551bfa0644715b429df9c08e7b0f4", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following options make possible the criterial evaluation tests (or with reference to criteria): \n Options: <1> Assess the performance with respect to a normative group. <2> Determine relative performance among other people. <3> Obtaining a normative score. <4> Evaluate the performance with respect to a content area or domain. <5> Assess a skill considering the performance of your reference group.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-067799d523304cea898deee4126509aa", "input": "Question: In 1994, Spitzer and collaborators developed a questionnaire and a joint interview for the evaluation of the main most frequent disorders in primary care health services. This instrument is called: \n Options: <1> DIS-CIDI <2> SCID II. <3> PRIME-MD. <4> ADIS. <5> SADS.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8a36eab8b438466bb2f444c4a62be79f", "input": "Question: For self-registration to become an effective tool for clinical evaluation, it must meet the requirements of: \n Options: <1> Have a complete design that includes each of the significant units of a complex behavior and its memory. <2> Have a simple design, without sophistication or complexity, and always accompanied by a prior training for its completion. <3> Do not limit your compliance to the events that occurred at the time but also to the memory that you have of them at later moments. <4> Cover each and every one of the behaviors problems identified by the client. <5> Be completed by a significant person who knows the client well.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-40f1077dc7d54790b8a4dc9eb2607e0e", "input": "Question: The structured and semi-structured clinical interviews are based on: \n Options: <1> The analysis of the problem behaviors. <2> The initial exploration and the demand of the client. <3> The categories and diagnostic criteria. <4> The observation of nonverbal behavior. <5> The adjustment of the patient's demand and the functional hypothesis.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-28a01965cf61408fa78c3247334cb5a4", "input": "Question: The Family Drawing Test is a projective technique of type: \n Options: <1> Thematic. <2> Expressive. <3> Associative <4> Constructive. <5> Perceptual.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a99dd812e8b8427381e91cca42f9e170", "input": "Question: Which modality of the Behavioral Approach Test (PAC) is the most appropriate to assess the phobia of darkness in childhood ?: \n Options: <1> Active approach. <2> Passive exposure. <3> Passive approach. <4> Successive approximation. <5> Active exhibition.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-15edfdce0c0c42a4a9a9efe2e33ad502", "input": "Question: At what age range is the Batelle Development Inventory administered ?: \n Options: <1> 0-2 years. <2> 0-4 years. <3> 0-6 years. <4> 0-8 years. <5> 0-10 years.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b4285a938d7f482080bc2f6a00719dc2", "input": "Question: What WISC IV tests are part of the perceptual reasoning index ?: \n Options: <1> Search for symbols, cubes and digits. <2> Matrices, cubes and concepts. <3> Search for symbols, letters and numbers, and concepts. <4> Matrices, keys and concepts. <5> Cubes, letters and numbers, and concepts.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aca279ace810482d8a691b3426bb8a32", "input": "Question: Which interval measure will be the most appropriate to evaluate a brief and high frequency behavior (eg, tic or tacos) in a child ?: \n Options: <1> Momentary interval. <2> Proportional interval <3> Full interval. <4> Sequential interval <5> Partial interval", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-db3518d407b44c44bbcc856be1f2c953", "input": "Question: The deontological code of psychology in Spain is mainly aimed at: \n Options: <1> Evaluate the mental health of the therapist. <2> Protect the rights of the authors of the different therapies. <3> Protect the rights of research animals. <4> Protect the rights of research subjects. <5> Regulate applied psychology", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e4025535f84144b5a87c8a926f923e83", "input": "Question: We can say that a psychological evaluator uses indirectly or inferentially self-reports of a person when: \n Options: <1> From them, something different from the expressed is extracted, interpreting it as an indicator of a psychological construction. <2> He takes it from the results provided by another psychotherapist. <3> They belong to information provided about their past. <4> They belong to information provided about their expectations. <5> The self-report has a behavioral character.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-751f92aec654437aa2ff14d7b5f6bb7a", "input": "Question: We can consider an antecedent of the cognitive dynamic evaluation the work of: \n Options: <1> Thorndike (1974-1949). <2> Binet (1927). <3> Vygotsky (1935). <4> Kelly (1955). <5> Weschler (1967).", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1cfb875c7d6f472f9f0202a9f6b71e7b", "input": "Question: Among the phonological elements used to evaluate verbal language in childhood is used: \n Options: <1> The babbling. <2> The paralinguistics. <3> The proxemics <4> Kinestesia <5> Artifactual communication.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9680651033314c39964e1a085fa86353", "input": "Question: The gesture imitation test (Berger and L\u00e9zine, 1975) is an evaluation tool that is used in childhood, preferably to evaluate: \n Options: <1> Laterality <2> The body schema <3> Neural efficiency <4> Muscle tone <5> The motor.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-db2cd12e292f45ecb7019b30a633d9ed", "input": "Question: The individual evaluation of the intelligence presents, in front of its collective evaluation, the following advantage: \n Options: <1> The application of individual tests implies a shorter duration. <2> The individual evaluation requires less training of the psychologist who administers them (the groups require more expertise). <3> It offers a total score without detailing in the different skill profiles. <4> It is considered more useful for a clinical purpose than the collective evaluation. <5> Individual evaluation does not require time control.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bef917e012404d5db13a5fc6016e4be7", "input": "Question: When distinguishing alcoholic patients with Korsakoff Syndrome from patients with alcoholic dementia, we can take into account that: \n Options: <1> In patients with Korsakoff syndrome, the IQ measurement remains relatively intact, while this measure is impaired in the case of alcoholic dementia. <2> Patients with dementia do not have memory problems, while those with Korsakoff syndrome do. <3> In cases of dementia, amnesia appears as the first and most relevant symptom. <4> In the case of Korsakoff Syndrome there is no anterograde amnesia (ability to acquire new information). <5> In the case of dementia, the skills learned remain intact, whereas in Korsakoff Syndrome they are very deteriorated.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-92f48d0ecdf64f6b8fed318a1c7ab9f2", "input": "Question: If a patient claims to hear voices in Paris when he is in London, we say that he suffers: \n Options: <1> A hallucination reflects. <2> A paranoid hallucination. <3> An extracampine hallucination. <4> An autoscopic hallucination. <5> A negative hallucination", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f9801abb4a7c4f279125eae3b8a89870", "input": "Question: Within the perceptual distortions we can find: \n Options: <1> Hallucinations <2> The metamorphopsias. <3> The eidetic images. <4> Autoscopy (or double phenomena). <5> The parasitic images.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1bbf7b4ca2344239902762b920b3d8a7", "input": "Question: What alteration does a person suffer that believes that their thoughts are not theirs but have been introduced into the mind by an external and irresistible force ?: \n Options: <1> Obsessive idea <2> Delusional idea of \u200b\u200bdenial. <3> Fugue of ideas. <4> Delirium to be controlled. <5> Echo of thought.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-578c957028a74a968c717b91e4f03802", "input": "Question: One of the characteristics of the primary delirium experience is: \n Options: <1> Its greater modifiability, compared with the secondary one. <2> The primary obsessive concern of the patient to control reality. <3> That does not have its origin in a previous anomalous experience. <4> That is not maintained with intense conviction. <5> Which is plausible", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b64f9637867a4249aae85265190df7a3", "input": "Question: By what name is the disorder known to be characterized by the constant and persistent repetition of words, ideas, or themes, to which the patient continually appeals ?: \n Options: <1> Perseveration of thought. <2> Divagatory thinking. <3> Disintegration of thought. <4> Circumstantiality <5> Inhibition of thought.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f0e5893cfff14b2d972e09451a537841", "input": "Question: The difficulty in finding words that designate objects or people (nouns and names) is called: \n Options: <1> Anomia <2> Glosomania. <3> Aprosodia <4> Bradifemia. <5> Paraphemia", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0f43182ff6d54da8b190d05c9874b9fe", "input": "Question: When a person speaks a lot spontaneously, quickly, it is difficult to interrupt and does not end his sentences for a kind of urgent need to communicate something, is likely to present the disorder of thought called: \n Options: <1> Schizoafasia. <2> Speech pressure <3> Perseveration <4> Tangeciality <5> Circumstantiality", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aec08e29fdfd4d9cbf3dc52ef02bd091", "input": "Question: Prosopagnosia is defined as: \n Options: <1> Extreme form of agnosia characterized by the inability to recognize familiar faces. <2> Failure to recognize objects by touch. <3> Loss of ability to visualize images. <4> Form of anosognosia in which the patient denies his blindness. <5> Perceptive experience of an amputated limb.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-45721b0c450e4ec8bc91fac9b11cc4ae", "input": "Question: The confabulation is a typical symptom of: \n Options: <1> The pathological game. <2> The Munchausen syndrome. <3> The post-traumatic stress syndrome. <4> The burn-out syndrome. <5> The amnestic syndrome", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5ed0cd2bc1d7438caa6c966494c14a4d", "input": "Question: Retrograde amnesia is defined as: \n Options: <1> Memory loss that covers the period before the onset of the disorder that gave rise to amnesia. <2> Memory loss that covers the period following the onset of the disorder that gave rise to the amnesia. <3> Partial loss of memory that covers a specific period. <4> Memory loss in the absence of an organic brain disorder. <5> Distortions or memory errors.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-93b9541f7d514684b43dfe1d920a5fc8", "input": "Question: Affective lability is characterized because: \n Options: <1> Rapid changes in emotion occur and the person has difficulty controlling their emotions. <2> There is an elevation of the attentional affective threshold for negative stimuli. <3> There is a general feeling of being very well, very happy, although there are no causes that justify that state of mind. <4> The mood is predominantly downcast, pessimistic, sad. <5> There is an affective narrowing that restricts the emotional life.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e43de27169994ffd8ac467737a35db01", "input": "Question: Parathymia is characterized by: \n Options: <1> Flexibility and emotional or affective modulation have been lost. <2> There are mixed feelings of love-hate. <3> There are rapid changes of mood. <4> There is an absence of control over the expression of affects. <5> Affective expression is discordant or inappropriate with the situation.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-89b6f49e3c8d4ba2aefbd39eb682c416", "input": "Question: Affective rigidity is characterized by: \n Options: <1> Rapid changes in mood. <2> Affective expression is discordant with the situation. <3> Absence of reactive positive feelings. <4> Inability to modulate affect depending on situations. <5> Little intense emotional responses.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee846420f71b4dcebc79db7d06189511", "input": "Question: What are the characteristics of the obfuscation of consciousness ?: \n Options: <1> Total absence of consciousness that occurs due to illness or brain damage. <2> Transient narrowing of consciousness, of variable duration, with amnesia of what happened during the period. <3> Sleep-like state that is accompanied by intense visual hallucinations. <4> Deep disorder of qualitative and quantitative nature with psychomotor agitation. <5> Reduction of the ability to identify and recognize the environment with attentional difficulties and the course of thought.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c45e714e9cb245cbaecab375be986281", "input": "Question: The state characterized by a total absence of consciousness, muscle laxity, absence of response to painful stimuli and posterior lacunar amnesia, is called: \n Options: <1> Drowsiness. <2> Mental absence <3> Stupor. <4> Coma. <5> Obnubilation.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-fc7c3e722a994941a19309b655b510b3", "input": "Question: When a person remains in an immobile attitude, with rigid muscles, and can be placed in different positions without him trying to recover the original position for a while, he is likely to suffer: \n Options: <1> Passive negativity <2> Automatic obedience. <3> Reactive mannerisms. <4> Psychomotor alteration of rest. <5> Waxy flexibility.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9a337d34605e48138b9ea8fe369f4a6d", "input": "Question: The appearance of constipation is a symptom that appears frequently when consumed: \n Options: <1> Tobacco. <2> Alcohol. <3> Cannabis <4> Cocaine. <5> Heroin.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1141550d4c6e46328bba152338c9d163", "input": "Question: Under the name of xanthines are grouped: \n Options: <1> The coca leaf, cocaine and crack. <2> Methadone and heroin <3> The MDA and the MDMA. <4> Nicotine and inhalants. <5> Caffeine and theophylline.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-226d9d3dc63b4a79a32b370733fd101d", "input": "Question: What characterizes dissociative identity disorder ?: \n Options: <1> Confusion about personal identity or assumption of a new identity. <2> Presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states that control the behavior of the individual recurrently. <3> A selective amnesia. <4> A persistent or recurrent experience of feeling distanced. <5> A feeling of unreality", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-034904c6cb2c42a29b6eb0e2294113da", "input": "Question: In what disorder is there excessive concern for any mild or nonexistent physical anomaly ?: \n Options: <1> Somatization disorder <2> Anorexia nervosa. <3> Anxiety disorder <4> The conversion disorder. <5> Body dysmorphic disorder.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f6814d55db7a4110a440024cfd37528a", "input": "Question: The fear or belief of suffering an important disease, which arises in the subject from the erroneous interpretation of their bodily symptoms, is the nuclear characteristic of: \n Options: <1> The conversion disorder. <2> Hypochondria. <3> Panic disorder <4> The Depression <5> Somatization", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9dd157deee8a494888a832c894d1a229", "input": "Question: What disorders are we referring to when we speak of an alteration of the integrating functions of consciousness, identity, and memory ?: \n Options: <1> Schizophrenia. <2> Dissociative disorders <3> Somatoform disorders. <4> Post-traumatic stress disorders. <5> Mood disorders", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ee7e9258ffbb422791c78751f88a0e29", "input": "Question: According to Tyrer's classification (1989), what type of dissociation does psychogenic amnesia (dissociative amnesia) belong to ?: \n Options: <1> The dissociation of the personality. <2> The dissociation of cognitive function. <3> The dissociation of perception. <4> The dissociation of movement or sensation. <5> The dissociation of complex behaviors.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b40e7b07cda6454db47451d44c38d2e5", "input": "Question: What characteristic do anorexia and bulimia share ?: \n Options: <1> Loss of control over carbohydrates. <2> An extreme concern for body weight and shape. <3> A BMI below 18. <4> Hostility towards the mother. <5> The amenorrhea.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-4109b31093474af68d524a4e2572bec6", "input": "Question: What would be the differential characteristic between an eating disorder and another that presents with significant weight loss and / or anomalous eating patterns ?: \n Options: <1> The sleep problems. <2> The pathological fear of getting fat or the overestimated idea of \u200b\u200blosing weight. <3> The social difficulties. <4> The high anxiety. <5> The fear of malnutrition.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-86667507f3c34383b6300e3a87973b57", "input": "Question: At what age does gender identity develop ?: \n Options: <1> Shortly after birth. <2> Between 2 and 4 years. <3> Between 5 and 7 years old. <4> Between 13 and 14 years old. <5> At puberty.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-60ca6f203e194b459a590edf88775732", "input": "Question: A lack of interest in carrying out sexual relations or behavior in general is, more properly: \n Options: <1> Sexual aversion <2> Lack of sexual desire or inhibited sexual desire. <3> Impotence or anorgasmia. <4> Excitation disorder. <5> Orgasmic dysfunction", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-070144a5e46f43eda96605f2021beb85", "input": "Question: The main techniques in Social Skills Training for people with schizophrenia include modeling, behavior testing and feedback. But what other techniques are recommended ?: \n Options: <1> Relaxation techniques. <2> Targeted discussion techniques and the nominal group technique (TGN). <3> Techniques of instigation (Prompting) and lecturing (Coaching). <4> Biofeedback techniques. <5> Mindfulness techniques.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0f6053a5417f478ebcd99bfced3ecc8b", "input": "Question: What causal factors are particularly relevant in female anorgasmia ?: \n Options: <1> The hereditary factors. <2> The psychological factors. <3> The organic factors. <4> The environmental factors. <5> The consumption of substances.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ff42697211f542268d7afaa57ea9f181", "input": "Question: A person who does not have schizophrenia, or a mood disorder with psychotic symptoms, but who exhibits a deep pattern of social detachment and a limited range of emotional expression in interpersonal situations (eg, enjoyment with few activities or is indifferent to the praise or criticism), presents more likely: \n Options: <1> A delusional disorder <2> A social phobia <3> A schizoid personality disorder. <4> A disorder of depersonalization. <5> A Korsakoff syndrome.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-283b417d4a82401591f52628f07038fe", "input": "Question: In what disorder does the individual transgress the established social norms, through fraudulent or illegal behaviors, to the weight of knowing well the moral and legal sense of his actions but not putting them into practice ?: \n Options: <1> The delusional disorder. <2> The Kleine-Levin syndrome. <3> Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. <4> The antisocial personality disorder. <5> Bipolar disorder type II.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5ead7ddfc31445b986a747adbf891570", "input": "Question: In which personality disorder can the individual have unfounded and recurrent suspicions about the fidelity of the couple, as well as having doubts about the loyalty or honesty of the friends or acquaintances ?: \n Options: <1> In the celotypic personality disorder. <2> In delusional personality disorder. <3> In the dependent personality disorder. <4> In the paranoid personality disorder. <5> In narcissistic personality disorder.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d849c38527ad440b844ffb22f4ba60f5", "input": "Question: The symptoms of excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations describe: \n Options: <1> Simple schizophrenia <2> Refractory insomnia. <3> Narcolepsy <4> The conversion disorder. <5> Cryptoamnesia", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3427c8e045b543d1ad22dd8c2ae068b9", "input": "Question: The interruption of the naso-oral airflow accompanied by muscular respiratory efforts that are not sufficient to open the upper airways, constitutes: \n Options: <1> The main side effect of electroshock. <2> A symptom of the heroin withdrawal syndrome. <3> An effect of the amnestic syndrome. <4> The apneic episode <5> The acute phase of social phobia.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-52cbbb8bbc694244ad8f10c399ceb4a0", "input": "Question: The central feature of phobic disorders is: \n Options: <1> Fear but not avoidance of the situation. <2> The avoidance of the situation, but not the fear of it. <3> That fear and avoidance are associated with more or less specific stimuli. <4> That fear is not associated with specific stimuli. <5> That the adult who suffers from this disorder is not aware that his fear is excessive and irrational.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5ba8b9f1083d4d8f85cba9b0bc728f13", "input": "Question: A general pattern of social and interpersonal deficits associated with acute distress and a reduced capacity for personal relationships, as well as cognitive or perceptual distortions and behavioral eccentricities, beginning at the beginning of adulthood, refers to a personality disorder: \n Options: <1> Schizoid. <2> Schizotypic <3> Antisocial. <4> Limit. <5> Paranoid", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e9ddf08f621d4b1d86e2698996c58a2d", "input": "Question: The anxiety disorder that according to studies with monozygotic and dizygotic twins seems less influenced by genetic factors is: \n Options: <1> The generalized anxiety. <2> Panic disorder (or distress) <3> The phobias <4> Obsessive-compulsive disorder <5> Factitious disorder", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-73068c4a4c814663b1522e6c035ad49d", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the manifestations or clinical subtypes is more frequent in the case of obsessive-compulsive disorder: \n Options: <1> Verification compulsions. <2> The obsessive slowness (perform activities such as dressing or showering in an obsessively slow manner). <3> The compulsions of cleaning / washing. <4> The compulsions of touching (for example, all corners). <5> The compulsions referred to religion (especially pray).", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5f74e33c52c141369be4e4cbe272465d", "input": "Question: In obsessive-compulsive disorder the compulsions: \n Options: <1> They do not cause discomfort to the individual. <2> They do not take long to complete (less than an hour a day). <3> These are behaviors or mental acts that are realistically connected to the objective of neutralizing the feared situation. <4> They are behaviors to mental acts whose objective is to prevent or reduce anxiety. <5> They are independent of the type of obsession suffered.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3ffe0b71192143d39b98ae1cd002737d", "input": "Question: Social phobia is a problem: \n Options: <1> Infrequent in the general population (less than 1%). <2> More frequent among the male population than in the female population. <3> More frequent among the female population than the male population. <4> That is given equally in both sexes. <5> More frequent after the 25 years than before that age.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-05e99a226d1941dab314a3b8960eac65", "input": "Question: Point out which of the following is more clearly a positive symptom of schizophrenia: \n Options: <1> The flat or dull affection. <2> The poverty of language. <3> The associability. <4> Hallucinations <5> The bulimia.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-18d4895b4fc742eeab9c049b461b2c12", "input": "Question: The epidemiology of schizophrenia reflects that: \n Options: <1> 0.1% of the general population suffers from this disorder and that percentage increases by 50% among first-degree relatives affected by schizophrenia. <2> 1% of the general population suffers from this disorder and that percentage increases by 10% among first-degree relatives affected by schizophrenia. <3> 3% of the general population is affected by this disorder without being influenced by relatives who suffer from it. <4> 5% of the general population is affected by this disorder without being influenced by relatives who suffer from it. <5> Epidemiology varies between 5% and 10% according to cultures.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c6025e44882a4f44bc1a26c3269f3e52", "input": "Question: What is the main diagnostic characteristic of a Bipolar I Disorder ?: \n Options: <1> A disorder in which there is or has been an episode of mania. <2> A disorder in which there is or has been an episode of mania or hypomania. <3> A disorder in which there is or has been an episode of hypomania. <4> A disorder in which cycles of mania and psychosis alternate. <5> A disorder in which cycles of hypomania and depression alternate.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-02eb0474467943b7a1032287f65228b9", "input": "Question: How is the recovery of depression operationalized? (eg, Thase, 2003, APA, 2000): \n Options: <1> Reduction of more than 50% of symptoms from the baseline. <2> Reduction of symptoms by more than 75% from the baseline. <3> A score greater than 70 on the Global Activity Assessment Scale (EEAG). <4> Cessation of significant symptoms maintained for at least 6 months and a return to normal functioning. <5> Cessation of significant symptoms for at least the last two months.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-bfa6a789779049ebbd77f630f470fbff", "input": "Question: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the epidemiology of mood disorders ?: \n Options: <1> Bipolar disorders account for 25-30% of all mood disorders. <2> The average duration of a depressive episode is usually about 2-3 months. <3> The percentage of relapses of depression throughout life is estimated at 75%. <4> The risk of suicide in depressive disorder is greater than bipolar disorder. <5> 50% or more of the history of bipolar disorder is found in the families of patients with depression.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d239e0a87b23472eac0ef846fa14b71d", "input": "Question: What is the factor, among the following, that has shown a greater ability to predict a bipolar disorder ?: \n Options: <1> Have a serious personality disorder <2> Be under 24 years old and be male. <3> Pregnancy. <4> Consumption of alcohol and / or substances. <5> Having a family history of having suffered the disorder.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-dacca2e356584f319ba4be5044afd1fa", "input": "Question: What is the definition of a fast cycler ?: \n Options: <1> The presence of at least four episodes of mood (depressive, manic, or hypomanic) in a period of 12 months. <2> The presence of at least 6 episodes of mood in a period of 6 months. <3> The change from one mood episode to another in a period less than 48 hours. <4> The presence of more than two episodes of mania or hypomania detectable in a month. <5> Patients with Bipolar Disorder I or II with extreme hyperreactivity to minimal stressors.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8f3a42c73eb3421db130970261345e3e", "input": "Question: The concept of latent scheme in the cognitive theory of depression by Aaron Beck means that they are cognitive schemes: \n Options: <1> Of which the individual is not aware. <2> That directly influence the mood in a continuous but subtle way. <3> They are not permanently activated in vulnerable individuals and are activated only in the face of specific stressors. <4> They are active permanently but with an intensity that increases in each relapse or recurrence. <5> That do not require mental effort for its activation.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b514e18d49694479ac01c61fbeec0c4d", "input": "Question: The state of adaptation characterized by the diminution of the response to the same amount of drug or the need for a higher dose to cause the same degree of pharmacological effect, defines: \n Options: <1> The adaptation to a drug. <2> The route of administration. <3> Intoxication <4> Tolerance to a drug <5> Addictive behavior", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f8138ca15e2c46fc819ed30bbed67186", "input": "Question: According to the results studies, when the Exposure technique is being applied, it must be taken into account that massive and prolonged exposure produces: \n Options: <1> Worst immediate results than spaced exposure. <2> Better immediate results than exposure spaced. <3> There are no differences in results regarding the type of exposure. <4> Worst immediate results if done in more than a day. <5> Best immediate results only in patients with depression.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-84f31080c4ef45088d9b93b2be052dbd", "input": "Question: One of the main concepts of Acceptance and Commitment Therapy is: \n Options: <1> The relativization of the context. <2> The underlying reason. <3> The experiential avoidance. <4> The resistance to change. <5> Emotional vulnerability", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-98d0014bdc0242a782510e4d14599f89", "input": "Question: What is the therapeutic objective of Covert Sensitization ?: \n Options: <1> Develop an attraction response to a stimulus that was previously a source of aversion. <2> Increase the tolerance to an aversive stimulus and reduce the emotional activation it produces. <3> Postpone immediate positive reinforcers of undesirable behaviors. <4> Develop an aversion response to a stimulus that was previously a source of attraction. <5> Mentally reinforce successful trials aimed at achieving objective behavior.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c5c5c49d6732455cb7ce827f8f8c75d6", "input": "Question: In Beck Cognitive Therapy, automatic thoughts are considered: \n Options: <1> A scheme. <2> A cognitive process <3> An action guide <4> An interference <5> A cognitive product.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7a792c6917ae4d4080a992e42a1548f5", "input": "Question: Which of the following processes would be responsible for the results that are achieved through mindfulness meditation ?: \n Options: <1> Change the contents of the mind. <2> Change the relationship with the contents of the mind. <3> Remove the spectator's role from the contents of the mind. <4> Judging the contents of the mind. <5> Merge with the contents of the mind.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f95f0315850542e2aab6342c26b12747", "input": "Question: Among the techniques most used in Beck's Cognitive Therapy to identify or detect cognitive schemes is: \n Options: <1> The technique of the descending arrow. <2> To promote a new image. <3> The repetition of goals. <4> The self-instructions <5> The behavioral experiment.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e3c89459c1c54fea8b2820b9baaa1a6d", "input": "Question: According to Kazdin, what is the meaning of the significant increase in the intensity or frequency of a behavior when an extinction program is applied to said behavior ?: \n Options: <1> Burst of extinction. <2> Spontaneous recovery <3> Graduation of extinction. <4> Efficacy of extinction. <5> Positive punishment", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-54333ec605ac4a5dae8da595e2ad8c01", "input": "Question: In its origins, the technique of Systematic Desensitization was explained from: \n Options: <1> Operant conditioning. <2> Conditioning in a single trial. <3> Classical conditioning. <4> Vicar conditioning. <5> Instrumental conditioning.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c6e9dd63a98b486fa54f685f40f20bb5", "input": "Question: The research strategy in psychotherapy consisting of comparing all the components of one treatment with another in which one of the components of said treatment is eliminated, is known as: \n Options: <1> Unique case design. <2> Dismantling. <3> Process study <4> Standardization of treatments. <5> Placebo design", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8751b6a3b56a42129dc854c84b5051bc", "input": "Question: In studies that use meta-analysis for the systematic review of the results of psychotherapies, which is the most used dependent variable? : \n Options: <1> The number of depressive symptoms. <2> The size of the effect. <3> The systematized observation of the therapist. <4> The number of patients that has been cured. <5> The expectations of the patient.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2217e0243f514ff786d2394c0ed45660", "input": "Question: What is the correct statement about paradoxical interventions ?: \n Options: <1> They can include the prescription of no change. <2> They consist in discussing with the patient the paradoxical attitude with respect to change. <3> Its origin is Systemic Therapy. <4> They have been included by psychodynamic psychotherapy to achieve greater brevity. <5> They are contraindicated in cases of resistance.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0d08c6ed08754678b0f2bbd7a7f1eab2", "input": "Question: What is the approach proposed by the relationship model between therapist and client as expert to expert ?: \n Options: <1> The behavioral model. <2> The constructivist perspective <3> The psychoanalysis. <4> The strategic school. <5> The therapy centered on the client.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-6de5b76bd42e4ec78b3534ed58ecb0d8", "input": "Question: In the context of the analysis of the factors that influence the outcome of psychotherapy, state which of the following can be considered a specific (technical) factor (versus other types of factors, such as, for example, extra-therapeutic change, common factors): \n Options: <1> Placebo effect. <2> Promote successful experiences in the course of therapy. <3> Establishment of a relationship of trust. <4> Use of empathy. <5> The economy of chips.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-80b64736bba34f6c9453bc1ee5be0e2e", "input": "Question: What is the approach that studies self-concept through polarities ?: \n Options: <1> The transactional analysis. <2> Aversive therapy. <3> Self-control <4> Gestalt therapy. <5> The concealed conditioning.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-220826158463459a838e70ff040668d4", "input": "Question: One of the basic components that usually include all Social Skills Training programs is: \n Options: <1> Rational Emotive Imagination. <2> Control techniques stimulate. <3> Perspective shot <4> Behavior test. <5> Contracts of contingencies.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e78df78797dc4aaa8952f86e954d0fe7", "input": "Question: Point out which of the following statements, regarding night terrors in childhood, is correct: \n Options: <1> Usually the episode occurs in the last third of the night's sleep. <2> Usually, the child remembers the episode. <3> The symptoms show the existence of a somatic disorder. <4> There is a relative lack of response to other people's attempts to awaken it. <5> The subject has a quick access to the orientation and alert.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e9519b9eb82343f5adddbb558a714ccc", "input": "Question: Indicate which of the following statements is correct regarding depression: \n Options: <1> In childhood, there is a lower prevalence of dysthymia than of major depression. <2> The prevalence of dysthymia in childhood is higher in girls than in boys. <3> Anhedonia is a minor symptom of depression in childhood and adolescence. <4> Neuroendocrine abnormalities are one of the most important internal factors in the genesis of childhood depression. <5> The prevalence of bipolar disorders is lower in childhood than in adulthood.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-9ef71445ff754a6d99e875ecc7abe6e7", "input": "Question: The disorder characterized by a behavioral pattern that violates the basic rights of others or the main rules or social rules of the subject's age is called: \n Options: <1> Attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity. <2> Defiant negativist disorder <3> Dissocial disorder. <4> Generalized development issue. <5> Learning disorder.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-e0917318b8ba479092f908a066d81102", "input": "Question: With which of the following disorders does nocturnal enuresis have a higher comorbidity ?: \n Options: <1> Nightmares. <2> Attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity. <3> Insomnia. <4> Night Bruxism. <5> Night terrors.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f60ad3688bb0430a833919b39347aba3", "input": "Question: What parasomnia is most common in childhood ?: \n Options: <1> Night terrors. <2> Nightmares. <3> REM sleep behavior disorder. <4> Restless legs syndrome. <5> Somnambulism.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-79e3cf256b54488d8c2fa985991fac63", "input": "Question: In what phase or phases of the dream are the night terrors ?: \n Options: <1> In the phases of deep slow sleep (phases 3 and 4). <2> In phase 2 <3> In REM sleep. <4> In phase 1 <5> They can occur indistinctly at any stage of the dream.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-7c3b2542411f4d57bca1b5091999356a", "input": "Question: Retentive encopresis is characterized by: \n Options: <1> Absence of constipation <2> Being significantly more frequent than non-retentive encopresis. <3> Decreased rectal accommodation. <4> Being associated with alterations in the perception of rectal distension. <5> Decrease in the contractile capacity of the external anal sphincter.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a44b4967c05640268d949c15a089bf1e", "input": "Question: Point out which of the following is a characteristic of childhood phobias: \n Options: <1> They can not be easily eliminated. <2> They are specific to a certain age. <3> They are short-lived. <4> They do not interfere with the child's daily life. <5> They are related to objectively dangerous stimuli.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-65fde7afe32e40fdbe60ee7a8de332e6", "input": "Question: Hypokalemia is a physiological symptom that can typically occur: \n Options: <1> In sleep disorders. <2> In addictions. <3> In anorexia nervosa. <4> In bulimia but not in anorexia nervosa. <5> In disorders of attention deficit and disturbing behavior.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-66048a6a87b84bdcaf70ca8ea4e36e1e", "input": "Question: Childhood disintegrative disorder is characterized by: \n Options: <1> A seemingly normal development during at least the first two years of life. <2> Present only in the female sex. <3> Do not affect the intellectual capacity of people who suffer from it. <4> Does not affect the communication skills of the person. <5> A developmental delay evident from birth.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-b95e51e884fe4909acd34bd236c971fb", "input": "Question: What is the fundamental goal of cognitive therapy for auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia ?: \n Options: <1> Completely eliminate the appearance of auditory hallucinations. <2> Avoid listening to hallucinations and avoid situations that provoke them. <3> Getting no one to realize that the person is having hallucinations. <4> Reduce beliefs about omnipotence, malevolence, benevolence, and obedience, regarding voices. <5> Modify the beliefs they have about schizophrenia and medication.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cf1dc410674f4fbe8021f4cd589421f8", "input": "Question: The use of psychoeducation in schizophrenia now adopts a prosthetic criterion instead of issuing disqualification judgments. What goal should psychoeducation be set to follow this principle ?: \n Options: <1> It is intended that the person discovers everything that he will never be able to do due to his abilities. <2> The person is instructed to avoid making decisions for himself because his disorder prevents him from doing so. <3> It is intended that the person discover the best way to make their life but accepting and taking into account their abilities. <4> He tries to concentrate all his efforts is his strengths and ignore his disabilities. <5> The person is instructed about the fact that he can only achieve his goals if he takes the medication and does psychotherapy.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5e6660d355ad4ce884ac01d3eb3afa62", "input": "Question: Patients with schizophrenia usually present the so-called interactive imbalance that is expressed in the conversation with an exaggerated response latency, minimal speech or lack of participation in it. What is the most appropriate method to evaluate the patient and decide if it is convenient to perform a Social skills training ?: \n Options: <1> Through scales of intelligence. <2> Through self-report techniques: scales of social functioning. <3> By measuring electrodermal activity and other psychophysiological measures. <4> Through behavioral testing in simulated situations. <5> Through questionnaires and inventories of personality traits.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ce54d798b5dc45a2b4e503e205ef2baa", "input": "Question: The focus therapy for auditory hallucinations of Betall, Haddock and Slade (1994) uses different therapeutic strategies. Which of the following options is NOT considered in the targeting therapy model ?: \n Options: <1> The patient is asked to fix and describe the physical characteristics of their voices (for example, tone, intensity, location). <2> The patient is asked to observe the relationship between the content of hallucinations and current concerns. <3> The patient is asked to observe the relationship between the content of the hallucinations and their life experiences. <4> The patient is asked to neutralize the content of their voices by focusing on their physiological proprioceptive sensations. <5> You are asked to observe your reactions to the voices and, in particular, to your beliefs about them.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-f6e3005e84fc43069044af0ea39542ab", "input": "Question: The evaluation of the emotion expressed is useful in the context of the psychological treatment of schizophrenia. But from what sphere is the evaluation of the expressed emotion usually part ?: \n Options: <1> Of the evaluation of symptoms. <2> From the evaluation of the insight. <3> Of the cognitive evaluation. <4> Of the family evaluation. <5> Of the rational-emotive evaluation.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-cbd9105418434b71a920f60766017ccb", "input": "Question: The integral psychological therapy (IPT) of Brenner et al. (1992) consists of different subprograms. Which of these subprograms does NOT belong to such therapy ?: \n Options: <1> Cognitive differentiation <2> Solution of interpersonal problems. <3> Social perception. <4> Social skills. <5> Management and control of stress.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-ff491305dffc4866b8eb5f6c7603a4c0", "input": "Question: One of the most important and innovative contributions of behavioral dialectic therapy in the treatment of borderline personality disorder (BPD) is: \n Options: <1> The integration of the psychodynamic perspective and the behavioral perspective. <2> The incorporation of group therapy. <3> The introduction of written material for patients to support therapy. <4> The emphasis on acceptance and validation as a prerequisite for achieving change. <5> The treatment of patients with BPD in the context of family therapy.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-de356df769494c5f872c358bdaa65dd4", "input": "Question: The therapeutic model that introduces mindfulness training as part of the therapeutic strategies to be used for personality disorders is: \n Options: <1> Dialectical behavioral therapy. <2> Interpersonal therapy <3> Mentalization therapy <4> The iconic therapy. <5> Cognitive therapy", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-0ec9b82f61454ef98df487b1624d96f2", "input": "Question: Benjamin's Reconstructive Interpersonal Therapy includes as one of the most relevant aspects in the treatment of personality disorders: \n Options: <1> Cognitive therapy <2> Group therapy <3> Exposure therapy <4> The solution of emotional problems. <5> The structural analysis of social behavior.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2af28da10238490da1623fb0948a7808", "input": "Question: Point out the correct answer regarding the treatment of schizotypal personality disorder: \n Options: <1> The treatment program with the most empirical support for this disorder is therapy based on mentalization. <2> Therapeutic strategies that are used for schizophrenia may be useful, given the remarkable relationship between two clinical entities. <3> The focus of treatment is the impulsivity characteristic of this disorder. <4> The program that has received the most empirical support for this disorder is behavioral dialectical therapy. <5> For the treatment of this disorder therapeutic strategies that apply to obsessive-compulsive disorder are used.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-2b3fbcf036654c77925b24dd8e5868cb", "input": "Question: Along with Behavioral Cognitive Therapy, what other therapeutic approach has consistently shown to be an effective treatment for bulimia nervosa ?: \n Options: <1> Interpersonal psychotherapy <2> Mentalization therapy <3> The exposure therapy in imagination. <4> The economy of chips. <5> The therapy of schemes.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-5dcb85ebe0d44377865b891aa753b9da", "input": "Question: Regarding Nervous Anorexia, it can be stated that: \n Options: <1> Even if the weight is stabilized, the patients still present a considerable psychopathology. <2> The suicide rate is 15%. <3> The most frequent comorbid symptoms are obsessive. <4> The purgatives have less psychopathological severity than the restrictive ones. <5> The psychopharmacological treatment of choice is the pharmacological treatment by itself.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-c9d6e8da44d4466dadf0ee0d84c59407", "input": "Question: What is the cognitive-educational program of Barsky and collaborators for the treatment of hypochondria ?: \n Options: <1> In exposing themselves to the vision of photographs or videos about illnesses and visits to patients and hospitals. <2> In learning about the perception of physical symptoms and about the psychological factors that amplify somatic discomfort. <3> In becoming aware of the role of somatic symptoms as mechanisms of manifestation of underlying conflicts. <4> In identifying family functioning patterns that reinforce symptomatic behavior. <5> In repeatedly providing reassuring medical explanations about physical symptoms.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-faf375e7ad224bcaa61041efe089c2b3", "input": "Question: What procedure is part of the cognitive-behavioral intervention program for hypochondria proposed by Warwick and Salkovskis ?: \n Options: <1> The systematic desensitization in imagination to extinguish the fear of interoceptive sensations. <2> The stopping of thought to block intrusive thoughts about the disease. <3> The training in mindfulness to reduce the appearance of annoying bodily sensations. <4> The prevention of response to reduce body checking behaviors and search for reassuring information. <5> The resolution of the underlying conflicts related to guilt and dependency needs.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-a5fab310902c464ca0362ae2812037e2", "input": "Question: Which procedure is NOT part of the cognitive-behavioral intervention program for body dysmorphic disorder of Rosen et al ?: \n Options: <1> Psychoeducation <2> Exposition. <3> Training in problem solving. <4> Cognitive restructuring. <5> Response prevention.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-848cb949cf644e28ab2a32bf7ca6dd9f", "input": "Question: Which authors is the most well-known relapse prevention model with good empirical support in alcoholism ?: \n Options: <1> Marlatt and Gordon. <2> Miller and Rollnick. <3> Beck and Ellis. <4> Sobell and Sobell. <5> Hunt and Arzin.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8d0eab668726480ea737613b5f9151ef", "input": "Question: Which of the following formal aspects of the therapeutic style are part of the motivational interview ?: \n Options: <1> Take a directive role during therapy. <2> Promote empathy. <3> Use coercive strategies. <4> Use diagnostic labels. <5> Favor discussions to activate resistances.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-99fa32585e5f469a8e378539a1342791", "input": "Question: The Problem Solving Therapy for depression includes within its proposals: \n Options: <1> Train relaxation responses in the patient as a means to improve reflection and the search for solutions. <2> Encourage the patient to take positive actions, whatever they may be, even if they are not aimed at solving any specific problem. <3> Train social skills strategies that help solve important problems. <4> Look for problems in your childhood and adolescence that may be having an impact on your current depression. <5> Minimize the impact of depressive symptoms on attempts to solve.", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1f9ae84dfd164a9b9b9ad59731593a02", "input": "Question: With respect to effective psychological treatments for depression, it can be stated that: \n Options: <1> They are more expensive treatments (in terms of efficiency) than psychotropic drugs. <2> They have been proposed by the NICE guide (National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence) as the second treatment of choice for those cases in which the drugs have not been shown to be effective. <3> In general, those psychological treatments that use active methodologies, limited in time and structured, tend to be more effective. <4> They generate a similar number of dropouts than pharmacological therapy. <5> They generate a higher level of stigma than pharmacological therapies.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-efe6eecd099249b19ee5212a65ceb6ba", "input": "Question: Point out the correct answer regarding therapy for Rehm's depression: \n Options: <1> It focuses on three processes: self-tracking, self-esteem and self-reinforcement. <2> It has no empirical evidence to be considered well-established treatment. <3> Each of its components separately have been shown to be as effective as the complete treatment. <4> It presents a strong cognitive component. <5> It has been shown superior to interpersonal therapy and problem solving.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-db4d03ee89474098ac9c693ac3176264", "input": "Question: With respect to the treatment of depression and, in particular, the comparative efficacy between psychological treatments (especially cognitive-behavioral therapy) and pharmacological treatments, it can be stated that, in general: \n Options: <1> Drugs for depression are more effective in patients with severe depression than psychological treatments. <2> Drugs for depression provide a faster improvement response than psychological treatments. <3> Drugs for depression have a long-term relapse prevention effect similar to psychological treatments. <4> Drugs for depression have a similar level of side effects as psychological treatments. <5> The drugs for depression make psychological therapy more effective compared to its application without medication.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-be75939d285142fb99032ed163ad575b", "input": "Question: With respect to the pharmacological treatment for depression, it can be stated that: \n Options: <1> The side effects of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), such as fluoxetine, are zero. <2> Treatments with SSRIs are more effective than those using cyclic antidepressants. <3> In general, pharmacological treatments should not be combined with psychological treatments. <4> They have been shown to be effective for 50% of patients, while the efficacy of placebo would be of the order of 30%. <5> Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) have been shown to be superior to other antidepressants in the treatment of severe depression.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-aafa61655c564094ae0d89df3a97b4ef", "input": "Question: Point out the correct answer. Lithium salts are used to treat: \n Options: <1> The affective symptoms of schizophrenia. <2> The psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia. <3> As a maintenance treatment for bipolar patients with a history of mania. <4> Depressive episodes of bipolar disorder, but not manic episodes. <5> In a drug in disuse and not recommended in the current clinical guidelines.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-22a827fb692c4942b00b0e577367f71e", "input": "Question: Which of the following drugs is NOT used for the treatment of psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia: \n Options: <1> Olanzapine (Zyprexa). <2> Risperidone (Risperdal). <3> Aripiprazole (Abilify) <4> Clozapine (Leponex). <5> Venlafaxine (Dobupal, Vandral).", "output": [ "5" ] }, { "id": "task1431-960f4f1619264174aa041dd308a84c82", "input": "Question: Which of the following criteria is a predictor of long-term success in exposure therapy to phobic disorders ?: \n Options: <1> Let the intensity of fear be intermittent. <2> That the phobia is of recent appearance. <3> That improvement occurs after the first exhibitions. <4> That there is previous experience of psychological treatment. <5> Let the patient be aware of the irravability of their fears.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-8583be2ac59743cf8210a2ca37650d71", "input": "Question: In the training in HHSS applied to social phobia, modeling is used for the learning of certain skills. The chosen model must be: \n Options: <1> Very competent and keep that competition constant throughout the training. <2> Be relatively competent (a little more than the subject you train) and increase the competition throughout the training. <3> Be very competent and decrease your competence. <4> Being incompetent so that the patient can identify with him. <5> Must be a little more competent than the patient and not progress so that as the learning progresses the patient will overcome and increase their motivation.", "output": [ "2" ] }, { "id": "task1431-1f761608feec4098972d7dadd02b4e04", "input": "Question: To which of the following variables have the best therapeutic results been associated in Social Phobia ?: \n Options: <1> Training in HHSS. <2> Family support. <3> Fulfillment of the tasks of exposure between sessions. <4> Previous experience in psychotherapy. <5> Absence of physiological symptoms.", "output": [ "3" ] }, { "id": "task1431-3536d3b6de9e4de0987b5ddb5887ba38", "input": "Question: For what purpose do Foa and Rothbaum (1998) propose the Reformulated Narrative of Trauma in its proposed intervention in PTSD ?: \n Options: <1> Identify the activating stimuli of the symptoms. <2> Reduce the frequency of intrusive images. <3> Provide information that belies the beliefs related to the trauma. <4> Help to remember the experience so that it can be assimilated into the person's autobiographical memory. <5> Direct the patient's full attention from his thoughts to the external world.", "output": [ "4" ] }, { "id": "task1431-d936abee6a2642b18273b266da281555", "input": "Question: Cognitive techniques do not seem to enhance the effect of exposure in vivo in most specific phobias, with the possible exception of: \n Options: <1> The claustrophobia and the phobia of heights. <2> Phobia to the dark. <3> Water phobia <4> Phobia to drive. <5> Phobia to the snakes.", "output": [ "1" ] }, { "id": "task1431-16e486bfd3f5474d97170dbf3213bbd1", "input": "Question: The main utility of behavioral experiments in the treatment of panic disorder is: \n Options: <1> Exemplify the psychoeducational content. <2> Facilitate the acceptance of the treatment. <3> Test dysfunctional beliefs about the consequences of certain bodily sensations. <4> Demonstrate that the anxiety experienced by the patient in situations is lower than anticipated. <5> Model the applied practice of relaxation.", "output": [ "3" ] } ], "Instance License": [ "MIT" ] }